Sri ChaitanyaIIT Academy.,India.
A.PT.S KARNATAKA TAMILNADU MAHARASTRA DELHI RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs JEE-MAIN Date: 12-01-2025
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTM-17/12 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75Questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 25 Questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 05Numerical Value Type Questions.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted Question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 12-01-25_Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs_Jee-Main_GTM-17/12_Q.P
.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________
Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
12-01-2025_Sr.S60_Elite, Target & LIIT-BTs_Jee-Main-GTM-17/12_Test Syllabus
MATHEMATICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : TOTAL SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY :TOTAL SYLLABUS
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MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
dx A B
1. If cos3 x tan x C tan x k where k is a constant of integration, then
2sin 2 x
A B C equals:
16 21 9 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 5 5
X 2 Y 3 Z 0 X 4 Y 7 Z 5
2. The shortest distance between the lines and lies
2 2 1 1 8 4
in the interval.
1) 0,1 2) 1,2 3) 2,3 4) 3,4
1 1 1 1
3. For n N tan 1 tan 1 tan 1 tan 1 then n
3 4 5 n 4
1) 47 2) 43 3) 49 4) 51
4. The sum of all values of x in 0,2 , for which sinx + sin2x + sin3x + sin4x = 0, is equal to
1) 8 2) 11 3) 12 4) 9
5. The equation of the plane containing the line 2x – 5y + z = 3, x + y + 4z = 5 and parallel to
the plane x + 3y + 6z = 1, is
1) 2x + 6y + 12z = 13 2) x + 3y + 6z = –7
3) x + 3y + 6z = 7 4) 2x + 6y + 12z = –13
1
6.
If f x a x n n then fof x is
1
1) a x 2) x 3) x n 4)
xn
7. If the perpendicular bisector of line segment joining points P 1,4 & Q K ,3 has y-intercept
equal to 4 then value of K.
1) 2 2) 4 3) 14 4) 15
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x2 y2 x2 y 2
8. If e1 & e2 be eccentricities of Ellipse 1 b 5 and hyperbola, 1
25 b 2 16 b 2
respectively satisfying e1e2 1 . If & are distance between the foci of ellipse and foci of
the hyperbola respectively, then
16 26
1) 2 2) 4 3) 4)
3 5
log x
9. The stationary point of y x 0 is
x
1 1 1 1
1) 1,0 2) e, 3) , e 4) ,
e e e e
10. A circle touching the x-axis at 3,0 and making an intercept of length 8 on y-axis passes
through the point.
1) 3,5 2) 2,3 3) 3,10 4) 1,5
11. Match the columns
Column – I Column – II
x
x
A) Lim equal to p) e2
x 1 x
x
1 1 1
B) Lim sin cos equal to q) e 2
x x x
cot 2 x
C) Lim cos x equal to r) e
x0
1x
D) Lim tan x equal to s) e1
x 0 4
t) e 2
1) A s, B r , C q, D p 2) A s, B r , C q, D t
3) A t , B r , C t , D p 4) A q, B s, C t , D p
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12. Statement I: For f x sin x, f ' f ' 3
Statement II: For f x sin x, f f 3
1) Both statements are True
2) Both statement are False
3) Statement I is true & Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false & Statement II is true
13.
The solution of e x tan ydx 1 e x sec2 ydy 0 is
1) sec y c 1 e x
2) tan y 1 e x C
3) tan y c 1 e x 4) sec y 1 e x
14. If 5 x 3 Mx N , M , N R is divisible by x 2 x 1 , then the value of M N is
1) 5 2) – 5 3) – 4 4) 4
n
15. If the coefficient of 4th term in expansion of a b is 56 then value of n.
1) 7 2) 8 3) 9 4) 6
16. The mean & variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively, if five observations are
2, 4, 10, 12, 14 then absolute difference of the remaining two observations is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
1 2 3 6
17. If A and f t t 2
3t 7 then f A 12 9
4 5
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0
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18.
If the locus of point 4t 2 1, 8t 2 represent a parabola then the equation of latus rectum is
1) x 5 0 2) 2 x 7 0 3) x 5 0 4) x 3 0
3 2
19. Sum of all solutions of the equation x 4 x 3 x 0 is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 0 4) 1
20. Let tn be a sequence of integers in G.P in which t4 : t6 1: 4 and t2 t5 216 then t1
1) 18 2) 16 3) 14 4) 12
SECTION-II(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 andIf answer
is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
21. The area of region bounded by Y X and Y 2 in sq units is ____
dy x y 1
22. If f x is an I.F of then 2 f 1
dx x 1
2
1 1
23. The integral 3 2sin x cos x dx is equal to cot K , then value of K is
0
24.
Let S be set of all , which the set of vectors iˆ ˆj kˆ, iˆ ˆj kˆ, iˆ ˆj kˆ are
coplanar, where 2 . Then
, S
2 2 _____
A
25. If A and B are two events such that P A 0.6 & P B 0.8 if greatest value that P
B
can have is P, then value of 8P ____
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PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. In a young’s double slit experiment two slits are separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed
one meter away. When a light of wavelength 1000nm is used, the fringe separation will be
1) 0.25 mm 2) 0.75 mm 3) 0.5 mm 4) 1 mm
27. A wooden block with a coin placed on its top floats in water as shown after some time coin
falls into water, then
1) Both and h decrease 2) increase and h decrease
3) decrease and h increase 4) Both and h increase
28. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
A) Magnetic Induction p) MLT 3K 1
B) Pole strength q) ML1T 1
C) Coefficient of viscosity r) M 0 LA
D) Coefficient of thermal conductivity s) MT 2 A1
1) A p, B s, C r , D q 2) A p, B q, C r , D s
3) A s, B r , C q, D p 4) A p, B r , C q, D s
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29. Assertion: To drink chilled juice, we use ice cubes at 00 C instead of cold water at 00 C
Reason: Ice tends to absorb heat from the juice for its melting, this makes the juice cooler
1) Assertion is true, Reason is true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) Assertion is true, Reason is true and Reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true and Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
30. For a certain organ pipe, the resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1: 3: 5: 7……..
respectively. If the frequency of 3rd overtone is 350Hz and speed of sound in air is 300 ms 1 ,
length of organ pipe is
1) 2.5 m 2) 1 m 3) 3 m 4) 1.5 m
31. One litre of water at 200 C is heated in an electric kettle whose heating element has
resistance of 20 . The voltage in the mains is 200V, ignoring heat loss from kettle, time
taken for water to evaporate fully is close to (specific heat of water 4200 J kg 0C
Latent heat of water 2260 kJ kg )
1) 16 min 2) 3 min 3) 12 min 4) 22 min
32. If the electric potential at any point x, y, z m in space given by V 5 z 2 volt . The electric
field at the point 1,1,5 m will be
1) 5Vm 1 directed along positive z – axis
2) 5Vm 1 directed along negative z – axis
3) 50Vm 1 directed along negative z – axis
4) 50Vm 1 directed along positive z – axis
33. If the magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
x
B 200 108 sin 4 3 1015 t then the maximum electric field associated with it
v
is (All units in S.I system) C 3 108 m s
1) 6 102 2)12 104 3) 4 102 4) 3 104
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34. Two identical charged particles each having a mass 20 g and charge 4 106 C placed on a
horizontal table with separation of L between them such that they stay in limited
equilibrium. If coefficient of friction between each particle and table is 0.25, then value of L
is g 10 m / s 2
1) 17 cm 2) 170 cm 3) 340 cm 4) 3.4 cm
35. A water pipe has an internal diameter of 10 cm. Water flows through it at the rate of
20 m sec . Water jet strikes normally on a wall and falls dead. The force on the wall is.
1) 1413 N 2) 3143 N 3) 2413 N 4) 1000 N
36. Assertion: A planet is moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Then from aphelion point
to perihelion point the speed of the planet continuously increases.
Reason: According to Kepler’s second law, the areal velocity of the lines joining planet to
sun is constant
1) Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) Assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true Reason is false
4) Assertion is false Reason is true
37. In the following, which one of the diodes is reverse biased?
1) 2)
3) 4)
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38. In an inelastic collision, the kinetic energy after collision.
1) Is same as before collision
2) Is always less than before collision
3) Is always greater than before collision
4) May be less or greater than before collision
39. When 3 Li 7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4 Be8 , the emitted
particles will be
1) Alpha particles 2) Beta particles 3) Gamma photons 4) Neutrons
40. If a ray of light takes t1 and t 2 times in two media of absolute refractive indices 1 and 2
respectively to travel same distance, then
1) 1t1 2t2 2) 1t2 2t1 3) t1 1 t2 2 4) t1 2 t2 1
41. A ring of radius r is uniformly charged with a charge q. If the ring is rotated with an angular
velocity , the magnetic induction at centre
q r q
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
4 r 4 q 4 r 4 qr
42. A coil of inductance 0.4 Henry is connected to a 800 V battery. At what rate will current in
the coil grow when circuit is completed?
1)1000 As 1 2) 4000 As 1 3) 2000 As 1 4) 500 As 1
43. The variation of stopping potential V0 as a function of the frequency of the incident
light for a metal is shown in figure. The work function of surface is
V0
3
2
1
2 4 6 8 10 1014 H z
1) 2.2eV 2)1.1eV 3) 3.3eV 4) 4.4eV
44. Two bodies are projected at angles 300 and 600 to the horizontal from the ground such that
the maximum heights reached by them are equal. Then
Statement – I: The ratio of their initial speeds of projection is 3 :1
Statement – II: Both take same time to reach maximum height
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1) Statement – I and statement – II both are true
2) Statement – I and statement – II both are false
3) Statement – I is true, statement – II is false
4) Statement – I is false, statement – II is true
45. Statement – I: A magnetic needle kept in a non uniform magnetic field experience a force
and a torque.
Statement – II: The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are from north-pole to south–
pole of the magnet.
1) Statement – I and statement – II both are true
2) Statement – I and statement – II both are false
3) Statement – I is false, statement – II is true
4) Statement – I is true, statement – II is false
SECTION-II(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 andIf answer
is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
46. A ballet dancer spins about a vertical axis at 30rpm with arms out stretched. When her arms
are folded the angular frequency increases to 120rpm . If original moment of inertia is I.
3I
Then change in her moment of inertia is where x ____
x
47. A steel wire of mass 3.16 kg is stretched to a tensile strain of 1 103 . The elastic
deformation energy if density 7.9 gm cc and Y 2 1011 N m 2 is x 10 2 kJ where
x ______
48. The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24V when connected to a 12W
1
light bulb. The value of the peak current is where x
x
49. If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at 00 C is 160 m/s, then the rms speed of hydrogen
molecules at 00 C is ____
50. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li 2 is _____ 1012 m
Take: Radius of hydrogen atom 0.51 A0
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CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. Which of the following is ionic in nature?
1) NH 3 2) C2 H 6 3) BiF3 4) CC 4
52. The correct order of atomic radius of elements F , Cl , Br and I is
1) I Br Cl F 2) F Cl Br I
3) Cl Br I F 4) I Cl Br F
53. Statement-I: In the following reaction mercury is oxidised
Hg 2OH HgO H 2O
Statement-II: Oxidation state of Mercury in HgO is +1
1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
54. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
A) H 2O I) Linear
B) BeCl2 II) See-saw
C) SF4 III) Trigonal planar
D) BF3 IV) Bent
1) A IV , B I , C III , D II 2) A IV , B I , C II , D III
3) A III , B II , C I , D IV 4) A I , B IV , C III , D II
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55. Assertion (A): Boron has three valance electrons
Reason (R): BC 3 follows rule of octet.
1) Both A and R are true but R is not the explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is the explanation for A
3) A is false and R is true.
4) A is true and ‘R’ is false.
56. The product “P” in the following conversion is
O
Zn Hg HCl
" P"
O
OH
1) 2) 3) OH 4)
57. NaCl on heating with conc H 2 SO4 and MnO2 gives Cl2 g . What is oxidation state of
chlorine in Cl2 g
1) +4 2) +7 3) 0 4) +2
58. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds is obtained by addition of water to
acetylene in the presence of HgSO4 and H 2 SO4 ?
O O
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C H CH 3 CH 2 C H
1) 2)
O
CH 3 C H
3) Both 1 and 2 4)
59. The solubility of Zn OH 2 in water at 250 C is 5 105 mol l 1 . Its K sp at same
temperature is
1) 5 10 13 mol 3.dm 3 2) 5 10 15 mol 3.dm 3
3) 5 10 9 mol 3.dm 3 4) 5 10 12 mol 3 .dm 3
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2
60. The shape of the complex Cu NH 3 6 is
1) octahedral 2) square planar
3) square pyramid 4) triangular planar
61. Angular momentum of electron in H atom in 4th orbit is
2h h h 4h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4
62. Statement-I : Cr NH 3 4 Cl2 Cl precipitates 2 moles of AgCl with excess of AgNO3
Statement-II: Cr NH 3 4 Cl2 Cl has two ionisable chloride ions.
1) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
2) Statement-I and II are correct
3) Statement-I and II are incorrect
4) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
63. The number of moles glucose present in a one litre solution of molarity 1.38M is
(mol mass of glucose = 180)
1) 2.22 2) 1.38 3) 1.93 4) 0.5
64. Pyranose ring consist of a Skelton of
1) 5 carbon atoms and one oxygen atom
2) 9 carbon atoms
3) 7 carbon atoms and one oxygen atom
4) 8 carbon atoms and one oxygen atom
65. Temperature change of ideal gas in reversible isothermal process is
1) 0 2) 10 3) 273 4) 373
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66. Arrange the following acids in decreasing order of acidity.
O
O O
NO2 C OH
CH 3 C OH C OH
X Y Z
1) X > Z > Y 2) X > Y > Z 3) Z > X > Y 4) Z > Y > X
67. Calculate molality of CC 4 dissolved in Benzene with depression in freezing point of
solution is 0.25C . (Given K f 5.12 K kg mol 1 )
1 1
1) 2) 20.48 3) 4) 5.12
20.48 5.12
68. Compound ‘X’ give positive test with 2,4-DNP. Compound (x) may be
O O O
1) H3C CH3 2) H3C H 3) ph CH3
4) All
69. Which of the following order is correct
1) F > Cl > Br > I [Ionisation enegy]
2) I 2 Br2 F2 Cl2 [Bond energy]
3) Sulphur > Selenium > Tellurium > Polonium > Oxygen [Ionisation energy]
4) Sulphur > Oxygen > Fluorine > Selenium [Electro negativity]
70. Assertion(A): Manganese show a maximum oxidation state +5
Reason( R) : manganese has 7 electrons in the 3d subshell
1) Both (A) and(R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and(R) are true and (R) is the not correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and(R) are false
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SECTION-II(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This sectioncontains 5Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 andIf answer
is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
71. Rate constant of a reaction doubles for every 10C rise in temperature. If rate constant of
reaction is 3 min 1 at 30C . What is rate constant at 40C ?
72. Find out number of compounds which contain carbon ring.
73. Consider the equilibrium reaction 2 NO2 g N 2O4 g ; the equilibrium pressures of NO2
and N 2O4 are 2 atm and 4 atm respectively at 300 K. K P for the equilibrium is ____(nearest
integer)
74. How many substrates are 3 halides?
Cl
Br
Br Cl
I
Br
Cl
75. The number of moles of HCl required for the complete neutralization of 5L of
0.2 M NaOH is _____
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