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2017 ‫امتحان الكفاءه الجامعيه لعام‬

‫اسئله متوقعه للمستوى الدقيق في تخصص هندسه البرمجيات‬

‫كليه االمير الحسين بن عبدهللا الثاني لتكنولوجيا المعلومات‬
‫قسم هندسه البرمجيات‬

1. Which question no longer concerns the modern software engineer?

A) Why does computer hardware cost so much?

B) Why does software take a long time to finish?

C) Why does it cost so much to develop a piece of software?

D) Why can’t software errors be removed from products prior to delivery?

2. Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies used for other
engineering artifacts

A) True

B) False

3. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because

A) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments

B) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often

C) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions

D) Software spare parts become harder to order

4. WebApps are a mixture of print publishing and software development, making their development
outside the realm of software engineering practice.

A) True

B) False

5. There are no real differences between creating WebApps and MobileApps.

A) True

B) False

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6. In its simplest form an external computing device may access cloud data services using a web
browser.

A) True

B) False

7. Product line software development depends the reuse of existing software components to provide
software engineering leverage.

A) True

B) False

8. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?

A) Process

B) Manufacturing

C) Methods

D) Tools

9. Software engineering umbrella activities are only applied during the initial phases of software
development projects.

A) True

B) False

10. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?

A) communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment

B) communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing

C) analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance

D) analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

11. Planning ahead for software reuse reduces the cost and increases the value of the systems into
which they are incorporated.

A) True

B) False

12. The essence of software engineering practice might be described as understand the problem, plan a
solution, carry out the plan, and examine the result for accuracy.

A) True

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B) False

13. In agile process models the only deliverable work product is the working program.

A) True

B) False

14. A most software development projects are initiated to try to meet some business need.

A) True

B) False

15. In general software only succeeds if its behavior is consistent with the objectives of its designers.

A) True

B) False

16. Which of the following are recognized process flow types?

A) Concurrent process flow

B) Iterative process flow

C) Linear process flow

D) Spiral process flow

E) both b and c

17. The communication activity is best handled for small projects using six distinct actions (inception,
elicitation, elaboration, negotiation, specification, validation).

A) True

B) False

18. A good software development team always uses the same task set for every project to insure high
quality work products

A) True

B) False

19. Software processes can be constructed out of pre-existing software patterns to best meet the needs
of a software project.

A) True

B) False

20. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?

A) SEI

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B) SPICE

C) ISO 9000

D) ISO 9001

E) both b and d

21. The waterfall model of software development is

A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

B) A good approach when a working program is required quickly.

C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.

D) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.

22. The incremental model of software development is

A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

B) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.

C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.

D) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.

23. Evolutionary software process models

A) Are iterative in nature.

B) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes.

C) Do not generally produce throwaway systems.

D) All of the above.

24. The prototyping model of software development is

A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.

B) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

C) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.

D) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

25. The spiral model of software development

A) Ends with the delivery of the software product.

B) Is more chaotic than the incremental model.

C) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration.

D) All of the above.

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26. The concurrent development model is

A) Another name for concurrent engineering.

B) Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions.

C) Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.

D) Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.

E) Both a and b

27. The component-based development model is

A) Only appropriate for computer hardware design.

B) Not able to support the development of reusable components.

C) Dependent on object technologies for support.

D) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics.

28. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to

A) Define the specification for computer-based systems.

B) Develop defect free computer-based systems.

C) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems.

D) All of the above.

29. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software
development?

A) Inception phase

B) Elaboration phase

C) Construction phase

D) Validation phase

30. Which of these is not a characteristic of Personal Software Process?

A) Emphasizes personal measurement of work product.

B) Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager.

C) Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling.

D) Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products.

31. Which of these are objectives of Team Software Process?

A) Accelerate software process improvement

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B) Allow better time management by highly trained professionals

C) Build self-directed software teams

D) Show managers how to reduce costs and sustain quality

E) Both b and c

32. Process technology tools allow software organizations to compress schedules by skipping
unimportant activities.

A) True

B) False

33. It is generally accepted that one cannot have weak software processes and create high quality end
products.

A) True

B) False

34. Agility is nothing more than the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to change.

A) True

B) False

35. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process?

A) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing

B) Only essential work products are produced

C) Process allows team to streamline tasks

D) Uses incremental product delivery strategy

36. How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?

A) Requirements gathering must be conducted very carefully

B) Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place

C) Software increments must be delivered in short time periods

D) Software processes must adapt to changes incrementally

E) Both c and d

37. In agile software processes the highest priorities is to satisfy the customer through early and
continuous delivery of valuable software.

A) True

B) False

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38. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today
than worry about features that might be needed in the future.

A) True

B) False

39. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming (XP) process model?

A) analysis, design, coding, testing

B) planning, analysis, design, coding

C) planning, analysis, coding, testing

D) planning, design, coding, testing

40. All agile process models conform to a greater or lesser degree to the principles stated in the
“Manifesto for Agile Software Development”.

A) True

B) False

41. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each team member at each daily Scrum
meeting?

A) What did you do since the last meeting?

B) What obstacles are you creating?

C) What is the cause of the problem you are encountering?

D) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting?

42. The Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM) suggests a philosophy that is based on the
Pareto principle (80% of the application can be delivered in 20% of the time required to build the
complete application).

A) True

B) False

43. Agile Modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks?

A) Analysis

B) Design

C) Coding

D) Testing

E) Both a and b

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44. Agile Unified Process uses the classic UP phased activities (inception, elaboration, construction,
transition) to help the team visualize the overall process flow.

A) True

B) False

45. Human aspects of software engineering are not relevant in today’s agile process models.

A) True

B) False

46. Which of the following is not an important trait of an effective software engineer?

A) Attentive to detail

B) Brutally honest

C) Follows process rule dogmatically

D) Resilient under pressure

47. Group communication and collaboration are as important as the technical skills of an individual team
member to the success of a team.

A) True

B) False

48. Teams with diversity in the individual team member skill sets tend to be more effective than teams
without this diversity.

A) True

B) False

49. Which of the following can contribute to team toxicity?

A) Frenzied work atmosphere

B) Inadequate budget

C) Poorly coordinated software process

D) Unclear definition of team roles

E) a, b, d

50. Software engineering team structure is independent of problem complexity and size of the expected
software products.

A) True

B) False

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51. Agile teams are allowed to self-organize and make their own technical decisions.

A) True

B) False

52. In XP a metaphor is used as a device to facilitate communications among customers, team members,
and managers?

A) True

B) False

53. Using an established social media platform negates the need to be concerned about privacy or
security.

A) True

B) False

54. Use of cloud services can speed up information sharing among software team members?

A) True

B) False

55. In collaborative development environments, metrics are used to reward and punish team members.

A) True

B) False

56. Which of these factors complicate decision-making by global software teams

A) Complexity of problem

B) Different views of the problem

C) Law of unintended consequences

D) Risk associated with decision

E) All of the above.

57. Software engineering principles have about a three year half-life.

A) True

B) False

58. Which of the following is not one of core principles of software engineering practice?

A) All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler.

B) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.

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C) Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort).

D) Remember that you produce others will consume

59. Every communication activity should have a facilitator to make sure that the customer is not allowed
to dominate the proceedings.

A) True

B) False

60. The agile view of iterative customer communication and collaboration is applicable to all software
engineering practice.

A) True

B) False

61. One reason to involve everyone on the software team in the planning activity is to

A) adjust the granularity of the plan

B) control feature creep

C) get all team members to “sign up” to the plan

D) understand the problem scope

62. Project plans should not be changed once they are adopted by a team.

A) True

B) False

63. Requirements models depict software in which three domains?

A) architecture, interface, component

B) cost, risk, schedule

C) information, function, behavior

D) None of the above

64. The design model should be traceable to the requirements model?

A) True

B) False

65. Teams using agile software practices do not generally create models.

A) True

B) False

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66. Which of the following is not one of the principles of good coding?

A) Create unit tests before you begin coding

B) Create unit tests before you begin coding

C) Refractor the code after you complete the first coding pass

D) Write self-documenting code, not program documentation

67. A successful test I ones that discovers at least one as-yet undiscovered error.

A) True

B) False

68. Which of the following are valid reasons for collecting customer feedback concerning delivered
software?

A) Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment

B) Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes

C) Developers can identify changes to incorporate into next increment

D) All of the above

69. Larger programming teams are always more productive than smaller teams.

A) True

B) False

70. Requirements engineering is a generic process that does not vary from one software project to
another.

A) True

B) False

71. During project inception the intent of the of the tasks are to determine

A) basic problem understanding

B) nature of the solution needed

C) people who want a solution

D) none of the above

E) a, b, c

72. Three things that make requirements elicitation difficult are problems of

A) budgeting

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B) scope

C) understanding

D) volatility

E) b, c, d

73. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.

A) True

B) False

74. It is relatively common for different customers to propose conflicting requirements, each arguing
that his or her version is the right one.

A) True

B) False

75. Which of the following is not one of the context-free questions that would be used during project
inception?

A) What will be the economic benefit from a good solution?

B) Who is behind the request for work?

C) Who will pay for the work?

D) Who will use the solution?

76. Non-functional requirements can be safely ignored in modern software development projects.

A) True

B) False

77. In collaborative requirements gathering the facilitator

A) arranges the meeting place

B) can not be a customer

C) controls the meeting

D) must be an outsider

78. Which of the following is not one of the requirement classifications used in Quality Function
Deployment (QFD)?

A) exciting

B) expected

C) mandatory

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D) normal

79. The work products produced during requirement elicitation will vary depending on the

A) size of the budget.

B) size of the product being built.

C) software process being used.

D) stakeholders needs.

E) both a and b

80. User stories are complete descriptions the user needs and include the non-functional requirements
for a software increment.

A) True

B) False

81. Developers and customers create use-cases to help the software team understand how different
classes of end-users will use functions.

A) True

B) False

82. Use-case actors are always people, never system devices.

A) True

B) False

83. The result of the requirements engineering task is an analysis model that defines which of the
following problem domain(s)?

A) information

B) functional

C) behavioral

D) all of the above

84. Analysis patterns facilitate the transformation of the analysis model into a design model by
suggesting reliable solutions to common problems.

A) True

B) False

85. In agile process models requirements engineering and design activities are interleaved.

A) True

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B) False

86. In win-win negotiation, the customer’s needs are met even though the developer’s need may not be.

A) True

B) False

87. In requirements validation the requirements model is reviewed to ensure its technical feasibility.

A) True

B) False

88. The most common reason for software project failure is lack of functionality.

A) True

B) False

89. Which of these is not an element of a requirements model?

A) Behavioral elements

B) Class-based elements

C) Data elements

D) Scenario-based elements

90. Which of the following is not an objective for building a requirements model?

A) define set of software requirements that can be validated

B) describe customer requirements

C) develop an abbreviated solution for the problem

D) establish basis for software design

91. Object-oriented domain analysis is concerned with the identification and specification of reusable
capabilities within an application domain.

A) True

B) False

92. In structured analysis models focus on the structure of the classes defined for a system along with
their interactions.

A) True

B) False

93. Creation and refinement of use cases if an important part of scenario-based modeling.

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A) True

B) False

94. It is important to consider alternative actor interactions when creating a preliminary use case.

A) True

B) False

95. Brainstorming is one technique that may be used to derive a complete set of use case exceptions.

A) True

B) False

96. In many cases there is no need to create a graphical representation of a usage scenario.

A) True

B) False

97. UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?

A) Behavioral elements

B) Class-based elements

C) Flow-based elements

D) Scenario-based elements

98. UML swimnlane diagrams allow you to represent the flow of activities by showing the actors having
responsibility for creating each data element.

A) True

B) False

99. Which of the following should be considered as candidate objects in a problem space?

A) events

B) people

C) structures

D) all of the above

100. In the grammatical parse of a processing narrative the nouns become object candidates in the
analysis model.

A) True

B) False

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101. Attributes are chosen for an object by examining the problem statement and identifying the
entities that appear to be related.

A) True

B) False

102. Which of the following is not one of the broad categories used to classify operations?

A) computation

B) data manipulation

C) event monitors

D) transformers

103. Collaborators in CRC modeling are those classes needed to fulfill a responsibility on another card.

A) True

B) False

104. Which of the following items does not appear on a CRC card?

A) class collaborators

B) class name

C) class reliability

D) class responsibilities

105. Class responsibilities are defined by

A) its attributes only

B) its collaborators

C) its operations only

D) both its attributes and operations

106. A stereotype is the basis for class reuse in UML modeling.

A) True

B) False

107. An analysis package involves the categorization of analysis model elements into useful groupings.

A) True

B) False

108. The behavior modeling is only used in the analysis of real-time systems.

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A) True

B) False

109. For purposes of behavior modeling an event occurs whenever

A) a state and process exchange information.

B) the system an actor exchange information.

C) two actors exchange information.

D) two objects exchange information.

110. For purposes of behavior modeling a state is any

A) consumer or producer of data.

B) data object hierarchy.

C) observable mode of behavior.

D) well defined process.

111. The state transition diagram

A) depicts relationships between data objects

B) depicts functions that transform the data flow

C) indicates how data are transformed by the system

D) indicates system reactions to external events

112. The UML sequence diagram shows the order in which system events are processed.

A) True

B) False

113. Analysis patterns are discovered, they are not explicitly created.

A) True

B) False

114. It is not possible to justify the time required for mobile app requirements analysis.

A) True

B) False

115. Which is not one of the analysis activities that is used to create a complete analysis model?

A) Configuration analysis

B) Content analysis

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C) Functional analysis

D) Market analysis

116. Content objects are extracted from use cases by examining the scenario description for direct or
indirect content references.

A) True

B) False

117. What are the elements of a WebApp interaction model?

A) activity diagrams, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, interface prototype

B) activity diagrams, collaboration diagrams, sequence diagrams, state diagrams

C) use-cases, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, interface prototype

D) use-cases, sequence diagrams, state diagrams, sequence diagrams

118. UML activity diagrams can be used to represent the user observable functionality delivered by the
WebApp as well as the operations contained in each analysis class.

A) True

B) False

119. Configuration analysis focuses on the architecture of the user’s web browsing environment.

A) True

B) False

120. Which of the following are areas of concern in the design model?

A) architecture

B) data

C) interfaces

D) project scope

E) a, b, c

121. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word

A) accuracy

B) complexity

C) efficiency

D) quality

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122. Which of these are characteristics of a good design?

A) exhibits strong coupling between its modules

B) implements all requirements in the analysis model

C) includes test cases for all components

D) provides a complete picture of the software

E) b and d

123. Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods?

A) configuration management

B) functional component representation

C) quality assessment guidelines

D) refinement heuristics

124. What types of abstraction are used in software design?

A) control

B) data

C) environmental

D) procedural

E) a, b, d

125. Which of the following can be used to represent the architectural design of a piece of software?

A) Dynamic models

B) Functional models

C) Structural models

D) All of the above

126. Design patterns are not applicable to the design of object-oriented software?

A) True

B) False

127. Since modularity is an important design goal it is not possible to have too many modules in a
proposed design.

A) True

B) False

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128. Information hiding makes program maintenance easier by hiding data and procedure from
unaffected parts of the program.

A) True

B) False

129. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A) can be written more compactly.

B) focuses on just one thing.

C) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

D) is connected to other modules and the outside world.

130. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

A) can be written more compactly.

B) focuses on just one thing.

C) is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

D) is connected to other modules and the outside world.

131. When using structured design methodologies the process of stepwise refinement is unnecessary.

A) True

B) False

132. Software designs are refactored to allow the creation of software that is easier to integrate, easier
to test, and easier to maintain.

A) True

B) False

133. Which of the following is not one of the five design class types

A) Business domain classes

B) Entity classes

C) Process classes

D) User interface classes

134. Which design model elements are used to depict a model of information represented from the
user’s view?

A) Architectural design elements

B) Component-level design elements

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C) Data design elements

D) Interface design elements

135. Which design is equivalent to the floor plan of a house?

A) Architectural design

B) Component-level design

C) Data design

D) Interface design

136. Which design model is equivalent to the detailed drawings of the access points and external
utilities for a house?

A) Architectural design

B) Component-level design

C) Data design

D) Interface design

137. Which design model is equivalent to a set of detailed drawings for each room in a house?

A) Architectural design

B) Component-level design

C) Data design

D) Interface design

138. The deployment design elements specify the build order for the software components.

A) True

B) False

139. The best representation of system architecture is an operational software prototype.

A) True

B) False

140. The architectural representations can be an enabler for communication among project
stakeholders.

A) True

B) False

141. An architectural description is often documented using an architecture template.

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A) True

B) False

142. An architectural decision is often documented using an architecture decision description template.

A) True

B) False

143. An architectural genre will often dictate the architectural approach that may used for the structure
to be built.

A) True

B) False

144. An architectural style encompasses which of the following elements?

A) constraints

B) set of components

C) semantic models

D) syntactic models

E) a, b, c

145. To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed system,
requirements engineering is used to uncover

A) algorithmic complexity

B) characteristics and constraints

C) control and data

D) design patterns

146. Before an architectural pattern can be chosen for use in a specific system it must have a code
implementation to facilitate its reuse.

A) True

B) False

147. The criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be based on system

A) accessibility

B) control

C) data

D) implementation

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E) b and c

148. Software architectural considerations often interact with each other and moderate each other.

A) True

B) False

149. Developer notes are not a reliable means of documenting architectural decisions

A) True

B) False

150. During process of modeling the system in context, systems that interact with the target system are
represented as

A) Peer-level systems

B) Subordinate systems

C) Superordinate systems

D) Working systems

E) a, b, c

151. Once selected, archetypes always need to be refined further as architectural design proceeds.

A) True

B) False

152. Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be
integrated into the software architecture?

A) Communications components

B) Database components

C) Interface components

D) Memory management components

153. In the architecture trade-off analysis method the architectural style should be described using the

A) data flow view

B) module view

C) process view

D) user view

E) a, b, c

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154. A useful technique for evaluating the overall complexity of a proposed architecture is to look at the
component

A) cohesion

B) flow dependencies

C) sharing dependencies

D) size

E) b and c

155. Software architects need to create consensus among software team members and other
stakeholders.

A) True

B) False

156. Pattern-based architectural reviews can be useful for project with short build cycles and volatile
requirements.

A) True

B) False

157. Static architectural conformance checking assesses whether or not the source code matches the
user visible requirements.

A) True

B) False

158. Architectural design has no role in agile software process models.

A) True

B) False

159. In the most general sense a component is a modular building block for computer software.

A) True

B) False

160. In the context of object-oriented software engineering a component contains

A) attributes and operations

B) instances of each class

C) roles for each actor (device or user)

D) set of collaborating classes

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161. In traditional software engineering modules must serve in which of the following roles?

A) Control component

B) Infrastructure component

C) Problem domain component

D) All of the above

162. Software engineers always need to cerate components from scratch in order to meet customer
expectations fully.

A) True

B) False

163. Which of the following is not one of the four principles used to guide component-level design?

A) Dependency Inversion Principle

B) Interface Segregation Principle

C) Open-Closed Principle

D) Parsimonious Complexity Principle

164. The use of stereotypes can help identify the nature of components at the detailed design level.

A) True

B) False

165. Classes and components that exhibit functional, layer, or communicational cohesion are relatively
easy to implement, test, and maintain.

A) True

B) False

166. Software coupling is a sign of poor architectural design and can always be avoided in every system.

A) True

B) False

167. In component design elaboration requires which of the following elements to be describe in detail?

A) Algorithms

B) Attributes

C) Interfaces

D) Operations

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E) b, c, d

168. In component-level design persistent data sources refer to

A) Component libraries

B) Databases

C) Files

D) All of the above

E) b and c

169. WebApp content design at the component level focuses on content objects and the manner in
which they interact.

A) True

B) False

170. A WebApp functional architecture describes the key functional components and how they interact
with each other.

A) True

B) False

171. Component-level design for mobile apps is not any different from component-based design for
Web apps.

A) True

B) False

172. Which of these constructs is used in structured programming?

A) branching

B) condition

C) repetition

D) sequence

E) b, c, d

173. In component-based software engineering, the development team examines the requirements to
see which are amenable to composition, rather than construction, before beginning detailed design
tasks.

A) True

B) False

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174. Which of the following is not one of the major activities of domain engineering?

A) analysis

B) construction

C) dissemination

D) validation

175. Which of the following factors would not be considered during component qualification?

A) application programming interface (API)

B) development and integration tools required

C) exception handling

D) testing equipment required

176. Which is the following is a technique used for component wrapping?

A) black-box wrapping

B) clear-box wrapping

C) gray-box wrapping

D) white-box wrapping

177. Which of the following is not one of the issues that form a basis for design for reuse?

A) object-oriented programming

B) program templates

C) standard data

D) standard interface protocols

178. In a reuse environment, library queries are often characterized using the ________ element of the
3C Model.

A) concept

B) content

C) context

D) all of the above

179. Which of the following interface design principles does not allow the user to remain in control of
the interaction with a computer?

A) allow interaction to interruptible

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B) allow interaction to be undoable

C) hide technical internals from casual users

D) only provide one rigidly defined method for accomplishing a task

180. Which of the following interface design principles reduce the user's memory load?

A) define intuitive shortcuts

B) disclose information in a progressive fashion

C) establish meaningful defaults

D) provide an on-line tutorial

E) a, b, c

181. The reason for reducing the user's memory load is make his or her interaction with the computer
quicker to complete.

A) True

B) False

182. Interface consistency implies that

A) each application should have its own distinctive look and feel

B) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application

C) navigational methods are context sensitive

D) visual information is organized according to a design standard

E) b and d

183. If past interactive models have created certain user expectations it is not generally good to make
changes to the model.

A) True

B) False

184. Which model depicts the profile of the end users of a computer system?

A) design model

B) implementation model

C) user model

D) user's model

185. Which model depicts the image of a system that an end user creates in his or her head?

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A) design model

B) user model

C) system model

D) system perception

186. Which model depicts the look and feel of the user interface along with all supporting information?

A) implementation model

B) user model

C) user's model

D) system perception

187. Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user interface design
processes?

A) cost estimation

B) interface construction

C) interface validation

D) user and task analysis

188. Which approach(es) to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design?

A) have users indicate their preferences on questionnaires

B) rely on the judgement of experienced programmers

C) study existing computer-based solutions

D) observe users performing tasks manually

E) c and d

189. Object-oriented analysis techniques can be used to identify and refine user task objects and actions
without any need to refer to the user voice.

A) True

B) False

190. The computer's display capabilities are the primary determinant of the order in which user
interface design activities are completed.

A) True

B) False

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191. It is sometimes possible that the interface designer is constrained by environmental factors that
mitigate against ease of use for many users.

A) True

B) False

192. One means of defining user interface objects and actions is to conduct a grammatical parse of the
user scenario.

A) True

B) False

193. Interface design patterns typically include a complete component-level design (design classes,
attributes, operations, and interfaces).

A) True

B) False

194. Several common design issues surface for almost every user interface including

A) adaptive user profiles

B) error handling

C) resolution of graphics displays

D) system response time

E) b and d

195. It is more important to capture the user’s attention with flashy features than ergonomically sound
screen layouts when building a WebApp.

A) True

B) False

196. Several usability measures can be collected while observing users interacting with a computer
system including

A) down time for the application

B) number of user errors

C) software reliability

D) time spent looking at help materials

E) b and d

197. Which of the following is not one of the elements of a design pattern?

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A) context

B) environment

C) problem

D) solution

198. RubberNecking is an example of a classic generative pattern.

A) True

B) False

199. A frame work is a reusable mini-architecture that serves as a foundation which other design
patterns can be applied?

A) True

B) False

200. Finding patterns built by others that address design problems is often more difficult that
recognizing patterns in the application to be built.

A) True

B) False

201. A pattern language

A) encompasses a collection of patterns

B) is implemented using hypertext

C) resembles the structure of natural languages

D) None of the above

202. The concepts and techniques discussed for ___________ can be used in the conjunction with a
pattern-based approach.

A) Architectural design

B) Component-level design

C) User interface design

D) All of the above

203. It is important to reduce the coupling among design patterns so that they can be treated as
independent entities.

A) True

B) False

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204. Real life design solutions may not always lend themselves to a top-down approach.

A) True

B) False

205. Which of the following problem types are used to label columns in a pattern organizing table?

A) Business

B) Context

C) Database

D) Infrastructure

E) c and d

206. Most mistakes in pattern-based design can be avoided by judicious use of review techniques.

A) True

B) False

207. Before choosing an architectural design pattern it must be assessed for its appropriateness to the
application and overall architectural style.

A) True

B) False

208. Unlike architectural patterns, component-level design patterns may be applied to solve
subproblems without regard to system context.

A) True

B) False

209. Most user interface design patterns fall with in one of ____ categories of patterns.

A) 5

B) 10

C) 25

D) 100

210. WebApp design patterns can be classified by considering which of the dimensions listed below?

A) Aesthetics

B) Design focus

C) Granularity

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D) Usability

E) b and c

211. Which of the following are levels of design focus that can be used to categorize WebApp patterns?

A) Behavioral patterns

B) Functional patterns

C) Layout patterns

D) Navigation patterns

E) b and d

212. Which of the levels of granularity that can be used to describe WebApp patterns?

A) Architectural patterns

B) Component patterns

C) Design patterns

D) Interactions patterns

E) a, b, c

213. Mobile app user interface patterns can be represented as a collection of best of breed screen
images.

A) True

214. Which of the following characteristics should not be used to assess the quality of a WebApp?

A) aesthetics

B) reliability

C) maintainability

D) usability

215. Which of the following are design goals for every WebApp?

A) Simplicity

B) Consistency

C) Navigability

D) Visual appeal

E) All of the above.

216. Which of the following not part of the design pyramid for WebE design?

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A) Architectural design

B) Business case design

C) Content design

D) Navigation design

217. With WebApps content is everything, a poorly defined user interface will be quickly overlooked by
frequent users.

A) True

B) False

218. Which of these are WebApp interaction mechanisms?

A) Graphic icons

B) Graphic images

C) Navigation menus

D) All of the above

219. Screen layout design has several widely accepted standards based on human factors research.

A) True

B) False

220. Graphic design considers every aspect of the look and feel of a WebApp.

A) True

B) False

221. Content design is conducted by

A) Copywriters and graphic designer

B) Web engineers

C) both a and b

D) none of the above

222. Content objects have both information attributes defined during analysis and implementation
specific attributes specified during design.

A) True

B) False

223. Content objects are not normally chunked into Web pages until the implementation activities
begin.

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A) True

B) False

224. Content architecture and WebApp architecture are pretty much the same thing for many
WebApps?

A) True

B) False

225. Which of the following is not one of the content architectural structures used by web engineers?

A) linear

B) grid

C) hierarchical

D) parallel

226. MVC is a three layer architecture that contains a

A) machine, view, content objects

B) model, view, and content objects

C) model, view, and controller

D) machine, view, controller

227. Web navigational design involves creating a semantic navigational unit for each goal associated
with each defined user role.

A) True

B) False

228. To allow the user to feel in control of a WebApp, it is a good idea to mix both horizontal and
vertical navigation mechanisms on the same page.

A) True

B) False

229. Component level design for WebApps is very similar to component level design for other software
delivery environments.

A) True

B) False

230. Which of these is not one of the design activities associated with object-oriented hypermedia
design?

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A) abstract interface design

B) conceptual design

C) content design

D) navigational design

231. UML does not have any representation schemas that are useful in building WebApp design models.

A) True

B) False B) False

232. MobileApps must be designed take intermittent connectivity outages.

A) True

B) False

233. Modern electronics allow developers to ignore the power demands made by a MobileApp.

A) True

B) False

234. A MobileApp is assessed for usability and accessibility before beginning the next increment begins.

A) True

B) False

235. Which of the following characteristics should not be used to assess the quality of a MobileApp?

A) aesthetics

B) reliability

C) maintainability

D) usability

236. Quality function deployment is not necessary when implementing MobileApp user stories?

A) True

B) False

237. Using highly adaptive contextual interfaces is a good way to deal with device limitations like screen
size.

A) True

B) False

238. Which of the following are common MobileApp design mistakes.

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A) Inconsistency

B) Interoperability

C) Lean design

D) Overdesigning

E) a and d

239. It is better to multiple short pages than long scrolling forms when implementing mobile device user
interfaces.

A) True

B) False

240. Java is the best programming language to use when you want to create portable MobileApps.

A) True

B) False

241. Service computing allows you to avoid the need to integrate service source code into the mobile
device client.

A) True

B) False

242. The most important MobileApp architecture decision whether to build a thin or fat mobile client.

A) True

B) False

243. Quality of conformance focuses on the degree to which the implementation of a design meets its
requirements and performance goals.

A) True

B) False

244. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of software quality?

A) Adds value for developers and users

B) Effective software process creates infrastructure

C) Removes need to consider performance issues

D) Useful products satisfy stakeholder requirements

245. Product quality can only be assessed by measuring hard quality factors.

A) True

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B) False

246. Many software metrics can only be measured indirectly.

A) True

B) False

247. Which of the following are ISO 9126 software quality factors?

A) Functionality

B) Portability

C) Reliability

D) Visual appeal

E) a, b, c

248. Developers need to create a collection of targeted questions to asses each quality factor.

A) True

B) False

249. Software metrics represent direct measures of some manifestation of quality.

A) True

B) False

250. The quality dilemma might be summarized as choosing between building things quickly or building
things correctly.

A) True

B) False

251. Good enough software delivers high quality software functions along with specialized functions
that contain known bugs.

A) True

B) False

252. Which of the following is likely to be the most expensive cost of quality?

A) Appraisal costs

B) External failure costs

C) Internal failure costs

D) Prevention costs

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253. Poor quality leads to software risks that can become serious?

A) True

B) False

254. When a system fails to deliver required functions it is because the customer changes requirements?

A) True

B) False

255. Developers must start focusing on quality during the design phase in order to build secure systems.

A) True

B) False

256. Which of the following management decisions have the potential to impact software quality?

A) Estimation decisions

B) Risk-oriented decisions

C) Scheduling decisions

D) All of the above

257. The project plan should include explicit techniques for _______ and _______ management?

A) change

B) cost

C) error

D) quality

E) a and d

258. Quality control encompasses a set of software engineering actions that help to ensure that each
work product meets its quality goals.

A) True

B) False

259. The goal of quality assurance to insure that a software project is error free.

A) True

B) False

260. The purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be
removed before moving on to the next phase of development.

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A) True

B) False

261. In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall
project budget.

A) True

B) False

262. Defect amplification models can be used to illustrate the costs associated with using software from
its initial deployment to its retirement.

A) True

B) False

263. Review metrics can be used to assess the efficacy of each review activity.

A) True

B) False

264. Defect density can be estimated for any software engineering work product.

A) True

B) False

265. Agile software developers are aware that software reviews always take time without saving any.

A) True

B) False

266. The level of review formality is determined by which of the following?

A) amount of preparation

B) reviewer follow-up

C) size of project budget

D) structure of review

E) a, b, d

267. An informal review may consist of which of the following?

A) casual meeting

B) desk check

C) inspection

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D) pair programming

E) a and b

268. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?

A) allow senior staff members to correct errors

B) assess programmer productivity

C) determining who introduced an error into a program

D) uncover errors in software work products

269. At the end of a formal technical review all attendees can decide to

A) accept the work product without modification

B) modify the work product and continue the review

C) reject the product due to stylistic discrepancies

D) reject the product due to severe errors

E) a and d

270. A review summary report answers which three questions?

A) terminate project, replace producer, request a time extension

B) what defects were found, what caused defects, who was responsible

C) what was reviewed, who reviewed it, what were the findings

D) none of the above

271. In any type of technical review, the focus of the review is on the product and not the producer.

A) True

B) False

272. Sample driven reviews only make sense for very small software development projects.

A) True

B) False

273. Software quality might be defined as conformance to explicitly stated requirements and standards,
nothing more and nothing less.

A) True

B) False

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274. People who perform software quality assurance must look at the software from the customer's
perspective.

A) True

B) False

275. The elements of software quality assurance consist of reviews, audits, and testing.

A) True

B) False

276. Which of these activities is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an
independent SQA group?

A) prepare SQA plan for the project

B) review software engineering activities to verify process compliance

C) report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management

D) serve as the sole test team for any software produced

277. Metrics can be used to indicate the relative strength of a software quality attribute.

A) True

B) False

278. Attempts to apply mathematical proof to demonstrate that a program conforms to its
specifications are doomed to failure.

A) True

B) False

279. Statistical quality assurance involves

A) using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software

B) surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality

C) tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the "vital few" causes, and
moving to correct them

D) tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle to
correct each problem found

280. Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps.

A) analyze, improve, control

B) analyze, design, verify

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C) define, measure, analyze

D) define, measure, control

281. Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to

A) errors in accuracy

B) errors in design

C) errors in implementation

D) errors in operation

E) b and c

282. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that

A) affect the reliability of a software component

B) may cause an entire system to fail

C) may result from user input errors

D) prevent profitable marketing of the final product

283. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software engineering is

A) ISO 9000

B) ISO 9001

C) ISO 9002

D) ISO 9003

284. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?

A) budget

B) documentation

C) reviews and audits

D) test

285. In software quality assurance work there is no difference between software verification and
software validation.

A) True

B) False

286. The best reason for using Independent software test teams is that

A) software developers do not need to do any testing

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B) strangers will test the software mercilessly

C) testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins

D) the conflicts of interest between developers and testers is reduced

287. What is the normal order of activities in which traditional software testing is organized?

A) integration testing, system testing, unit testing, validation testing.

B) unit testing, validation testing, system testing, integration testing

C) unit testing, integration testing, validation testing, system testing

D) validation testing, system testing, integration testing, unit testing

288. By collecting software metrics and making use of existing software reliability models it is possible to
develop meaningful guidelines for determining when software testing is done.

A) True

B) False

289. Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in a successful software testing
process?

A) conduct formal technical reviews prior to testing

B) specify requirements in a quantifiable manner

C) use independent test teams

D) wait till code is written prior to writing the test plan

E) a and b

290. Which of the following need to be assessed during unit testing?

A) algorithmic performance

B) code stability

C) error handling

D) execution paths

E) c and d

291. Units and stubs are not needed for unit testing because the modules are tested independently of
one another.

A) True

B) False

292. Top-down integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that

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A) low level modules never need testing

B) major decision points are tested early

C) no drivers need to be written

D) no stubs need to be written

E) b and c

293. Bottom-up integration testing has as it's major advantage(s) that

A) major decision points are tested early

B) no drivers need to be written

C) no stubs need to be written

D) regression testing is not required

294. Regression testing should be a normal part of integration testing because as a new module is added
to the system new

A) control logic is invoked

B) data flow paths are established

C) drivers require testing

D) all of the above

E) a and b

295. Smoke testing might best be described as

A) bulletproofing shrink-wrapped software

B) rolling integration testing

C) testing that hides implementation errors

D) unit testing for small programs

296. When testing object-oriented software it is important to test each class operation separately as
part of the unit testing process.

A) True

B) False

297. The OO testing integration strategy involves testing

A) groups of classes that collaborate or communicate in some way

B) single operations as they are added to the evolving class implementation

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C) operator programs derived from use-case scenarios

D) none of the above

298. Since many WebApps evolve continuously, the testing process must be ongoing as well.

A) True

B) False

299. Testing MobileApps is not different than testing WebApps.

A) True

B) False

300. The focus of validation testing is to uncover places that s user will be able to observe failure of the
software to conform to its requirements.

A) True

B) False

301. Software validation is achieved through a series of tests performed by the user once the software is
deployed in his or her work environment.

A) True

B) False

302. Configuration reviews are not needed if regression testing has been rigorously applied during
software integration.

A) True

B) False

303. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the

A) developer

B) end users

C) test team

D) systems engineers

304. Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail in a variety of ways and verifies
that software is able to continue execution without interruption.

A) True

B) False

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305. Security testing attempts to verify that protection mechanisms built into a system protect it from
improper penetration.

A) True

B) False

306. Stress testing examines the pressures placed on the user during system use in extreme
environments.

A) True

B) False

307. Performance testing is only important for real-time or embedded systems.

A) True

B) False

308. Debugging is not testing, but always occurs as a consequence of testing.

A) True

B) False

309. Which of the following is an approach to debugging?

A) backtracking

B) brute force

C) cause elimination

D) code restructuring

E) a, b, c

310. With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to the
customer.

A) True

B) False

311. Which of the following are characteristics of testable software?

A) observability

B) simplicity

C) stability

D) all of the above

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312. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function
is operational is called

A) black-box testing

B) glass-box testing

C) grey-box testing

D) white-box testing

313. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a software
module is called

A) behavioral testing

B) black-box testing

C) grey-box testing

D) white-box testing

314. What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be uncovered by white-box testing?

A) behavioral errors

B) logic errors

C) performance errors

D) typographical errors

E) b and d

315. Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.

A) True

B) False

316. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the number of

A) cycles in the program

B) errors in the program

C) independent logic paths in the program

D) statements in the program

317. The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly from a PDL representation of an
algorithm without drawing a program flow graph.

A) True

B) False

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318. Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test
cases is that they

A) rely on basis path testing

B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module

C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

319. Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test
cases is that they

A) rely on basis path testing

B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module

C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

320. Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the criteria used to design test cases is
that they

A) rely basis path testing

B) exercise the logical conditions in a program module

C) select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables

D) focus on testing the validity of loop constructs

321. Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories

A) incorrect or missing functions

B) interface errors

C) performance errors

D) none of the above

E) a, b, c

322. Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented systems

A) True

B) False

323. Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be
derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.

A) True

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B) False

324. Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box testing.

A) True

B) False

325. Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize the coverage of the test cases
devised for relatively small input domains.

A) True

B) False

326. Test derived from behavioral class models should be based on the

A) data flow diagram

B) object-relation diagram

C) state transition diagram

D) use-case diagram

327. Documentation does not need to be tested.

A) True

B) False

328. Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element to the testing mix

A) performance

B) reliability

C) security

D) time

329. It is not possible to test object-oriented software without including error discovery techniques
applied to the system OOA and OOD models.

A) True

B) False

330. The correctness of the OOA and OOD model is accomplished using formal technical reviews by the
software quality assurance team.

A) True

B) False

331. The consistency of object-oriented models may be judged by reviewing the CRC card model.

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A) True

B) False

332. Test case design for OO software is driven by the algorithmic detail of the individual operations.

A) True

B) False

333. Integration testing of object-oriented software can be accomplished by which of the following
testing strategies?

A) Cluster testing

B) Glass-box testing

C) Thread-based testing

D) Use-based testing

E) a, c, d

334. Validation of object-oriented software focuses on user visible actions and outputs from the system.

A) True

B) False

335. Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes it easy to obtain object state
information during testing.

A) True

B) False

336. Use-cases can provide useful input into the design of black-box and state-based tests of OO
software.

A) True

B) False

337. Fault-based testing is best reserved for

A) conventional software testing

B) operations and classes that are critical or suspect

C) use-case validation

D) white-box testing of operator algorithms

338. Scenario-based testing

A) concentrates on actor and software interaction

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B) misses errors in specifications

C) misses errors in subsystem interactions

D) both a and b

339. Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class instance life histories.

A) True

B) False

340. Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at the class level

A) attribute-based partitioning

B) category-based partitioning

C) equivalence class partitioning

D) state-based partitioning

341. Multiple class testing is too complex to be tested using random test cases.

A) True

B) False

342. The state model can be used to derive test cases based on the dynamic behavior of an object-
oriented system.

A) True

B) False

343. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions of quality used to assess a WebApp?

A) Content

B) Maintainability

C) Navigability

D) Usability

344. WebApps require special testing methodologies because WebApp errors have several unique
characteristics.

A) True

B) False

345. Since WebnApps evolve continuously, the testing process is an on-going activity, conducted by the
Web support staff using regression tests.

A) True

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B) False

346. Test planning is not used in WebApp testing.

A) True

B) False

347. As the WebApp architecture is constructed which types of testing are used as integration tests?

A) Component testing

B) Content testing

C) Navigation testing

D) Usability testing

E) both a and c

348. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of WebApp content testing?

A) Find organizational or structure errors

B) Identify linking errors

C) Uncover semantic errors

D) Uncover syntactic errors

349. Database testing is very rarely a part of WebApp content testing.

A) True

B) False

350. The overall strategy for interface testing is to uncover errors

A) in navigation semantics

B) in overall usabililty

C) related to specific interface mechanisms

D) both a and c

351. Which of the following is not a WebApp interface mechanism?

A) Browser

B) Cookies

C) Forms

D) Links

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352. When testing WebApp interface semantics, each use-case is used as input for the design of a
testing sequence.

A) True

B) False

353. Usability tests should be designed and executed by intended users for a given WebApp.

A) True

B) False

354. WebApp compatibility testing is conducted to be sure that the user model for usage scenario
matched the user category assigned to a given user.

A) True

B) False

355. Which test case design technique(s) are appropriate for WebApp component-level testing?

A) Boundary value analysis

B) Equivalence partitioning

C) Path testing

D) All of the above

356. The purpose of WebApp navigation syntactic testing is to ensure the correct appearance of each
navigation mechanism.

A) True

B) False

357. Both Web engineers and non-technical users conduct navigation semantics testing for WebApps.

A) True

B) False

358. Which of following is not one of the elements that need to be considered when constructing
WebApp server-side configuration tests?

A) Browser compatibility

B) Database software integration

C) Operating system compatibility

D) System security measures

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359. To design client-side configuration tests each user category is assessed to reduce the number of
configuration variables to a manageable number.

A) True

B) False

360. Which of the following is not a testable WebApp security element?

A) Authentication

B) Encryption

C) Firewalls

D) Penetration

361. WebApp performance tests are designed to

A) asses WebApp usability

B) evaluate page loading times

C) simulate real-world loading situations

D) test network connectivity

362. Load testing involves determining the input of which 3 variables?

A) N, T, D

B) N, T, P

C) T, D, P

D) N, D, P

363. WebApp stress testing is a continuation load testing.

A) True

B) False

364. MobileApps require special testing methodologies because of concerns associated using them in
diverse network environments.

A) True

B) False

365. Since MobileApp users are attracted to new technologies they are very tolerant of errors and
testing effort can be reduced.

A) True

B) False

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366. Designing test cases directly from user stories increase the likelihood of developing effective test
cases in a timely manner.

A) True

B) False

367. Automated testing tools eliminate the need to do regression testing for MobileApps.

A) True

B) False

368. A weighted device platform matrix helps to prioritize test cases.

A) True

B) False

369. Part of the reason for stress testing is to ensure that the MobileApp exhibits graceful degradation
on failure.

A) True

B) False

370. Which of the following are reasons for testing in the wild?

A) Assessing the impact of production environments

B) Failing to create test cases

C) Not understanding user demographics

D) Testing for variable performance on user devices

E) both a and d

371. When testing the quality of user interaction the focus should be on user visible interaction
mechanisms.

A) True

B) False

372. Which of that following add to the difficulty of testing MobileApp gestures?

A) Automatic tool use is difficult

B) Creating functions to simulate events

C) Screen size variation

D) Using paper prototypes

E) a, b, c

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373. Continuous speech recognition techniques have eliminated the need for key entry in MobileApps.

A) True

B) False

374. Predictive technologies are often used to help speed up virtual keyboard inpu on mobile devices.

A) True

B) False

375. The ability of a MobileApp to handle alerts without disrupting user workflow must be tested in the
production environment?

A) True

B) False

376. The Testing across borders is not necessary each MobileApp is developed for use in a specific
country.

A) True

B) False

377. Which of the following are issues that make real-time testing difficult?

A) Limited device processing capacity

B) Power limitations on the device

C) Unique mobile network infrastructures

D) All of the above

378. Device emulators eliminate the need to test MobileApps on actual devices.

A) True

379. When analyzing security requirements focus in system assets with the highest value and greatest
exposure.

A) True

B) False

380. It is possible to have a safe system that is not secure.

A) True

B) False

381. Individuals rarely expose their personal information to others on social media networks.

A) True

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B) False

382. Wireless networks require the trust and cooperation between nodes that can be exploited by
malicious programs?

A) True

B) False

383. Cloud computing is has greater levels of security that other web data repositories.

A) True

B) False

384. The security concerns remain an obstacle to implementing the vision implied by the Internet of
Things .

A) True

B) False

385. Security and usability requirements are often in conflict with each other.

A) True

B) False

386. Which of following is not one of the elements of a security model?

A) Criminal background checks

B) External interface requirements

C) Rules of operation

D) Security policy objectives

387. Security metrics and measures need to assess which of these properties?

A) Dependability

B) Survivability

C) Trustworthiness

D) All of the above

388. Security correctness checks should be included which of the following activities?

A) Audits

B) Deployment

C) Inspections

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D) Testing

E) a, b, c

389. Which is not one of the elements of a security case?

A) Arguments

B) Bug reports

C) Claims

D) Evidence

390. Security assurance and risk identification must be included in the schedule and budget if they are to
be taken seriously.

A) True

B) False

391. Threat analysis is not needed for conventional software applications.

A) True

B) False

392. An incident response plan spells out the actions to be carried out by each stakeholder in response
to specific attacks.

A) True

B) False B) False

393. The cleanroom strategy is based on the ________ software process model.

A) evolutionary

B) incremental

C) revolutionary

D) spiral

394. The cleanroom strategy relies on

A) exhaustive testing

B) extensive unit testing of all modules

C) tests that exercise the software as it is really used

D) white box testing strategies

395. Use of formal program correctness proofs as part of the cleanroom process eliminates the need do
any testing for software defects.

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A) True

B) False

396. In cleanroom software engineering a “box” encapsulates some system aspect at a particular level of
detail.

A) True

B) False

397. This box specification describes an abstraction, stimuli, and response.

A) black box

B) clear box

C) state box

D) white box

398. This box specification describes the architectural design for some system component.

A) black box

B) clear box

C) state box

D) white box

399. This box specification is closely aligned with procedural design and structured programming.

A) black box

B) clear box

C) state box

D) white box

400. In cleanroom software engineering the structured programming approach is used to

A) refine data design

B) refine function design

C) refine usage test cases

D) both a and b

401. By using only structured programming constructs as you create a procedural design, you make the
work of proving design correctness much easier.

A) True

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B) False

402. Which of the following is not an advantage of using rigorous correctness verification of each
refinement of the clear box design?

A) improves performance of code

B) produces better code than unit testing

C) reduces verification effort

D) results in near zero defect levels

403. Statistical use testing relies on probability distributions based on

A) mixture of control structures used in the program

B) order in which the module execute

C) the way software will actually be used

D) user interface design standards

404. Certification of an increment is complete once it has passed the formal verification process.

A) True

B) False

405. Which of the following models is part of the cleanroom certification process?

A) component model

B) sampling model

C) both a and b

D) none of the above

406. A data invariant is a set of conditions that are true during the execution of any function.

A) True

B) False

407. In some formal languages, stored data that the system accesses and alters is called a(n)

A) attribute

B) data structure

C) state

D) variant

408. In formal methods work, an action that reads or writes data to a state is called a(n)

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A) actor

B) event

C) invariant

D) operation

409. What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid?

A) data invariant

B) precondition

C) postcondition

D) state

410. Using formal methods eliminates the need to write natural language commentary in the
specification document.

A) True

B) False

411. Which of these are valid software configuration items?

A) case tools

B) documentation

C) executable programs

D) test data

E) All of the above.

412. Which of the following is not considered one of the four important elements that should exist when
a configuration management system is developed?

A) component elements

B) human elements

C) process elements

D) validation elements

413. Once a software engineering work product becomes a baseline it cannot be changed again.

A) True

B) False

414. Which configuration objects would not typically be found in the project database?

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A) design specification

B) marketing data

C) organizational structure description

D) test plans

E) b and c

415. Modern software engineering practices usually attempt to maintain SCI’s in a project database or
repository.

A) True

B) False

416. A data repository meta model is used to determine how

A) information is stored in the repository

B) well data integrity can be maintained

C) easily the existing model can be extended

D) all of the above

417. Many data repository requirements are the same as those for a typical database application.

A) True

B) False

418. The ability to track relationships and changes to configuration objects is one of the most important
features of the SCM repository.

A) True

B) False

419. Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management?

A) change control

B) reporting

C) statistical quality control

D) version control

420. A basic configuration object is a __________ created by a software engineer during some phase of
the software development process.

A) program data structure

B) hardware driver

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C) unit of information

D) all of the above

421. Version control systems establish a change set as part of their primary functionality.

A) True

B) False

422. Change control is not necessary if a development group is making use of an automated project
database tool.

A) True

B) False

423. When software configuration management is a formal activity the software configuration audit is
conducted by the

A) development team

B) quality assurance group

C) senior managers

D) testing specialists

424. The primary purpose of configuration status reporting is to

A) allow revision of project schedule and cost estimates by project managers

B) evaluate the performance of software developers and organizations

C) make sure that change information is communicated to all affected parties

D) none of the above

425. Configuration issues that need to be considered when developing Web and Mobile Apps include:

A) content

B) cost

C) people

D) politics

E) a, b, c

426. Web and Mobile App configuration objects can be managed in much the same way as conventional
software configuration objects except for:

A) content items

B) functional items

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C) graphic items

D) user items

427. Content management establishes a process by which Web content is rendered on the user’s display
screen.

A) True

B) False

428. Change management for Web and Mobile Apps is best handled in agile manner.

A) True

B) False

429. One reason that version control is difficult for WebApps is that in an uncontrolled environment, you
can have multiple authors making changes to the same files from multiple locations without any
realizing it.

A) True

B) False

430. Requiring developers to check Web configuration items in and out and sending affected
stakeholders e-mail messages automatically are good ways to deal with configuration auditing and
reporting for WebApps.

A) True

B) False

431. Most technical software metrics described in this chapter represent indirect measures software
attributes that are useful in the quantitative assessment of software quality.

A) True

B) False

432. Which these are reasons for using technical product measures during software development?

A) large body of scientific evidence supports their use

B) provides software engineers with an objective mechanism for assessing

software quality

C) they allow all quality software quality information to be expressed

unambiguously as a single number

D) all of the above

433. Which measurement activity is missing from the list below?

Formulation

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Collection

Analysis

Interpretation

A) design

B) feedback

C) measurement

D) quantification

434. The Goal/Question/Metric (GQM) paradigm was developed as a technique for assigning blame for
software failures.

A) True

B) False

435. One of the most important attributes for a software product metric is that it should be

A) easy to compute

B) qualitative in nature

C) reliable over time

D) widely applicable

436. In many cases metrics for one model may be used in later software engineering activities (e.g.
design metrics may be used in test planning).

A) True

B) False

437. The function point metric is an example of metric that can be used to assist with technical decision-
making based on the analysis model information, without making use of historical project data.

A) True

B) False

438. The specification metrics proposed by Davis address which two characteristics of the software
requirements?

A) functionality and performance

B) performance and completeness

C) specificity and completeness

D) specificity and functionality

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439. Architectural design metrics focus on

A) architectural structure

B) data structural relationships

C) internal module complexity

D) module effectiveness

E) a and d

440. Which of the following is not a measurable characteristic of an object-oriented design?

A) completeness

B) efficiency

C) size

D) volatility

441. The depth of inheritance tree (DIT) metric can give an OO software designer a reading on the

A) attributes required for each class

B) completion time required for system implementation

C) complexity of the class hierarchy

D) level of object reusability achieved

442. Because the class is the dominant unit in OO systems there is no call for the definition of class-
oriented metrics.

A) True

B) False

443. If you encounter a class with a large responsibility (large class size or CS value) you should consider

A) making it a base class

B) making it a subclass

C) partitioning the class

D) starting a new class hierarchy

444. Component-level metrics include measures of

A) complexity

B) coupling

C) module cohesion

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D) performance

E) a, b, c

445. Because the class is the dominant unit in OO systems very few metrics have been proposed for
operations that reside within a class.

A) True

B) False

446. Interface metrics are use to assess the complexity of the module's input and output relationships
with external devices.

A) True

B) False

447. Most WebApps can be easily characterized by judicious use of widely recognized suites of software
metrics?

A) True

B) False

448. Halstead's source code metrics are based on the number of

A) modules in the program

B) operands in the program

C) operators in the program

D) volume elements in the program

E) b and c

449. Software testing metrics fall into two broad categories

A) metrics that focus on defect removal effectiveness

B) metrics that focus on test coverage

C) metrics that estimate the duration of the testing process

D) metrics that predict the number of test cases required

E) b and d

450. The IEEE software maturity index (SMI) is used to provide a measure of the

A) maintainability of a software product based on its availability

B) relative age of a software product being considered for retirement

C) reliability of a software product following regression testing

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D) stability of a software product as it is modified during maintenance

451. Effective software project management focuses on

A) people, performance, payoff, product

B) people, product, performance, process

C) people, product, process, project

D) people, process, payoff, product

452. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood
of implementing effective software engineering processes.

A) True

B) False

453. The first step in project planning is to

A) determine the budget.

B) select a team organizational model.

C) determine the project constraints.

D) establish the objectives and scope.

454. Process framework activities are populated with

A) milestones

B) work products

C) QA points

D) all of the above

455. Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are
successful and completed on time.

A) True

B) False

456. Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process?

A) customers

B) end-users

C) project managers

D) sales people

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457. The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering
practitioner available.

A) True

B) False

458. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is
the

A) closed paradigm

B) open paradigm

C) random paradigm

D) synchronous paradigm

459. Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team?

A) degree of communication desired

B) predicted size of the resulting program

C) rigidity of the delivery date

D) size of the project budget

E) a, b, c

460. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to

A) give team members more control over process and technical decisions.

B) give team members less control over process and technical decisions.

C) hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.

D) reward programmers based on their productivity.

461. Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.

A) True

B) False

462. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination
difficulties?

A) interoperability

B) performance

C) scale

D) uncertainty

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463. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?

A) context, lines of code, function

B) context, function, communication requirements

C) information objectives, function, performance

D) communications requirements, performance, information objectives

464. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the

A) customer workflow

B) functionality to be delivered

C) process used to deliver functionality

D) software process model

E) b and c

465. Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.

A) True

B) False

466. When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process
decomposition?

A) when the project is extremely small in size

B) any time the software is mission critical

C) rapid prototyping does not require their use

D) never the activities are invariant

467. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?

A) double the project team size

B) request a large budget

C) start on the right foot

D) track progress

E) c and d

468. The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?

A) Why is the system being developed?

B) What will be done by whom?

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C) Where are they organizationally located?

D) How much of each resource is required?

E) a, c d

469. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?

A) assessing product usability

B) defect tracking against quality targets

C) empirical cost estimation

D) formal risk management

E) b, c, d

470. Which of these are valid reasons for measuring software processes, products, and resources?

A) to characterize them

B) to evaluate them

C) to price them

D) to improve them

E) a, b, d

471. Process indicators enable a software project manager to

A) assess the status of an on-going project

B) track potential risks

C) adjust work flow or tasks

D) none of the above

472. Public metrics are used

A) to evaluate the performance of software development teams.

B) to appraise the performance of individual team members.

C) to make strategic changes to the software process.

D) to make tactical changes during a software project.

E) c and d

473. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics?

A) inputs

B) markets

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C) outputs

D) results

474. Software quality and functionality must be measured indirectly.

A) True

B) False

475. Which of following are advantages of using LOC (lines of code) as a size-oriented metric?

A) LOC is easily computed.

B) LOC is a language dependent measure.

C) LOC is a language independent measure.

D) LOC can be computed before a design is completed.

476. Which of the following are advantages of using function points (FP) as a measure of the
functionality delivered by a software application?

A) FP is easily computed.

B) FP is a language dependent measure.

C) FP is a language independent measure.

D) FP can be computed before a design is completed.

E) c and d

477. There is no need to reconcile LOC and FP measures since each in meaningful in its own right as a
project measure.

A) True

B) False

478. Object-Oriented project measures may be combined with historical project data to provide metrics
that aid in project estimation.

A) True

B) False

479. Use-Case oriented metrics are computed directly from UML diagrams they are often used as
normalization measures.

A) True

B) False

480. Which of the following is not a measure that can be collected from a Web application project?

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A) Customization index

B) Number of dynamic objects

C) Number of internal page links

D) Number of static web pages

481. Which of the following software quality factors is most likely to be affected by radical changes to
computing architectures?

A) operation

B) transition

C) revision

D) none of the above

482. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A) correctness, performance, integrity, usability

B) reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales

C) correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction

D) correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability

483. A software quality metric that can be used at both the process and project levels is defect removal
efficiency (DRE).

A) True

B) False

484. Why is it important to measure the process of software engineering and software it produces?

A) It is really not necessary unless the project is extremely complex.

B) To determine costs and allow a profit margin to be set.

C) To determine whether a software group is improving or not.

D) To make software engineering more like other engineering processes.

485. To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data used must be:

A) based on reasonable guestimates from past projects

B) measured consistently across projects

C) drawn from similar projects

D) based on all previously completed projects

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E) b and c

486. Baseline data must be collected in an on-going manner and cannot be computed by formal study of
historical project data.

A) True

B) False

487. Small software organizations are not likely to see any economic return from establishing software
metrics program.

A) True

B) False

488. The software metrics chosen by an organization are driven by the business or technical goals an
organization wishes to accomplish.

A) True

B) False

489. Since project estimates are not completely reliable, they can be ignored once a software
development project begins.

A) True

B) False

490. The objective of software project planing is to

A) convince the customer that a project is feasible.

B) make use of historical project data.

C) enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule.

D) determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project.

491. The project scope is defined as a means of bounding the system

A) functionality

B) performance

C) costs

D) schedule

E) a and b

492. Software feasibility is based on which of the following

A) business and marketing concerns

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B) scope, constraints, market

C) technology, finance, time, resources

D) technical prowess of the developers

493. The number of people required for a software project is determined

A) after an estimate of the development effort is made.

B) by the size of the project budget.

C) from an assessment of the technical complexity of the system.

D) all of the above

494. Reusable software components must be

A) catalogued for easy reference.

B) standardized for easy application.

C) validated for easy integration.

D) all of the above

495.The software engineering environment (SEE) consists of which of the following?

A) customers

B) developers

C) hardware platforms

D) software tools

E) c and d

496. Software project estimation techniques can be broadly classified under which of the following
headings?

A) automated processes

B) decomposition techniques

C) empirical models

D) regression models

E) b and c

497. The size estimate for a software product to be built must be based on a direct measure like LOC.

A) True

B) False

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498. Problem-based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on

A) information domain values

B) project schedule

C) software functions

D) process activities

E) a and c

499. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

A) information domain values

B) project schedule

C) software functions

D) process activities

500. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

A) information domain values

B) project schedule

C) software functions

D) process activities

501. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on

A) information domain values

B) project schedule

C) software functions

D) process activities

E) c and d

502. Unlike a LOC or function point each person’s “use-case” is exactly the same size.

A) True

B) False

503. When agreement between estimates is poor the cause may often be traced to inadequately
defined project scope or inappropriate productivity data.

A) True

B) False

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504. Empirical estimation models are typically based on

A) expert judgement based on past project experiences

B) refinement of expected value estimation

C) regression models derived from historical project data

D) trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients

505. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that require sizing
information expressed as:

A) function points

B) lines of code

C) object points

D) any of the above

506. Putnam's software equation is a dynamic empirical model that has two independent parameters: a
size estimate and an indication of project duration in calendar months or years.

A) True

B) False

507. Function points are of no user in developing estimates for object-oriented software.

A) True

B) False

508. In agile software development estimation techniques focus on the time required to complete each

A) increment

B) scenario

C) task

D) use-case

509. It is possible to use a modified function point technique to develop estimates for Web applications.

A) True

B) False

510. Using a statistical technique like decision tree analysis can provide some assistance in sorting out
the true costs associated with the make-buy decision.

A) True

B) False

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511. Outsourcing always provides a simple means of acquiring software at lower cost than onsite
development of the same product.

A) True

B) False

512. Software projects are inevitably late and there is nothing that can explain why.

A) True

B) False

513. It is unethical to undertake a project that you know in advance cannot be completed by the
customer's deadline, unless you inform the customer of the risk and establish a project plan that can
deliver the needed system incrementally.

A) True

B) False

514. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project scheduling:

A) compartmentalization

B) market assessment

C) time allocation

D) effort validation

515. Doubling the size of your software project team is guaranteed to cut project completion time in
half.

A) True

B) False

516. The software equation can be used to show that by extending the project deadline slightly

A) fewer people are required

B) you are guaranteed to meet the deadline

C) more lines of code can be produced

D) none of the above

517. The 40-20-40 rule suggests that the least of amount of development effort be spent on

A) estimation and planning

B) analysis and design

C) coding

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D) testing

518. A task set is a collection of

A) engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables

B) task assignments, cost estimates, metrics

C) milestones, deliverables, metrics

D) responsibilities, milestones, documents

519. The task (activity) network is a useful mechanism for

A) computing the overall effort estimate

B) detecting intertask dependencies

C) determining the critical path

D) specifying the task set to the customer

E) b and c

520. Tasks that lie on the critical path in a task network may be completed in any order as long as the
project is on schedule.

A) True

B) False

521. Two tools for computing critical path and project completion times from activity networks are

A) CPM

B) DRE

C) FP

D) PERT

E) a and d

522. Timeline charts assist project managers in determining what tasks will be conducted at a given
point in time.

A) True

B) False

523. The best indicator of progress on a software project is the completion

A) of a defined engineering activity task

B) of a successful budget review meeting on time

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C) and successful review of a defined software work product

D) and successful acceptance of project prototype by the customer

524. Since iterative process model work best for object-oriented projects it is impossible to determine
whether an increment will be completed on time or not.

A) True

B) False

525. WebApp projects only require the creation of a macro schedule.

A) True

B) False

526. The purpose of earned value analysis is to

A) determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity

B) provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress

C) provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress

D) set the price point for a software product based on development effort

527. Earned value analysis is a technique that allows managers to take corrective action before a project
crisis develops.

A) True

B) False

528. Proactive risk management is sometimes described as fire fighting.

A) True

B) False

529. Software risk always involves two characteristics

A) fire fighting and crisis management

B) known and unknown risks

C) uncertainty and loss

D) staffing and budget

530. Three categories of risks are

A) business risks, personnel risks, budget risks

B) project risks, technical risks, business risks

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C) planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks

D) management risks, technical risks, design risks

531. Generic risks require far more attention than product-specific risks.

A) True

B) False

532. A risk item checklist would contain known and predictable risks from which of these categories?

A) product size

B) development environment

C) staff size

D) process definition

E) all of the above

533. Questions that should be asked to assess the overall project risk include:

A) Have top managers formally committed to support the project?

B) Are end-users committed to the project and proposed system being built?

C) Are requirement fully understood by development team and customers?

D) Does the proposed budget have time allocated for marketing?

E) a, b, c

534. Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting

A) planning, resources, cost, schedule

B) marketability, cost, personnel

C) business, technology, process

D) performance, support, cost, schedule

535. Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways

A) likelihood and cost

B) likelihood and impact

C) likelihood and consequences

D) likelihood and exposure

536. Risk tables are sorted by

A) probability and cost

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B) probability and impact

C) probability and consequences

D) probability and exposure

537. Individual team members can make their own estimate for a risk probability and then develop a
consensus value.

A) True

B) False

538. Which factors affect the probable consequences likely if a risk does occur?

A) risk cost

B) risk timing

C) risk scope

D) risk resources

E) b and c

539. The reason for refining risks is to break them into smaller units having different consequences.

A) True

B) False

540. Effective risk management plan needs to address which of these issues?

A) risk avoidance

B) risk monitoring

C) contingency planning

D) all of the above

541. Risk monitoring involves watching the risk indicators defined for the project and not determining
the effectiveness of the risk mitigation steps themselves.

A) True

B) False

542. Hazard analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that can cause

A) project termination

B) schedule slippage

C) cost overruns

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D) an entire system to fail

543. Risk information sheets (RIS) are never an acceptable substitute for a full risk mitigation,
monitoring, and management (RMMM) plan.

A) True

B) False

544. How much effort is typically expended by a software organization on software maintenance?

A) 20 percent

B) 40 percent

C) 60 percent

D) 80 percent

545. Software supportability is not concerned with either the provision of hardware or infrastructure.

A) True

B) False

546. Business process reengineering is often accompanied by software reengineering.

A) True

B) False

547. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?

A) designing a new product

B) hiring an employee

C) purchasing services

D) testing software

548. Business process reengineering does not have a start or end, it is an evolutionary process.

A) True

B) False

549. Which of the following activities is not part of the software reengineering process model?

A) forward engineering

B) inventory analysis

C) prototyping

D) reverse engineering

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550. Software reengineering process model includes restructuring activities for which of the following
work items?

A) code

B) documentation

C) data

D) all of the above

551. Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering?

A) abstraction level

B) completeness

C) connectivity

D) directionality

552. Reverse engineering of data focuses on

A) database structures

B) internal data structures

C) both a and b

D) none of the above

553. The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to understand

A) data

B) processing

C) user interfaces

D) none of the above

554. Reverse engineering should proceed the reengineering of any user interface.

A) True

B) False

555. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?

A) higher quality programs

B) reduced maintenance effort

C) software easier to test

D) all of the above

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556. Code restructuring is a good example of software reengineering.

A) True

B) False

557. Which of these is not an example of data restructuring?

A) data analysis

B) data name rationalization

C) data record standardization

D) none of the above

558. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct
output.

A) True

B) False

559. Reengineering client/server systems begins with a thorough analysis of the business environment
that encompasses the existing computing system.

A) True

B) False

560. The only time reengineering enters into work with a legacy system is when it components will be
implemented as objects.

A) True

B) False

561. The cost benefits derived from reengineering are realized largely due to decreased maintenance
and support costs for the new software product.

A) True

B) False

562. Software process improvement must deliver a reasonable return-on-investment to justify its use.

A) True

B) False

563. An effective software process improvement effort relies on the same framework for each project.

A) True

B) False

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564. The intent of a maturity model like CCM is to provide a road map to good software practice.

A) True

B) False

565. SPI is only justified for large software organizations.

A) True

B) False

566. The most difficult part of SPI is establishing a consensus for starting the process.

A) True

B) False

567. As process assessment is conducted which of the following issues should be focused on?

A) Acceptance

B) Commitment

C) Consistency

D) all of the above

568. Which of these individuals are not involved in the SPI education and training activities?

A) Customers

B) Managers

C) Practitioners

D) Stakeholders

569. It is often difficult to achieve consensus among different constituencies during the SPI selection and
justification activity.

A) True

B) False

570. Which is not one of the processes that need to be considered during process installation and
migration?

A) As-is

B) Here-to-there

C) Just-in-time

D) To-be

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E) a, b, d

571. Evaluation only occurs during the SPI post mortem activity.

A) True

B) False

572. SPI often fails because risks were not properly considered and no continguency planning occurred.

A) True

B) False

573. The capability maturity model integration represents a meta model implemented as a

A) continuous model

B) staged model

C) theoretical model

D) both a and b

574. The people capability maturity model suggests practices that should be followed by an organization
to attract, develop, and retain outstanding talent.

A) True

B) False

575. It is easy to determine the quantitative benefits and cost measures required to compute the return-
on-investment for SPI activities.

A) True

B) False

576. To be effective in modern software development SPI frameworks must become significantly more
agile.

A) True

B) False

577. Which of these is not one of the technology evolution phases?

A) Automation

B) Breakthrough

C) Empiricism

D) Innovation

578. The hype cycle presents a realistic view of long term technology integration.

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A) True

B) False

579. Collaboration and globalization are examples soft trends that will impact software engineering
technologies.

A) True

B) False

580. Today we use process, methods, and tools to keep complexity under control.

A) True

B) False

581. Open world software is another name for open source software.

A) True

B) False

582. Incremental process models are part of a strategy for dealing with emergent requirements.

A) True

B) False

583. Which of these roles are part of a software engineering dream team?

A) Brian

B) Gatherer

C) Hack

D) All of the above

584. Software platform solutions allow an OEM to dedicate software effort on product features that
differentiate it from other products in the market place.

A) True

B) False

585. When a tipping point is reached a technology cascades across the software engineering community
and a broad-based change occurs.

A) True

B) False

586. Software engineers will place less emphasis on the return-on-investment as automated software
process technologies become more pervasive.

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A) True

B) False

587. Successful collaborative efforts involve which of the following?

A) Shared budget

B) Shared culture

C) Shared goals

D) Shared process

E) b, c, d

588. The notion of software specification in requirements engineering may be replaced by valued-driven
requirements derived from stakeholder use of the product.

A) True

B) False

589. Model-driven software development eliminates the need to be concerned with code generation.

A) True

B) False

590. Regression testing is not needed in test-driven development since each sub-function is tested as it
is developed.

A) True

B) False

591. Software engineering environments make it possible to integrate COTS tools from multiple
packages.

A) True

B) False

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Key Solutions

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B C B B A A B B A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B A B E B B A E
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B D B C E C D D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
E B A B A E A A D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B A E A B C A A E B

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A A B A B E B C B A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
C B C A B C A D B A
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
E E B A C B C C E A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B D A A B B B C C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A B A B A A D B D A

101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
B D A C D B A B B C
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D B A B D A C A B E
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D E A E D B B A B D
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B A B C A D B B B A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
B A A E B B E A B E

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151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A C E E A A B B A D
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
D B D A A B E E B A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A E A D D B A D D E
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B E A C D A A E B B
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A A A E B E B B A A

201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
A D B A E A A B B E
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
E E A A E B B D B A
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
C A B B D C A B A C
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
B A B A A B A E B B
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
A A A C A A E A B B

251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
A B A B A D E A B A
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
A B A A B E E D E C
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
A B B A B D A B C C
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
E B B A B D C A E E
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
B E C E B B A A B A

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301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
B B B B A B B A E B
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
D A D E B C A B C D
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
E B A B A C B D A B
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
A A E A B A B A A C
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
B A B A A B E B B D

351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
C A B B D B A A A D
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
C A A A B A B B A E
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
A E B A A B D B A B
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
B A B A A A D E B A
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
B A B C B A A C B D

401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
A A C B C B C D B B
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
E D B E A D A A C C
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
B B B C E A B A A A
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
A B B B A A B C E B
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
B B C E A B B E E D

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451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460
C A D D B D B B E A
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470
B B C E A D E E E E
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
D E B A A E B A B A
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490
D D A C E B B A B C
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
E C A D E E B E C A

501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510
E B A C D A B A A A
511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520
B B A B B A C A E B
521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530
E A C B B B A B C B
531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540
B E E D C B A E B D
541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550
B D B C B A D A C D

551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560
C C B A D B A B A B
561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570
A A B B A D A A E B
571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580
A D A B B D B A A B
581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590
A A D A A B E A B B
591
B

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