MOUNT CARMEL SCHOOL

SYLLABUS AND ASSIGNMENTS

CLASS X
2024 - 2025

INDEX

English 03-11
Mathematics 12-50
Science 51-67
Social Sciences 68-87
Hindi 88-94
Sanskrit 95-115
French 116-122
Spanish 123-125
 FOREWORD
MOUNT CARMEL SCHOOL

This booklet is to inform the parents about the home assignments and
the syllabus break up of all subjects. The assignments are carefully
planned to help the students to improve the learning process and to
be conversant with what is happening in the classroom.
This is going to help all the students especially those who miss the
classes due to unavoidable circumstances.
The major concern of a teacher and learner is to ascertain from time
to time whether the desired learning has taken place. This can only
be seen if the assignments are done by the students as scheduled.
If they follow the pattern they will reap the benefits of systematic
study.
The syllabus is framed term wise for the parent also to assist the
child. It opens a channel of communication between parents and
teachers. The assignments have been compiled to bring out creativity
and improve writing skills of the children. These assignments help-
1. To maintain uniformity of work in all classes;
2. The students and parents to know the work in advance
and what course is going to be done; and
3. To facilitate the students who have taken leave or late
admission to make up missed work.
Suggestions and comments for further improvement of this booklet
are welcome.
Mrs. Anjali Washington
Vice Principal (Academics)

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 BOOKS: LITERATURE READER - First Flight
Supplimentary Reader - Footprints Without Feet
FIRST TERM
APRIL - SEPTEMBER

First Flight
1. A Letter to God
2. Dust of Snow
3. Fire and Ice
4. Nelson Mandela Long walk to Freedom
5. A Tiger in the Zoo
6. Two Stories About Flying
7. How to Tell Wild Animals
8. The Ball Poem
9. From the Diary of Anne Frank
10. Amanda
11. The Hundred Dresses I & II
12. Animals
13. Glimpses of India
14. The Trees
15. Mijbil the otter

Footprints Without Feet

1. A Trimph of Surgery
2. The Thief's Story
3. The Midnight Visitor
4. The Question of Trust
5. The Making of a Scientist
Writing Skills

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 • Letter to Editor
• Complaint Letter
• Enquiry Letter
• Placing an order
• Analytical Paragraph
• Grammar
• Gap Filling
• Editing
• Omission
• Reported speech
• Comprehension

SECOND TERM

OCTOBER - DECEMBER

First Flight
1. Fog
2. Madam Rides the Bus
3. The Tale of Custard the Dragon
4. The Sermon at Benares
5. For Anne Gregory
6. The Proposal

Footprints Without Feet

1. Footprints Without Feet
2. The Necklace
3. The Hack Driver
4. Bholi
5. The Book that Saved the Earth
Revision of all Writing Skills and Grammar Topics as mentioned in
the First Term.
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Assessment of Speaking and Listening skills will be conducted as
per CBSE norms.

ASSIGNMENTS – CLASS X
WRITING SECTION ASSIGNMENTS
Formal letters
1. Letter to the Editor
Write a letter to the Editor of The Times Newspaper, highlighting
increasing technological addiction among the youth.
2. Letter of Enquiry
You are Anu Mehta, the Librarian of Shiksha Bharti School, Tilak
Nagar, New Delhi. Write a letter to Books Universe, Shop No. 11,
Daryagunj, New Delhi, telling of your requirement of buying books
of fiction and making relevant enquiry.
3. Letter of Placing an Order
You are Sakshi/Saksham, Hostel Warden, Radha Krishna
Public School, Vrindavan, Uttar Pradesh. Write a letter to the
Sales Manager, Bharat Electronics and Domestic Appliances
Ltd., New Delhi, placing an order for fans microwaves,
ovens and geysers that you wish to purchase for the hostel.
Also ask for discount permissible on the purchase.
4. Letter of Complaint
You are Ravi/ Raveena Mehra of 64 Sarojini Nagar, New Delhi.
Recently you bought a 584 L Panasonic Refrigerator from Croma
Store in Lajpat Nagar, New Delhi. Within three months of its
purchase you find that the freezer is not functioning properly. Write
a letter of complaint to the dealer requesting him to get it repaired or
replaced at the earliest.
Analytical Paragragh
Question: The chart shows the division of household tasks
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by gender in Great Britain. Write an analytical paragraph
describing the chart given in not more than 200 words.

GRAMMAR ASSIGNMENTS
Gap Filling

1. Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks.

Poor environmental quality has its greatest impact(a)

whose health status is already (b) . Therefore,

environmental health must address the societal and environmental

factors that increase the likelihood of exposure (c) .

(a) i. on people
ii. over people
iii. for people
iv. of people
(b) i. at risk
ii. on risk
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 iii. over risk
iv. of risk

(c) i. for disease

ii. of disease
iii. to disease
iv. by disease

Reported Speech
Read the conversation given below and complete the passage
that follows.

Employer: Why did you leave your previous job?

Applicant: They didn’t meet my requirement.
Employer: What salary do you expect here?
Applicant: I am expecting 10,000 per month.
Employer: We can pay you 7000 per month.
Applicant: I accept this job offer.

The employer asked the applicant (a) . The

applicant replied that they had not met his requirement. The employer
further enquired what salary he expected there. The applicant told
him (b) . The employer concluded by saying
that (c) . The applicant said that he accepted that job
offer.
LITERATURE SECTION ASSIGNMENTS
A Letter To God

1. Why did Lencho go out and get wet in the rain?

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2. ‘A plague of locust would have left more than this.’
When and why does Lencho say these words?
3. Why did Lencho decide to write a letter to God?
4. Why was Lencho angry when he opened the letter
from ‘God’?
Nelson Mandela – A Long Walk To Freedom
1. At the beginning of his speech, Mandela mentions “an
extraordinary human disaster”. What does he mean by
this? What is the “glorious … human achievement” he
speaks of at the end?
2. ‘…they were not able to see what their sacrifices has
wrought…’ Whose sacrifices was Mandela talking
about and why?
3. What according to Mandela is the true wealth of his
nation?
4. When and why did Mandela begin to feel the hunger
for freedom?
Two Stories About FlyingHis
First Flight
1. Why was the young seagull afraid to fly?
2. What finally prompted the young seagull to take his
first plunge?
3. Describe the process of his first flight.
4. How were his efforts rewarded?

The Black Aeroplane

1. “I’ll take the risk.” What is the risk? Why does the
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 narrator take it?
2. Describe the narrator’s experience as he flew the
aeroplane into the storm.
3. Why does the narrator say, “I landed and was not sorry
to walk away from the old Dakota…”?
4. What made the woman in the control room look at the
pilot in a strange manner?

From The Diary of Anne Frank

1. Why do you think Anne can confide more in a diary
than in people?
2. Who was Mrs. Kuperus? How was Anne’s relationship
with her?
3. Who was Mr. Keesing? Why was he annoyed with
Anne and what did he ask her to do?
4. How did Anne turn the table on Mr. Keesing in the
end?
A Baker From Goa

1. How do the elders in Goa remember a baker?

2. Why did the children consider the baker to be their
friend, companion and guide?
3. Is bread an important part of Goan culture? How do
you know?
4. Where were the monthly accounts of the baker
recorded?

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 Coorg

1. What do you know about the people of Coorg?

2. Why does the author call Coorg ‘a piece of heaven’?
3. What does the author, Lokesh Abrol, say about the
coffee estates of Coorg?
4. What do you learn about the Coorgi hospitality and
valour from this account?
Tea From Assam

1. What fascinated Rajvir the most during the train travel

to Assam?
2. How did the landscape change as the train moved?
3. Why do you think the author calls the smoke bellowing
building as ‘ugly’?

4. How does Arup Kumar Dutta describe Dhekiabari Tea

Estate?
Mijbil The Otter
1. Why did Maxwell decide to keep an otter rather than
a dog as a pet?
2. What were some of the favourite pastimes of Mij?
3. What happened to Mij when he was put into the box
for the first time?
4. Why does Maxwell say that the airhostess was ‘the
very queen of her kind’?

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 Madam Rides The Bus

1. What prompted Valli to plan her bus ride?

2. Why didn’t Valli want to make friends with the
elderly woman in the bus?
3. What did Valli see on her way that made her laugh?
4. Why did Valli decline the conductor’s offer to get her
a cold drink?
The Sermon at Benaras

1. When and where did Siddhartha Gautama get

enlightenment?
2. What did Kisa Gotami do immediately after her only
son’s death and why?
3. How was Kisa Gotami a wiser woman after her
meeting with Buddha?
4. What parallel does Buddha draw between mortals
and a ripe fruit and earthen vessels?
The Proposal

1. How does Chubokov initially treat Lomov when he

visits his home?
2. Do you think Natalya has really understood the
hidden meaning of her father’s words, “Go; there’s
a merchant come for his goods.”? Give reasons for
your answer.
3. What causes the first quarrel between Lomov and
Natalya?
4. What do Chubukov and Natalya say about Lomov’s
hunting skills? Why do they say so?
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 MATHEMATICS
Text Books: 1. Mathematics X (NCERT & Exemplar)
2. Mathematics by R.D. Sharma
SYLLABUS
1. Real Numbers
2. Polynomials
3. Pair of linear Equation in Two Variables
4. Quadratic Equations
5. Arithmetic Progression
6. Triangles
7. Coordinate Geometry
8. Introduction to Trigonometry
9. Some Applications of Trigonometry
10. Circles
11. Areas Related to Circles.
12. Surface Areas and Volume
13. Statistics
14. Probability.

PT1: 5 Chapters PT2 & PT3 : Full Syllabus

Sl No UNIT Marks
1. Real Numbers 6
2. Algebra 20
3. Coordinate Geometry 6
4. Geometry 15
5. Trigonometry 12
6. Mensuration 10
7. Statistics & Probability 11
Total 80
PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS

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REAL NUMBERS
1. Find the largest number that will divide 445, 572 and 699 leaving
remainders 4, 5 and 6 respectively.
2. Find the HCF and LCM of 29029 and 1740 by using the fundamental
theorem of arithmetic.
3. Three lighthouses flash their lights every 15 seconds, 12 seconds and
18 seconds respectively. If they last flashed together at 9: 15 am, then
at what time will they next flash together?
4. On a morning walk, three people step off together and their steps
measure 90 cm, 80 cm and 85 cm respectively. What is the minimum
distance each of them will cover before they meet again.
5. In a teachers' workshop, the number of teachers teaching French,
Hindi and English are 48, 80 and 144 respectively. Find the
minimum number of rooms required if in each room the same
number of teachers are seated and all of them are of the same
subject.
6. The dimensions of a room are 8m 10 cm, 6m 30 cm and 5m 40 cm.
Find the length of the longest rod in cm, which can measure these
dimensions exactly.
7. Prove that √2 +3 is irrational.
8. Find the LCM and HCF of 72 and 105 and verify that the LCM x
HCF= product of two numbers.
3
9. Prove that √2 + is irrational.
√2

POLYNOMIALS
1. Draw the graph of the polynomial x2 + 2x + 8. Also find its zeroes from
the graph.
2. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial √3𝑥2 − 8𝑥 + 4√3 and
verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
3. Find the quadratic polynomial for which the sum and the product of
zeroes are √2, −12 respectively.
4. If one zero of the polynomial (a2 + 9)x2 +13 x + 6a is reciprocal of
the other, find the value of a.
5. If m and n are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 4x + 3 show that
1 14
𝑚
− 2𝑚𝑛 + 3
=0

6. If 𝛼 and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 2x2 -5x + 7 , then find a
quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are (3α +4β ) and (4α + 3β) .

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7. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeroes of 4x2 + 3x – 7 , evaluate α-3 + β-3.

PAIR OF LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

1. Rohan’s mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages
3 years from now will be 360, find Rohan’s present age.
2. A shopkeeper gives books on rent for reading. She takes a fixed
charge for the first two days, and an additional charge for each day
thereafter. Latika paid Rs 22 for a book kept for six days, while
Anand paid Rs 16 for the book kept for four days. Find the fixed
charges and the charge for each extra day.
3. In a competitive examination, one mark is awarded for each
correct answer while ½ mark is deducted for every wrong
answer. Jayanti answered 120 questions and got 90 marks. How
many questions did she answer correctly?
4. The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are A = (6x + 10)°, B
= (5x)° C = (x + y)°, D = (3y –10)° Find x and y, and hence the
valuesof the four angles.
5. Jamila sold a table and a chair for Rs 1050, thereby making a
profit of 10% on the table and 25% on the chair. If she had
taken a profitof 25% on the table and 10% on the chair, she
would have got Rs 1065. Find the cost price of each.
6. It takes 12 hours to fill a swimming pool using two pipes. If the
pipe of larger diameter is used for 4hours and the pipe of smaller
diameter for 9 hours, only half the pool can be filled. How long
would it take for each pipe to fill the pool separately?
7. Ankita travels 14 km to her home partly by rickshaw and partly
by bus. She takes half an hour if she travels 2 km by rickshaw,
and the remaining distance by bus. On the other hand, if she
travels 4 km by rickshaw and the remaining distance by bus, she
takes 9 minutes longer. Find the speed of the rickshaw and of
the bus.
8. A person, rowing at the rate of 5 km/h in still water, takes thrice
as much time to go 40 km upstream as in going 40 km
downstream. Find the speed of the stream.
9. For which values of p and q, will the following pair of linear
equations have infinitely many solutions? 4x + 5y = 2 (2p + 7q)

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 x + (p + 8q) y = 2q – p + 1.
10. Draw the graphs of the pair of linear equations x – y + 2 = 0
and 4x – y – 4 = 0. Calculate the area of the triangle formed by
the lines so drawn and the x-axis.
11. For which value(s) of λ, do the pair of linear equations λx + y =
λ2 and x + λy = 1 have (i) no solution? (ii) infinitely many
solutions (iii) a unique solution?
12. A railway half ticket costs half the full fare, but the reservation
charges are the same on a half ticket as on a full ticket. One
reserved first-class ticket from station A to B costs Rs 2530.
Also, one reserved first-class ticket and one reserved first-class
half ticket from A to B costs Rs. 3810. Find the full first class fare
from station A to B
13. In a Chemistry lab, there is some quantity of 50% acid solution
and some quantity of 25% acid solution. How much of each
solution should be mixed to make 10 litres of 40% acid
solution?
14. Susan invested a certain amount of money in two schemes A
and B, which offer interest at the rate of 8% per annum and 9%
per annum, respectively. She received Rs 1860 as annual
interest. However, had she interchanged the amount of
investments in the two schemes, she would have received Rs 20
more as annual interest. How much money did she invest in
each scheme?
15. Vijay had some bananas, and he divided them into two lots A
and B. He sold the first lot at the rate of Rs 2 for 3 bananas and
the second lot at the rate of Re 1 per banana and got a total of Rs
400. If he had sold the first lot at the rate of Re 1 per banana,
and the second lot at the rate of Rs 4 for 5 bananas, his total
collection would have been Rs 460. Find the total number of
bananas he had.
QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
1. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 2x2 − √5x – 2 = 0
using the quadratic formula.
2. Find the roots of 6x2 – √2x – 2 = 0 by the factorization of

15
 the corresponding quadratic polynomial.
3. Check whether the equation 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 has real roots,
and if it has, find them by the method of completing the
squares.
4. Find a natural number whose square diminished by 84 is
equal to thrice of 8 more than the given number.
5. A natural number, when increased by 12, equals 160 times
its reciprocal. Find the number.
6. A train, travelling at a uniform speed for 360 km, would
have taken 48 minutes less to travel the same distance if its
speed were 5 km/h more. Find the original speed of the
train.
7. If Zeba were younger by 5 years than what she really is,
then the square of her age (in years) would have been 11
more than five times her actual age. What is her age now?
8. At present Asha’s age (in years) is 2 more than the square
of her daughter Nisha’s age. When Nisha grows to her
mother’s present age, Asha’s age would be one year less
than 10 times the present age of Nisha. Find the present ages
of both Asha and Nisha.
9. At t minutes past 2 pm, the time needed by the minute
hand of a clock to show 3 pm was found to be 3 minutes
less than t²/4 minutes. Find t
10. In the centre of a rectangular lawn of dimensions 50 m × 40
m, a rectangular pond has to be constructed so that the area
of the grass surrounding the pond would be 1184 m2 [see
Fig.]. Find the length and breadth of the pond

11.A train travels at a certain average speed for 63 km and

then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/h

16
 more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the
total journey, what is its original average speed?
ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION
1. The first and the last terms of an AP are 17 and 350 respectively. If
the common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is
their sum?
2. Divya deposited Rs 1000 at compound interest at the rate of 10% per
annum. The amounts at the end of first year, second year, third year,
..., form an AP. Justify your answer
3. Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one AP
is 2 and that of the other is 7. The difference between their 10th terms
is the same as the difference between their 21st terms, which is the
same as the difference between any two corresponding terms. Why?
4. Is 0 a term of the AP: 31, 28, 25, ...? Justify your answer.
5. The ratio of the 11th term to the 18th term of an AP is 2:3. Find the
ratio of the 5th term to the 21st term, and also the ratio of the sum of
the first five terms to the sum of the first 21 terms..
6. The sum of the first three terms of an AP is 33. If the product of the
first and the third term exceeds the second term by 29, find the AP.
7. Split 207 into three parts such that these are in AP and the product of
the two smaller parts is 4623.
8. The angles of a triangle are in AP. The greatest angle is twice the
least. Find all the angles of the triangle.
9. If the nth terms of the two APs: 9, 7, 5, ... and 24, 21, 18,... are the
same, find the value of n. Also find that term.
10. If sum of the 3rd and the 8th terms of an AP is 7 and the sum of the
7th and the 14th terms is –3, find the 10th term.
11. Find the 12th term from the end of the AP: –2, –4, –6,..., –100.
12. Which term of the AP: 53, 48, 43,... is the first negative term?
13. How many numbers lie between 10 and 300, which when divided by
4 leave a remainder 3?
14. Find the sum of first seven numbers which are multiples of 2 as well
as of 9.
15. The sum of four consecutive numbers in an AP is 32 and the ratio of
the product of the first and the last terms to the product of the two
middle terms is 7 : 15. Find the numbers.
16. The sum of the first five terms of an AP and the sum of the first seven

17
 terms of the same AP is 167. If the sum of the first ten terms of this
AP is 235, find the sum of its first twenty terms.
17. In an AP of 40 terms, the sum of first 9 terms is 153 and the sum of
last 6 terms is 687. Determine the first term and common difference
of AP.
18. Find the (i) sum of those integers between 1 and 500 which are
multiples of 2 as well as of 5.
(ii) Sum of those integers from 1 to 500 which are multiples of 2
aswell as of 5 .
(iii) sum of integers from 1 to 500 which are multiples of 2 or 5.
.
19. Solve the equation – 4 + (–1) + 2 +...+ x = 437, if the numbers are in AP.
20. Jaspal Singh repays his total loan of Rs 118000 by paying every
month starting with the first instalment of Rs 1000. If he increases the
instalment by Rs 100 every month, what amount will be paid by him
in the 30th instalment? What amount of loan does he still have to pay
after the 30th instalment?
21. Show that the sum of an AP whose first term is a, the second term b
(𝑎+𝑐)(𝑏+𝑐−2𝑎)
and the last term c, is equal to 2(𝑏−𝑎)

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TRIANGLES
1. Find the value of x for which DE || AB is given figure

2. In the figure, if ∠1 = ∠2and ∆NSQ ≅ ∆MTR, thenprove that

∆PTS ~ ∆PRQ.

3. In the figure if AB || DC and AC and PQ intersect eachother at

point O, prove that OA . CQ = OC. AP.

4. If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF, AB = 4 cm, DE = 6 cm, EF = 9 cmand FD =

12 cm, find the perimeter of ∆ABC.

5. A 15m high tower casts a shadow 24m long at a certain time and
at the same time, a telephone polecasts a shadow 16m long. Find
the height of the telephone pole.

6. In the figure, if DE || BC, find the ratio of ar(∆ADE)and

ar(∆ECB).

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7. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P, Q are points on
AD and BC, respectively such that PQ || DC. If PD = 18 cm, BQ
= 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.

8. In the figure, if ∠ACB = ∠CDA, AC = 8 cm and AD =

3 cm, find BD.

9. In the given figure, if ∠A = ∠C, AB = 6 cm, BP = 15 cm, AP

= 12 cm and CP = 4 cm, then find the lengthsof PD and CD.
10. It is given that ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF such that AB = 5 cm,AC = 7
cm, DF = 15 cm and DE = 12 cm. Find the lengths of the
remaining sides of the triangles.

11. In the given figure PA, QB and RC are each perpendicular to AC.
1 1 1
If AP = x, BQ = y and CR=z, then prove that 𝑥 + 𝑧 = 𝑦

12. In the figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram and AB || PS,then

prove that OC || SR.

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13. In the given figure, l || m and line segments AB, CDand EF
are concurrent at point P. Prove that AE/BF=CE/FD
1.

14. In Fig. line segment DF intersect the side AC of a triangle ABC

at thepoint E such that E is the mid-point of CA and ∠AEF =
∠AFE. Prove that BD/CD =BF/CE
B
F
C E A

CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
1. Name the type of quadrilateral formed, if any, by the following
points, and give reasons for your answer: (–3, 5), (3, 1), (0, 3), (–1,
– 4).
2. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the
points (4, 3) and (2, 1).
3. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment
joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) in the ratio 3: 4.
4. Show that the points (1, 1), (3, - 2) and (- 1, 4) are collinear.
5. Find the centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (3, - 5); (- 7, 4)
and (10, - 2).

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6. If the distance of the point P(x, y) from the points A (5, 1) and B (-
1, 5) is equal, show that 3x = 2y
7. AD is a median of AABC with vertices A(5, 6), B(6, 4) and C(0,0).
Find the length.
8. If the points A (1, –2), B (2, 3) C (a, 2) and D (– 4, –3) form a
parallelogram, find the value of ‘a’ and height of the parallelogram
taking AB as base.

9. If the mid-point of the line segment joining points A (3, 4) and B

(k, 6) is P (x, y) and x + y – 10 = 0, find the value of k.

10. Students of a school are standing in rows and columns in their

playground for a drill practice. A, B, C and D are the positions of
four students as shown in figure. Is it possible to place Jaspal in the
drill in such a way that he is equidistant from each of the four
students A, B, C and D? If so, what should be his position?

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INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
1. In the fig. ∠ABC = ∠BCD = 900 , ∠DAB = 𝜃, ∠DBC =∅ , AB = 14
units , BC = 12 units and BD = 13 units. Find the value of:

(i) sin ∅ (ii) cot𝜃 (iii) sec𝜃

2𝑠𝑒𝑐𝐴+1 √𝑎2 +𝑏2
2. If cotA = b/a, prove that 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴+2
= 𝑏

3. ∆ ACB is a right triangle, right angled at C, in which AB = 40 units,

BC = 20 units and ∠ABC = 𝜃. Determine the values of:
1−𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 2
(i) sin2𝜃 +cos2𝜃 (ii) 1+𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃2

4. If √3 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = 3𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑛 𝜃 , find the value of 𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑛2 𝜃- 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃 𝜃.

𝑝𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃−𝑞cos𝜃 𝑝2 −𝑞2
5. If 𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = 𝑝/𝑞, show that 𝑝𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃+𝑞cos𝜃
=
𝑝2 +𝑞2

𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃2 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 2
6. If 𝑎𝑛 𝜃 = 1/√7, find the value of )
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃2 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 2

(2+2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)(1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)
7. If cot 𝜃 = 15/8, evaluate (1+𝑐0𝑠𝜃)(2−2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)

8−√5
8. If tan A = 2, prove that sinA.sec A + tan A – cosecA = 2
9. A rhombus of side 14 cm has two angles of 600 each. Find the lengths
of the diagonals of the rhombus.
10. (𝑠i𝑛 𝜃 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2 + (𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2 = (1 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃)2
11. 𝐴 chord of length 10 cm subtends an angle of 1200 at the centre of a
circle. Calculate its distance from the centre.
12. If cos x = cos600 cos 300 + sin 600 sin300 , find x.
13. 𝑆in A(1 +tan A ) + cos A (1+ cot A) = secA + cosec A
14. 𝑡𝑎𝑛2𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 2 𝜃 + 2 = 𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝜃
15. If cos 𝜃 + 𝑠i𝑛 𝜃 = √2𝑐𝑜s 𝜃, 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃- sin 𝜃 = √2sin 𝜃
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴2 −3 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴+2
16. Solve : 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴2
=1, sinA ≠ 0

23
 17. Show that tan4 θ + tan2 θ = sec4 θ – sec2 θ

SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY

1. If the length of the shadow of a tower increases, then the angle of
elevation of the sun is also increasing. (True / False)
2. If a man standing on a platform 3 metres above the surface of a lake
observes a cloud and its reflection in the lake, then the angle of
elevation of the cloud is equal to the angle of depression of its
reflection. (True / False)
3. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30°. If the height of the
tower is doubled, then the angle of elevation of its top will also be
doubled. (True / False)
4. If the height of a tower and the distance of the point of observation
from its foot, both, are increased by 10%, then the angle of elevation
of its top remains unchanged. (True / False)
5. A ladder 15 metres long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the
ladder makes an angle of 60° with the wall, find the height of the wall.
6. An observer 1.5 metres tall is 20.5 metres away from a tower 22
metres high. Determine the angle of elevation of the top of the tower
from the eye of the observer.
7. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high from the foot
of another tower in the same plane is 60° and the angle of elevation
of the top of the second tower from the foot of the first tower is 30°.
Find the distance between the two towers and also the height of the
other tower.
8. From the top of a tower h m high, the angles of depression of two
objects, which are in line with the foot of the tower are α and β (β >
α). Find the distance between the two objects.
9. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point on
the ground is 60o . From another point 10 m vertically above the first,
its angle of elevation is 45o . Find the height of the tower.
10. The window of a house is h metres above the ground. From the
window,the angles of elevation and depression of the top and the
bottom ofanother house situated on the opposite side of the lane are
found to be α and β, respectively. Prove that the height of the other
house is h (1
+ tan α cot β ) metres.
11. The lower window of a house is at a height of 2 m above the ground
and its upper window is 4 m vertically above the lower window. At
certain instant the angles of elevation of a balloon from these
windows are observed to be 60o and 30o , respectively. Find the height
24
 of the balloon above the ground.

12. From a point on a bridge across a river, the angle of depression of the
banks on opposite sides of the river are 30 0 and 450 respectively. If
the bridge is at a height of 3m from the banks, find the width of the
river.
13. The angle of depression of the top and bottom of a 8m tall
buildingfrom the top of a multi storied building are 300 and 450
respectively. Find the height of the multi –storied building and the
distance between the two buildings

CIRCLES
1. If AB and CD are two chords intersecting at a point P inside the
circle such that AP= CP, show that AB = CD.

2. The incircle of ∆ABC touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E and

F respectively. Show that AF + BD + CE = AE + BF +CD =
½(perimeter of ABC)

3. If all the sides of a parallelogram touch a circle, show that the

parallelogram is a rhombus.

4. If angle between two radii of a circle is 130º, the angle between the
tangents at the ends of the radii is -------------
5. A pair of tangents AP and AQ drawn from an external pointA to a
circle with centre O, are perpendicular to each other and lengthof
each tangent is 5 cm. Then the radius of the circle is ---------------
6. In Fig., find ∠DOC.
A

B
125
O

D C
7. In Fig. , if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q whose centre is O,
AB is a chord parallel to PR and ∠BQR = 70°, then ∠AQB is equal
to
25
 A B

70o
P Q R
8. If an isosceles triangle ABC, in which AB = AC = 6 cm, is inscribed
in a circle of radius 9 cm, find the area of the triangle.
9. A is a point at a distance 13 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius
5 cm. AP and AQ are the tangents to the circle at P and Q. If a tangent
BC is drawn at a point R lying on the minor arc PQ to intersect AP
at B and AQ at C, find the perimeter of the ∆ABC.
10. The tangent at a point C of a circle and a diameter AB when extended
intersect at P. If ∠PCA=110º , find ∠CBA.
C

P B O A

11. In Fig. , tangents PQ and PR are drawn to a circle such that ∠RPQ =
30°. A chord RS is drawn parallel to the tangent PQ. Find the ∠RQS.
S R

30o
Q P

AREA RELATED TO CIRCLES

1. In Fig, a square is inscribed in a circle of diameter d and another
square is circumscribing the circle. Is the area of the outer square four
times the area of the inner square? Give reasons for your answer.

26
2. Find the difference of the areas of two segments of a circle formed by
a chord of length 5 cm subtending an angle of 90° at the centre.
3. Find the difference of the areas of a sector of angle 120° and its
corresponding major sector of a circle of radius 21 cm.
4. The sides of a triangular field are 15 m, 16 m and 17 m. With the
three corners of the field a cow, a buffalo and a horse are tied
separately with ropes of length 7 m each to graze in the field. Find
the area of the field which cannot be grazed by the three animals.
5. The diameters of front and rear wheels of a tractor are 80 cm and 2 m
respectively. Find the number of revolutions that rear wheel will
make in covering a distance in which the front wheel makes 1400
revolutions.
6. On a square cardboard sheet of area 784 cm2, four congruent circular
plates of maximum size are placed such that each circular plate
touches the other two plates and each side of the square sheet is
tangent to two circular plates. Find the area of the square sheet not
covered by the circular plates.
7. In the given figure, diameters AC and BD of the circle
intersect at O. If ∠AOB= 60° and OA = 10 cm, then find the
length of the chord AB as well as the area of shaded region.

8. The floor of a room is of dimensions 5 m × 4 m and it is covered

with circular tiles of diameters 50 cm each as shown in Fig. Find the

27
 areaof floor that remains uncovered with tiles. (Use π = 3.14)
9. In Fig., AB is a diameter of the circle, AC = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm.
Find the area of the shaded region (Use π = 3.14).

10. In Fig., arcs are drawn by taking vertices A, B and C of an equilateral

triangle of side 10 cm. to intersect the sides BC, CA and AB at their
respective mid-points D, E and F. Find the area of the shaded region

11. In Fig. , arcs have been drawn with radii 14 cm each and with centres
P, Q and R. Find the area of the shaded region.

12. PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6cm. The lengths PQ, QR

and RS are equal. Semi- circles are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters
as shown in figure. Find the perimeter and area o

28
13.
In Two circular flower beds have been shown on two sides of a square
lawn ABCD of side 56m.If the centre of each circular flower bed is the point of
intersection O of the diagonals of the square lawn, find the sum of the areas of
the lawn and flower bed.

14. In the given fig. ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle

of radius 4 cm and centre O. Find the area of the shaded region.

15. In the given figure , a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, AB

perpendicular to the radius OA and meet OP produced at B prove that
the perimeter of shaded region in terms of ℼ.

SURFACE AREA &VOLUME

1. A cone of maximum size is carved out from a cube of edge 14 cm. Find
the surface area of the cone and of the remaining solid left out after the
cone is carved out.
2. Three cubes of a metal whose edges are in the ratio 3:4:5 are melted
and converted into a single cube whose diagonal is 12√3 cm. Find
theedges of the three cubes
3. A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right

29
 circular cone. The height of the cone is 4 cm and the diameter of the
base is 8 cm. Determine the volume of the toy. If a cube circumscribes
the toy, then find the difference of the volumes of cube and the toy.
Also, find the total surface area of the toy.
4. A conical vessel, with base radius 5cm and height 24 cm, is full of
water. This water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel of base radius
10 cm. Find the height to which the water will rise in the cylindrical
vessel.
5. The difference between the inner and outer radii of a hollow right
circular cylinder of height 14cm is 1cm. If the volume of the metal
used in making the cylinder is 176cm 3, find the outer and inner radii
of the cylinder.
6. A well diameter 4 m dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out is spread
evenly all around the well to form a 40 cm high embankment. Find
the width of the embankment.
7. A right triangle having side 15 cm and 20 cm is made to revolve about
its hypotenuse. Find the Volume and surface area of double cone so
formed.
8. Water in a canal 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep is flowing with a speed of
10 km/h. How much area in hectare will irrigate in 30 mins if 8 cm
of standing water is needed.
9. A vessel full of water is in the form of an inverted cone height 8 cm
and the radius of its top, which is open, is 5 cm. 100 spherical balls
are dropped into vessel. one-fourth of the water flows out of the
vessel. Find the radius of a spherical ball.
10. A cone is cut by a plane parallel to the base and upper part is removed.
If the CSA of the remainder is 15/6 of CSA of whole cone, Find the
ratio of the line segment to which the cone's height is divided by the
plane.
11. A building is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a hemispherical
dome (see Fig.). The base diameter of the dome is equal to 2/ 3 of the
total height of the building. Find the height of the building, if it
1
contains 67 m3 of air.
21

H
30
 STATISTICS
1. The percentage of marks obtained by 100 students in an
examination are given below:
Marks 30- 35- 40- 45- 50- 55- 60 -
35 40 45 50 55 60 65

Frequency 14 16 18 23 18 8 3

Determine the median percentage of marks.

2. The weight of coffee in 70 packets are shown in the following
table:
Weight 200- 201 - 202 - 203- 204 – 205 -
(in g) 201 202 203 204 205 206

Number 12 26 20 9 2 1
of
packets
Determine the modal weight.
3. Find the mean, median and mode of the following data:
Classes 0- 10 – 20 - 30 – 40 - 50 – 60 -
10 20 30 40 50 60 70

Frequency 3 8 10 15 7 4 3

4. An aircraft has 120 passenger seats. The number of seats

occupied during 100 flights is given in the following table :
Number of 100- 104- 108- 112- 116-
seats 104 108 112 116 120

Frequency 15 20 32 18 15

Determine the mean number of seats occupied over the flights.

31
5. A student finds the average of 10 positive integers. Each integer
consists of two digits. By mistake the student interchanges the
digits of one number. Due to this mean becomes 1.8 less than the
previous one. What was the difference of digits of the number,
which was wrongly written.
6. The mean of n observations is 𝑥. If the first term is increased by
1,second by 2 and so on prove that the new mean will be
𝑛+1
𝑥+ 2
7. If the median of the distribution is 28.5, find x and y
CI 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 Total
Frequency 5 x 20 15 y 5 60

8. 50 students enter for a school javelin throw

competition.The distance (in m ) thrown are recorded
below.
Distance in m 0 – 20 20 -40 40 - 60 60 – 80 80 - 100

No. of 6 11 17 12 4
students
Construct a cumulative frequency table.

32
PROBABILITY
1. Two dice are thrown at the same time. Find the probability of getting
(i) same number on both dice. (ii) different numbers on both dice.
2. Two dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the product
of the numbers on the top of the dice is (i) 6 (ii) 12 (iii) 7
3. Two dice are thrown at the same time and the product of numbers
appearing on them is noted. Find the probability that the product is
less than 9.
4. The king, queen and jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52
playing cards and then well shuffled. Now one card is drawn at
random from the remaining cards. Determine the probability that the
card is (i) a heart (ii) a king. What is the probability that the card is
(i) a club (ii) 10 of hearts
5. All the jacks, queens and kings are removed from a deck of 52 playing
cards. The remaining cards are well shuffled and then one card is
drawn at random. Giving ace a value 1 similar value for other cards,
find the probability that the card has a value (i) 7 (ii) greater than 7
(iii) less than 7
6. An integer is chosen between 0 and 100. What is the probability that
it is (i) divisible by 7? (ii) not divisible by 7?
7. Cards with numbers 2 to 101 are placed in a box. A card is selected
at random. Find the probability that the card has (i) an even number
(ii) a square number
8. There are 1000 sealed envelopes in a box, 10 of them contain a cash
prize of Rs 100 each, 100 of them contain a cash prize of Rs 50 each
and 200 of them contain a cash prize of Rs 10 each and rest do not
contain any cash prize. If they are well shuffled and an envelope is
picked up out, what is the probability that it contains no cash prize?
9. Box A contains 25 slips of which 19 are marked Re 1 and other are
marked Rs 5 each. Box B contains 50 slips of which 45 are marked
Re 1 each and others are marked Rs 13 each. Slips of both boxes are
poured into a third box and resuffled. A slip is drawn at random. Whatis
the probability that it is marked other than Re 1?
1 0. A
10. carton
The of 24 bulbs
percentage contain
of marks 6 defective
obtained by 100bulbs. Oneinbulbs
students is drawn a t
an examination
are givenWhat
random. below:
is the probability that the bulb is not defective? If the
bulb selected is defective and it is not replaced, and a second bulb
isselected at random from the rest, what is the probability that the

33
 second bulb is defective?
11. A child’s game has 8 triangles of which 3 are blue and rest are red,
and 10 squares of which 6 are blue and rest are red. One piece is lost
at random. Find the probability that it is a (i) triangle (ii) square (iii)
square of blue colour (iv) triangle of red colour
12. In a game, the entry fee is Rs 5. The game consists of a tossing a coin
3 times. If one or two heads show, Sweta gets her entry fee back. If
she throws 3 heads, she receives double the entry fees. Otherwise she
will lose. For tossing a coin three times, find the probability that she
(i) loses the entry fee. (ii) gets double entry fee. (iii) just gets her entry
fee.
13. A die has its six faces marked 0, 1, 1, 1, 6, 6. Two such dice are
thrown together and the total score is recorded. (i) How many
different scores are possible? (ii) What is the probability of getting a
total of 7?
14. A lot consists of 48 mobile phones of which 42 are good, 3 have only
(i)
minor defects and 3 have major defects. Varnika will buy a phone if
it is good but the trader will only buy a mobile if it has no major
defect. One phone is selected at random from the lot. What is the
probability that it is (i) acceptable to Varnika? (ii) acceptable to the
trader?
15. A bag contains 24 balls of which x are red, 2x are white and 3x are
14.
blue. A ball is selected at
random. What is the probability that it is (i) not red? (ii) white?
15.
16. At a fete, cards bearing numbers 1 to 1000, one number on one card,
are put in a box. Each player selects one card at random and that card
is not replaced. If the selected card has a perfect square greater than
500, the player wins a prize. What is the probability that (i) the first
player wins a prize? (ii) the second player wins a prize, if the first has
won?

34
 MATHEMATICS
MCQ REAL NUMBERS
1) What is the greatest possible speed at which a man can
walk 52 km and 91 km in an exact number of minutes?
(a) 17 m/min
(b) 7 m/min
(c) 13 m/min
(d) 26 m/min
2) If A = 2n + 13, B = n + 7, where n is a natural number then
HCF of A and B is:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 4
3) Pairs of natural numbers whose least common multiple is
78 and the greatest common divisor is 13 are:
(a) 58 and 13 or 16 and 29
(b) 68 and 23 or 36 and 49
(c) 18 and 73 or 56 and 93
(d) 78 and 13 or 26 and 39
4) Two natural numbers whose sum is 85 and the least
common multiple is 102 are:
(a) 30 and 55
(b) 17 and 68
(c) 35 and 55
(d) 51 and 34
5) 4 Bells toll together at 9.00 am. They toll after 7, 8, 11 and
12 seconds respectively. How many times will they toll
together again in the next 3 hours?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
6) A forester wants to plant 66 apple trees, 88 banana trees
and 110 mango trees in equal rows (in terms of number of
trees). Also he wants to make distinct rows of trees (i.e.,

35
 only one type of trees in one row). The number of
minimum rows required are
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 10
(d) 12
7) A number 10x + y is multiplied by another number 10a +
b and the result comes as 100p + 10q +r, where r = 2y, q =
2(x + y) and p = 2x; x, y < 5, q ≠ 0. The value of 10a + b
may be:
(a) 11
(b) 13
(c) 31
(d) 22
8) If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m –
117, then the value of m is
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
9) The largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving
remainders 5 and 8 respectively, is
(a) 13
(b) 65
(c) 875
(d) 1750
10) If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x 3y2 and
b = xy3; x, y are prime numbers, then HCF (a, b) is
(a) xy
(b) xy2
(c) x3y3
(d) x2y

POLYNOMIALS
1) The quadratic polynomial whose sum of zeroes is 3 and
product of zeroes is –2 is :
(a) x2 + 3x – 2
(b) x2 – 2x + 3

36
 (c) x2 – 3x + 2
(d) x2 – 3x – 2
2) If (x + 1) is a factor of 2x3 + ax2 + 2bx + 1, then find the
values of a and b given that 2a – 3b = 4
(a) a = –1, b = –2
(b) a = 2, b = 5
(c) a = 5, b = 2
(d) a = 2, b = 0
3) The number of zeroes that polynomial f(x) = (x – 2)2 + 4 can
have is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 3
4) The zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = 4x2 – 12x + 9 are:

(a)
(b)
(c) 3, 4
(d) –3, –4
5) If p(x) is a polynomial of at least degree one and p(k) = 0,
then k is known as
(a) value of p(x)
(b) zero of p(x)
(c) constant term of p(x)
(d) none of these
6) If p(x) = ax + b, then zero of p(x)
(a) a
(b) b
(c)
(d)
7) Graph of a quadratic polynomial is a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) parabola
(d) ellipse

37
8) Zeroes of a polynomial can be determined graphically.
Number of zeroes of a polynomial is equal to number of
points where the graph of polynomial
(a) intersects y-axis
(b) intersects x-axis
(c) intersects y-axis or intersects x-axis
(d) none of these
9) If graph of a polynomial does not intersects the x-axis but
intersects y-axis in one point, then no, of zeroes of the
polynomial is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 0 or 1
(d) none of these

10) A polynomial of degree n has

(a) only 1 zero
(b) exactly n zeroes
(c) atmost n zeroes
(d) more than n zeroes

QUADRATIC EQUATIONS
1) Every quadratic polynomial can have at most
(a) three zeros (b) one zero
(c) two zeros (d) none of these

2) If x2 + 5px + 16 has no real roots, then

(a)

(b)

(c)
(d) none of these

38
3. For ax2 + bx + c = 0, which of the following statement is
wrong?
(a) If b2 – 4ac is a perfect square, the roots are rational.
(b) If b2/4 = ac , the roots are real and equal.
(c) If b2/ ac= – 4 is negative, no real roots exist.
(d) If b2 = 4ac , the roots are real and unequal.

4. The roots of the equation 9x2 – bx + 81 = 0 will be equal,

if the value of b is
(a) ± 9 (b) ± 18
(c) ± 27 (d) ± 54

5. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?

(a) 3x2 – 5x + 9

(b)
(c) x2 – 9x = 0
(d)

6. For what value of t is a solution of 7x2 + tx – 3 = 0

(a) –6

(b)

(c)
(d) 6

7. The value of p for equation 2x2 – 4x + p = 0 to have real

roots will be
(a) p ≤ –2 (b) p ≥ 2
(c) p ≤ 2 (d) p ≥ –2

8. Which of the following has real roots?

39
 9. If p = 1 and q = –2 are roots of equation x2 – px + q = 0 ,
then quadratic equation will be
(a) x2 + 2x –1= 0 (b) x2 – x – 2 = 0
(c) x – 2x + 1= 0
2
(d) x2 + x + 2 = 0

10. Roots of quadratic equation x2 – 3x = 0 , will be

(a) 3 (b) 0, –3
(c) 0, 3 (d) none of these

CIRCLES
1. If , PA and PB are tangents from P to a circle with centre O. If
∠AOB = 130°, then find ∠APB.
(a) 40° (b) 55°
(c) 50° (d) 60°

2. In the given figure, PT is a tangent to a circle whose centre is

O. If PT = 12 cm and PO = 13 cm then find the radius of the circle.
(a) 5 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 4.5 cm

3. In the given figure, PT is a tangent to the circle and O is its

centre. Find OP.
(a) 16 cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 18 cm (d) 17 cm
4. In the given figure, ABC is a right triangle ,right angled at B
such that BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
(a) 3 cm (b) 2 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm

5. In the figure, Ab is a chord of length 16 cm, of a circle of radius

10 cm. The tangents at A and B intersect at a point P. Find the
length of PA.

40
 (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

SUFRACE AREA AND VOLUME

1. If a solid, cone of base radius ‘r’ and height ‘h’ is placed over a
solid cylinder having same base radius ‘r’ and height – ‘h’ as that
of the cone, then the curved surface area of the shape

is Is it true?
(a) No (b) Yes
(c) May be (d) Cannot be determined

2. A cylinder and a cone are of the same base radius and same
height. Find the ratio of the volumes of the cylinder of that of the
cone.
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
3. A solid sphere is cut into two hemispheres. The ratio of the
surface areas of sphere to that of two hemispheres taken together,
is :
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:4 (d) 2:3

4. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of

common base radius 7 cm. The total height of the toy is 31 cm.
Find the total surface area of the toy.
(a) 465 (b) 912
(c) 769 (d) 858

5. What is the area of a semi–circle of radius 5 cm?

(a) 78.57 cm (b) 71.42 cm
(c) 63.18 cm (d) 79.86 cm

COORDINATE GEOMETRY
41
1.Find the coordinates of the point equidistant from the points
A(1, 2), B (3, –4) and C(5, –6).
(a) (2, 3) (b) (–1, –2)
(c) (0, 3) (d) (1, 3)

2. Find the coordinates of the point equidistant from the points

A(5, 1), B(–3, –7) and C(7, –1).
(a) (2, –4) (b) (3, –6)
(c) (4, 7) (d) (8, –6)

3. Two of the vertices of a triangle ABC are given by A(6, 4) and

B (–2, 2) and its centroid is G(3, 4). Find the coordinates of the
third vertex C of the ΔABC.
(a) (2, 3) (b) (4, 6)
(c) (4, 3) (d) (5, 6)

4. Find the value of P for which the point (–1, 3), (2, p) and (5, –
1) are collinear.
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1

5. Find the distance of the point (–6, 8) from the origin.

(a) 8 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 9

6. Find the value of p for which the points (–5, 1), (1, p) and (4,
–2) are collinear.
(a) –3 (b) –2
(c) 0 (d) –1

7. Find the value of k if the points A(2, 3), B(4, k) and C(6, –3)
are collinear.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 0 (d) 1

8. In what ratio of line x – y – 2 = 0 divides the line segment

joining (3, –1) and (8, 9)?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 3
9. The vertices of a ΔABC and given by A(2, 3) and B(–2, 1) and
its centroid is G (1,2/3) Find the coordinates of the third vertex C

42
of the ΔABC.
(a) (0, 2) (b) (1, –2)
(c) (2, –3) (d) (–2, 3)

10. Find the ratio in which the line joining the points (6, 4) and
(1, –7) is divided by x-axis.
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 7
(c) 4 : 7 (d) 6 : 7

PROBABILITY
1. The probability of a leap year selected at random contain 53
Sunday is:
(a) 53/ 366 (b) 1/7
(c) 2/7 (d) 53/365

(2) A bag contains 3 red and 2 blue marbles. A marble is drawn

at random. The probability of drawing a black ball is :
(a) 3/5 (b) 2/5
(c) 0/5 (d) 1/5
(3) The probability that it will rain tomorrow is 0.85. What is the
probability that it will not rain tomorrow
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.145
(c) 3/20 (d) none of these

(4) What is the probability that a number selected from the

numbers (1, 2, 3,. ........ ,15) is a multiple of 4?
(a) 1/5 (b) 4/5
(c) 2/15 (d) 1/3

(5) What are the total outcomes when we throw three coins?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 7

(6) The probability that a prime number selected at random from

the numbers (1,2,3, .......... 35) is :
(a) 12/35 (b) 11/35
(c) 13/35 (d) none of these

(7) The sum of the probability of an event and non event is :

(a) 2 (b) 1
43
 (c) 0 (d) none of these.

(8) The following probabilities are given; choose the correct

answer for that which is not possible.
(a) 0.15 (b) 2/7
(c) 7/5 (d) none of these.

(9) If three coins are tossed simultaneously, than the probability

of getting at least two heads, is
(a) 1/4 (b) 3/8
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/8

(10) A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the word

MATHEMATICS. The probability that the letter chosen is :
(a) 6/13 (b) 7/13
(c) 1 (d) none of these.
(11) Which of the following cannot be the probability of an
event?
(a) 54% (b) 0.89
(c) (1/18)% (d) 1/0.89

STATISTICS
1. Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful
determining the
1. mean 2. mode
3. median 4. all of the above

2. The abscissa of the point of interaction of the ‘less than type’

and of the ‘more than type’ cumulative frequency curve of grouped
data gives
1. mode 2. median
3. mean 4. all of the above
3. For some data x1,x2,x3…… xn, with respective frequencies
f1,f2,f3……fn, the value of ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝑓𝑖(𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥)
1. 0 2. 1
3. ∞ 4. none of the above

4. What should be the modal class

44
Marks Number of students

Below 10 3
Below 20 12
Below 30 27
Below 40 57
Below 50 75
Below 60 80

1. 15-60 2. 30-40
3. 20-30 4. 10-20

5. What should be the modal class

Classes 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

Frequencies 5 6 13 38 30 4

1. 10-20 2. 30-40
3. 40-50 4. 50-60

6. What should be the frequency of 30-40 in this case

Marks obtained Number of students
More than or equal to 0 63
More than or equal to 10 58
More than or equal to 20 55
More than or equal to 30 51
More than or equal to 40 48
More than or equal to 50 42
1. 51 2. 48
3. 4 4. 3

7. What should come in the blank?

Mode= ( ................. ) –2 (mean)
45
 1. 3 (median) 2. 4 (median)
3. 2 (median) 4. 5 (median)

8. What should be the modal class?

Classes Frequencies
0-10 12
10-20 16
20-30 17
30-40 13
40-50 11
50-60 19

LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

1.5040 Customers are asked to stand in the lines. If one customer is
extra in a line, then there would be two less lines. If one customer is
less in line, there would be three more lines. Find the number of
customers in a line.
(a) 45 (b) 50
(c) 60 (d) 70

46
2. 8 girls and 12 boys can finish work in 10 days while 6 girls and
8 boys can finish it in 14 days. Find the time taken by the one girl
alone that by one boy alone to finish the work.
(a) 120, 130 (b) 140,280
(c) 240,280 (d) 100,120

3. The sum of two digits and the number formed by interchanging

its digit is 110. If ten is subtracted from the first number, the new
number is 4 more than 5 times of the sum of the digits in the first
number. Find the first number.
(a) 46 (b) 48
(c) 64 (d) 84

4. A fraction becomes . when subtracted from the numerator and

it becomes . when 8 is added to its denominator. Find the fraction.
(a) 4/12 (b) 3/13
(c) 5/12 (d) 11/7

5. Five years ago, A was thrice as old as B and ten years later, A
shall be twice as old as B. What is the present age of A.
(a) 20 (b) 50
(c) 60 (d) 40

6. What will be the solution of these equations ax+by=a-b, bx-

ay=a+b
(a) x=1, y=2 (b) x=2,y=-1
(c) x=-2, y=-2 (d) x=1, y=-1

7. If x=a, y=b is the solution of the pair of equation x-y=2 and

x+y=4 then what will be value of a and b
(a) 2,1 (b) 3,1
(c) 4,6 (d) 1,2

8. Rozly can row downstream 20km in 2 hours, and the upstream

4km in 2 hours. What will be the speed of rowing in still water?
(a) 6km/hr (b) 4km/hr
(c) 3km/hr (d) 7km/hr

47
CASESTUDY -1
BINGO is game of chance. The host has 75 balls numbered 1 through 75.
Each player has a BINGO card with some numbers written on it. The
participant cancels the number on the card when called out a number
written on the ball selected at random. Whosoever cancels all the numbers
on his/her card, says BINGO and wins the game.
The table given below, shows the data of one such game where 48 balls
were used before Tara said ‘BINGO’.

Based on the above information, answer the following:

(i) Write the median class.
(ii) When first ball was picked up, what was the probability of calling out an
even number?
(iii)(a) Find median of the given data.
OR
(b) Find mode of the given data.

CASESTUDY -2
A rectangular floor area can be completely tiled with 200 square tiles. If
the side length of each tile is increased by 1 unit, it would take only 128
tiles to cover the floor.
(i) Assuming the original length of each side of a tile be x units, make a
quadratic equation from the above information.
(ii) Write the corresponding quadratic equation in standard form.
(iii) (a) Find the value of x, the length of side of a tile by factorisation.
OR
(b) Solve the quadratic equation for x, using quadratic formula.

CASESTUDY -3
A backyard is in the shape of a triangle ABC with right angle at B. AB =7 m and
BC = 15 m. A circular pit was dug inside it such that it touches the walls AC, BC
and AB at P, O and R respectively such that AP = x m.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the length of AR in terms of x.
48
(ii) Write the type of quadrilateral BQOR.
(iii) (a) Find the length PC in ternms of x and hence find the value of x
OR
(b) Find x and hence find the radius r of circle.

CASESTUDY -4
To keep a lawn green and cool Anshu uses water sprinklers which rotate in
circular shape and covers a particular area. The sprinklers touch externally
as shown in the figure below. The sum of their areas is 130ℼ m2 and
distance between their centres is 14m.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) Obtain a quadratic equation involving r1 and r2 from above.
(i) Obtain a quadratic equation involving only r1.
(ii) Find the area irrigated by the sprinkler with radius r2.

CASESTUDY -5

(b ) The probability that the randomly used person used aeroplane

49
is 7/60. Find the revenue collected by the air company at the rate of Rs
5000 / person.

CASESTUDY -6
A ball is thrown in the air so that t seconds after it is thrown, it's height
h mere above it's starting point is given by the polynomial h = 25t -
5t2 .Observe the graph of the polynomial and answer the following
questions :

1) write the zeroes of the given polynomial.

2) find the maximum height achieved by the ball.
3) a) after throwing upward how much time did the ball take to
reach the height of 30m?
OR
b) find the two different values of t when the height of the ball was
20m.

50
 SCIENCE
BIOLOGY

Text Book: Science and Technology

April-July
1. Life Processes
2. Our Environment
3. How do Organisms Reproduce?
September- October
4. Heredity
5. Control and Coordination
6. Management of Natural Resources
(For internal assessment Project)
ASSIGNMENT NO. 1
LIFE PROCESSES
1. Draw the cross section of a leaf and label any six parts.
2. Refer fig. 5.4 of page 83 (NCERT). Compare both the set
ups. What is the reason for difference in the presence of
starch?
3. What is known as biological catalyst? Discuss the role of
any two such catalysts in digestion? Name the largest gland
in human body. Explain its role in digestion.
4. Mention any two functions of HCl in the alimentary canal.
5. Mention the source and functions of bile juice.
6. Why does the length of the small intestine differ in cattle and
tiger?
7. a) Give the schematic representation of breakdown of
glucose by various pathways. b) What is ATP? What is its
role in cellular processes?
8. During heavy exercise, in oxygen depletion stage, which
type of respiration takes place in the human muscle?
51
 9. (a) Why is the breathing rate of the aquatic organisms faster
than terrestrial organisms? (b) What are the characteristics
of respiratory surface?
10. What is the role of saliva in digestion of food?
11. Why do birds and mammals have a four chambered heart?
12. Which component of blood prevents loss of blood?
13. How is lymph collected and returned back to the heart?
14. In what ways does the transport in xylem differ from the
phloem?
15. What is Hemodialysis? When is it done?
16. Name any two nitrogenous wastes, which are removed by
kidneys.
17. Draw a well labelled diagram showing structure of a nephron.
18. Name four substances that are selectively reabsorbed from
the filtrate in the nephron tubules.
19. Explain the events that occur during photosynthesis. How
are various raw materials obtained?
20. What are the various ways by which plants excrete waste?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 2
OUR ENVIRONMENT
1. Distinguish between the biotic and abiotic components of an
ecosystem.
2. What role do microorganisms play in maintaining a clean
environment?
3. Differentiate between a food chain and a food web. Which
of the two is more suitable and why?
4. Construct the following food chains and indicate their trophic
levels.
a. An aquatic food chain b. A terrestrial food chain
5. Why are the number of levels in a food chain limited to four
or five steps?

52
 6. Total amount of solar energy falling on a green plant is 10,000
Joules. How much of this will be available to secondary
consumers? Justify your answer.
7. Why is energy flow considered to be unidirectional in a food
chain?
8. What is the place of man in a food chain? What is the
disadvantage of being on the top?
9. Define Biological Magnification. How does this phenomenon
occur?
10. How does the ozone layer get depleted? Which organization
is working to protect the ozone layer? Mention the ways to
reduce damage to ozone layer.

ASSIGNMENT NO. 3
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
1. What is the significance of variations among organisms?
Support your answer with examples.
2. What are the different modes of asexual reproduction among
organisms? Support your answer with suitable examples.
3. What do you mean by vegetative propagation? What are its
different modes? State its advantages and disadvantages.
4. What are the two types of germ cells and in what ways do
they differ from each other?
5. Differentiate between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving
examples.
6. Draw a diagram showing germination of pollen grain on the
stigma. Name the agents of pollination.
7. Explain post fertilisation events in plants.
8. What are the developmental changes occurring during
puberty among boys and girls?

53
 9. What happens to the egg if it is not fertilized in a human
female?
10. Name a few sexually transmitted diseases. How can their
transmission be prevented?
11. How do oral contraceptives work?
12. Name the surgical methods used to prevent fertilization.
13. What is placenta? Explain its structure and function.
14. What do you understand by prenatal sex determination?
Why is it prohibited by law in India?
15. Write a short note on 'Tissue Culture'.

ASSIGNMENT NO. 4
HEREDITY
1. Define the following terms
i. Genotype and Phenotype
ii. Fl and F2 progeny
iii. Recessive and Dominant genes
2. Work out the following crosses-
i. Tall (TT) X Dwarf (tt)
ii. Tt X Tt
iii. RRyy X rrYY
3. When and how is the sex of a child determined? Explain
with a flow chart.
4. Normally a mother is blamed for a female child. How far do
you agree with the statement? Answer scientifically.
5. In F2 generation, ratio 9:3:3:1 was found. What does it
represent?

54
 ASSIGNMENT NO. 5
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. a) Draw a well-labelled diagram of the neuromuscular
junction.
b) How is it different from synapse?
2. How does information travel from one neuron to another and
in which form?
3. a) Draw a well labelled diagram of the Reflex Arc.
b)Explain the significance of reflex action.
4. What are the main parts of brain and state their functions.
5. How do muscle cells change their shape to cause an action?
6. Which plant hormone is synthesized at the shoot tip? What
is its role?
7. What are tropic movements? Describe with examples.
8. Compare the role of cytokinins and abscisic acid.
9. In tabular form indicate the source and function of the
following hormones.
a) Adrenaline b) Growth hormone c) Thyroxin d) Insulin
10. How do sensitive plants show immediate response to
stimulus?

55
 PHYSICS
April-July
1. Light- reflection and refraction of light
2. Human eye
September- October
3. Electricity
4. Magnetic effects of Current

HOME WORK ASSIGNMENT

ASSIGNMENT NO. 1 (Reflection of light)
1) State the laws of reflection of light.
2) The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 40cm. What
is its focal length?
3) Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image.
Draw a ray diagram in favour of your answer.
4) An object 5cm in length is placed at a distance of 20cm in
front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30cm. Find
the position of the image, its nature and size.
5) Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of image in a
convex mirror when the object is (a) between infinity and the
pole of the mirror and (b) at infinity.
6) Where should the object be placed to get highly magnified
image in a concave mirror? Draw a ray diagram in support
of your answer.
7) If an object is placed at a distance of Bern from a concave
mirror of focal length 10cm, discuss the nature of the image
formed.
8) An object 1 cm high is placed at a distance of 18cm from a
concave mirror of focal length 12cm. Calculate the position,
size and nature of the image.

56
 9) When an object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
diverging spherical mirror, the magnification produced is
0.5. Where should the object be placed to get a magnification
of 1/3?
10) An object forms 2.5 times magnified real image when placed
at the distance of 16cm from a concave mirror. Calculate
a) the position of the image
b) the focal length of the concave mirror.

ASSIGNMENT NO. 2 (Refraction of light)

1) State the laws of refraction of light.
2) Light travels from a rarer medium 1 to a denser medium
2. The angle of incidence and angle of refraction are
respectively 45° and 30°. Calculate the refractive index of
2nd medium with respect to the first medium.
3) Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50.
What is the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in
vacuum is 3 x 108 m/s.
4) You are given kerosene, turpentine oil and water. In which
of these does the light travel fastest?
5) Light of wavelength of 500nm in air, enters a glass plate of
refractive index 1.5. Find (i) speed (ii) frequency and (iii)
wavelength of light in glass. Assume that the frequency of
light remains the same in both media.
6) Refractive indices of carbon disulphide and ethyl alcohol are
1.63 and 1.36 respectively. Which is optically denser?
7) The velocity of light in air and glass is 3 x 108 m/s and 2 x
108 m/s respectively. What is the refractive index of glass?
8) A ray of light travelling in a block of glass emerges into air.
Draw a ray diagram indicating the change in its path.

57
ASSIGNMENT NO. 3 (Refraction of light)
1) Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
2) The power of a lens is 5 dioptre. What is the focal length and
type of lens?
3) A real image, 1/5th the size of an object is formed at a
distance of 18cm from a lens. What is the nature of the lens
and calculate the focal length.
4) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a real, magnified
image by a convex lens.
5) Show the formation of image in a concave lens when the
object is placed between infinity and the optical center.
6) A concave lens of focal length 15cm forms an image 10cm
from the lens. How far is the object placed from the lens?
Find the position and nature of the image.
7) An object of height 6 cm is placed at a distance of 20 cm in
front of a concave lens of Power-8 dioptre. Find the size of
the image?
8) A convex lens produces an inverted image magnified three
times of an object placed at a distance of 15cm from it.
Calculate focal length of the lens.
9) Find focal length and nature of a Lens which should be
placed in contact with a Lens of focal length 10cm so that
the power of the combination became 5 dioptre.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 4 (The human eye and the colourful world)
1) Draw the figure of a human eye.
2) Explain least distance of distinct vision.
3) Why do different coloured rays deviate differently in a
prism?
4) Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected.
The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m. What is the
58
 power of the lens required to correct this defect? Assume
that the near point of the normal eye is 25cm.
5) What is the Tyndall effect? Why is the colour of the sky
blue?
6) The far point of a myopic person is 80cm in front of the eye.
What is the nature and power of the lens required to enable
him to see very distant objects distinctly?
7) How can the spectrum of white light be recombined? Show
it with the help of a diagram.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 5 (Electricity)
1) Define potential difference. What is its S.I. unit?
2) Calculate the work done in moving a charge of 5 coulombs
from a point at a potential of 210 volts to another point at
240 volts.
3) A conductor carries a current of 0.2A. Find the amount
of charge that will pass through the cross section of the
conductor in 30s. How many electrons will flow in this time
interval?
4) State Ohm's law.
5) Let the resistance of an electrical component remain
constant while the potential difference across the two ends
of the component decreases to half of its former value. What
change will occur in the current through it?
6) Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference
across a conductor.
7) Why are the coils of electric toasters and electric irons made
up of an alloy rather than the metal?
ASSIGNMENT NO. 6 (Electricity)
1) Two resistances when connected in series give a total
resistance of 9Ω and when connected in parallel gives a total
resistance of 2Ω. Find the resistance of each one.

59
 2) What is (a) the highest and (b) the lowest total resistance that
can be secured by combinations of four coils of resistance
4Ω, 8Ω, 12Ω and 24Ω?
3) A resistance of 30 ohms and one of 70 ohms are connected
in series across a 220V supply. Find the heat produced in
Joules, by the combination in one minute.
4) What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices
in parallel with the battery instead of connecting them in
series?
5) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000C of
charge in one hour through a potential difference of 50V.
6) The length of wire is doubled by pulling it. Find the new
resistance.
7) How many 176Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry
5 A on a 220V line?
8) An electric heater of resistance 8Ω draws 15A from the
service mains in 2 hours. Calculate the rate at which heat is
developed in the heater.
9) A domestic lighting circuit has a fuse of 5A. If the main
supply is at 240V, calculate the maximum number of 40W
tube lights that can be safely used in this circuit.
10) The total resistance of the circuit shown is 5 ohm. Calculate
the value of X.

11) An electric motor of 1.5 kWH and two coolers of 500W

each operate for 4hr. a day. If energy costs Rs 3.60 per kWh,
calculate the weekly bill.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 7 (Magnetic effect of electric current)
1) Name the factors on which the strength of the magnetic field
produced by a current carrying solenoid depends?
2) A straight copper wire is placed parallel to and over a
compass needle so that the current flows from north to south
60
 direction in the wire. With the help of a diagram show the
direction in which the needle gets deflected.
3) What are the properties of magnetic lines of force? Draw the
field lines around a bar magnet.
4) State right hand thumb rule.
5) How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you
determine the north and south poles of a current-carrying
solenoid with the help of a bar magnet?
6) With the help of a diagram show the magnetic field lines of
the field produced by a current carrying circular loop.
ASSIGNMENT NO. 8 (Magnetic effect of current)
1) Can a copper wire be used as a fuse wire? Why?
2) State Fleming's left hand rule and right hand rule.
3) What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to
earth metallic appliances?
4) An electric oven of 2kW power rating is operated in a
domestic electric circuit (220V) that has a current rating of 5
A. What result do you expect? Explain.
5) Show a schematic diagram of one of the common domestic
circuits.
6) What can be the possible reasons for overloading?
7) Describe an activity with a neat diagram to show the
magnetic field liner through and around a current carrying
solenoid.

61
 CHEMISTRY
April-July
1. Chemical Reactions & Equations
2. Acids, Bases & Salts
September- October
3. Metals & Non-Metals
4. Carbon and its compounds

Assignment -1 Chemical Reactions & Equations

1. Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds
(a) Aluminium sulphate (b) Magnesium bicarbonate
(c) Aluminium nitride (d) Copper (II) nitrate
(e) Iron (III) oxide (f) Sodium sulphite
(g) Ammonium hydroxide (h) Ferric sulphate
(i) Barium chloride (j) Cupric sulphide
2. Write word equations and balanced chemical equations for the
following :
(a) Calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide to form
calcium carbonate and water.
(b) Ferrous sulphate reacts with barium chloride to give
barium sulphate and ferrous chloride.
(c) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to form Zinc nitrate and
silver.
(d) Carbon reduces ferric oxide to iron and gets itself oxidized
to carbon dioxide.
3. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical
equations be balanced?
4. Write one equation each for decomposition reaction where
energy is supplied by the form of heat, light and electricity.
5. (a) What is a displacement reaction. Give one example.

62
 (b) Mg displaces Cu from copper sulphate while silver doesn't.
Why?
Assignment -2 Chemical Reactions & Equations
1. Explain the following forms: (In terms of gain or loss of
oxygen/gain or loss of Hydrogen also.)
a) oxidation b) reduction
Which of the statements about the reaction below are
incorrect
2PbO + C → 2Pb + CO2
a) Lead is getting reduced
b) Carbon dioxide is getting reduced
c) Carbon is getting reduced
d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
2. Classify the following reactions as combination,
decomposition, displacement and double displacement
reactions.
(a) 2NaNO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HNO3
(b) 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
(c) PbCO3 → PbO + CO2
(d) H2SO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + H2
3. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
4. Define Corrosion and rancidity?
Assignment -3 Acids, Bases and Salts
1. (a) Which gas is produced when a metal reacts with acid?
(b) Name the salt produced in the following reaction
(i) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid with iron filings
2. Compounds such as alcohol and glucose also contain hydro-
gen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to
prove it with the help of a diagram.

63
 3. Give reasons
a) An aqueous solution of an acid/base conduct electricity.
b) While diluting an acid why is it recommended that the
acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
4. How is the concentration of hydronium ions affected when a
solution of an acid is diluted?
5. How does dil HCl react with the following. Write balanced
reaction for the reactions
a) Na2CO3
b) NaHCO3
c) NaOH
Assignment -4 Acids, Bases and Salts
1. The pH of solution A is 6 and B is 8. Which solution has
more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic
and basic?
2. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
3. Name the following
a) The substance which on treatment with chlorine gives
bleaching powder.
b) The sodium compound which is used for softening hard
water.
4. What happens when sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated.
Write a balanced chemical equation. Write any three uses of
this compound in the everyday life.
5. Plaster of Paris should be kept in a moisture proof container.
Why?
Assignment -5 Metals & Non-Metals
1. Name the following :
a) A metal which melts if we keep on the palm.
b) A non-metal which is a good conductor of heat.
c) A metal which can be easily cut with a knife.

64
 2. Complete and balance the following equations:
(a) K + H2O →
(b) K2O + H2O →
(c) Fe + H2SO4→
3. What is the action of water on the following?
(a) Magnesium (b) Iron
4. Which of the following elements will displace hydrogen
from acids?
Cu, Zn, Mg, Fe
5. What happens when Iron nails are put into a copper sulphate
solution? Write two observations. Give chemical equation
also.
6. Give reasons
a) Sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil.
b) H2 gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with dil HNO3.
7. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples.
Assignment -6 Metals & Non-Metals
1. Write the electronic configuration and show which of the
following elements is a metal?

2. Write the electron dot structure of sodium, oxygen show the

transfer of as for magnesium chloride, sodium oxide.
3. What is an ionic compound? Why do ionic compounds have
high melting points?
4. Three metals P, Q, R are placed on the top, in the middle and
at the bottom of the reactivity series respectively. Suggest
the most suitable method for extracting these metals.
5. How is impure copper refined? Draw a well labelled diagram
to show the process. What is taken as cathode, anode and
electrolyte. On which electrode the pure metal is deposited?

65
 6. Give reasons
a) Platinum, Gold and Silver are used for making jewellery.
b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet is used to make
utensils.
c) Carbonate and sulphide ores are converted into oxides
during extraction.
7. Suggest an activity to establish the conditions necessary for
rusting with help of a diagram. State two ways to prevent the
rusting of iron.
8. Name the following
a) An alloy in which one of the metals is mercury.
b) An alloy of copper and zinc.
c) An alloy used for welding electric wires.
Assignment -7 Carbon and its Compounds
1. What is a covalent compound? Why do we have large
number of carbon compounds?
2. Draw the electron dot structure of F2, H20, C2H4, CH3COCH3
3. What is a homologous series? Give its two properties.
4. Write the structural formulae of the following compounds
and identify the functional group.
a) Propanol b) Ethanoic acid c) Hexanal (d) Propanone
5. Draw the structural isomers of pentane.
6. What are saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds?
Classify the following into saturated and unsaturated.
C2 H6 , C3 H6 , C2 H4 , CH4 , C4H8 , C3H4
Assignment -8 Carbon and its Compounds
1. Which of the following show addition reaction and why?
C2 H6 , C3 H6 , C2 H4 , CH4
2. What is a substitution reaction? What type of hydrocarbons
undergo this type of reaction.
Complete the reaction

66
3. What happens when ethanol reacts with
a) sodium metal
b) conc H2SO4
Write balanced chemical equations.
4. Name the organic compound present in vinegar. When this
compound reacts with absolute ethanol, it gives a sweet
smelling compound. Write an equation to the reaction
and also name the compound formed. Which group of
compounds does it belongs to?
5. What are Micelles? Explain the mechanism of cleansing by
the action of soap.

67
 SOCIAL SCIENCES

1. APRIL-MAY
i) Rise of Nationalism in Europe
ii) Power Sharing
iii) Federalism
2. JULY – AUGUST
i) Nationalism in India
ii) Gender, Religion and Caste
3. SEPTEMBER – OCTOBER
i) The Age of Industrialization
ii) Political Parties
4. NOVEMBER – DECEMBER
i) Print Culture and the Modern World
ii) Outcomes of Democracy
iii) Making of the Global World

68
 HISTORY
I. Rise of Nationalism in Europe
1. What was the main objective of the Treaty of Vienna of
1815? (MCQ)
a) To undo the changes brough about in Europe during
Napoleonic War.
b) To plan the unification of Germany
c) To restore the democracy in Europe
d) To overthrow the Bourbon dynasty.
2. Women were admitted in the Frankfurt parliament, convered
in the Church of St. Paul, but only as .
3. Who was Frederic Sorrieu? Describe the main features of
the first print prepared by him in 1848.
4. When did Industrialisation begin in Europe? What were its
consequences?
5. Why was the decade of 1830s known as the great economic
hardship in Europe? Explain any three reasons.
6. What was the area of the Balkans? Why was it the most
serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871?
What was its result?
II. Nationalism in India
1. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
i) Poona pact (ii) Salt March (iii) Simon Commission (iv) 2nd
Round Table conference (MCQ)
A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
C) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
2. "Vande Mataram" was the source of patriotism for millions
of Indians during freedom movement. It has been taken from
the book .
3. What is meant by the idea of 'Satyagraha'?
4. Simon Commission was greeted with slogan "Go Back
Simon" at arrival in India. Support this reaction of Indians
with arguments.
5. "Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they
69
 are all part of the same nation." Support the statement.
III. The Age of Industrialisation
1. Arrange the following production processes of cloth in order
(MCQ)
(i) Carding (ii) Rolling (iii) Tursting (iv) Spinning
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), and (ii) (B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (ii) (D) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
2. was an Indian entrepreneur who set up six
joint stock companies in India in 1830?
3. Why did some industrialists in the 19th Century Europe prefer
hand labour to machines? Give four reasons.
4. Describe the factors that were responsible for increasing the
employment opportunities in Britain after 1840s.
5. How did East India Company ensure regular supply of cotton
and silk goods from Indian weavers? Explain.
6. How did the British manufacturers attempt to take over the
Indian market with the help of advertisement?
IV. Print Culture and the Modern World
1. What were Chapbooks? (MCQ)
a) Books which were cheap
b) The pocket size books sold by travelling peddler
c) Books sold on footpath
d) None of the above
2. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was modeled on the
.
3. What was the Reading Mania? What was its impact on
children and women?
4. How did print help connect communities and people in
different parts of India? Explain with examples.
5. What was the effect of print on the poor in the 20th century?
6. Explain briefly the initial efforts made by foreigners to
introduce printing press in India.

70
7. What is a manuscript? Why production of handwritten
manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for
books?

71
 POLITICAL SCIENCE
I. Power Sharing
1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the
Belgian Constitution?
A) It is a federal constitution since 1970 similar to the US
Constitution
B) It is very complicated constitution yet very innovative
C) It has been amended four times between 1970 and 1993
D) It has introduced new concept of community government which
recognizes cultural identity of all linguistic communities.
2. The headquarter of European Union is located at .
II. Federalism
1. How is India referred in the Constitution?
A) a federation of states
B) A union of states
C) We the people
D) An independent India
2.The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in rural area is .

III. Gender, Religion and Caste

1. Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism?
A) Religion is taken as the basis of nation
B) When one religion is discriminated against other
C) State has no official religion
D) Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition
to another
2. Women's movement has argued that of all religious
discriminate against women. So they have demanded that
government should change these large to make them more
equitable.
72
IV. Political Parties
1. What are Mid-Term elections?
A) Elections held to fill a vacancy caused by any reason.
B) Election held before the expiry of the full term of any House.
C) Elections held after the expiry of the full term of any House.
D) None of these
2) Lok Sabha constituences are there in India at
present.
V. Outcomes of Democracy, Challenges of Democracy
1. Democracy is better than other forms of government because
A) it promotes equality among citizens
B) Inequalities exist in democracies
C) Inequalities do not exist under dictatorship
D) Dictatorship is better than democracy.

73
 GEOGRAPHY
FIRST TERM
APRIL - MAY
Chapter 1. Resources and Development
Chapter 2. Forest and Wildlife Resources
Chapter 3. Water Resources
JULY – SEPTEMBER
Chapter 4. Agriculture
Chapter 5. Minerals and Energy Resources
Revision
SECOND TERM
OCTOBER - NOVEMBER
6. Manufacturing industries
7. Life lines of the National Economy ( Only map pointing will be
evaluated)
DECEMBER- FEBRUARY
Revision
CHAPTER 1. RESOURCES AND DEVELOPMENT
Answer the following questions:
1. Which of the following sequence is correct according to the
area occupied by mountain, plateau, and plain in India?
a) 43%, 27%, 30% (b) 27%, 30%, 43%
b) 30%, 27%, 43% (d) 30%, 43, 27%
2. Laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and ..........
3. What are natural resources?
4. Give four examples of human-made resources.
74
5. Why is conservation of resources necessary?
6. What is resource planning?
7. Explain how soil is formed?
8. How soil erosion is caused?
9. What is meant by land degradation?
10. Distinguish between the following-
a) Red Soils and laterite soil
b) Khadar and Bangar
c) Net sown area and Gross cropped area
11. Why are resources necessary for human beings?
12. Write chief characteristics of resources?
13. Mention three stages of resource planning?
14. How does industry cause land degradation?
15. Write short notes on the following:
a) Soil erosion
b) Land Conservation measures
16. Suggest measures of controlling land degradation.
17. Define soil and give a brief description of different types of
soils found in India.
18. What is meant by land Utilization? Describe various uses of
land in India.

CHAPTER 2. FOREST AND WILDLIFE RESOURCES

Answer the following questions:
1. Which one of the following is NOT a tiger reserve in India?
a) Sariska wildlife sanctuary b) Suderban national park
c) Manas reserve d) Kaziranga national park

75
2. What is the main objective of the National Forest Policy of
India? Mention any three provisions made in the policy for
conservation of endangered species.
3. Mention any three negative factors which have led to fearful
depletion of flora and fauna.
4. What are sacred groves? Prove with examples how sacred
groves help in conservation of forests.
5. Suggest how can you contribute to the conservation of wildlife.
6. Project Tiger is an ambitious project of the Indian Government.
What is your take on the project?

CHAPTER 3. WATER RESOURCES

Answer the following questions:
1. On which river Salal dam is constructed?
(a) Satluj (b) Chenab (c) Jhelum (d) Indus
2. Define the following:
a. Inundation channels
b. Tankas
c. Palar pani
d. Dam
e. Sedimentation
f. Roof top rain water harvesting
3. How is fresh water obtained?
4. Mention any two social movements associated with
multipurpose river projects.
5. Discuss how rainwater harvesting in semi-arid regions of
Rajasthan is carried out?
6. Classify dams on different basis.
7. What were the various traditional techniques used to conserve
rainwater in various regions of the country?
8. Describe how modern adaptations of traditional rainwater
76
 harvesting methods are being carried out to conserve and
store water.
9. Explain in detail the problems associated with multi-purpose
projects. (5 points)
10. Bamboo drip irrigation system is practiced in .......................

CHAPTER 4. AGRICULTURE
Answer the following questions:
1. Name the tropical crop that needs well drained fertile soil and
preferably grown in the deltaic plains because it makes use of
the soil nutrients in a large quantity.
(a) Rice (b) Jute (c) Cotton (d) Wheat
2. _____________is the beverage crop which is produced in Assam
along with West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and
Kerala.
3. Define the following terms:
a. Green Revolution
b. Horticulture
c. Sericulture
d. Commercial Agriculture
e. Slash and Burn Cultivation
f. Zaid
4. What are the steps taken by the government to modernize
agriculture?
5. Highlight the main points of plantation agriculture.
6. Why is agriculture important for Indian economy? (4 points)
7. How is Subsistence Agriculture different from Commercial
Agriculture? (4 points)
8. Compare the geographical conditions required for the growth
of rice and wheat in India. Also name two major states for each
which produce these crops.
77
9. Name the leading Rubber producing states in India and give its
three reasons. Also mention the different uses of rubber.
10. Explain in detail the institutional reforms introduced by the
government in the interest of farmers.

CHAPTER 5. MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES

Answer the following questions:
1. Which of the following groups is a coal mining area of India?
(a) Singareni, Talcher and Korba
(b) Hajira, Vijaipur and Jagdishpur
(c) Kalol, Ankaleshwar and Sonipat
(d) Digboi, Sibasagar and Naharkatia
2. From Badampahar mines in Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar
district. ...... type of iron ore is mined.
3. What is a mineral? How do we obtain minerals?
4. Explain the importance of iron, manganese, bauxite and mica.
5. Distinguish between a rock and a mineral ore.
6. Mention three major factors on which mining depends.
7. Distinguish between the different varieties of iron ore.
8. Study the data given below and draw your own inference:
Production of coal in India
Year Output (Million tonnes)
1950-51 32.30
1960-61 55.23
1970-71 78.34
1980-81 119.30
1990-91 225.50
1-01 332.60
78
(a) By how many million tonnes did the production of coal increase
from 1950-51 to 1980-81?
(b) By how many million tonnes did it increase in a single decade
of 1981-1991?
(c) By how much did it increase during the decade of nineties?
(d) What does it suggest about the pace of industrialization in our
country?

CHAPTER 6. MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES

Answer the following questions:
1. In which sector Jamshedpur steel plant falls with reference to
ownership?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector
(b) Cooperative sector (d) Joint sector
2. Chemical and................... industries are benefitted by cotton
textile industry.
3. Differentiate between the following-
(a) Agro based industries and Mineral based industries
(b) Heavy and Light Industries
(c) Cotton Textile industry and Iron and steel industry
4. Why is Cotton textile industry located in Maharashtra and
Gujarat?
5. Explain why the Iron and Steel Industry is concentrated in the
Chotanagpur region.
6. What change has occurred in the raw material used by fertilizer
industry? What is the mode of transportation? What problems
are being faced in its transportation?
7. Give reasons why cotton industry has been shifting from
Mumbai?

79
8. Why is jute industry concentrated in Hooghly region?
9. Why is there a growing concern for shifting industry from
urban areas?
10. Why is sugar industry migrating towards south in recent years?
11. Write a short note on the following-
(a) Electronics industry in India
(b) Chemical industry in India
(c) Fertilizer industry in India
12. How do manufacturing industries contribute to pollution and
environmental degradation?
13. What measures would you suggest to control environmental
degradation and pollution that is caused by industries?

CHAPTER 7. LIFELINES OF THE NATIONAL ECONOMY

Map Question:
A) Mark the following on a political map of India:
PORTS STATES
Kandla Gujarat
Mumbai Port Maharashtra ( Mumbai )
Marmagao Goa
New Mangalore Karnataka
Kochi Kerala
Tuticorin Tamil Nadu
Chennai Tamil Nadu
Vishakhaptnam AndhraPradesh
Paradip Odisha
Haldia West Bengal

80
 B) Mark the following on a political map of India.

Airports States
Indira Gandhi International New Delhi
Airport
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose West Bengal( Kolkata)
International Airport
Rajiv Gandhi ( Hyderabad) Telangana
Chhatrapati Shivaji ( Mumbai ) Maharashtra
Raja Sansi ( Amritsar) Punjab
Meenam Bakkam ( Chennai ) Tamilnadu

81
 ECONOMICS
TERM 1
Chapter 1: Development
Chapter 2: Sectors of the Indian Economy
TERM 2
Chapter 3: Money and Credit
Chapter 4: Globalisation

Chapter 1: Development
1. Average Income is also known as .
2. Choose the correct option .
Over-use of ground water is generally found in agriculture
sector/service sector.
3. Average expected length of life of a person is known
as .
4. Full form of BMI is
1) Bank and Money institution
2) Body Mass index
3) Body Mass institution
4) Body maximum index
Assignment:
1. Define development.
2. Distinguish between Growth and Development.
3. What are development goals?
4. Different persons can have different development goals.
Explain.
5. Developmental goal foe one can be destructive for the other.
Justify.
6. What are the development goals an individual might have
other than income.
82
 7. Why is Sardar Sarovar Dam a conflicting development goal
for the people affected by it?
8. Explain why income is considered to be one of the important
attributes?
9. Define National income (or) total income of the country.
10. Define Average income.
11. Why total income is not an useful measure for comparing
countries?
12. Explain Per capita income is an important criterion for
measuring development. Discuss its limitations too.
13. Besides Percapita income, which another property of income
is important for comparing countries? Explain.
14. How countries are classified by the World Bank?
15. What should India do to become a developed country?
Discuss.
16. Define:
a) Infant Mortality Rate
b) Literacy rate
c) Net Attendance Ratio
d) State Domestic Product
17. Explain the indices taken by UNDP for measuring
development of countries.
18. Why Kerala with low percapita income has better human
development rank than Punjab?
19. Why collective provision of goods and services is cheaper
than individual provision? Give examples.
20. Why is the sustainability important for development?
Chapter 2: Sectors of the Indian Economy
1. Pick the odd one out
a) Teacher, Doctor, Vegetable vendor, Lawyer
b) Postman, Cobbler, Soldier, Police Constable
2. Primary sector & secondary sector are
indepentent/inter-dependent
83
 3. Economy can be divided on the basis of ownership
into sector & sector.
4. Inorganisedsectortermsofemploymentare .
5. Which of the following is not in Primary Sector.
a) dairy (b) fishing (c) construction (d) Mining
Assignment
1. Distinguish between economic activity and non-economic
activity.
2. Define Primary sector. Explain using examples.
3. Define Secondary sector. Explain using examples.
4. Define Tertiary sector. Explain using examples.
5. What is the difference between final goods and intermediate
goods?
6. How do we compare the relative importance of the three
sectors in the economy?
7. Discuss the history of shifts taken place between the sectors
in developed countries.
8. Why is tertiary sector becoming so important in India?
9. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector like tertiary
sector, happen in case of employment?
10. What do you understand by disguised unemployment?
Explain with an example each from the urban and rural
areas.
11. Why should we be worried about underemployment?
12. How to create more employment?
13. Write about ‘Right to work’ or National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005.
( or) objective of implementing the NREGA 2005.
14. What ways can employment be increased in urban areas?
15. How would income and employment increase (in rural areas)
if farmers were provided with irrigation and marketing
facilities?

84
 16. Distinguish between organized and unorganized sectors.
17. Why more people are in unorganised sector?
18. How to protect workers in the unorganized sector?
19. Distinguish between Public Sector and Private Sector
20. Explain how public sector contributes to the economic
development of a nation.
Chapter 3: Money and Credit
1. Modern forms of currency includs
a) Paper Notes (b) coins (c) Silver coins (d) a & b only
2. Credit can play role & role as well.
3. SHGs organise rural poor/urban poor
4. Grameen Bank is an example of
1) SHG (2) Coopratives (3) Commercial Bank
5. Terms of credit include ,
and .
Assignment
1. What are the differences between formal and informal
sources of credit?
2. Why are banks willing to lend to women organised in Self-
Help Groups (SHGs)?
3. Analyse the role of credit for development.
4. On his 10th birthday, Arjun’s grandmother takes him to the
bank to start a savings bank account for him.
a. List the advantages of a demand deposit?
b. List the values imparted by this gesture?
5. Banks mediate between people who have surplus money and
those who are in need of money.
a. How?
b. What values should the bank keep in mind while extending
loans?
85
 6. Raja takes of loan of 1 lakh from a bank for his production
needs. He utilises the moneyefficiently, makes a profit, and
repays the loan with interest on time as per the credit terms.
a. What is the role of credit here?
b. What values does Raja exhibit as a creditor?
7. a. How are co-operative societies formed?
b. What values do these societies promote?
8. a. What is a ‘Debt-Trap’?
b. Which sector is more prone to it and why?
c. What values should the bank keep in mind while setting
up banks?
9. a. How are SHGs a boom for the rural sector?
b. What are the values promoted by SHGs?
Chapter 4: Globalisation
1. Government in India is attracting foreign investment by
setting up .
2. WTO stands for
a) World trade organisation (b) World tax organisation
c) World tariff organisation (d) World technical office
3. MNCs want to set up business in India because of
& .
4. Quota & tax on imports are examples of .
Assignment
1. Define Multinational Company. (MNC)
2. What are the ways in which MNCs set up or control,
production in other countries?
3. What do MNCs keep in mind while starting business in other
countries?
4. What do you understand by globalisation? What are the
advantages of globalization? Mention main shortcomings of
globalization in the context of India.
5. What is the basic function of foreign trade? Distinguish
between foreign trade and foreign investment. What has
enabled globalisation in India?
86
 6. How is information technology connected with globalisation?
Would globalisation have been possible without expansion
of IT?
7. What are the measures of trade barrier?
8. What was the reasons for putting barriers to foreign trade
and foreign investment by the Indian government? Why did
it wish to remove these barriers?
9. Why do developed countries want developing countries to
liberalize their trade and investment?
10. What is ‘Fair Globalisation’? How it can be achieved?
11. How would flexibility in labour laws help companies?
6 a. Why did the Government impose trade barriers soon after
independence?
b. What values did the Government have in mind while imposing
them?

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 कक्षा – दशमी
संस्कृतम ् (सम्प्रेषणात्मकम ्) कोड् सङ्ख्या - 119

वार्षिकमूल्याङ्कनाय र्नर्मिते प्रश्नपत्रे भागचतुष्टयं भर्वष्यर्त –

'क' भागः अपठितावबोधनम ् 10 अङ्खकाः 25

कालांशाः

'ख' भागः रचनात्मकाययम ् 15 अङ्खकाः 40

कालांशाः

'ग' भागः अनुरयुक्तव्ययाकरणम ् 25 अङ्खकाः 55

कालांशाः
'घ' भागः पठितावबोधनम ् 30 अङ्खकाः 80 कालांशाः

भागानुसारं ववषयाः अङ्खकववभाजनं च 80 अङ्खकाः

क्र. सं. विषयााः प्रश्नप्रकारााः मूल्यभाराः

'क' भागाः
अपवितािबोधनम् 10 अङ्ााः
1. एकः गद्ांशः (80-100 अर्त-लघूत्तिात्मकौ 1×2=2
शब्दपरिर्मतः )
पूर्िवाक्यात्मकौ 2×2=4
शीषिकम् (लघुत्तिात्मकः ) 1×1=1
भार्षककायिम् (बहुर्वकल्पात्मकाः ) 1×3=3
पूर्णभाराः 10 अङ्ााः

15 अड्ााः
'ख' भागः
िचनात्मककायिम्
95
2. औपचारिकम् अथवा वनबन्धात्मकाः ½×10=5
अनौपचारिकं पत्रम्
मायूषायाः यायतया )
रिेमानपूर्तिमाामेन
(लेखनीयम् पूर्ि पत्रं
3. र्चत्रवर्िनम् अथवा पूर्णिाक्यात्मकाः 1×5=5
अनुच्छेदलेखनम्
4. ंवादपूर्तिः कथापूर्तिः / वनबन्धात्मकाः ½×10=5
मायूषायाः यायतया )
रिेमानपूर्तिमाामेन
कथा / पूर्िः ंवादः
लेखनीया(
पूर्णभाराः 15 अङ्ााः
'ग' भागः
अनुप्रयुेव्याकिर्म् 25 अङ्ााः
5. न्धः लघुत्तरात्मकााः 1×4=4
6. मा ः बहुविकल्पात्मकााः 1×4=4
7. प्रत्ययाः बहुविकल्पात्मकााः 1×4=4
8. वाच्यपरिवतिनम् लघुत्तरात्मकााः 1×3=3
9. मयः लघुत्तरात्मकााः 1×3=3
10. अव्ययार्न लघुत्तरात्मकााः 1×4=4
11. अशुन्ि ंशधोनम्- बहुविकल्पात्मकााः 1×3=3
पूर्णभाराः 25 अङ्ााः
'घ' भागः
पर्ितावबधोनम् 30 अङ्ााः
12. गद्ांशः अवत-लघूत्तरात्मकौ ½×2=1
पूर्णिाक्यात्मकाः 1×2=2
लघुत्तरात्मकौ (भावषककायणम्) 1×2=2
13. पद्म् (ःधकौ/ःधकः ) अवत-लघूत्तरात्मकौ ½×2=1
पूर्णिाक्यात्मकाः 1×2=2
96
 लघुत्तरात्मकौ (भावषककायणम्) 1×2=2
14. नाट्ांशः अवत-लघूत्तरात्मकौ ½×2=1
पूर्णिाक्यात्मकाः 1×2=2
लघुत्तरात्मकौ (भावषककायणम्) 1×2=2
15. प्रश्नर्नमािर्म् पूर्णिाक्यात्मकााः 1×5=5
16. अन्वयः अथवा भावाथिः वनबन्धात्मकाः ½×4=2
(रिेमानपूर्तिमाामेन(
17. प्र ्ानु ािम् बहुर्वकल्पात्मकाः 1×4=4
अथिचयनम्
18. पािाोारित-कथापूर्तिः र्नबधात्मकः ½×8=4
(मायूषापद यायतया
रिेमानपूर्तिः )
पूर्णभाराः 30 अङ्ााः
सम्पूर्णभाराः 80 अङ्ााः

97
 संस्कृतपाठ्यक्रमाः (सम्प्रेषर्ात्मकम्) कोड् सङ्ख्या – 119
कक्षा-दशमी
वावषयकं मल्
ू याङ्खकनम ्

'क' भागाः
अपवितािबोधनम् (10 अङ्ााः )

1. एकः अपर्ितः गद्ांशः 10

80-100 शब्दपरिमितः गद्यां शः , सिलकथय
 एकपदे न पूर्र्थाक्येन च र्अबधोनात्मकं कायथम् (2+4)
 शीषिकलेखनम् (1)
 गद्ांशाोारितं भार्षकं कायिम् (3)
भार्षककायािय तत्त्वार्न -
 वाक्ये कतति-र्ियापदचयनम्
 र्वशेषर्-र्वशेष्यचयनम्
 पयािय-र्वलधमपद-चयनम्

'ख' भागाः
रचनात्मककायणम् (15 अङ्ााः )

2. सङ्केतयधयरिति् औपचयरिकि् अथवय अनौपचयरिकां पत्रलेखनि् 5

(िञ्जूषयययः सहययतयय रिक्तस्थयनपूमतिियध्यिेन पूर्ि पत्र लेखनीयि्)

3. मचत्रयधयरितां वर्िनि् अथवय अनुच्छेदलेखनि् 5

(िञ्जूषयययः सहययतयय मचत्रवर्िनि् अनुच्छेदलेखनां वय किर्ीयि्)
4. ंवादपूर्तिः / कथापूर्तिः (कथा छात्रस्तिानुगुर्म् एव भवेत् ।) 5

(िञ्जूषयययः सहययतयय रिक्तस्थयनपूमतिियध्यिेन पूर्िः सांवयदः / कथय

लेखनीयय ।)
'ग' भागाः
अनुप्रयुक्तव्याकरर्म् (25 अङ्ााः )

98
5. न्धकायिम् 4
स्वि न्धः (1 अङ्कः )
 वतन्िः , यर््,
अयार्दः , पूविरूपम्
व्यञ्जन न्धः (1 अङ्कः )
 पि वर्िः (अनुस्वािमाने पञ्चम वर्िस्य प्रयधगः ),
तुगागमः , वगीयप्रथमवर्िस्य तततीयवर्े परिवतिनम् ।
र्व गि न्धः (2 अङ्कौ)
 उत्वम्, ित्वम्, र्व गिलधपः , र्व गिस्य माने ्,श,ष्
6. मा ः (वाक्येषु मस्तपदानां र्वग्रयः र्वग्रयपदानां च मा ः ) 4

 तत्पुरुषः - र्वभन्ेः , नञ्, उपपदः (2 अङ्कौ)

 द्वन्द्द्वः (1 अङ्कः )
 अव्ययीभावः (अनु, उप, य, र्नि् , प्रर्त, यथा) (1 अङ्कः )

7. प्रत्ययाः 4
 तन्िताः - मतुप,् िक्, त्व, तल् (3 अङ्काः )
 स्त्रीप्रत्ययौ ााप्, ङीप् (1 अङ्कः )
8. वाच्यपरिवतिनम् - केवलं ला्लकािे (कतति-कमि-र्िया)
3
9. मयः अङ्कानां माने 3
शब्दे षु
मयलेखनम्
( ामान्य- पाद-
ाोि-पादधन)
4
10. अव्ययार्न
इव, उच्चः , एव, नूनम्, इतस्ततः , र्वना, य ा, वतथा, शनचः , इर्त, मा, यत्,
म्प्रर्त, इदानीम्, अोुना, यावत्, बर्यः , कदार्प, च, अर्प, पुिा, अत्र-तत्र,
यथा-तथा, कदा, श्वः , ह्यः , र्कमथिम्, कुत्र
11. अशुन्ि- ंशधोनम् (वचन-र्ल्-पुरुष-लकाि-दृष्ट्ट्ा ंशधोनम्) 3
99
 'घ' भागः
(30
पर्ितावबधोनम् अङ्का
ाााः )
12. गद्ांशम् अर्ोकतत्य अवबधोनात्मकं कायिम् 5
प्रश्नप्रकािाः - एकपदे न पूर्िवाक्येन च प्रश्नधत्तिार्र् भार्षककायिम् –
 वाक्ये कतति-र्िया-पदचयनम्
 र्वशेषर्-र्वशेष्य-चयनम्
 पयािय-र्वलधमपद-चयनम्
13. पद्म् (ःधकम्/ःधकौ) अर्ोकतत्य अवबधोनात्मकं कायिम्
5
प्रश्नप्रकािाः - एकपदे न पूर्िवाक्येन च प्रश्नधत्तिार्र्
भार्षककायिम् -
 वाक्ये कतति-र्िया-पदचयनम्
 र्वशेषर्-र्वशेष्य-चयनम्
 पयािय-र्वलधमपद-चयनम्
14. नाट्ांशम् अर्ोकतत्य अवबधोनात्मकं कायिम्
5
प्रश्नप्रकािाः – एकपदे न पूर्िवाक्येन च प्रश्नधत्तिार्र्
भार्षककायिम् -
 वाक्ये कतति-र्िया-पदचयनम्
 र्वशेषर्-र्वशेष्य-चयनम्
 पयािय-र्वलधमपद-चयनम् 5
15. वाक्येषु िे खार्ङ्कतपदार्न अर्ोकतत्य प्रश्नर्नमािर्म्
2
16. एकस्य ःधकस्य अन्वयः अथवा भावाथिः
(मायूषायाः यायतया रिेमानपूर्तिमाामेन पूर्िः अन्वयः भावाथिः वा
लेखनीयः ) 4
17. प्र ्ानु ािम् अथिचयनम् (पािान् आोतत्य बहुर्वकल्पात्मकाः प्रश्नाः ) 4

18. पािाोारित-कथापूर्तिः (मायूषापद यायतया रिेमानपूर्तिः )

100
आहत्य – अङ्ााः - 80
परीक्षायै वनधाणररतााः पािााः

पािसङ्ख् या पािनाम पािसङ्ख् या पािनाम

प्रथमः पािः वाङ्मयं तपः प्तमः पािः ाोुवतर्त्तं माचिे त्

र्द्वतीयः पािः नान्स्त त्याग मं ुखम् अष्टमः पािः र्तरुक्कुिल्- ून्े-
ौिभम्
तततीयः पािः िमर्ीया र्य तर्ष्टः एषा नवमः पािः ुस्वागतं भध!
अरुर्ाचलेऽन्िन्
चतुथिः पािः आज्ञा गुरूर्ां र्य कालधऽयम्
अर्वचािर्ीया दशमः पािः
(केवलम्
पञ्चमः पािः अभ्या वशगं मनः आन्तरिकमूल्याङ्कनाय)
षष्ठः पािः िाष्टरं ंिक्ष्यमेव र्य र्कं र्कम् उपादे यम्
एकादशः पािः
(केवलम्
आन्तरिकमूल्याङ्कनाय)

अिधेयम् -
* परीक्षायै अनर
ु यक्
ु तव्ययाकरणस्य अंशानां चयनं
यथासम्प्भवं 'मणणका-द्ववतीयो भागः इतत' पाठ्यपुस्तकात ्
करणीयम ्। यठि ततः न सम्प्भवतत तठहय 'मणणका
अभ्यासपुस्तकम ्' इत्यस्मात ् कतुुं शक्यम ् ।

वनधाणररत – पाठ्यपुस्तके -
1. 'मवर्का' - वितीयो भागाः , पाठ्यपुस्तकम ् (रकाशनम ्
केन्द्रीय माध्यममक मशक्षा बोर्य)
'मवर्का-अभ्यासपुस्तकम् ' वितीयो भागाः (प्रकयशनि् केन्द्रीय ियध्यमिक मशक्षय
बोर्ि

101
 अभ्यासप्रश्नपत्रम ्
संस्कृतम ् , कक्षा – दशमी
समयः साोहकैर्धाा -
ाःकाःपर्
ण ाप– 80
ननदे शाः :-
 कृपया सम्यक् पाीक्षर्ं कुर्पन्तु यत ् अस्स्मन ् प्रश्नपत्रे 18 प्रश्नाः
सस्न्त I
 अस्स्मन ् प्रश्नपत्रे चत्र्ााः खण्ाः सस्न्त ’क‘– , ‘ख’, ‘ग ’‘घ’।
‘क’ खण्ः - अपठित अर्बर्धोनम ् = 10 अाःकाः
‘ख’ खण्ः – ाचनात्मक कायपम ् = 15 अाःकाः
‘ग’ खण्ः – अनुप्रयुक्त व्याकार्म ् = 25 अाःकाः
‘घ’ खण्ः - पठित अर्बर्धोनम ् = 30 अाःकाः
 उत्तालेखनात ् पणर्म
प ् प्रश्नस्य क्रमााःकः अर्श्यं लेखनीयः I
 प्रश्नपत्रस्य पिनाय 15 ननमेषाः ननोापराताः सस्न्त I अस्स्मन ्
अर्ोौ केर्लं प्रश्नपत्रं पिनीयम ् उत्तापुस्स्तकायां च ककमपप न
लेखनीयम ् I

खण् 10( = अर्बर्धोनम-् अपठित ”क“ –अाःकाः)

प्रश्न .1अोर्धललखखतम ् अनुच्छे दं पठित्र्ा प्रश्नान ् उत्तात |
)3+1+4+2(
अद्यतनस्य मठहलाः संचाररौद्योगगक्याः, सेना, वायस
ु ेना, गचककत्सा,
अमभयांत्रिकी, ववज्ञानम ् इत्याठिषु अनेकासु भूममकासु सफलतायाः ऊध्वयताम ्
राप्नुवन्न्द्त । न कन्चचत ् क्षेिं यि अद्यतनस्िीणां र्त्कृ्मम ् रिशयनम ् न -
््मम ् । न केवलं अधयम ्, अवपतु सवुं जगत ् तासाम ् एव इतत वक्तुं
शक्यते। सवयम ् आकाशं नारीणाम ् अन्स्त। परन्द्तु यथाथयतया अस्याः

102
 स्वतन्द्ितायाः ज्वाला अस्माकं िरू स्थग्रामान ्, नगरान ् वा िरू स्थलघुनगरान ्
वा समानतीव्रतया राप्तुं समथाय अन्स्त वा? ककं ताः स्वतन्द्ितया
स्वायत्ततया वा पुरुषाः इव स्वतनणययान ् गह
ृ ीत्वा ्ढतया अग्रे गन्द्तुं
शक्नुवन्न्द्त ?
इिानीम ् समाजः अवचयं पररवतयमानः अन्स्त ककन्द्तु वस्तुतः यिा
क्रान्न्द्तकाररणी अजयनशीला मठहला पररवारे समानागधकारस्य लोकतन्द्िस्य च
आवचयकतायाः ववषये वािवववािं करोतत अथवा लोकतन्द्िं यथाथयतया आनेतंु
इच्छतत तिा तस्याः मागयः अवरुद्धः भवतत। तासाम ् मागेषु ववववधधमायः,
भारतीयसंस्कृततः, समपयणं, सठह्णत
ु ा, नैततकता इत्यािीनां सामन्द्तमल्
ू यानां
बाधाः स्थावपताः भवन्न्द्त। न्स्ियाणाम ् यथाथयस्वतन्द्िता तिा एव साक्षात्कृता
भवव्यतत यिा ताः स्वतन्द्िमानववत ् आन्द्तररकस्वतन्द्ितायाः अनभ
ु वं करणे
सफलाः भवव्यन्न्द्त ।
प्रश्नाः
I. एकपदे न उत्तात –)केर्लम ् प्रश्न द्र्यम ्- Only Two)
1. सवयम ् आकाशम ् कासाम ् अन्स्त ?
2. यिा मठहला लोकतन्द्िं यथाथयतया आनेतुं इच्छतत तिा तस्य मागयः
की्शः भवतत?
3. इिानीम ् समाजः की्शः अन्स्त ?
II. पर्
ण र्
प ाक्येन उत्तात (–केर्लम ् प्रश्नद्र्यम ् -Only Two)
1. अद्यतनस्य मठहलाः कुि कुि ऊध्वयतां राप्नुवन्न्द्त ?
2. स्िीणाम ् मागेषु काः काः बाधाः स्थावपताः भवन्न्द्त ?
3. न्स्ियाणाम ् यथाथयस्वतन्द्िता किा साक्षात्कृता भवव्यतत?
III. अस्याः लघक
ु थायाः समचु चतं शीषपकं ललखत I
IV. ननदे शानुसााम ् उत्तां दे यम ्।–)केर्लम ् प्रश्नत्रयम ्- Only Three )
1. ‘सर्ं जगत ् तासाम ् एर् इनत र्क्तुं शक्यते ’अन्स्मन ् वाक्ये
कक्रयापिम ् ककम?्
प ्’ इतत पिस्य ककं ववपरीताथयकम ् अनुच्छे िे रयुक्तम ् ?
2. ‘सम्पणर्म
103
 3. ‘उच्चताम ् ’अस्य कृते ककं पिम ् अनुच्छे िे रयुक्तम ् ?
4. ‘यदा क्रास्न्तकारार्ी अजपनशीला मठैला” अन्स्मन ् वाक्ये ककं
ववशे्यपिम ् ?

खण् “ –ख = कायपम-् ाचनात्मक ”) अाःकाः 15(

प्रश्न .2पत्रलेखनम ् :
( ½x10)5=
भर्ान ् ााकेशः पपतभ्
ृ यां सै ैराद्र्ाानगां पयपटनाय अगच्छत ्। पाार्त्ृ य
स्र्लमत्रं मक
ु े शं यात्रायाः संस्मार्-स्र्रूपं ललखखतं पत्रं मञ्जष
ण ा-सैायतया
पाण यतु ।
)i) …………… ठिनाङ्खकः ................
वरयममि )ii) …………… !
सस्नेहं वन्द्िे !
अि कुशलं )iii) …………… कुशली भवान ्। अहं ग्री्मावकाशे )iv) ……………
भ्रमणाय अगच्छम ्। मम वपतरौ अवप मया सह ति पययमनाय शोभा-िशयनाय
च अगच्छताम ्। ति )v) …………… सायंकाले मन्न्द्िरे षु घण्मानािं भवतत।
महानिी )vi) …………… कलकलध्वतनना सह ति रवहतत। िशयकाः ति
एकिीभूय स्नानं कुवयन्न्द्त, हररिशयनं कुवयन्न्द्त, शोभां पचयन्न्द्त आनन्द्िं च
अनुभवन्न्द्त। आशासे यत ् )vii) …………… वषे ग्री्मावकाशे त्वम ् अवप मया
सह गमम्यमस। ति तव स्वास््यं )viii) …………… आनन्द्ि-लाभचच
भवव्यतत। मातावपतरौ रणामाः अनुजायै च )ix) …………… वक्तव्ययाः। शेषं
कुशलम ् अन्स्त।
भविीयः अमभन्द्नहृियः
)x) ……………

104
हररद्वारनगरं , राकेशः, आगाममतन, स्नेहामशषा: , मुकेश, तिावप, शोभनम ्
, हररसोपाने, भरतपुरतः , गङ्खगा

प्रश्न .3अोर्धदत्तं चचत्रं दृष्ट्र्ा संस्कृतेन पञ्चर्ाक्यानन ललखतI

)x5=51(
मञ्जणषा--:
अध्ययनकक्षः , ववचारमग्नः छािः , स्वप्नम ् , क्रीर्काः , अनेकाः
क्रीर्ाः , वाद्ययन्द्िाणण , कक्षा-सामग्रयः , इलागोलः, अनेकातन पस्
ु तकातन ,
गचितूमलका, अनेके ववचाराः I

प्र० .4मञ्जणषायाः उपयुक्तपदानन गै

ृ ीत्र्ा र्ीाबालकः अलभमन्युः इनत
पर्षयम ् अचोकृत्य ललखखताम ् कथाम ् पणानयत्र्ा ललखत ।
½( x )5=10
अमभमन्द्युः तनजबलेन सह (i) …………….. अगच्छत ्। सः एकाकी एव

105
चक्रव्ययूहस्य रवेशद्वारं (ii) सफलोऽभवत ्, तस्य कोऽवप योद्धा अन्द्तः रवे्मुं
न समथयः। साहसी बालक( :iii) …………….. एव षट् रवेशद्वाराणण िोमतयत्वा
चक्रव्ययूहस्य अन्द्तः राववशत ् सप्तमे रवेशद्वारे तस्य सप्तमहारगथमभः सह
घोरं युद्धं अभवत ्। (iv) ……….. अतुल्याम ् बाणवन्ृ ्मं ््ट्वा सवे (v)
…………….. मममलत्वा तस्योपरर (vi) ………….. अकुवयन ्। एकतः एकाकी
बालकः आसीत ् अपरतः (vii) …………. महारगथनः। कुि गता (viii) …………….?
गचरकालं (ix) …………….. यद्
ु धं कुवयन ् अन्द्ततः सः वीरः वीरगततम ् राप्तः।
धन्द्योऽयं वीरबालकः। धन्द्या चेयं वीरभमू मः यि एता्शाः वीराः बारम्प्बारं
(x) …………… भवन्न्द्त ।
मञ्जष
ण ा –
यद्
ु धभमू मम ्। महारगथनः। र्त्पन्द्नाः। सप्त । एकाकी। यद्
ु धमयायिा।
पययन्द्तम ्। वीरबालकस्य। आक्रमणम ्। भेिने।

खण्ः ‘ग’ अनप्र

ु युक्त व्याकार्म ् 25 --अाःकाः
प्रश्न 5 .प्रदत्तर्ाक्येषु ाे खांककतपदे षु सस्न्ों सस्न्ोपर्च्छे दं र्ा कुरुत I
केर्लम(्
प्रश्नचतुष्टटयम ् )
)x4=41(
(i) पामापत ्+गतेन अवप त्वया इिं न रयोक्तव्ययम ्।
(ii) सवयिा पर्द्यमानर्धऽस्य काययकलापं पचयामम।
(iii) अये कथं श्रीकृ्णाजन
ुय ी युचोस्ष्टिाश्च।
(iv)यद्येर्म ् तठहय कथम ् भवन्द्तौ सुपथं पररत्यक्तः ?
(v) कन्चचत ् ववद्वान ् सं वाचनं करोतत-कल्प+I

प्रश्न 6 .अोर्धललखखतर्ाक्येषु ाे खााःककतपदानां समासं पर्ग्रैं र्ा

प्रदत्तपर्कल्पेभ्यः

106
 चचत्र्ा ललखत( I केर्लम ् प्रश्नचतुष्टटयम ्
)x4=41(
(i) सवेषां महत्त्वं ववद्यते यथासमयम ्।
समयस्य अभावः )क( )खसमयम ् अनततक्रम्प्य ) (गसमये अनततक्रम्प्य )
सम)घ(यं यथा
(ii) ोमपश्च अथपश्च कामश्च मर्धक्षश्च एव जीवनस्य लक्ष्यं भवतत।
धमायथक
य ाममोक्षाः )क( (खधमयथक
य ाममोक्षः ) (ग )धमायथक
य ाममोक्षम ्
धमायथक
य ाममोक्षाणण)घ(
(iii) कलशपातशब्िे न रबुद्धौ दम्पती आचचयेण अतत्िताम ् ।
िमः च पततः च )क( (ख पततः च भ्राता च ) (गपततः )घ( पततः च पत्नी च )
च पततः च
(iv) काक राजहं सं :प्रत्युत्ताम ् अयच्छत ् ।
र्त्तरस्य र्त्तरस्य इतत )क( (ख र्त्तरस्य पचचात ् )ग( र्त्तरम ् र्त्तरम ् इतत )
र्त्तरम ् )घ( अनततक्रम्प्य
(v) पूवम
य ् इिं ब्रह्मकुण्म ् आसीत ् I
)क(ब्रह्मणा कुण्र्म ् )ख( ब्रह्मणण कुण्र्म ् )ग( ब्रह्मणे कुण्र्म ् )घ( ब्रह्मण:
कुण्र्म ्

प्रश्न 7 .अोर्धललखखतर्ाक्येषु ाे खााःककतपदानां प्रकृनतप्रत्ययौ

संयर्धज्य पर्भज्य र्ा
उत्तां प्रदत्तपर्कल्पेभ्यः चचत्र्ा ललखत( I केर्लम ्
प्रश्नचतुष्टटयम ् )x4=41( )
(i) ामर्ीय+टाप ् सन्ृ ्मः िशयनीया अन्स्त I
रमणीया )क( :रमणीया )ख( रमणीयता )ग(
रमणा)घ(
(ii) भवतां हृद+िक् स्वागतम ् अन्स्त I
)क(हाठिय काः (ख )हाठिय कम ् )ग(हठिय की )घ( हाठिय क्यः
107
 (iii) वाक्पमुः ोैयर्
प ान ् च मन्द्िी न पररभूयते I
)क( धैयय + माप ् )ख( धैयय + अनीयर् )ग( धैयय + मतुप ् )घ(
धैय+
य तल ्
(iv) तिे व महात्मानः समत्र्म ् इतत आहुः I
)क( समता+ माप ् )ख( समत ् + अनीयर् )ग( सम+त्व )घ(
सम+तल ्
(v) मनसः चञ्चल+तल ् वशीकतम
ुय ् कः समथयः ?
)क( चञ्चलत्वं (खचञ्चलता ) (ग चञ्चलताम ् ) (घचञ्चला )

प्रश्न 8 .अोर्धललखखते संर्ादे र्ाच्यानस

ु ाां उचचतं पदम ् चचत्र्ा
ललखतI
) केर्लम ् प्रश्नत्रयम(्
)x3=31(
मोठहतः - जयन्द्त !)i(................ कुि गच्छमस ?
जयन्द्तः - मया तु ववद्यालयः )ii(................ I
मोठहतः - ति )iii( ................ ककं कक्रयते?
जयन्द्तः - ति अहं पािं )iv(................ , ममिैः सह क्रीर्ामम च।
मोठहतः -क्षणं तत्ि । अहमवप सज्जः भूत्वा )v(................ I
मञ्जणषा –
आगच्छामम, पिामम, त्वया, गम्प्यते , त्वम ्

प्रश्न 9 .अाःकानां स्थाने संस्कृतपदे षु समयं ललखत-केर्लम ् (

) प्रश्नत्रयम ्

)x3=31(
(i) सायं 4:30 ................ सभागारे सभा अन्स्त ।
(ii) अततथीनां सम्प्मानं 5:00 ................ भवव्यतत ।
108
(iii) अध्यक्षीय भाषणं 6:45 ................ भवव्यतत ।
(iv) तिनन्द्तरं 7:15 ................ चायपानं भवव्यतत ।

प्रश्न .10उचचतैः अव्ययपदै ः राक्तस्थानानन पाण यत अव्ययानां I

Iसच
ण ी अोःप्रदत्ताः
केर्लम(् प्रश्नचतुष्टटयम ् )
)x4=41(
(i) ....................... मधरु भवषणी वाणी पुरुषं रह्लाियतत तथा न
शीतलरसः I
(ii) ....................... मेषः पाकशालां रववशतत तावत ् सूपकारे ण ताडर्तः
I
(iii) राजा नीलम ् र्त्पलम ् ....................... एकं चक्षुः याचकाय
सपवपयतवान ् I
(iv) अचवाः राणिाणाय ....................... अधावन ् I
(v) यः आत्मनः श्रेयः इच्छतत सः परे भ्यः ....................... अठहतं कमय
न कुयायत ् I
मञ्जणषा –
किावप, इतस्ततः, इव, यावत ् , यथा

प्रश्न 11. अोर्धललखखतर्ाक्येषु काश्चन अशद्

ु ोयःI
प्रदत्तपर्कल्पेभ्यः शद्
ु ों शब्दं चचत्र्ा उत्तापस्ु स्तकायां
र्ाक्यानन पन
ु ः ललखत I )केर्लम ् प्रश्नत्रयम ् (

)1x3=3(
(i) जनाः पञ्चवािने सिै व र्द्याने भ्रमनत।
)भ्रममस / भ्रमन्न्द्त / भ्रमथ (

109
 (ii) यणयं किा वक्ष
ृ ारोपणं करर्यन्न्द्त?
)अहम ् / ते / इिम ् (
(iii) भावना चवः पूजां न अकार्धत ्।
)करर्यमस / कुवयन्न्द्त / करर्यतत (
(iv) बुद्गधमती बालकः यथासमयम ् पितत।
)बामलका / बालः / बामलकाः(

खण्ः ‘घ’ पठित अर्बर्धोनम ् -- 30 अाःकाः

प्रश्न .12अोर्धललखखतं गद्यांशम ् पठित्र्ा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम ् उत्तााखर् -
)2+2+1( I ललखत
कन्स्मन्चचत ् नगरे चन्द्रो नाम भूपततः रततवसतत स्म। तस्य पुिाः
वानरक्रीर्ारताः वानरयूथं
तनत्यमेव ववववधैः भोज्यपिाथथः पुन््मं नयन्न्द्त स्म । तन्स्मन ् राजगह
ृ े
बालवाहनयोग्यं मेषयूथम ्
आसीत ्। तेषां मेषाणां मध्ये एको मेषः न्जह्वालोलुपतया अहतनयशं महानसं
रववचय यत ् पचयतत तत ्
भक्षयतत । ते च सूपकाराः यन्त्कन्ञ्चत ् का्िं मण्ृ मयं भाजनं कांस्यता्रपपािम ्
वा पचयतत तेन तम ्
आशु तार्यन्न्द्त स्म।
(i) एकपदे न उत्तात )केर्लम ् प्रश्नद्र्यम ्( ---
1. 'चन्रः' इतत कस्य नाम आसीत ्?
2. राजपुिाः कैः सह क्रीर्ारताः आसन ् ?
3. राजगह
ृ े की्शम ् मेषयूथम ् आसीत ् ?
(ii) पर्
ण र्
प ाक्येन उत्तात ---)प्रश्नमेकम(्
1. मेषः अहतनयशं ककं करोतत ?
2. सूपकाराः मेषम ् कैः वस्तुमभः तार्यन्न्द्त स्म ?
(iii) भापषककायपम ् ---)प्रश्नद्र्यम(्

110
 1. 'तस्य पुत्राः' अि तस्य पिं कस्मै रयुक्तम ् ?
)चन्द्राय/ मेषाय(
2. 'भर्धज्यपदाथे:' इतत पिस्य ववशेषणपिं गद्यांशे ककम ् ?
)ववववधैः / तनत्यमेव(
3. 'तम ् आशु ता्यस्न्त स्म।' अि आशु पिस्य कोsथयः ? (शीघ्रम ्
/किोरम ्)

प्रश्न .13अोर्धललखखतं श्लर्धकम ् पठित्र्ा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम ् उत्तााखर् -

I ललखत )2+2+1(
तस्मात्त्र्लमस्न्रयाणयादौ ननयम्य भातषपभ। पाप्मानं प्रजठै ैयेनं
ज्ञानपर्ज्ञाननाशनम ् ।।
(i) एकपदे न उत्तात )केर्लम ् प्रश्नमेकम ्( ---
1. चलोके 'भातषपभ' कः अन्स्त ?
2. इन्न्द्रयाणण वशीकतम
ुय ् अजन
ुय ं कः र्पठिशतत?
(ii) पर्
ण र्
प ाक्येन उत्तात ---
सवयरथमं केषां संयमः सिा करणीयः?
(iii) भापषककायपम ् ---)प्रश्नद्र्यम(्
1. 'मााय' इत्यथे चलोके ककं पिं रयक्
ु तम ् ?
(नाशनम ् / रजठह )
2. 'त्र्म ्' इतत सवयनामपिं कस्य कृते रयक्
ु तम ्?
(अजन
ुय ाय )कृ्णाय /
3. 'पाप्मानं प्रजठै ैयेनं' अन्स्मन ् वाक्ये कक्रयापिम ् ककम ् ?
(पाप्मानम ् / रजठह )

प्रश्न .14अोर्धललखखतं ना्यांशम ् पठित्र्ा प्रदत्तप्रश्नानाम ् उत्तााखर् -

)2+2+1( I ललखत

111
)ततः रववशतः व्ययासनारिौ ।(
नारिः - )व्ययासम ् रतत( पचयतु भवान ्। कोऽयम ् अनथयः कक्रयते एताभ्यां
वीराभ्याम ् । समन्द्तात ् वधयमानाः रचण्र्ालमशखाः आकाशं मलहन्न्द्त इव।
गगनात ् सहस्रशः र्ल्का: भूमौ पतन्न्द्त। कम्प्पते खलु सपवयत-वन-रम
ु ा
सकला मही। पवनः स्तब्धः जातः । सहस्रांशुः न भासते। शैलाः वविीययन्द्ते।
कथमवप एतौ तनवारणीयौ, अन्द्यथा सकलं जगद् ध्वस्तं भवव्यतत।
व्ययासनारिौ – भो वीरौ ! संहरतं संहरतं तनजास्िे ।
(i) एकपदे न उत्तात )प्रश्नद्र्यम ्(---
1. ततः कौ रववशतः?
2. कः न भासते?
3. पवनः की्शः जात:?
--- )प्रश्नमेकम(् पर्
ण र्
प ाक्येन उत्तात )ii(
1. का: आकाशं मलहन्न्द्त इव?
2. कधमवप एतौ तनवारणीयौ, अन्द्यथा ककं भवव्यतत ?
(iii) भापषककायपम ् --- )प्रश्नद्र्यम(्
1. 'सम्पणर्ाप' इत्यथे ककं पिम ् अि अन्स्त? समन्द्तात(् /
सकला )
2. 'पतस्न्त' कक्रयायाः कत्ताय कः? / :र्ल्का(
)सहस्रशः
3. 'र्ीााभ्याम ्' इतत पिस्य ककं ववशेषणम ् अनच्
ु छे िे रयक्
ु तम ् ?

प्रश्न .15र्ाक्येषु ाे खााःककतपदानां स्थाने उचचतम ् प्रश्नर्ाचकं

पर्कल्पम ् प्रयज्
ु य
प्रश्नननमापर्म ् कुरुत ) प्रश्नपञ्चकम ्( I
)x5=51(

112
1. भाात्याः कोशः सञ्चयात ् क्षयम ् आयातत । )क( काः )ख(
कस्याः )ग( कथं
2. अचवाः राणिाणाय इतस्ततः अधावन ् । )क( कस्य
)ख( ककमथयम ् )ग( कुि
3. सज्जना: एव शमशनः ककरणसमाः इव भवन्न्द्त। (कके ) )ख(
काः )ग( का
4. मनसः तनग्रहं वायोः इव कठिनम ् अन्स्त। )क( कस्य
)ख( ककमथयम ् )ग( कुि
5. पर्ोात्रा एव अहम ् पक्षक्षराजः कृतः I के )क(न )ख(
काः )ग( का
6. रधानाचाययः छात्रार्ां स्वागतम ् करोतत I )क( कस्य
)ख( केषाम ् )ग( कुि

प्रश्न .16अोर्धललखखतश्लर्धकस्य अन्र्यं उचचतपदै ः पाण नयत्र्ा पन

ु ः
ललखतI

(½x4= )2
न तथा शीतलसमललं न चन्द्िनरसो न शीतला छाया।
रह्लाियतत च पुरुषं यथा मधरु भावषणी वाणी।।
अन्र्यः –
न शीतलसमललं न)1(.................. न शीतला )2(.................. पुरुषं )3(
.................. रह्लाियतत यथा )4( ................. वाणी।

मञ्जष
ण ा - तथा, चन्द्िनरसः, मधरु भावषणी, छाया

अथर्ा

113
श्लर्धकस्य भार्म ् उचचतपदै ः पाण नयत्र्ा पन
ु ः ललखतI

क्रोधाद्भवतत सम्प्मोहः सम्प्मोहात्स्मतृ तववभ्रमः।

स्मतृ तभ्रंशाद् बुद्गधनाशो बुद्गधनाशात्रणचयतत ।।
भार्ाथपः –
यिा नरः क्रुध्यतत तिा क्रोधात ् (भवतत )अज्ञानम(् ................. )1,
सम्प्मोहात ् (................. )2 भवतत । स्मतृ तभ्रंशात ् नरस्य ( ................. )3
नाशः भवतत I यिा बुद्धेः नाशः भवतत तिा नरः स्वयमेव ( )4
.................I

मञ्जष
ण ा - ववनचयतत स्मतृ तववभ्रमः , हःसम्प्मो , बद्
ु धेः ,

प्रश्न .17प्रसाःगानस
ु ाां स्थल
ण पदानां शद्
ु ोम ् अथं चचत्र्ा ललखत
केर्लम ्( I
प्रश्नचतुष्टटयम ् )
)x4=41(
(i) अन्ग्नः इव दैनत माम ् अयं शोकः।
ज्वालयतत )क( मारयतत )ख( वितत )ख(
(ii) सः सव्ययेन पाखर्ना चक्रं गह
ृ ीतवान ्।
पािे न )क( (खनहस्ते ) वितत )ग(
(iii) मेषः अहतनयशं मैानसं रववचय यत ् पचयतत तद् भक्षयतत ।
पाकशालाम ् )क( मानससरोवरम)् ख( (गगह
ृ म् )
(iv) एषः कामः एषः क्रोधः मैाशनर्ध महापाप्मा ।
(कमहापापी ) (खपापशीलाः ) बहुभोजी )ग(
(v) मम केकाार्ं श्रत्ु वा कोककलः अवप लज्जते I
(क )हं सस्य ध्वतनम ् (ख )काकस्य ध्वतनम ् (ग )मयूरस्य ध्वतनम ्

114
प्रश्न .18मञ्जणषासैायतया कथांशं पाण नयत्र्ा ललखत I
)4=8x½(
रभातवेलायां राजहं सी राजहं सः च (i) .................ववहरतः स्म। तिै व (ii)
...............काकस्य ध्वतनं श्रत्ु वा राजहं सः (iii) ................. राजहसीं च
पच्
ृ छतत यत ् इयं (iv)................. कस्य अन्स्त? राजहं सी (v)
................. ध्वतनः इयम ् इतत वितत I सा कथयतत यत ् काकस्य (vi )
.................कृ्णं कमय अवप कृ्णमेवान्स्त । तिै व (vii) .................
सक्रोधं रववचय वितत यत ् मम वणयः तु (viii) ................. श्रीकृ्णस्य
स्शो वतयते । अहं तु छािेभ्यः आिशयः अन्स्म । अहमेव स्वक्वणणतैः
जनान ् रातः रबोधयामम ।

मञ्जणषा -

सरस्तीरे , काकः, श्रीरामस्य, काकस्य, ध्वतनः, शरीरम ्, आकुलीभवतत, सहसा

115
 FRENCH

Text book : Entre Jeune 2

Leçons 2-8,10
Topics Covered
Expressions Ecrit
- La Lettre ( long composition based on chapters 2-8,10)
- Les Messages

- Le Dialogue (re-arrange) Fill the gaps

Grammaire
- Le Futur Antérieur
- Conditionnel présent
- Les Pronoms Relatifs - simples/ composés
- Le Plus Que Parfait
- Les Pronoms Personnels (all)
- Les Adjectifs et Pronoms Démonstratifs - simples/ composés
- Les Adjectifs et Pronoms Possessifs
- Le Subjonctif
- Le Discours Rapporté
- Trouvez les questions
- Les Négations
(all verbes/tenses done in class 9)
ASSIGNMENTS
1. Lisez le texte et répondez aux questions

116
Sophie : Allo! Macro?
Marco : Oui; c’ est toi, Sophie?
Sophie : Dis je t’ invite à une surprise-partie.
Marco : Où ça?
Sophie : À la maison.
Marco : Quand?
Sophie : Dans huit jours, le 30 septembre. Tu as des disques?
Marco : Oui j’ ai des disques de jazz.
Sophie : Apporte-les! On dansera et on chantera.

Marco : J’amènerai Michel, ii a une guitare.

Sophie : Et Luc, il est amusant.
Marco : D’accord. IL y aura beaucoup de monde?
Sophie : Ah! Oui. Nous serons trente, garçons et filles. Patrice
sera là, avec son frère, Alain, et sa sœur, Odile.
Marco : Mais, tes parents, on va les gêner?
Sophie : Non, Papa et maman seront à Rouen.

A) Dites vrai ou faux : (Donnez les justifications)

1. Marco aimera Michel parce qu’il a une guitare
2. Papa et Maman de Sophie seront à Reven pendant le Bouin.
3. Patrice et Alain vont avec ses frère et sœur
B) Complétez:
1. Gener vent dire .
2. Le contraire de emmener, c’est .
3. Le contraire de ennuyeux, c’est .

117
 4. Le contraire de apporter, c’est .
5. Le contraire de avec, c’est .
C) Répondez aux questions:
1. Qui a-t-il organise une parti.
2. Combien de gens attendent-ils la parti?
3. Que demande-t-elle Sophie à Marco ?
2. Lisez le texte et répondez aux questions :
M. Charlesa à Paris
Quand on voyage en France, on s’arrange souvent pour passer une
journée à Paris. Que peut-on faire un seul jour ? ll y a tant à voir.
Faut-il faire comme le fameux touriste américain qui essaie de visiter
aussi nombreux de monuments que possible pour le seul plaisir de
dire qu’il les a vus ? Voici la journée de M. Charles qui arrive à Paris
le Mercredi matin après avoir passé la nuit dans le train. Il revient
de l’ltalie qu’il a visité en trois jours. Le train s’approche de Paris.
Il y a une brume légère mais le soleil brille. Il s’est rasé et ii s’est
habillé de sept heures et demie. Charles regarde sa montre. Elle
s’est arrêtée. Il l’a secoué mais elle refuse de marcher.
Ql. Répondez :
a) Que font les touristes américains ?
b) Quand M. Charles, est-il arrivé ? Où a-t-il passe la nuit?
c) Pourquoi a-t-il pris le petit déjeuner dans le train?
d) Pourquoi ne sait-il pas l’heure exacte
?Cochez la bonne réponse :
a) Il y a tant à voir veut dire :
i) Il y a beaucoup à voir
ii) Il n’ y a rien à voir
iii) Il y a une peu à voir
b) Quand M. Charles arrive à Paris :
i) Il fait chaud
118
 ii) Il fait froid
iii) Il fait beau
c) Elle refuse signifié:
i) elle ne va pas
ii) elle ne fonctionne pas
iii) elle ne vient pas
d) Le contraire de légère est :
i) lourde
ii) grande
iii) grosse
3. Conjuguez les verbes entre parenthèses au passé compose ou
l’imparfait :
Peter et Karl (Habiter) à Paris. lls (être) étudiants. lls (avoir) des
amis Français. lls (partir) en vacances en août. lls (aller) au bord
de la mer. lls (savoir) bien parler français, anglais et allemand et ils
(comprendre) un peu l’ espagnol. En septembre ils (vouloir) aller
en Espagne. lls (aimer) beaucoup voyager. lls (visiter) plusieurs en-
droits touristiques.
4. Mettez au futur antérieur :
1. Quand je (manger) mon dîner, je serai content.
2. Aussitôt que tu (lire) ce livre, viens me voir.
3. Dès qu’ elle (manager) un peu, elle se sentira mieux.
4. Lorsqui ‘il (se lever)) il ira à l’ école.
5. Quand vous (vendre) cette voiture vous pourrez acheter une
autre.
5. Ecrivez une lettre à votre correspondante (e) français (e) en
décrivant vos vacances d’été.
7. Remplacez les noms par les pronoms :
i) Achetez ces livres pour Georges.
ii) Ne réponds pas à ces gens
119
 iii) Va à l’école à l’heure.
iv) Rentre de Paris demain
v) Ne mettez pas les fleurs sur la table.
8. Anne invite son ami pour passer les vacances près de la mer à côte
d’Azur. Rédigez cette lettre en environ 80 mots.
9. Enlevez le mot intrus :
i) La Seine-Le Rhône-La Loire-Les Pyrénées
ii) Les carottes-les tomates-le jambon-les haricots verts
iii) Petits suisse-gruyère-cid-brie-camembert
iv) Côtelette - pommes de terre-rôti de lard-coq au vin
v) Pastilles-collyres-ruban adhésif-pansement
vi) Carte orange-carte musée-carte postale-carte
téléphonique
11. Mettez les phrases suivantes aux négatives :
i) Elle a déjà fait le devoir.
ii) Nous prenons souvent des escargots.
iii) Jean veut encore du crème.
iv) Nous sommes déjà allés en France.
v) Tu fais toujours les courses le Samedi
vi) Il y a quelque chose le Samedi.
vii) J’ai vu quelqu’un dans la chambre
viii) Tout le monde a pris le petit déjeuner
ix) Ils ont des sœurs.
x) Nous prenons le train.
12. Complétez avec les pronoms relatifs : simples/composés)
i) (Ce sont des forêts ............................ je me promené
souvent.
i) Voilà un homme..................... je vais demander mon
chemin.
120
 ii) Il a pris le stylo ..................................j’écrivais.
iii) La maison...............................nous sommes est à mon
ami.
iv) C’est la route .................................. je rentre chez moi.
v) La maison...................................je pense n’est pas très
loin
vi) Les questions .......................... il faut répondre sont
difficiles.
13. La mère donne des ordres à ses deux enfants. Mettez les verbes
au subjonctif :
D’abord, je veux que vous (finir) votre devoir de français que vous
(faire) vos exercices de Maths et que vous (apprendre) vos leçons
pour demain. Ensuite je veux que vous (écrire) une lettre aux grands
parents. Je ne veux pas que vous (regarder) la télévision ni que vous
(sortir) ce soir, Je veux que vous (rester) à la maison, que vous (lire)
un peu et que vous (aller) vous coucher de bonne heure.
14. Transposez ce dialogue au discours indirect :
B : Que voulez-vous madame?
D: J’ai besoin du pain et des croissants.
B: Combien de croissants, voulez-vous?
D : 4 croissants et un grand pain. Avez-vous des baguettes bien
cuite?
B: J’en ai
16. Vous êtes allés chez votre ami(e) mais votre ami(e) n’est là.
Laissez un message d’environ 30 mots.
17. (A) Complétez :
i) La Corse est une.....................................au sud
de la France.
ii) Est une grande festivale.
iii) Est un vin de Champage.
iv) L’enseignement en France est gratuit jusqu’a
121
 ................... ans.
v) Le bœuf bourguignon est un ..............................
...français.
vi) On peut acheter ................................. à I épicerie.

(B) Répondez :
i) Que savez-vous du CROUS ?
ii) Qu’est-ce que c’est La Sorbonne ?
iii) Où peut-on acheter des légumes ?
iv) Où se trouve le musée d’Orsay ?
v) Quelles peintures trouve-t-on au musée du Lou

122
 SPANISH SYLLABUS (GRADE 10)

** Subject to change as per CBSE guidelines:

Prescribed text book : AULA INTERNACIONAL 2
Jaime corpas, Eva Garcia , Agustin Garmendia

UNIDAD TERM 1 TERM 2

UNIDAD 1 : EL ESPAÑOL Y TÙ ✔️ ✔️
UNIDAD 2: UNA VIDA DE PELICULA ✔️ ✔️
UNIDAD 3: HOGAR , DULCE HOGAR ✔️ ✔️
UNIDAD 4: CÓMO VA TODO ✔️ ✔️
UNIDAD 5: GUÍA DEL OCIO ✔️ ✔️
UNIDAD 6: NO COMO CARNE ✔️
UNIDAD 7: NOS GUSTÓ MUCHO ✔️
UNIDAD 8: ESTAMOS MUY BIEN ✔️
UNIDAD 9: ANTES Y AHORA ✔️
UNIDAD 10: MOMENTOS ✔️
ESPECIALES
LA GRAMÁTICA:
 Reflexive tense and impersonal ‘Se’

 Revision of the concept of comparison of equality, superiority

and inferiority

 The direct and indirect object pronoun

 Conjunction: además, es que, etc.

123
  Expressions such as: Deber + infinitivo / Tener que +
infinitivo / Hay que + infinitivo / Se puede + infinitivo? / ¿Me
das + …?

 Use of the verb Doler and expressions with Tener dolor de +

sustantivo

 Prepositions: Por / Para

 Use of verbs Pensar and Creer to express an opinion

 Contrast muy / mucho

 Present perfect tense (pretérito perfecto) and past indefinite

tense (pretérito indefinido)

 Past imperfect tense (pretérito imperfecto)

 Contrast between pretérito perfecto, pretérito indefinido and

pretérito imperfecto

 Paraphrase: Pensar + infinitivo, Haber que + infinitivo

 Consecutive conjunction: por eso

 Revision of the concept of direct and indirect object pronouns

 Negative command (singular/plural) + direct/indirect object

pronoun

 Idea of the subjunctive mood

 Simple conditional (not involving the past tense)

CULTURE / CIVILIZATION /LITERATURE:
 Important events and days, monuments, festivals, cuisines,
touristic spots, famous personalities, political and
geographical aspects relating to Spain and rest of the Latin
American countries,

124
 Authors (biography and two of their most well-known works):

a) Miguel de Cervantes
b) Benito Pérez Galdós
c) García Lorca
d) José María Arguedas
e) Juan Rulfo
f) Pablo Neruda
g) José Martín
h) Félix Lope de Vega
i) Camilo José Cela
j) Gabriel García Márquez
k) Jorge Luis Borges
l) Mario Vargas Llosa
m) Nicolás Guillén

BUENA SUERTE

125