CHEMISTRY

th
11 NEET

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

VIDYAPEETH
S E L E CT I O N H O G A Y AH I N S E
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VIDYAPEETH
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
DPP-1
[Discovery of electron, Discovery of proton, Discovery of neutron, thomson
model of atom, rutherford model and drawbacks]
1. Which of the following is not true for cathode 7. Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to
rays? the experiment carried out by
(1) Cathode rays consist of negatively charged (1) Bohr (2) Mosley
particles. (3) Rutherford (4) Thomson
(2) Cathode rays were discovered by J.J
Thomson. 8. Mass of neutron is............times the mass of
(3) Nature of cathode rays depend upon the electron.
nature of the gas in discharge tube. (1) 1840 (2) 1480
(4) Cathode rays are produced inside the (3) 2000 (4) None of these
discharge tube.
2. Positive rays or canal rays are: 9. Which has highest e/m ratio?
(1) electromagnetic waves (1) He2+ (2) H+
+
(2) a stream of positively charged gaseous ions (3) He (4) H
(3) a stream of electrons
(4) neutrons e
10. Statement-I: value of cathode ray is
m
3. The e/m for positive rays in comparison to
e
cathode rays is: universal constant while value of positive ray
(1) very low (2) high m
(3) same (4) none is variable.
e
4. The charge to mass ratio of electron was found to Statement-II: The value of positive rays do
be m
(1) 1.6022 × 10–19 C kg–1 not depend upon the nature of gas involved in
(2) 1.925 × 1012 C kg–1 discharge tube.
(3) 1.758 × 1011 C kg–1 (1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
(4) 1.869 × 1013 C kg–1 Statement-II is a correct explanation for
statement-I.
5. The ratio of mass of an electron to that of the mass (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
of hydrogen atom is Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
(1) 1:3871 (2) 1:1837 for statement-I.
(3) 1:1296 (4) 1:3781 (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
6. When a gold sheet is bombarded by a beam of –
particles, only a few of them get deflected
whereas most go straight, undeflected. This is
because
(1) The force of attraction exerted on the –
particles by the oppositely charged electrons
is not sufficient.
(2) A nucleus has a much smaller volume than
that of an atom.
(3) The force of repulsion acting on the fast
moving –particles is very small.
(4) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any
effect on the –particles.
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DPP-2
[Atomic number and mass number, isotone, isobar, isodiapher, Isosters,
isoelectronic, isotopes, ]
1. Isotopes have 7. The mass number of an anion, X , is 14. If there
(1) Same number of protons
are ten electrons in the anion, the number of
(2) Same number of neutrons
(3) Different number of electrons neutrons in the nucleus of atom, X of the
(4) Different atomic numbers element will be
(1) 10 (2) 14
2. Identify the correct match:
(3) 7 (4) 5
Column I Column II
a. 32Ge76, 33As77 (i) Isotopes
57
b. 26Fe , 26Fe 58
(ii) Isodiaphers 8. In 7N14 if mass attributed to electron were doubled
235
c. 92U , 90Th 231
(iii) Isobars & the mass attributed to protons were halved, the
3 3
d. 1H , 2He (iv) Isotones atomic mass would become approximately :-
(1) a(iv); b(i); c(ii); d(iii) (1) Halved (2) Doubled
(2) a(ii); b(i); c(iv); d(iii)
(3) Reduced by 25% (4) Remain same
(3) a(iv); b(iii); c(ii); d(i)
(4) a(ii); b(iii); c(iv); d(i)
9. An isotone of 32Ge76 is :-
3. Which of the following are pairs of is (i) 32Ge
77
(ii) 33As
77

Isodiapheres? 77 78
(iii) 34Se (iv) 34Se
(1) 157 N, 178 O (2) 157 N, 168 O
(1) (ii) & (iii) (2) (i) & (ii)
(3) 14
N, 178 O (4) All of these
7
(3) (ii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (iii) & (iv)

4. Molecules which are both isoelectronic and

isosteres? 10. Statement-I: Isotopes have same chemical
(1) N2 and CO (2) N2 and CS properties but different physical properties.
(3) O2 and CO (4) O2 and CS Statement-II: Isobars have different chemical
properties but few common physical properties.
5. Species which is isoelectronic with CN–, is
(1) CO (2) O2+ (1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
–
(3) F2 (4) O2 Statement-II is a correct explanation for
statement-I.
6. (i) 26Fe54,26Fe56,26Fe57,26Fe28 (a) Isotopes
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
(ii) 18Ar40, 19K40 (b) Isotones
12
(iii) 5B , 6C 13
(c) Isodiaphers Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
235 231
(iv) 92U , 90Th (d) Isobars for statement-I.
(v) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3 (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
Match the above correct terms:-
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
(1) [(i),-a], [(ii) - d], [(iii) - b], [(iv) - c], [(v) - a]
(2) [(i) - a] [(ii) - d], [(iii) - d] [(iv) - c] [v - a]
(3) [v -a] [(iv) - c]. [(iii) - d] [(ii) - b] [(i) - a]
(4) None of them
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DPP-3
[Wave Nature of Electromagnetic Radiation, Electromagnetic Spectrum,
Planck Quantum Theory, Black Body Radiation, Photo Electric Effect]
1. Which of the following have maximum wavelength? 8. Which is the correct graphical representation based
(1) Cosmic rays (2) γ – rays on photoelectric effect?
(3) Micro waves (4) Radio waves
(I) K.E.
2. The correct order of increasing frequency of
electromagnetic radiations is:
(1) Microwave < UV < IR < -rays
(2) Microwave < Radiowave < Visible < X-rays v
(3) UV < Radiowave < X-rays < -rays
(4) Radiowave < IR < Visible < X-rays K.E.
(II)
3. Rank the following types of radiations from the
highest energy to the lowest. Ultraviolet/ visible/X- v
ray/microwave/infrared
(1) X-ray, ultraviolet, microwave, infrared, visible K.E.
(2) ultraviolet, X-ray, visible, infrared, microwave
(3) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, visible, X-ray (III)
(4) X-ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave
Intensity of
light
4. The number of photons of light of wavelength
7000Å equivalent to 1 J are:
photons
No. of

(1) 3.52 × 10–18 (2) 3.52 × 1018

(3) 50,000 (4) 10,0000 (IV)
5. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of Intensity of
light
wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the number of
(1) I and II (2) II and III
photons emitted per second by the bulb. (3) III and IV (4) II and IV
(1) 2.022 × 1023 (2) 2.012 ×1020
21
(3) 20.21 ×10 (4) 22.06 × 1020 9. A certain metal when irradiated with light (v = 3.2 × 1016 Hz)
emits photo electrons with twice kinetic energy as
6. Which graph shows how the energy E of a photon did photo electrons when the same metal is
of light is related to its wavelengths ()? irradiated by light (v = 2.0 × 1016 Hz). Calculate v0
of electron?
E E (1) 1.2 × 1014 Hz (2) 8 × 1015 Hz
(A) (B) 16
(1) (2) (3) 1.2 × 10 Hz (4) 4 × 1012 Hz
  10. Statement-I: As the wavelength is doubled
energy of radiation is also doubled
E E hc
(C) (D) Statement-II: E  is energy of one quantum
(3) (4) 
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
  Statement-II is a correct explanation for
statement-I.
7. In photoelectric effect the number of photo-
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
electrons emitted is proportional to:
(1) intensity of incident beam Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for
(2) frequency of incident beam statement-I.
(3) velocity of incident beam (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) work function of photo cathode (4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
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DPP-4
[Postulates of Bohr model, Bohr radius of shell, Velocity of e– in bohr shell,
Energy of e– in H atom, Limitations of Bohr Model]
1. On Bohr’s stationary orbits - 8. Which of the following graph is incorrect for
(1) Electrons do not move radius calculation
(2) Electrons move and keep emitting radiations
r vs n2 r vs z
(3) Energy of the electron remains constant
(4) Angular momentum of the electron is h/2 (1) r (2) r

2. Zeeman effect refers to the n2 z

r vs n
(1) Splitting up of the lines in an emission
spectrum in a magnetic field
(3) r (4)
(2) Splitting up of the lines in an emission
spectrum in the presence of an external n
electrostatic field
(3) Emission of electrons from metals when 9. Select the incorrect graph for velocity of
light falls upon them 1
electrons in an orbit vs. Z, 𝑛 and n.
(4) Random scattering of light by colloidal
particles
v v
3. Ratio of total energy to potential energy for any (1) (2)
electron in Bohr’s orbit is
1 n 1/n
(1) –1 (2) –
2
1 v v
(3) 1 (4)
2 (3) (4)

4. Radius of first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is Z n

(1) 0.24 Å (2) 0.48 Å
10. Statement-I: According to Bohr atomic model,
(3) 0.53 Å (4) 1.06 Å
electron revolve in an orbit without loss of
energy.
5. Bohr theory is not applicable for Statement-II: Stationary orbit has equal value of
(1) He+ (2) Li2+ centrifugal and electrostatic forces.
(3) Be+ (4) H (1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
6. Velocity for 1st orbit of H = x. Velocity for 2nd statement-I.
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
orbit of He+ = ?
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
(1) x (2) 2x for statement-I.
(3) 3x (4) 4x (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
7. Gap between Bohr’s atomic radii of He+ for 3rd
orbit and 5th orbit will be
(1) 0.472 A° (2) 4.23 A°
(3) 9.44 A° (4) 0.944 A°
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DPP-5
[Line spectrum of H atom, explanation of line spectrum , rydberg formula, hydrogen
emission and absorption spectrum, lines of H spectrum, spectrum of H like atom ]
1. In hydrogen spectrum, the series of lines 7. What transition in He+ ion shall have the same
appearing in ultra violet region of wave number as the first line in Balmar series of
electromagnetic spectrum are called H atom?
(1) Balmer lines (2) Lyman lines
(1) 7  5 (2) 5  3
(3) Pfund lines (4) Brackett lines
(3) 6  4 (4) 4  2
2. Electrons in a sample of H-atom from an excited
state returns to ground state in one or more steps 8. The wave number of the first line of Balmer series
show emission of 10 lines. of hydrogen is 15200 cm–1. The wave number of
How many of these belong to visible region? the first Balmer line of Li2+ ion is
(1) 6 (2) 5 (1) 15200 cm–1 (2) 60800 cm–1
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) 76000 cm–1 (4) 136800 cm–1
3. The wave number of the spectral line in the
emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to 9. A gas absorbs photon of 355 nm and emits at two
8/9 times the rydberg constant if the electron wavelengths. If one of the emission is at 680 nm,
jumps from:
the other is at
(1) n = 3 to n = 1 (2) n = 10 to n = 1
(3) n = 9 to n = 1 (4) n = 2 to n = 1 (1) 1035 nm (2) 325 nm
(3) 743 nm (4) 518 nm
4. The number of lines obtained in Lyman series
when an electron jumps from 6th orbit to 2nd
orbit is 10. Statement-I: Atomic spectrum can be used to
(1) 4 (2) 10 identify unknown elements.
(3) 15 (4) Zero Statement-II: Electron jump from orbit to
5. If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, in ground another during atomic spectrum.
state the no. of spectral lines emitted is equal to:- (1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
(1) 0 (2) 1 Statement-II is a correct explanation for
(3) 2 (4) 3
statement-I.
6. The wavelength of third line of the Balmer series (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
for a H atom is Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
21 100 for statement-I.
(1) (2)
100R 21R (3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
21R 100R (4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
(3) (4)
100 21
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DPP-6
[Dual behavior (de Broglie concept ), Heisenberg's uncertainty principle,
Hydrogen atom and Schrodinger wave equation, Orbital wave functions]
1. De-Broglie wavelength for electron is related to 7. The hydrogen wave function
applied voltage as:- 3/2  zr
1  z   zr  2a
12.3 12.3     2   e 0 what will be the
(1)   A (2)   A 4 2  a 0   a0 
h V
number of radial nodes from nucleus?
12.3 12.3
(3)   A (4)  A (1) 2 (2) 4
r m (3) 1 (4) 3

2. Calculate the momentum of the particle which 8. The circumference of the third orbit of He+ ion is
has de Broglie wavelength 1 Å (10–10 m) and x m. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron
h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-sec. revolving in this orbit will be
(1) 6.1×10–22 kg m sec–1 𝑥
(A) 3 m (B) 3x m
(2) 6.6×10–24 kg m sec–1 𝑥
(C) m (D) 9x m
(3) 6.2×1023 kg m sec–1 9

(4) 6.4×10–24 kg m sec–1

9. The mass of a particle is 10–10 g and its diameter is
3. Which of the following has least de-Broglie 10–4 cm. If its speed is 10–6 cm/s with 0.0001%
wavelength, moving with same speed? uncertainty in measurement, the minimum
uncertainty in its position is
(1) e– (electron) (2) p (proton)
(A) 5.28 × 10–8 m (B) 5.28 × 10–7m
(3) CO2 (4) SO2
(C) 5.28 × 10–6m (D) 5.28 × 10–9m
4. The mass of photon having wavelength 1 nm is
10. Statement-I: The de Broglie equation suggests
(1) 2.21 × 10–35 kg (2) 2.21 × 10–23 kg
that an electron has particle nature
(3) 2.21 × 10–33 kg (4) 2.21 × 10–26 kg
Statement-II: All moving Particles associated
with wave length
5. If uncertainty in position and momentum are
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
equal then uncertainty in velocity is?
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
h 1 h statement-I.
(1) (2)
 2m  (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
h 1 h Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
(3) (4)
2 m  for statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
6. For an electron, if the uncertainty in velocity is (4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
𝛥𝑣, the uncertainty in its position (x) is given
by:
h 2
(1) mv (2)
2 hmΔv
h 2m
(3) (4)
4mΔv hΔv
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DPP-7
[Radial probability distribution and nodes, Radial distribution function and
nodes, Quantum number, Shape and energies of orbitals, Filling of
orbitals in atoms]
1. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers 4. Match column I with column II.
n  m s Column I Column II
1 Number of sub-shell in
I. 3 0 0 + a. (i) 2(2l + 1)
a shell
2
Maximum number of
1 b. (ii) n–l–1
II. 3 3 –1 – electrons in a sub-shell
2
Number of spherical
1 c. (iii) n
III. 1 0 –1 + nodes
2 Number of spectral
1 lines in Lyman series
IV. 4 2 3 – d. (iv) (n – 1)
2 for a gas (for n to 1
Which of the above sets of quantum numbers is transition)
not permissible?
The correct match is
(1) II, III only
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) Only I
(3) III and IV only (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) II, III and IV (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
2. Which of the following is not permissible
arrangement of electrons in an atom? 5. Which one is a wrong statement?
1 (1) total orbital angular momentum of electron
(1) n  5,  3, m  0, s  
2 in s-orbital is equal to zero.
1 (2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
(2) n  3,  2, m  3, s   numbers while an electron in an atom is
2
designated by four quantum number.
1
(3) n  3,  2, m  2, s  
2
(3) The electron configuration of N atom is
1
(4) n  4,  0, m  0, s  
2

3. The quantum number of 20th electron of Fe (4) The value of m for d is zero.
z2
(Z = 26) will be:
1
(1) 3. 2. –2, – 6. Graph (R) vs r has number of nodes-
2
1 (R)
(2) 3, 2, 0, +
2
1 r
(3) 4, 0, 0, +
2
1 (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) 4, 1, –1, +
2 (3) 0 (4) 3
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7. Graph (R) vs r drawn below. Which represent to- 10. Statement-I: Number of total nodes in 6d is 5.
Statement-II: total nodes in any sub shell is
(R) given by (n –1)
(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
statement-I.
r (2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
(1) 2p (2) 3p
for statement-I.
(3) 5d (4) 4f
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
8. The correct sequence of hydrogen atom subshell
energy level-
(1) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s (2) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s
(3) 1s = 2s = 2p = 3s (4) 1s > 2s = 3s > 2p

9. The correct shape of d z 2 orbital is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
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DPP-8
[Aufbau Principle, Pauli exclusion principle, Hunds rule of maximum spin
multiplicity, Electronic configuration of atoms, Monoatomic cations and
anions, Stablity of half fillled and full filled atomic orbitals, Spin only
magnetic moment due to unpaired e]
1. Which configuration does not obey pauli’s 7. What is the electronic configuration of an
exclusion principle- element in its first excited state which is
(1) isoelectronic with O2
(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 3d1
(2) (2) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(3) [Ne] 3s1 3p3 3d2
(3)
(4) [Ne] 3s1 3p5
(4)
8. The atomic number of the element having
2. According to (n + l) rule after completing 'np' maximum number of unpaired 3p electrons is (in
level the electron enters to: ground state):-
(1) (n – 1) d (2) (n + l) s (1) 15 (2) 10
(3) nd (4) (n + 1) p (3) 12 (4) 8
3. The orbital with maximum energy is:
(1) 3d (2) 5p 9. The magnitude of Spin angular momentum for
(3) 4s (4) 6d an electron is given by :-
h
4. Presence of three unpaired electrons in (1) s(s  1)
2
phosphorus atom can be explained by
h
(1) Pauli's rule (2) 2s(s  1)
(2) Uncertainty principle 2
(3) Aufbau's rule h
(4) Hund's rule (3) s(s  2)
2
(4) None
5. If Hund's rule is not obeyed by some elements
given below then which atom has maximum
magnetic moment. 10. Statement-I: 46Pd has electronic configuration
(1) Fe (2) Ti [kr] 4d8, 5S2
(3) Cr (4) Mn Statement-II: Pd does not follow to Aufbau
principle
6. Which one represents ground state configuration (1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is a correct explanation for
(1) statement-I.
(2) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true;
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation
(2)
for statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.
(3)

(4)