JEE

STRUCTURE OF ATOMS WS 2
JEE main - Chemistry

1. The energy of photon is given as: ΔE/atom = 3.03 × 10-19 J atom-1, then the wavelength (λ ) of the photon is: [4]

[Given, h (Planck's constant) = 6.63 × 10-34 Js, c (velocity of light) = 3.00 × 108 ms-1].

a) 65.6 nm b) 656 nm

c) 0.656 nm d) 6.56 nm
2. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as the Balmer transition n = 4 to n = [4]
2 of He+ spectrum?

a) n = 2 to n = 1 b) n = 6 to n = 1

c) n = 4 to n = 1 d) n = 4 to n = 2
3. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which: [4]

a) electrons come out of a metal with a b) photons come out of a metal when it is hit
constant velocity which depends on the by a beam of electrons
frequency and intensity of incident light
wave

c) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom d) electrons come out of a metal with different
under the action of an electric field velocities not greater than a certain value
which depends only on the frequency of the
incident light wave and not on its intensity
4. The order of filliing of electrons in the orbital of an atom will be : [4]

a) 3d 4p 4s 4d 5s b) 5s 4p 3d 4d 5s

c) 4s 3d 4p 5s 4d d) 3d 4s 4p 4d 5s
5. Which represents the correct set of four quantum number of a 4d-electron? [4]

a) 4, 3, 2, + 1

2
b) 4, 2, 1, + 1

c) 4, 2, 1, 0 d) 4, 3, -2, + 1

6. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to: [4]

– –
a) 2√3 h b) √2 h
–
c) √6h d) 0h

7. Magnetic moment of Xa+(Z = 26) is √24 B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons and value of a respectively
−−
[4]

are:

a) 3, 1 b) 4, 2

c) 0, 2 d) 2, 4

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 8. If the Thomson model of the atom was correct, then the result of Rutherford’s gold foil experiment would have [4]
been:
a. All of the α-particles pass through the gold foil without decrease in speed.
b. α-Particles are deflected over a wide range of angles.

c. All α-particles get bounced back by 180o.

d. α-Particles pass through the gold foil deflected by small angles and with reduced speed.

a) Statement (b) is correct. b) Statement (d) is correct.

c) Statement (a) is correct. d) Statement (c) is correct.

9. Which of the graphs shown below does not represent the relationship between the incident light and the electron [4]
ejected from the metal surface?

a) b)

c) d)

10. In a hydrogen atom, if energy of an electron in ground state is -13.6 eV, then that in the 2nd excited state is: [4]

a) -6.0 eV b) -13.6

c) -3.4 eV d) -1.51 eV
11. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th Bohr orbit is: [4]

a) 8πa 0 b) 6πa0

c) 2πa 0 d) 4πa0

12. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is called: [4]

a) disintegration b) Stark effect

c) decay d) Zeeman effect

13. The quantum numbers for the last electron in an atom are n = 3, I = 1 and m = -1. The atom is: [4]

a) Si b) Al

c) Mg d) C
RH
14. The number of degenerate orbitals in a level of H-atom having energy E n = −
9
. [4]

a) 9 b) 5

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 c) 7 d) 3
15. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected from a metal surface after the irradiation of light having [4]
wavelength λ , then for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron, the wavelength of the light should be
(Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be very high in comparison to work function)

a) b)
4 3
λ λ
9 4

c) 1

2
λ d) 2

3
λ

16. The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV. The KE of this electron is: [4]

a) -13.6 eV b) 13.6eV

c) 6.8 eV d) zero
17. A proton and an α-particle are accelerated through a potential difference of 100V. The ratio of the wavelength [4]
proton and an α-particle is:
– –
a) 3√2 : 1 b) √2 : 1

–
c) 2√2 : 1 d) 2 : 1
18. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the energy gap between different stationary states of hydrogen [4]
atom?
i. (E3 - E2) < (E4 - E2)

ii. (E3 - E2) > (E4 - E2)

iii. (E3 - E2) < (E2 - E1)
iv. (E3 - E2) < (E4 - E3)

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (ii)

c) (i) and (iii) d) (i) and (iv)

19. If each hydrogen atom is excited by giving 8.4 eV of energy, then the number of spectral lines emitted is equal [4]
to:

a) two b) four

c) three d) none of these

20. If uncertainty in the position of a particle (Δx) is ________, the uncertainty in momentum (Δp) would be [4]
________.

a) large, large b) small, large

c) small, small d) large, infinite

21. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the [4]
following inter-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr’s orbits in an atom of hydrogen?

a) 5 → 2 b) 2 → 5

c) 4 → 1 d) 3 → 2

22. Which of the following element does NOT have (n - 1)d5 electronic configuration? [4]

a) Mn (Z = 25) b) Cr (Z = 24)

c) Mo (Z = 42) d) Nb (Z = 41)

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23. Planck’s constant has the same dimension as that of [4]

a) Radiant energy b) Power

c) Work d) Angular momentum

24. An element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 18, 1. If its atomic weight is 63, then how many neutrons will be [4]
present in its nucleus?

a) 30 b) 32

c) 34 d) 33
25. The de-Broglie wavelength (λ ) associated with a photoelectron varies with the frequency (ν )of the incident [4]
radiation as, [ν is threshold frequency]
o

a) λ ∝
1
1
b) λ ∝
1
3

(ν−ν0 ) 2
(ν−ν0 ) 2

c) λ ∝
1
1
d) λ ∝
1

(ν−ν0 )
(ν−ν0 ) 4

26. The magnet will cause greatest deflection in: [4]

a) γ -rays b) α-rays

c) neutrons d) β-rays
27. The position of both, an electron and a helium atom is known within 1.0 nm. Further the momentum of the [4]

electron is known within 5.0 × 10-26 kgms-1. The minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the momentum
of the helium atom is :

a) 80kg ms-1 b) 8.0 × 10

−26 −1
kg m s

c) 50kg ms-1 d) 5.0 × 10-26 kg ms-1

28. Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (outermost) electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is: [4]

a) 5, 0, 0, + 1

2
b) 6, 0, 0, + 1

c) 5, 1, 1, + 1

2
d) 5, 1, 0, + 1

29. The wave number of the first emission line in the Balmer series of H-Spectrum is: (R = Rydberg constant) [4]

a) b)
9 7
R R
400 6

c) d)
3 5
R R
4 36

30. The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol-1. The energy required to excite the electron in [4]
the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is:

a) 9.84 × 105Jmol-1 b) 7.56 × 105 Jmol-1

c) 8.51 × 105Jmol-1 d) 6.56 × 105Jmol-1

31. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 πa (a0 is
0
[4]

Bohr radius), then the value of is

n

a) 1.0 b) 0.40

c) 0.75 d) 1.50
32. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following. [4]

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 i. C H +

ii. H3O+

iii. NH3
iv. C H −

a) i and ii b) ii, iii and iv

c) i and iv d) i and iii

33. Among the following, the energy of 2s-orbital is lowest in [4]

a) K b) Na

c) H d) Li
34. Out of first 100 elements, number of elements having electrons in 3d-orbitals are: [4]

a) 10 b) 60

c) 100 d) 80
35. When an electron of charge e and mass m moves with a velocity V about the nuclear charge Ze in circular orbit [4]
of radius r, the potential energy of the electrons is given by:
2 2

a) −Ze

r
b) Ze

2 2 2

c) Z

r
e
d) mv

36. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbitals is: [4]

a) 1 b) 2

c) 4 d) 3
37. If proton and antiproton come close to each other and annihilate, how much energy will be released? [4]

a) 5 × 10-10 J b) 4.5 × 10-10 J

c) 4.8 × 10-10 J d) 3 × 10-10 J

38. Radius of Li2+ = ________ the radius of H; and radius of Be3+ = ________ the radius of H [4]

a) one fourth, one third b) one third, one fourth

c) one fourth, half d) half, one fourth

39. The potential energy of the electron present in the ground state of Li2+ ion is represented by: [4]
2 2

a) − 3e

4πε0 r
b) +
3e

2
4πε0 r

c) − d)
3e 3e
+
4πε0 r 4πε0 r

40. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom in the ground state are excited by [4]
monochromatic light of energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen according to Bohr's theory will
be:

a) Three b) One

c) Four d) Two
41. Match the column: [4]

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 Column I Column II

a. 7.54 ×
i. Number of protons in 0.18 g of 30
P
1022
15

o b. 5.24 ×
ii. Number of photons having λ = 4000 A and total energy 1.00 J
1022

iii. Quanta of radiation (v= 4.67 × 1013 s-1) needed to melt 7g of ice if it takes 333 J to melt 1 c. 2.01 ×
g of ice 1018

d. 3.01 ×

1020

a) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a) b) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d)

c) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a) d) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b)
42. The wave no. for the shortest wave length transition in the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen is: [4]

a) 29420 cm-1 b) 12186 cm-1

c) 27420 cm-1 d) 28420 cm-1

43. What is the frequency of emitted light, if 598.53 kJ energy is released by 3 moles of photons? [4]

a) 1.50 × 1015 s-1 b) 4.99 × 1014 s-1

c) 9.03 × 1038 s-1 d) 2.00 × 1016 s-1

44. The radial distribution curve of 2s sublevel consists of x nodes, x is: [4]

a) 3 b) 2

c) 1 d) zero
45. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated: [4]

a) b)

c) d)

46. Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped by applying 0.5 V [4]
when the radiation of 250 nm is used. The work function of the metal is:

a) 4eV b) 5eV

c) 5.5eV d) 4.5eV
47. The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is [4]

a) [Ar] 3d4 4s2 b) [Ar] 4d5 4s1

c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 d) [Ar] 3d6 4s0

48. The shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum of Lyman series is ________. [R = Rydberg constant] [4]

a) R b)
1

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 c) d)
2 9R

R 4

49. Which of the following statements is false? [4]

i. Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is called Stark effect
ii. The frequency of emitted radiation from a black body goes from a lower wavelength to a higher wavelength
as the temperature increases
iii. Photon has momentum as well as wavelength
iv. Rydberg constant has a unit of energy

a) Only (iv) b) Only (ii)

c) Only (i) d) Only (iii)

50. In potassium the order of energy level for 19th electron is: [4]

a) 3s > 3d b) 4s = 3d

c) 4s > 4p d) 4s < 3d
51. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of wavelength 300 nm is [4]

[Given: h = 6.63 × 10-34 Js, NA = 6.02 × 1023mol-1, c = 3 × 108 ms-1]

a) 435 kJ mol-1 b) 235 kJ mol-1

c) 399 kJ mol-1 d) 325 kJ mol-1

52. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell with l = 3 and n = 4 is: [4]

a) 14 b) 10

c) 16 d) 12

53. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 × 10-31 kg, Planck constant is 6.626 × 10-34 Js, the uncertainty involved in [4]
o

the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 A is:

a) 5.79 × 107 ms-1 b) 5.79 × 105 ms-1

c) 5.79 × 108 ms-1 d) 5.79 × 106 ms-1

54. The d orbital which does NOT have four lobes is ________. [4]

a) d z
2 b) dx2 −y 2

c) dxy d) dyz

55. From the following list of atoms, choose the no. of pairs of isotopes, isobars and isotones respectively [4]
16
8
O,
39
19
K,
335
19
U,
40
19
K , 14
7
N,
18
8
O,
14
6
C , 40
20
C a,
238
92
U

a) 2, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 2

c) 2, 2, 2 d) 3, 2, 2
56. If the principal quantum number n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be: [4]

a) ns → np → (n - 1)d → (n - 2)f b) ns → (n - 2)f → (n - 1)c → np

c) ns → (n - 2)f → np → (n - 1)d d) ns → (n - 1)d → (n - 2)f → np

57. The isoelectronic set of ions is [4]

a) b)

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 Li+, Na+, O2- and F- F-, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+

c) N3-, Li+, Mg2+ and O2- d) N3-, O2-, F- and Na+

58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about the black body? [4]

a) The black body absorbs radiations of all b) The black body does not absorb any
frequencies but does not emit any radiation. radiations at all.

c) The black body does not absorb any d) The black body absorbs and emits radiations
radiation but emits radiations of all of all frequencies.
frequencies.
59. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is [4]
approximately: 72 (Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10-34 J-s)

a) 10-31 metres b) 10-33 metres

c) 10-16 metres d) 10-25 metres

60. Find the CORRECT match. [4]

Column I Column II
2 2

i. R a. n h

2 2
4π mze

2 2 4

ii. v̄ b. − [ 2π mZ

2 2
e
]
n h

2 2 4

iii. r c. 2π mZ
3
e

h c

iv. En d. R(
1

2
−
1

2
)
n n
1 2

a) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b) b) (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)

c) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a) d) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b)
61. If an electron and positron annihilate, then the energy released is: [4]

a) 4.8 × 10-13 J b) 3.2 × 10-13 J

c) 1.6 × 10-13 J d) 6.4 × 10-13 J

62. Which of the following set of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom? [4]

a) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1

2
b) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1

c) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1

2
d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + 1

63. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The CORRECT option is ________. [4]

a) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p b) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d

c) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p d) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

64. For an electron in a hydrogen atom, the wave function, ψ is proportional to exp - ( r

a0
), where a0 is the Bohr’s [4]

radius. What is the ratio of the probability of finding the electron at the nucleus to the probability of finding it at
a0?

a) 1

2
b) e2
e

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 c) e d) zero
−1
65. The number of electrons in [ 19 K
40
] is [4]

a) 19 b) 20

c) 40 d) 28
66. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4 electrons. [4]
A. n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = + 1

B. n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = + 1

C. n = 4, l = 2, m1 = -2, ms = − 1

D. n = 3, l = 1, m1 = -1, ms = + 1

a) D < A < B < C b) D < B < A < C

c) B < D < C < A d) B < D < A < C

67. Find the INCORRECT statement. [4]

a) 'd’ orbitals do not have directional b) There is no node for 1s orbital.

properties.

c) ‘s’ orbital has no directional orientation. d) ‘p’ orbitals have directional properties.
68. Which of the following statement is (are) correct? [4]

A. The electronic configuration of 24Cr is [Ar]3d5, 4s1.

B. The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value

C. In 47Ag atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type
D. All of these

a) only (C) b) only (A)

c) only (B) d) only (D)

69. Energy of electron of He+ in second Bohr orbit is ________. [4]

a) 2.18 × 10-18 J/atom b) -5.43 × 10-19 J/atom

c) 5.43 × 10-19 J/atom d) -2.18 × 10-18 J/atom

70. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is: [4]

a) 5, 0, 0, + b) 5, 1, 0, +
1 1

2 2

c) 5, 1, 1, + d) 5, 0, 1, +
1 1

2 2

71. The shortest λ for the Lyman series is ________. (Given RH = 109678cm-1) [4]

o o
a) 700 A b) 911 A
o o
c) 811 A d) 600 A

72. E1 for He+ is -54.4 eV. The E2 for He+ would be: [4]

a) -6.8 eV b) -13.6 eV

c) -108.8eV d) -27.2 eV

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73. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons? [4]

a) V3+ b) Mg2+

c) Fe2+ d) Ti3+

74. The spin-only magnetic moment [in unit of Bohr magneton, (μ B )] of Ni2+ in aqueous solution would be: (At. [4]
no. Ni = 28)

a) 2.84 b) 0

c) 4.90 d) 1.73
75. The sum of the numbers of neutron and proton in the isotope of hydrogen is: [4]

a) 5 b) 4

c) 3 d) 6

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