REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS IN POLICE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

SET 1

1. The following are functions of a police officer during police operations, except
a. To protect lives and properties
b. To respect human rights
c. To observe the human dignity of persons
d. To serve or protect the illegal activity of a particular person, group or criminal syndicate
2. What is the prescribed uniform of the police officer during police operations?
a. Camouflage green
b. General office attire
c. Patrol uniform
d. The uniform which is appropriate for the kind of police operation to be undertaken
3. Juan, a police officer, in appearing before the public, should not at all times
a. smart and well-groomed.
b. while on actual patrol duties, he shall refrain from eating along the sidewalks.
c. while patrolling, he shall avoid smoking and reading newspapers.
d. appear in a condition not good enough to be seen by the community.
4. Is it a must for every police officer on patrol, whether on board a vehicle or on foot patrol, to always carry with him a police
notebook, a pen and the Miranda Warning Card?
a. No, the police officer could carry a police notebook and a pen, but the Miranda Warning Card is not necessary especially
when the police officer has memorized the Miranda Warning.
b. Yes, the notebook, which is approximately pocket-sized, will be used to inscribe important events that transpire during
his tour of duty, and the Miranda Warning Card is used to make sure the arresting officer informs the arrested person
of all his rights.
c. No, the police notebook and pen should be put inside the motor vehicle because the pen, which is usually placed by
police officers in the pocket of their uniform, destroys the uniform.
d. It depends upon the police officer whether to carry or not a police notebook, pen and a Miranda Warning Card.
5. What is the primary use of the non-lethal weapons (pepper spray, baton or stun gun), which every police officer shall carry in
his prescribed rig?
a. Used instead of the officer's issued firearm in order to avoid collateral damage.
b. Used when there is real and imminent danger of injury or death on the part of the police officer.
c. Used in a non-armed confrontation with an uncooperative and unruly offender during the arrest.
d. The non-lethal weapons in the police rig are part of the officer's complete uniform.
6. What is the category of police operations that includes Search, Rescue and Retrieval Operations, Fire Drills, Earthquake Drills
and similar operations that promote public safety?
a. Public Safety Operation
b. Law Enforcement Operation
c. Internal security operations
d. Special police operations
7. What is the category of police operations that includes Service of Warrant of Arrest, implementation of Search Warrant,
Enforcement of Visitorial Powers of the Chief, Philippine National Police and Unit Commanders, Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation,
Anti-Illegal Gambling Operations, Anti-Illegal Logging Operations, Anti-Illegal Fishing Operations, Anti-Carnapping Operations,
Anti-Kidnapping Operations, Anti-Cyber Crime Operations and similar operations that are conducted to enforce laws, statutes,
executive orders and ordinances?
a. Public Safety Operation-
b. Law Enforcement Operation
c. Internal security operations
d. Special police operations
8. What is the category of police operations that includes Counter-Insurgency Operations, Counter Terrorist Operations and similar
operations that are conducted to ensure internal security?
a. Public Safety Operation-
b. Law Enforcement Operation
c. Internal security operations
d. Special police operations
9. What is the category of police operations that includes Checkpoint Operation, Roadblock Operation, Civil Disturbance
Management Operation, Police Assistance in the Enforcement of Demolition Eviction Injunction and Similar Orders, Police
Assistance in the Implementation of Final Court Order and Order from Quasi-Judicial Bodies, Hostage Situation, Visit Board
Search and Seizure Onboard Marine Vessels and similar police operations that are conducted by police units with specialized
training on the peculiarity of the mission or purpose?
a. Public Safety Operation-
b. Law Enforcement Operation
c. Internal security operations
d. Special police operations

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 10. What is the category of police operations that includes Surveillance Operation, Counter Intelligence, Intelligence Research,
Intelligence Assessment and similar police intelligence operation conducted to gather information related to security, public
safety and order?
a. Intelligence operation
b. Investigation operation
c. Scene of the crime operation
d. Law enforcement operation
11. What is the category of police operations that includes Investigation of Crime or Incident, Administrative Investigation and similar
investigative work necessary to determine facts and circumstances for filing cases criminally or administratively?
a. Intelligence operation
b. Investigation operation
c. Scene of the crime operation
d. Law enforcement operation
12. What is the category of police operation that includes the processing of crime scene, technical and forensic examination of
evidences and similar scientific investigative assistance?
a. Intelligence operation
b. Investigation operation
c. Scene of the crime operation
d. Law enforcement operation
13. What is filed prior to the conduct of the operation and shall be approved by the concerned Police Unit Commander?
a. Briefing
b. Debriefing
c. Pre operational clearance
d. Permit
14. Is it a must that Coordination be made by filing the Coordination Form prior to the launching of the operation?
a. Yes, coordination should be made formally using the prescribed Coordination Form, which shall be filed with the
concerned operation center of the Police Regional, Provincial or City Office.
b. No, in cases where the formal (in writing) inter-unit coordination cannot be made due to the nature and/or urgency of
the situation such as, but not limited to, cross-jurisdictional pursuit operations.
c. No, the police could coordinate personally or by means of an official representative.
d. No, the police could coordinate by any practical or available means of communication.
15. At any time during the operation, what should the police do in cases where formal inter-unit coordination is not feasible?
a. Accomplish the Coordination Form and submit it upon the termination of the operation.
b. The Police Unit concerned shall endeavor to notify the territorial police office through any practical/available means of
communication
c. Shall accomplish and furnish the territorial Police Office a written incident report.
d. Inform higher headquarters that you cannot coordinate with the concerned police unit.
16. During actual police intervention operations, what should be done to warn or influence the offender/s or suspect/s to stop and/or
peacefully give up?
a. The sniper should fire at the tire of the motor vehicle of the suspect.
b. The team leader should fire a warning shot on the ground in order not to hit bystanders or innocent civilians.
c. The Team Leader shall use peaceful means including the use of megaphones or any other similar instruments.
d. Run side by side with the suspect's vehicle and tell or make a sign to the driver to stop on the right side of the road.
17. In the lawful performance of duty, what is the degree of force a police officer may use in order to accomplish his mandated tasks
of enforcing the law and maintaining peace and order?
a. Necessary and reasonable force
b. exigent force
c. Maximum force
d. tolerable force
18. In police intervention, the verbal warning shall not ___.
a. be in the dialect that is known to the offender or in the national language.
b. consist of the following: the police officer identifying himself; his intention; and what he wants the offender to do.
c. be done in the national language followed by a demonstrative act of the police officer's intent, if the offender is a
foreigner.
d. be done in a loud and clear manner.
19. In accosting the suspects, when is the failure to issue a verbal warning excusable?
a. When the police have no time to inform the suspects.
b. The suspect is dangerous as he is in possession of a high-powered firearm.
c. When the police face a dozen or more suspects.
d. In cases where threat to life or property is already imminent, and there is no other option but to use force to subdue
the offender.
20. When could non-deadly measures be used against a suspect such as baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun gun and other
nonlethal weapons?
a. When the suspect does not follow the orders of the police.
b. When suspect is violent or threatening, and that less physical measures have been tried and deemed inappropriate.
c. When the suspect is in possession of high-powered firearms like bazooka and Armalite rifles.
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 d. When the police have no firearm.
21. What is the purpose the police may use non-deadly measures against a suspect such as baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun
gun and other nonlethal weapons?
a. Baton/truncheon, pepper spray and other nonlethal weapons are primarily used during civil disturbance management
operations.
b. When the police think the situation could escalate if he doesn't use baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun gun and other
nonlethal weapons.
c. To bring the suspect under control, or effect an arrest.
d. The police should not use baton/truncheon, pepper spray, stun gun and other nonlethal weapons in their police
operations.
22. During the confrontation with an armed offender, should necessary and reasonable force be applied?
a. No. The force employed is sufficient to overcome the resistance put up by the offender.
b. No. To subdue the clear imminent danger posed by the offender.
c. Yes. During confrontation with unarmed offender, necessary and reasonable force should be applied.
d. Yes. But sometimes it depends upon the circumstances.
23. The police may establish a police defensive roadblock when there is a validated information on any of the following, EXCEPT
___.
a. On-going hot pursuit/police chase
b. Movement of suspected armed persons onboard a motor vehicle
c. Report of suspected unarmed men who have just committed a crime
d. Vehicle carrying escaped prisoner or armed motorcycle-riding criminals
24. The police, in considering the reasonableness of the force employed, it is not required to afford offender/s attacking him the
opportunity for a fair or equal struggle: The police officer is given the sound discretion to consider these factors in employing
reasonable force, EXCEPT
a. It will depend upon the number of aggressors.
b. It will depend upon the nature and characteristic of the weapon used.
c. It will depend on physical condition, size and other circumstances to include the place and occasion of the assault.
d. The police officer cannot use his 9mm pistol against a stone by the offender.
25. PSGT Juan Pepito had a shootout with the top most wanted only grazed by the suspect's bullet while the suspect was meters
away. What should PSGT Pepito do to the top most wanted person?
a. Fire at the suspect to kill him as it is justified because it was the suspect who first fired.
b. Arrest the suspect and bring him immediately to the police station for further disposition.
c. Bring the suspect to the nearest medical clinic or hospital for immediate treatment.
d. Inform the suspect of his constitutional rights and bring him to the prosecutor for inquest proceeding.
26. When is the use of firearm during police operations unjustified?
a. If the offender poses imminent danger of causing serious injury to the police officer or other persons.
b. The use of firearm is justified under the doctrines of self-defense, defense of a relative, and defense of a stranger.
c. When the person looks threatening and dangerous.
d. If the offender poses imminent danger of causing death to the police officer or other persons.
27. Unlawful aggression should be present for self-defense to be considered as a justifying circumstance, and the police officer who
resorts to self-defense must
a. be the unlawful aggressor.
b. have the justifying circumstance of unlawful aggression.
c. face a real threat on his life, and the peril sought to be avoided must be actual, imminent and real.
d. be justified because of the principle of regularity in the performance of sworn duties.
28. The following are instances when a moving vehicle could be fired upon, except
a. when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing death to the police officer or any other person, and that
b. the use of firearm does not create a danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its non-use.
c. when its occupants pose imminent danger of causing injury to the police officer or any other person, and that
d. when the occupants of the moving vehicle seem armed and dangerous.
29. In firing at a moving vehicle, the following parameters should be considered, except
a. The intent of the suspect/s to harm the police officer or other persons.
b. The capability of the suspect/s to harm with certainty the police officer or other persons.
c. Accessibility or the proximity of the suspect/s from the police officer and other persons.
d. Previous criminal records of the occupants of the moving vehicle.
30. What must the police officer do after firing his service firearm or weapon during a confrontation with an offender or offenders?
a. Call up his immediate supervisor to inform him of the use of his firearm.
b. Ask his Chef of Police to change the fired bullets.
c. Submit an incident report outlining the circumstances necessitating the use of his firearm.
d. Submit his firearm to the Crime Laboratory Office for the conduct of Ballistics examination.
31. The following are the things the police officer in charge of the operation should do immediately after an armed confrontation,
EXCEPT
a. Secure the site of confrontation and take photographs.
b. Check whether the situation still poses imminent danger and evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital.
c. Ensure that all persons who died on the spot are not moved from their original position and arrested suspects should
be kept in isolation.
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 d. Conduct briefing on all involved PNP operatives and ensure psychological stress counselling for all involved PNP
operatives.
32. The following are Patrol Guidelines, except
a. Observe precautionary measures and personal safety while on patrol, and observe offensive driving and follow traffic
rules and regulations.
b. Select routes which provide best visibility and Patrol members must be always on the look-out for indications of vices
and other illegal activities on their beat.
c. Patrol members must be knowledgeable of all conditions, events and details of places on their beat and be observant
of people, places, situations or conditions and develop a suspicious attitude especially if the subject appears to be
slightly out of the ordinary.
d. Keep under close observation actions of juveniles, trouble makers/agitators and the mentally ill/retarded persons, and
be familiar, as much as possible, with known criminals/ex-convicts residing in or frequenting the patrol beat. In addition,
you should be familiar with stay-in employees of business establishments on your beat and be on the alert for loiterers
and keep watch on uninhabited homes.
33. When requiring identification from a suspicious person or any individual while on patrol, are you going to take the wallet or bag
in which the cards/documents are placed?
a. Yes, before the suspicious person would have removed the illegal item from the bag or wallet.
b. Yes. You may take the bag or wallet and immediately bring them to the police station for further verification.
c. No. Let the individual remove and hand them to you.
d. No. Police officers have no authority to require identification of suspicious persons.
34. In any police operation, what is a must in order to avoid waste of time, effort and resources?
a. Intelligent team leader
b. Camaraderie of members
c. Careful planning
d. Responsible community
35. As the patrol supervisor, why should you inspect the members of the patrol for completeness of uniforms, operational readiness
and all government issued equipment (firearms, mobile car, radio, etc.)?
a. The patrol supervisor really needs to inspect his personnel before deployment.
b. To see whether they still have their government-issued equipment.
c. To ensure they are ready for the patrol operation.
d. To ensure that these are well-maintained and properly used by the Patrol Officer.
36. What is the primary purpose of the conduct of briefing prior to dispatch for patrol duties?
a. To congratulate the patrol officers for a job well done.
b. To ask the patrol members for any suggestions or recommendations for the improvement of future patrol operations.
c. To solicit from the patrol members whether they have encountered errors during the patrol operation and look into
solutions so that these errors will not be repeated in future police operations.
d. To disseminate any orders, directives or instructions from the Chief of Police or higher authorities and new policy or
guidelines being implemented by the PNP Organization.
37. What is strictly observed during the patrol operations?
a. One patrol officer for each patroI car.
b. Buddy system
c. Two males and one female police officer.
d. Two males and two female police officers.
38. How often do patrol officers render report of location and situation through radio/telephone or cellphone to Police Community
Precinct (PCP)/Station Headquarters Tactical Operation Center (TOC)?
a. Every thirty (30) minutes
b. Hourly
c. Every two (2) hours
d. Every four (4) hours
39. What is the main purpose of the conduct of debriefing after the patrol operation?
a. To inspect the personnel whether they are still complete.
b. To assess its conduct and make necessary corrective measures on defects noted.
c. To inspect the equipment used by the patrol officers whether they are still in good condition.
d. To congratulate the patrol officers of a job well done to enhance and uplift their morale.
40. The following are duties of Patrol Officer, EXCEPT
a. Patrol the assigned beats, observe and check suspicious people, structures/buildings, compounds and vehicles.
b. Observe and monitor public gatherings, prevent disorders and disperse lawful assemblies.
c. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various business establishments and other installations and remove hazards to
public safety.
d. Check suspicious vehicles (private, public, or commercial/delivery vehicles) along the main roads/highways in the
course of their patrol.
41. In responding to a call for police assistance to a violent crime, are you going to stop the patrol car some distance from the
scene?
a. No. Your patrol car might be stolen if you park some distance from the scene.
b. No. You have to go directly to the crime scene in order to arrest the perpetrator.
c. Yes. You could arrest the perpetrator when he tried to escape upon hearing your siren.
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 d. Yes. Approach the scene on foot, in complete silence and exercising extreme caution.
42. What is the priority in the following?
a. Attend to the injured.
b. Attend to the other members of the patrol who are in immediate danger.
c. Arrest criminals.
d. Determine the crime committed, identify and question briefly the victim/complainant and possible witnesses at the crime
scene.
43. If the suspects or criminals have fled the scene before the arrival of the patrol team, what should the patrol team do?
a. Ask the witnesses for the identification of the suspect for the filing of a case in court.
b. Cordon the crime scene to prevent the destruction of material physical evidence.
c. Immediately attend to the injured. Bring him to a medical clinic or hospital for medication.
d. Immediately relay the composition, armament, appearance, and mode and direction of escape of the suspects to the
Operations Center for the conduct of dragnet operations.
44. What is important patrol officer should do when responding to street fights or brawls?
a. Inform higher headquarters about the brawl.
b. The patrol member should be able to identify who started the brawl.
c. The patrol member should call for back-up before intervening.
d. The patrol member should cock his firearm because responding to brawls is very risky and dangerous.
45. How should the police treat calls or complaints of loud noises caused by barking dogs, drunks, appliances and parties?
a. Never mind calls or complaints of loud noises caused by barking dogs, drunks, appliances and parties.
b. Go to the place and ask tell the neighborhood to be patient with the loud noises as they are part of city life.
c. Call up any barangay official so that together, you go to the place and arrest the persons responsible for creating loud
noises, especially during night time.
d. Never treat them as negligible or a nuisance. They only need courteous and tactful intervention and not enforcement
actions.
46. While patrolling, PCPL Juan found a highly suspected Improvised Explosive Device. What shouldn't he do?
a. Detonate the Improvised Explosive Device before it explodes.
b. Never attempt to handle, move or lift the object.
c. Contact Operations Center and request for Explosive Ordnance Disposal Team (EODT).
d. Promptly lead onlookers to a safe distance away from the scene.
47. When responding to calls from owners of beer houses, bars or inns or any other similar establishments during night time, what
should you do first before entering the establishments?
a. Request the owner to put the lights off.
b. Request the owner to put the lights on.
c. Put on your siren and make sure it is heard by the suspect inside the bar.
d. Inform the owner of the bar that he has to accompany you inside the bar because he might accuse you of stealing
later.
48. What should you do regarding conflicts or differences between neighbors, landlords and tenants, as well as husband and wife?
a. Determine the root cause of the conflict or difference and settle the problem.
b. Do not attempt to arbitrate and resolve conflicts or differences between neighbors, landlords and tenants, as well as
husband and wife.
c. Make sure to listen to both sides as your basis for resolving the conflict or difference.
d. Arrest the person who caused the conflict or difference to teach others a lesson.
49. When may a police officer stop an individual for the purpose of conducting a spot check/accosting?
a. If the individual is in possession of a firearm or deadly weapon.
b. Only when reasonable suspicion exists.
c. When the person looks threatening or dangerous.
d. The individual is in possession of a deadly face.
50. While patrolling, an individual flees when he sees you, what should you do?
a. Tell him not to be always rushing because he might slip on his way.
b. Arrest the individual and bring him to the police station for tactical interrogation.
c. Stop the individual and conduct spot check on his person.
d. Join the individual in fleeing away.
51. PSMS Juan and PSGT Pepito were patrolling an uninhabited place when they came across a shirtless person who was trembling
and holding a bladed weapon. What do you think about the person?
a. The person is a farmer who was rushing home
b. The appearance or demeanor of the individual suggests that he is part of a criminal enterprise or is engaged in a
criminal act.
c. The person is running away from his wife and he got the bladed weapon to defend himself on his way.
d. The person was frightened by the presence of the police and the police forced him to take hold of the bladed weapon.
52. The police officer found a person in the time and place proximate to an alleged crime. What should he do?
a. The person might something to do with the crime, probably as look out, an accessory or accomplice.
b. Tell the person to go home and be careful as a crime just happened nearby.
c. Arrest the individual and bring him to the police station for tactical interrogation.
d. Stop the individual and conduct spot check on his person.
53. When do police officers have the right to conduct body frisk or pat-down search?
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 a. When the individual challenges the police officer for a fight.
b. If the individual is in the rogues gallery.
c. Police officer does not have the right to conduct body frisk or pat-down search to any individual unless with a warrant
issued by the court.
d. When the individual has been legitimately stopped with reasonable suspicion and when the police has reason to believe
that the individual possesses weapon/s on his person and poses a threat to the police officer's or another person's
safety.
54. Who should, whenever possible, conduct pat-down searches?
a. It should be done by able-bodied male police officers.
b. It should be performed by police officers of the same gender.
c. Female police officers are more courteous and sensitive to conduct pat-down search.
d. Pat-down search could be done by any police non-uniformed personnel.
55. In the conduct of Spot Check/Accosting, what should the police officer do if not in uniform?
a. Arrest immediately the suspect because he might run away.
b. Inform the suspect of his constitutional rights and immediately bring him to the prosecutor for inquest proceedings.
c. The police officer must inform higher headquarters about he is going to do and coordinate to other patrol elements or
adjacent police units and tell them to get ready.
d. The police officer must identify himself by announcing his identity and displaying official identification card and/or
badge.
56. Before approaching more than one individual, what should the police officers do first?
a. Fire a warning shot to scare the individuals and cooperate.
b. Draw their gun and move to prone position as a security measure on the part of the police.
c. Determine whether the circumstances warrant a request for back-up and whether the spot check/accosting can and
should be delayed until such back-up arrives.
d. Determine whether a warrant of arrest is necessary before accosting the individuals and whether no charge could be
filed against them should they arrest them.
57. Are police officers required to inform the person of his rights under the law (i.e. Miranda Warning, Anti-torture law, etc.) during
pat-down search?
a. No. It is the court that will inform the person of his rights during trial.
b. No, unless the person is placed under arrest.
c. Yes, but it should be done inside the police station and in the presence of his counsel.
d. Yes, before anybody be pat-down searched should be informed of his rights under the law (i.e. Miranda Warning, Anti-
torture law, etc.)
58. Why is it that whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted by at least two (2) police officers?
a. The conduct of pat-down search by two police officers is more secured.
b. One to perform the search while the other provides protective cover.
c. Whenever possible, pat-down searches should be conducted not just by two (2) police officers but by more police
officers for safety purposes.
d. Most police units lack personnel for them to conduct pat-down searches by at least two (2) police officers.
59. May police officers place their hands inside the pockets of the subject's clothing during pat-down search?
a. No, unless they feel an object that seems like an illegal drug.
b. No, unless they feel an object that could probably be a weapon, such as a gun, knife, club, or the like.
c. Yes, to make sure the subject is not in possession of something illegal.
d. Yes, in all instances, the police officer may place their hands inside the pockets of subject's clothing.
60. If the external patting of the suspect's clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon, no further search may be made. If a
weapon is found and the possession of which amounts to a violation of the law, what should the police officer do?
a. Inform the person of his constitutional rights because he is already a suspect in the crime.
b. Go to court and apply for a search warrant so that you could search also the dwelling place of the person.
c. Seize the weapon and submit it to the Crime Laboratory Office for ballistics examination.
d. Arrest the suspect and conduct a complete search of his person.
61. If the suspect the police officer is patting down is carrying an object such as a handbag, suitcase, briefcase, sack, or other
similar items that may conceal a weapon, should the police officer open the item?
a. Yes, to make sure no weapon or other illegal items are concealed inside.
b. Yes. In all situations, the police may open the items as clearly stated in the Police Operational Procedure.
c. No, instead put it in a place out of the suspect's reach.
d. No. Police officers have no right to determine the content of the item.
62. If after conducting a spot check/accosting or pat-down search, it yielded a negative result and the police officer has no basis for
making an arrest, is it important for him to record the facts of such spot check/accosting or pat-down search?
a. The police officers may or may not record the facts of such spot check/accosting or pat-down search.
b. No. It is not necessary because of the negative result.
c. Yes, and forward a report to the appropriate authority.
d. Yes. A careful planning should be done for the success of the police operation.
63. What is the primary purpose of a police checkpoint?
a. It is a place for the police to apprehend traffic violators, especially R.A. 4136.
b. It is a place where the police check vehicular/pedestrian traffic in order to enforce circulation control measure and other
laws, orders, and regulations.
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 c. Police officers could enforce the arrest of fleeing suspects on board motor vehicles.
d. The police could help other government agencies in a police checkpoint like the LTO, Department of Agriculture and
Forestry and other agencies.
64. What kind of motor vehicle should be used in establishing mobile checkpoints?
a. Motorcycles are appropriate for checkpoints for mobility.
b. Any vehicle in good condition may be used.
c. Only officially marked vehicles with blinkers turned on, if available, shall be used in establishing mobile checkpoints.
d. All government vehicles could be used for the purpose.
65. It states that the PNP Is mandated to provide active support to the Armed Forces of the Philippines (AFP) in Internal Security
Operations (ISO) for the suppression of the Communist Terrorist Movement (CTM) and other serious threats to national security.
a. E.O.110
b. R.A.8551
c. E.O.546
d. P.D.765
66. In urban areas, who may assume the lead role in ISO against the CTM, other threat groups and organized crime groups engaged
in armed offensives?
a. AFP
b. PNP
c. NBI
d. LGU
67. Could PNP units operate either as a single force or as part of joint PNP-AFP combat operations?
a. No. PNP units should only operate as a single force.
b. Yes, but only upon a written request by the AFP unit concerned.
c. Yes, but in both cases, lateral coordination is a must.
d. No. The PNP only conducts combat operations when AFP troops are with them because they usually lack the
resources.
68. May the PNP units in CTM-affected areas be placed under Operational Control (OPCON) of AFP units?
a. Yes, but shall continue to perform law enforcement functions.
b. Yes, on order by the President of the Philippines.
c. No. The AFP should be placed under operational control by the PNP.
d. No. The PNP may be placed under operation control by the LGU concerned.
69. Specific areas where armed confrontations such as encounter, ambush, raid, liquidation and other similar atrocities occur
between government forces (PNP or AFP) and the Communist Terrorists (CTs) shall be treated as a crime scene. Who should
conduct the Crime Scene Investigation (CSI)?
a. The SOCO
b. The National Bureau of Investigation
c. The Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
d. The police unit that has jurisdiction over the areas
70. What is usually the strategy and tactics employed by CTM and other threats groups to gain access to police stations?
a. Pretending to get police clearance or to ask for police assistance
b. Wearing of PNP/AFP uniforms and that of other LEAs
c. Disguising as women to catch the eyes and imagination of the police
d. Letting some identified people in the barangay to accompany them to the police station
71. Who authorizes the establishment of checkpoints?
a. The Chief of Police
b. The PNP Provincial Director
c. The Chief of Police in coordination with Municipal Mayor concerned.
d. The Head of Office of the territorial PNP Unit and manned by uniformed PNP personnel.
72. May other units directly involved in an operation establish mobile checkpoints?
a. Yes, in coordination with the Local Government Unit in the area.
b. Yes, in coordination with the Unit Commander in the area.
c. No, only Office of Primary Responsibility is authorized to establish checkpoints.
d. No, a written request must be filed with the Unit Commander in the area for his approval.
73. When are Mobile checkpoints authorized?
a. When arresting wanted persons on board motor vehicles.
b. When the police have to arrest top most wanted persons.
c. Only when established in conjunction with ongoing police operations.
d. Only when ordered by higher headquarters.
74. The composition of the personnel manning the checkpoint shall be left to the sound discretion of the Team Leader (TL). Could
female PNP officers be considered in the team?
a. Yes. There must always be women at the checkpoint as provided by the Police Operational Procedures.
b. Yes, especially when there is an anticipated female suspect.
c. No. Women police officers are not allowed to participate in checkpoint operations especially when there is an
anticipated armed encounter.
d. No. Women police officers are good at preparing meals and coffee for the Chief of Police.
75. What is the minimum number of PNP personnel manning a checkpoint?
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 a. 7
b. 8
c. 14
d. 21
76. Should the PNP allow the participation of the civilians and the presence of the media in the conduct of checkpoint?
a. No. Only police officers are allowed at checkpoints.
b. No. The civilians might muddle the conduct of the checkpoint.
c. Yes, but only on illegal drugs cases.
d. Yes, but must be confined only as observers to give police additional eyes and promote transparency of activities in
the area.
77. When could civic groups or organizations to include the media, participate in police checkpoints?
a. They must have been duly registered and accredited by the PNP for such purpose.
b. They must submit a written request and join the ·checkpoint only when duly approved.
c. They could participate during illegal drugs operations.
d. Civilians are not allowed during checkpoints.
78. Should the civilian components be allowed to bear firearms during the checkpoint?
a. No
b. PNP members can let them carry for the meantime their issued firearms.
c. They could carry their licensed personal firearms.
d. They could carry government-issued firearms
79. In Metro Manila and other major cities, should police officers manning the checkpoints wear Field Service Uniforms (FSU)or
black fatigues?
a. Yes, the FSU and black fatigue are appropriate police uniforms during checkpoints.
b. Yes, but the Field Service Uniform is only allowed.
c. No, unless the conduct of checkpoint is a result of a Hot Pursuit Operation or a High-Risk Checkpoint.
d. No, but the use of mixed uniforms (GOA, FSU, black fatigue) in the conduct of checkpoint is allowed.
80. Why is it that as much as possible, the area where the checkpoints shall be established must be properly lighted, with a
noticeable signage bearing the name of the PNP unit and the participating organization/s visibly displayed in the checkpoint
site?
a. It is a Standard Operating Procedure.
b. It is one good means of winning the hearts and minds of the people.
c. To show the people that the police are doing their job.
d. To prevent any apprehension from the public of the existence of the same.
81. The conduct of inspection of vehicle during a routine checkpoint is limited to a visual search and therefore must be done with
due respect to innocent passers-by, commuters, or bystanders and be conducted in a manner that is of least inconvenience to
the public, except
a. when the driver does not match the motor vehicle he is driving.
b. in the actual commission of crime during checkpoints or in a hot pursuit operation.
c. when the checkpoint is conducted in an uninhabited place.
d. during night time in a place where many different crimes happen.
82. What team members are allowed to display high-powered firearms should be positioned where they can best provide security
to the Checkpoint team, including themselves?
a. Security sub team and investigation sub team
b. Blocking/pursuing sub team and investigation sub team
c. Security sub-team and blocking/pursuing sub team
d. Arresting sub team and security sub team
83. Should checkpoint personnel limit their task to law enforcement and crime deterrence?
a. No. They should also enforce the Traffic Code of the Philippines and all other special laws.
b. No. They should also be ready to provide police assistance in the vicinity e.g, giving directions to inquiring motorists or
passers-by.
c. Yes. They should concentrate on their most pressing job of conducting the checkpoint.
d. Yes. Law enforcement and crime deterrence are the primary jobs of the police.
84. Police personnel assigned in the checkpoint shall not mulct, extort, or harass drivers, passengers, and traders. Designated TL
assigned at the checkpoint shall be responsible for the actuations and behavior of his personnel and shall be accountable under
the doctrine of
a. Unity of command.
b. Command responsibility.
c. Span of control.
d. police omnipresence.
85. Voluntary offers of cash or in kind from the traders/motorists passing by the checkpoint should be absolutely refused because
a. motorists passing by the checkpoint do not really like to offer cash or in kind.
b. the offer might be misconstrued as a bribe.
c. people might see the motorists giving cash or in kind to the police.
d. the motorists might not pass by the same route anymore.
86. Why must the police, as well as the civilian component, separately submit their After Checkpoint Operation Report to their
respective units or organization?
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 a. The report is the basis for the promotion of the personnel who participated in the police operation.
b. For proper evaluation of the efficacy of the operation.
c. To see whether mistakes were committed during the police operation.
d. The report is used to inform higher headquarters of the accomplishments of lower units.
87. Why should Unit Commanders inform Higher Headquarters (HHQs) Tactical Operations Center (TOC) and coordinate with
adjacent units, such as MPS, CPS, NSUs, Public Safety Company Forces and other friendly forces, personally or through an
official representative, before commencing with the checkpoint?
a. For them to get ready in case the unit concerned is in need of reinforcement.
b. To encourage them to go out and do also their work.
c. For them to appreciate what the police unit concerned is doing.
d. To avoid mis encounter and any untoward incident.
88. The Team Leader shall brief the PNP personnel, as well as the civilian components present, including the media prior to their
deployment. What should contain the briefing?
a. The police to wear the proper uniform.
b. The proper conduct of the checkpoint and their assigned tasks.
c. The information as to what the operation is all about.
d. Encouragements from the team leader for the members to perform to the best of their abilities.
89. Who will be pre-positioned in a place where he can best point/profile suspected vehicles prior to their approach to the
checkpoint?
a. The first responder
b. The intelligence agent
c. The spokesperson
d. The spotter
90. Who shall flag down suspected vehicles at the checkpoint site?
a. The Blocking/pursuing sub team
b. The Security sub team
c. The Search/Arresting Sub-Team
d. The Team leader
91. In the event of seized drugs, who shall immediately conduct physical inventory and photograph the same in the presence of the
accused or the person/s from whom such items were confiscated and/or seized, or his/her representative or counsel, a
representative from the media and DOJ, any elected public official who shall be required to sign the copy of the inventory and
be given a copy thereof?
a. The PNP Anti-drug Unit
b. The Scene of the Crime Operatives (SOCO)
c. The team having initial custody and control of the drugs
d. The Crime Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
92. For documentation and proper disposition, arrested persons and seized items during a checkpoint operation shall be turned
over to
a. The police station that has jurisdiction over the place where the checkpoint took place.
b. The investigation sub-team
c. The Scene of the Crime Operatives (SOCO)
d. The Crime Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
93. In the event that the checkpoint is ignored, and the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel manning the checkpoint,
what is the degree of the force to be employed to overcome the suspects' aggression?
a. Maximum force
b. Reasonably necessary force
c. Minimum force
d. self-controlled force
94. What should the ground commander or team leader do before terminating the conduct of Checkpoint?
a. Inform Higher Headquarters
b. Conduct briefing
c. Conduct debriefing of his personnel
d. Conduct roll call of his personnel
95. What should the ground commander or Team Leader do after the termination of the Checkpoint?
a. Inform Higher Headquarters
b. Conduct briefing
c. Conduct debriefing of his personnel
d. Conduct roll call of his personnel
96. Who will initially man a hasty checkpoint, to be complemented by additional personnel upon arrival of reinforcement?
a. A team from the Regional Public Safety Battalion
b. PNP personnel conducting mobile patrols on board patrol vehicles
c. Special Action Force
d. A team from the Provincial Public Safety Company
97. What should the PNP personnel who initially manned the hasty checkpoint immediately do?
a. Inform higher headquarters of the hasty Checkpoint to include personnel involved and available equipment.
b. Coordinate to adjacent police units and other friendly forces within the AOR.
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 c. Install the necessary signage and lightings in the area.
d. See to it that all personnel are in their proper uniforms.
98. In a hasty checkpoint, when should the participation of the civilian component and the presence of the media in the checkpoint
operation not be allowed?
a. When the civilian component and the media are not in their office uniforms in which they could not be properly identified.
b. When the participation of the civilians and the media might compromise or negatively affect the checkpoint operation.
c. When there is a possibility of high-risk stop or high-risk arrest, and there is urgency for troop deployment and that public
safety might be at risk.
d. The PNP would like to keep secret from the media the checkpoint operation.
99. What should the Unit Commander of the personnel manning the hasty checkpoint do in order to convert the Hasty Checkpoint
into a Regular Checkpoint?
a. Conduct a briefing to prepare his personnel for the checkpoint operation.
b. Coordinate to adjacent police units and other friendly forces within the AOR.
c. Install the necessary signage and lightings in the area so that the motorists will not be wary of the existence of the
same.
d. Immediately send additional personnel, equipment and signage to the area.
100. In the event that checkpoints/roadblocks are ignored and the motorists/suspects bumped the roadblock in an attempt to elude
arrest or avoid inspection, what should the Team Leader immediately do?
a. Fire a warning shot to scare the driver of the motor vehicle to stop and submit to inspection.
b. Contact adjacent units to inform them of the situation so that these units will conduct dragnet operation or police
defensive roadblock, while the members of the blocking/pursuing team shall block or pursue the errant fleeing motorist.
c. Direct the sniper of the team to cautiously shoot at the tire of the fleeing motor vehicle to stop it.
d. Pursue the fleeing motor vehicle, overtake it and signal the driver to stop or you may wait at a tactically advantageous
position to stop said vehicle.

SET 2

1. Is warning shot by the police allowed during police operations?

a. Yes. A warning shot is legal; it has been used before until now.
b. Yes. A warning shot is one method the police can police would like to arrest an offender.
c. No, the bullet fired could hit innocent people, including the police officers.
d. No, due to the confusion it may create to the driver, passengers of the vehicle and other people in the vicinity who hear
the gunshot.
2. In case of armed confrontation wherein the suspect dies, the Team Leader of the operating unit shall submit the to the removal
of the body from the scene, how about in areas where there are no Inquest Prosecutors?
a. The Scene of the crime operation team shall process the scene before the removal of the dead body.
b. The investigator-on-case shall file the case to the court within 24 hours.
c. The territorial police unit can proceed with the investigation.
d. The Team Leader shall submit the incident for inquest with the court.
3. Why is that the police should maintain a separate Police Blotter for crime incident reports involving violence against conflict with
the law?
a. In order to keep secret alI information entered into the separate police blotter.
b. To protect their privacy pursuant to Republic Act (RA)of 2004) and RA 9344 (Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006),
respectively
c. The separate police blotter contains pieces of information that need to be addressed immediately.
d. It is separate police blotter that is usually required by the court during hearings.
4. What is undertaken to arrested suspects to record and document the information surrounding their arrest?
a. Investigation
b. Criminal processing
c. Booking
d. Interrogation
5. Should a physical examination of an arrested person be necessary,who should conduct the physical examination to female
suspects?
a. Any government doctor may conduct the physical examination of female suspects.
b. Female suspects shall be attended to preferably by a female doctor.
c. Doctors from the PNP Crime Laboratory Office.
d. Any Filipino doctor may conduct the physical examination, especially in far-flung areas.
6. PSGT Pepito was patrolling when he met the top most wanted person who fired his gun at the police officer grazing his right
ear. PSGT Pepito fired also his service firearm that hit the person at his right arm that caused his gun to be thrown twenty (20)
meters away. Seeing that the wanted person is armless and heavily injured with his wound profusely bleeding, what should PO3
Pepito do?
a. Fire warning shots to warn the wanted person to surrender.
b. Arrest the wanted person and bring him to the hospital or clinic for medical attention.
c. Fire more shots to kill the wanted person before he could get his firearm.
d. Fire at the legs of the wanted person to incapacitate him.

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 7. What is the temporary installation or hastily built barricade set for halting traffic to facilitate the apprehension/neutralization of
an armed person/suspect onboard a motor vehicle?
a. Checkpoint
b. Chokepoint
c. Police defensive roadblock
d. Police outpost
8. In case a motor vehicle evaded the checkpoint, the PNP shall pursue the fleeing vehicle, note the plate number of the vehicle
and give it to other units in adjacent areas to prevent the possibility that the vehicle may elude the pursuit operation. During the
hot pursuit operation, what should the police do?
a. Fire a warning shot to warn the driver and stop the motor vehicle.
b. Warn the driver of the vehicle to stop by means of Megaphone or police siren.
c. Direct the sniper of the team to cautiously shoot at the tire of the fleeing motor vehicle to stop it.
d. Overtake the vehicle and signal the driver to stop or you may wait at a tactically advantageous position to stop said
vehicle.
9. What should the police do in the event the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel manning the checkpoint?
a. Return fire to kill the suspects because they were the ones who fired first.
b. Stay in defensive positions in order not to be hit by the suspects' bullets.
c. Reasonable force to overcome the suspects ‘aggression may be employed.
d. Do not ever fire back because it is a violation of human rights.
10. How should you approach the suspect's vehicle?
a. Park behind the suspect's vehicle at an appropriate distance and cautiously approach the vehicle on the driver's side.
b. Park at the right side of the road at an appropriate distance from the suspects' vehicle and cautiously approach the
vehicle on the driver's side.
c. Park behind the suspect's vehicle at an appropriate distance and cautiously approach the vehicle on the passenger's
side.
11. If the vehicle's windows are heavily tinted and the occupants cannot be seen, what should the police do?
a. Smash the windows by the butt of your gun to have a clear view of the mv's interior.
b. Use your flashlight to conduct visual search.
c. Impound the motor vehicle for using heavily tinted windows.
d. instruct the driver to open all windows to have a clear view of the interior of the vehicle.
12. At the checkpoint, the police should instruct the driver to turn off the ignition, if this was not done when the vehicle stopped. How
about for motorcycles?
a. Conduct a visual search.
b. Open the motorcycle's compartment for you to look for hidden illegal drugs.
c. Instruct the driver to remove the key and disembark.
d. Check the plate number and engine number whether it is included in the watch list of carnapped motor vehicles.
13. What should the police do when there are other suspects aside from the driver?
a. Use one handcuff to handcuff them together.
b. Separate them from one another.
c. Determine who should be and who should not be arrested.
d. Ask for backup because they might attack you with their number.
14. The police were able to arrest persons inside a fleeing vehicle. What should they do before moving out from the place?
a. Immediately conduct debriefing to assess the efficacy and effectiveness of the police operation.
b. Inform Headquarters about the situation, status and disposition of the suspects and motor vehicle accosted.
c. Remove their police line from the area in order not to put the people in a difficult situation.
d. The team leader should conduct a roll call to see whether nobody of the participating elements is missing.
15. What should not the police immediately do upon receipt of information involving movement of armed person or persons, either
singly or in group, including unauthorized movement of government troops, or in immediate response to a reported commission
of crime perpetrated by armed persons?
a. Organize appropriate tactical security forces utilizing maximum firepower and armor assets.
b. Deploy the security forces to stopping zones in defensive position.
c. Seal off the area and establish strong roadblocks/barricades.
d. Call up the media to cover or document the operation.
16. The following are ways of effecting high-risk stop, EXCEPT
a. Exert utmost effort to persuade the suspects to halt or stop their movement.
b. Start with the procedural conduct of regular warrantless arrest where arrest is inevitable.
c. Fire a warning shot to intimidate the suspects not to do anything untoward against the police.
d. Respect the rights of all the persons involved.
17. The following are the Pre-Conditions in Establishing Police Defensive Roadblocks, except
a. The object vehicle/s must be the subject of a recent flash alarm.
b. The driver/occupants of the vehicle are presumed hostile and will not stop at the checkpoint.
c. The vehicle disregarded a police-established checkpoint when flagged down.
d. The identified vehicle and occupants must be the subject of a police case/combat operational plan.
e. There is authorized troop movement.
18. The Team Leader (TL) shall lead and take responsibility in the conduct of roadblocks. What is the rank of the team leader?
a. Preferably with the rank of at least Police Senior Inspector
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 b. Preferably with the rank of at least Police Inspector
c. Police Senior Inspector
d. Senior Police Officer
19. Is it important that the police videographer should take videos of the entire roadblock operation?
a. Yes, the videos could be used in the issuance of awards and commendations to those who actually participated in the
operation.
b. Yes, the videos could be used to disprove allegations that the police committed Human rights violations or violated
their Police Operational Procedures.
c. No, it is a waste of time and the police videographer might be hit while busy recording the roadblock operation.
d. No, the video recording should be done by the media.
20. During the Police Defensive Roadblock, the team leader must see to it that the following are done, except
a. Establish forward observers/spotters and rear checkpoint.
b. Deploy security forces in nonstrategic and defensive positions.
c. Establish a strong roadblock on selected strategic areas.
d. Deploy road spikes or tire deflation system if available.
e. Ensure that the whole intervention procedure is documented by the videographer.
21. As much as possible, the area where the roadblock shall be established must be properly lighted with noticeable signage bearing
the name of the PNP Unit visibly displayed and in a safe distance from a populated area
a. because kibitzers might flock to the area and interfere with the police operation.
b. to prevent collateral damage if a firefight ensues.
c. so that the operation could be kept secret from cynics and critics.
d. because the supporters and sympathizers of the suspects in the community could provide reinforcement to the
suspects.
22. What should be done when the occupants of the vehicle open fire on the personnel manning the roadblock?
a. Unreasonable force to overcome the suspects ‘aggression may be employed.
b. Use unnecessary force to neutralize suspects.
c. Cause panic firing.
d. Prevent collateral damage and account for the casualties.
23. After a Roadblock operation, participating units must submit an After-Roadblock Operations Report to their respective units or
organization. What is the purpose?
a. So that higher headquarters will know whom to commend for a job well done.
b. The After-roadblock Operations report will show lapses in the conduct of the operation
c. For proper evaluation of the efficacy of the operation.
d. The After-roadblock Operations report could pinpoint who should be deployed for future operations.
24. In the event that the motor vehicle did not stop and it evaded the roadblock despite the warning given, what should the police
do?
a. It is a blatant defiance thus; the police may open fire at the vehicle to stop it.
b. Inform Headquarters or adjacent units so that another police defensive roadblock can be set-up.
c. Fire warning shots to scare the driver and stop the vehicle.
d. Pursue the fleeing vehicle using a civilian car, overtake the vehicle and wait at a favorable place to stop the vehicle.
25. In the event that the motor vehicle did not stop and it evaded the roadblock despite the warning given, should the fleeing vehicle
be fired upon?
a. Yes, all of the personnel should simultaneously fire at the fleeing vehicle to stop it, by all means.
b. Yes, except by a sniper but only to disable the vehicle.
c. Yes, anybody of the personnel could shoot the driver of the vehicle, but only top disable him.
d. No, it is a violation of Human rights and the Police Operational Procedures.
26. What should be carried out by the police in areas that are prone to influence, infiltration and infestation of CTM front
organizations?
a. Pulong-pulong to inform the people about deceptions made by the CPP/NPA/NDF.
b. Medical and dental mission to reach the poor who are usually being exploited by the communist insurgents.
c. The neutralization of all supporters and sympathizers of the CNN.
d. Police Community Relation (PCR)/Barangay Peacekeeping Operations (BPO) activities.
27. Could arrests be made even without a valid Warrant of Arrest issued by a competent authority?
a. Yes, except in instances where the law allows warrantless arrest.
b. Yes, but the arresting officers must, at all times, observe human rights.
c. Yes, when the person to be arrested belongs to the top most wanted persons.
d. No, arresting a person without a valid warrant is a violation of his Constitutional rights.
28. Could force be used in making an arrest?
a. Force could not be used against women and children suspects.
b. Force maybe used to a person who is drank.
c. No violence or unnecessary force shall be used in making an arrest.
d. The person to be arrested could be subjected to greater restraint than what is necessary under the circumstances.
29. As a general rule, when is arrest made?
a. Arrests are made from Mondays to Fridays only so that the suspects could avail of the services of the Courts.
b. Arrests can be made on any day of the week and at any time of the day or night.
c. Arrests can only be made during daytime as it is too risky for the police to do it during night time.
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 d. Arrests are made only by police personnel in proper uniforms.
30. Is a Warrant of Arrest no longer needed when the accused is already under detention?
a. Yes. An Order of Commitment is issued by the Prosecutor in lieu of the Warrant of Arrest.
b. No, to put any person under arrest without a warrant is illegal.
c. Yes. An Order of Commitment is issued by the judge in lieu of the Warrant of Arrest.
d. No. A person cannot be committed to any detention facility without a warrant of arrest.
31. Is a Senator or Member of the House of the Representatives immune from arrest?
a. No. Nobody is above the law and anybody who committed a crime could be arrested.
b. Yes. A Senator or Member of the House of the Representatives is immune from arrest while Congress is in session for
an offense punishable by not more than six years of imprisonment.
c. Yes. A Senator or Member of the House of the Representatives is immune from arrest while Congress is in session for
an offense punishable by not more than three years of imprisonment.
d. Yes. A Senator or Member of the House of the Representatives is immune from arrest for an offense punishable by
not more than six years of imprisonment.
32. PMAJ JUAN TAMAD, together with his companions, was conducting a checkpoint when a car with blue-colored plates was
about to pass by. Should they inspect said motor vehicle?
a. No. Diplomatic Agents, Under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, should not be arrested or inspected.
b. Yes. Diplomats are immune from arrest but their cars are not immune from inspection.
c. No. The motor vehicles of diplomats are colored blue that means they should not be stopped at checkpoints.
d. Yes, but the search to be conducted must be limited to a visual search only.
33. What is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense?
a. Search
b. Seizure
c. Arrest
d. Inquest proceeding

34. How many days is given to the head of the office, to whom the warrant of arrest has been delivered for implementation, to cause
the warrant to be implemented?
a. Within ten (10) days from issuance
b. Within ten (10) days from receipt
c. After ten (10) days from issuance
d. After ten (10) days from receipt
35. Within ten (10) days after the expiration of the period for implementing a warrant of arrest, the police officer to whom it was
assigned
a. shall request for the renewal of the warrant for sixty (60) days.
b. shall make a report to the judge who issued the warrant.
c. shall go to the court and explain personally to the judge why he did not implement the warrant.
d. Cannot arrest the suspect anymore.
36. A peace officer or a private person may, without a warrant, arrest a person in the following circumstances except,
a. When, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to commit an
offense.
b. When an offense has just been committed and he has probable cause to believe, based on personal knowledge of
facts or circumstances, that the person to be arrested has committed it.
c. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped from a penal establishment or place where he is serving
final judgment or temporarily confined while his case is pending, or has escaped while being transferred from one
confinement area to another.
d. Where the accused released on bail attempts to live the country without court permission.
e. Violation of conditional pardon, punishable under Article 159 of the Revised Penal Code as a case of evasion of service
of sentence.
f. Arrest following a Deportation Proceeding by the Immigration Commissioner against illegal and undesirable aliens.
37. May police officer summon assistance in effecting an arrest?
a. Yes, but only law enforcement officers should provide assistance.
b. Yes. A police officer making a lawful arrest may verbally summon as many persons as he deems necessary to assist
him in effecting the arrest.
c. Yes, but the assistance by any person to the police in effecting arrest must be voluntary.
d. No. The arrest of suspects and criminals is the sole work of the police.
38. When shall the police officer, with or without a warrant, have the right to break into building or enclosure where the person to be
arrested is or is reasonably believed to be, in order to make an arrest?
a. When heavily armed persons are inside the building or enclosure.
b. When the people inside the building or enclosure are challenging him to enter.
c. When he is refused admittance thereto after announcing his authority and purpose.
d. When he is refused admittance but he is sure the person to be arrested is inside the building or enclosure.
39. When a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, may any person immediately pursue to retake him?
a. No, only police officers, even without a warrant, may immediately pursue to retake him at any time and in any place
within the Philippines.
b. Yes, even without a warrant at any time and in any place of the commission of the offense.
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 c. Yes, if he has a warrant of arrest at any time and in any place within the Philippines.
d. Yes, even without a warrant at any time and in any place within the Philippines.
40. How should a police officer arrest a person with a warrant?
a. Aim your firearm to the person to be arrested, and with a clear and commanding voice, direct him to surrender.
b. The police officer should introduce himself, show proper identification and make a manifestation of authority against
the person to be arrested.
c. Wrestle with the person in order to arrest him, or else he might escape.
d. Ask for help from bystanders because they know exactly the person to be arrested.
41. If the person to be arrested has a warrant of arrest, is it a must that the police officer have a copy of the warrant in his possession
at the time of the arrest?
a. Yes. The police officer must have the warrant in his possession in making an arrest in order to make the arrest valid.
b. Yes. The police officer who made the arrest without the warrant in his possession is liable for arbitrary detention.
c. No, but if the person arrested so requires, the warrant shall be shown to him as soon as possible.
d. No, but the arrest should be done in the presence of the person's nearest kin and at least two barangay officials in the
area.
42. Should the police officer who made a valid arrest conduct thorough search for weapons and other illegal materials on the person
arrested?
a. Yes, but the search must be conducted in the presence of two witnesses of sufficient discretion residing in the
community.
b. Yes, including the surroundings within his immediate control.
c. Yes, the search must be confined to the person arrested.
d. No, police officer is not authorized to conduct a search after any valid arrest.
43. When should the arrested person be delivered to jail/prison?
a. After the lapse of the 12, 18 and 36-hour period for
b. After the person has undergo
c. Upon arrest of the person.
d. Upon the issuance of a commitment order of the court.
44. Who should conduct pat-down search when women or children are among the arrested suspect/s?
a. All police officers may conduct pat-down search; however, they should be very cautious and sensitive when searching
women and children.
b. Male police officers may pat-down search women and children, provided, they have to use the back of their hands.
c. The arresting officer shall task the Women's and Children's Protection Desks (WCPD) officer or a policewoman who is
familiar with women and children protection desk duties to conduct the pat-down search.
d. Any of the police officers assigned with the Women's and Children's Protection Desks (WCPD) could conduct the pat-
down search since it is their inherent function to deal with women and children.
45. In case of arrest without warrant, is it a must that the arresting officer inform the person to be arrested of his authority and the
cause of the arrest?
a. Yes, in order to give opportunity to non-hostile suspects to just peaceably give up.
b. No, when the person to be arrested flees or forcibly resists before the arresting officer has the has the opportunity to
inform him or when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
c. Yes, the act of the arresting officer of informing the person to be arrested of his authority and the cause of the arrest
constitutes the verbal warning that is required in making arrests.
d. No, when the person to be arrested knows pretty well that the police officer is after him.
46. 46. The following are the rights of a person arrested,with or without warrant,except
a. the right to be informed of his constitutional right to remain silent and that any statement he makes could be used
against him.
b. the right to communicate with his lawyer or his immediate family.
c. the right to physical examination.
d. the right to bail.

47. Persons arrested shall be immediately brought to the proper Police Station for investigation without unnecessary delay. Who
should be subjected to inquest proceedings within the time prescribed in Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code (RPC)?
a. A person arrested without a warrant.
b. A person with a warrant of arrest but was arrested without the warrant in the possession of the arresting officer.
c. All arrested persons.
d. When the person to be arrested flees or forcibly resists before the arresting officer has the opportunity to inform him or
when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
48. Torture, force, violence, threat, intimidation, or any other means which vitiate the free will shall not be used against an arrested
person. Is the bringing of arrested persons to secret detention places, solitary confinement and the like permitted?
a. Yes, especially for arrested persons who committed heinous crimes.
b. Yes, secret detention places or solitary confinement could teach the arrested person not to indulge in the commission
of crimes later.
c. Yes, foreigners who committed acts of terrorism may be put inside secret detention places and solitary confinement.
d. No.
49. What should the arresting officer do in case the person arrested without a warrant waives his right under the provisions of Art
125 of the Revised Penal Code?
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 a. The person arrested shall be brought by the arresting officer to the prosecutor for inquest proceedings.
b. The arresting officer shall ensure that the person arrested signs a waiver of detention in the presence of his counsel of
choice.
c. The arresting officer shall bring the arrested person to the jail for confinement.
d. The arresting officer shall submit the arrested person to the Investigator for custodial interrogation.
50. When the person arrested waives his right against self-incrimination and chooses to give his statement, what should the arresting
officer do?
a. Ask the investigator to get immediately the sworn statement of the arrested person before he changes his mind.
b. Submit the arrested person to the investigator for custodial interrogation.
c. Ensure that the waiver is made in writing and signed by the person arrested in the presence of a counsel of his own
choice or a competent and independent counsel provided by the government.
d. Bring the person arrested to the prosecutor for inquest proceedings.
51. Before interrogation, the person arrested shall have the right to be informed of his right
a. to bail so that he will not stay inside the jail.
b. to privacy so that he could not be disturbed as to what statements he may give to the investigator.
c. to an inquest proceeding by a prosecutor to determine whether there is probable cause to hold the person.
d. to demand physical examination by an independent and competent doctor of his own choice.
52. The following properties may be the objects of a search warrant: EXCEPT
a. Properties which are the subject of the offense.
b. Stolen, embezzled proceeds, or fruits of the offense.
c. Objects including weapons, equipment, and other items used or intended to be used as the means of committing an
offense.
d. Personal properties of the most corrupt public officials.
53. Could objects that are illegal per se, even if not particularly described in the search warrant, be seized?
a. Yes, but in the presence of the lawful occupant of the premises, his relative or two other persons of ·sufficient discretion
residing in the area.
b. Yes, under the plain view doctrine.
c. Yes, a searched firearm must be seized.
d. No, only those specifically specified in the warrant should be seized.
54. What is the validity of the search warrant?
a. Ten (10) days from date of receipt by the Judge.
b. Ten (10) days from date of issuance.
c. Ten (10) days from the date of application of a search warrant.
d. Ten (10) days from receipt by the police officer.
55. When in the implementation of the search warrant, its object or purpose cannot be accomplished in one day, could the search
be continued the following day, or days, until completed?
a. No, to avoid unlawful search and seizure, a search could only be conducted for one (1) day or 24 hours only.
b. Yes, a search once started could be continued until completed.
c. Yes, provided it is still within the ten-day validity period of the search warrant.
d. Yes, once the search started it could be continued until completed within one (1) month.
56. In case the object or purpose of the search warrant cannot be accomplished within the ten (10) day validity period,
a. the Chief of Police must file, before the issuing court, an application for the extension of the validity period of said
search warrant.
b. the responsible police officer conducting the search must file, before the issuing court, an application for the extension
of the validity period of said search warrant.
c. the search may be continued the following day, or days, until completed.
d. the team conducting the search should go home.
57. What is the time for the conduct of search?
a. The warrant is served during daytime only.
b. The warrant is served during night time, to make use of the element of surprise.
c. The warrant could be served during daytime or night time.
d. The warrant should be served during daytime, unless there is a provision in the warrant allowing service at any time of
the day or night.
58. All applications for Search Warrant shall be approved for filing by the Chief of Office. The application shall indicate the following
data: except
a. Office applying for the Search Warrant
b. Name of the subject, if known
c. General statement of things to be seized
d. Sketch of the place to be searched.
e. Name of officer-applicant
f. Address/place(s) to be searched
59. Houses, rooms, or other premises shall not be searched except in the presence of either of the following, except
a. the lawful occupant thereof.
b. any member of his family.
c. two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality.
d. a competent and independent counsel of his own choice.
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 60. The police officer who confiscates property under the warrant or under the plain view doctrine shall issue a detailed receipt of
property seized to the lawful occupant of the premises, or in the absence of such occupant, shall do so in the presence of at
least two (2) witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality. Who should be given the original and
duplicate copies of the receipt?
a. The police officer must leave a receipt in the place where he found the seized property and a duplicate copy thereof
with any barangay official having jurisdiction over the place searched.
b. The police officer must forthwith deliver the property seized to the judge who issued the warrant, together with an
inventory thereof, duly verified under oath.
c. The police officer must get the original receipt and leave the duplicate copy in the place where he found the seized
property.
d. The original shall be left to any barangay official having jurisdiction over the place searched and the duplicate taken by
the police for reference.
61. May a person lawfully arrested be searched even without a warrant?
a. No lawful person may be searched without a search warrant.
b. The person lawfully arrested may be searched only in the presence of an independent and competent counsel of his
own choice.
c. The person arrested should be search for dangerous weapons or anything which may be used or which may constitute
proof in the commission of an offense.
d. The warrantless search and seizure as an incident to a lawful arrest may extend beyond the person of the arrested to
include the premises or surroundings under his immediate control.
62. If the police officers who will conduct the search have reasonable or probable cause to believe, before the search, that either
the motorist is a law offender or they will find the instrumentality or evidence pertaining to a crime in the vehicle to be searched,
a. the driver may be stopped and subjected to a visual, cursory search.
b. the police officer may be stopped and subjected to an extensive search.
c. the vehicle may be stopped and subjected to a visual, cursory search.
d. the vehicle may be stopped and subjected to an extensive search.
63. Any object in plain view is subject to seizure and may be introduced as evidence. The following are the requirements under the
Plain View Doctrine, EXCEPT
a. the police officer must have prior justification for an intrusion or, otherwise, must be in a position from which he can
view a particular area.
b. the discovery of the evidence in plain view is unintentional.
c. when it is immediately apparent to the police officer that the item he observes may be evidence of a crime, contraband,
or is a valid subject of seizure.
d. the driver of the motor vehicle has just committed a crime.
64. The police officer has the right to stop a citizen on the street, interrogate him, and pat him for weapons whenever
a. he thinks that the citizen is acting maliciously and suspiciously.
b. he observes unusual conduct which convinces him that a criminal activity exists.
c. he finds the person at night time.
d. something bulges within his belly.
65. The following are Valid Searches and Seizures Without Search Warrant, except
a. Search made incidental to an invalid arrest
b. Searches Under Stop and Frisk Rule
c. Emergency and Exigent Circumstances
d. Tipped Information
e. Search of moving vehicles
f. Seizure of evidence in plain view
g. When there is waiver of the right or there is consented search
66. What office shall have the primary responsibility of securing the scene where the armed confrontation occurred and immediately
undertake the necessary investigation?
a. The Scene of the Crime Operatives (SOCO)
b. The Crime Laboratory Office (CLO)
c. The Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction over the area.
d. The Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
67. What unit should be requested by the concerned Police Unit to conduct crime scene processing?
a. The Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO) Team
b. The Crime Laboratory Office (CLO)
c. The Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction over the area.
d. The Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
68. All firearms, cartridges and slugs seized, captured or recovered during checkpoints or pursuit operations or in any other police
operations including those seized during the service of warrants and, more importantly, those recovered from the crime scene
shall immediately be
a. submitted to the local Crime Laboratory (CLO)which shall in turn process it for capturing and cross-matching through
the Integrated Ballistics Identification System (IBIS).
b. submitted to the Police Unit that has territorial jurisdiction over the area.
c. submitted to the Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG).
d. cancelled in favor of the government.
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 69. Is it mandatory for the field investigator or investigator-on-case (IOC) to submit the firearm seized, captured or recovered to the
prosecutor or court?
a. Yes. It should be submitted as soon as possible lest it might be misplaced, tampered or substituted.
b. No. Photographs of the firearm and the receipt issued by the local Crime Laboratory Office for the said
firearm/cartridges/slugs shall be submitted to the prosecutor or the court.
c. Yes. It is specifically stated in the warrant that seized, captured or recovered firearms must be submitted immediately.
d. No. The seized, captured or recovered firearm should only be submitted during trial.
70. Should the prosecutor eventually require the physical submission of the firearm, what should the investigator-on-case do?
a. Shall immediately bring said firearm to the prosecutor or court.
b. Shall ask the person who has custody of the firearm to submit said firearm within 24 hours.
c. Shall manifest with the prosecutor or court that a subpoena be issued for the Crime Laboratory which issued the receipt
to present the said firearm.
d. Ask the prosecutor or judge to get personally the firearm from the person who has custody of said firearm.
71. It is also imperative that the chain of custody be strictly observed and documented and therefore, as much as practicable, it
shall be
a. the investigator-on-case to accomplish the chain of custody form.
b. a police commissioned officer (PCO) shall make all documentations, including the accomplishment of the chain of
custody form.
c. the chief of police (COP) to make all necessary documentations.
d. the investigator-on-case (IOC) shall personally submit the recovered firearms/shells/slugs to the local Crime
Laboratory.
72. In cases of armed confrontation wherein the suspect dies, what should the Team Leader of the operating unit do prior to the
removal of the dead body from the scene?
a. Notify the nearest kin or relatives of the dead person.
b. Submit the incident for inquest before the duty Inquest Prosecutor.
c. Identify the dead person.
d. Ask the scene of the crime operation team to process the scene.
73. The Judicial Affidavit Rule shall apply to all criminal actions where the
a. maximum imposable penalty does not exceed three months.
b. maximum imposable penalty does not exceed three years.
c. maximum imposable penalty does not exceed six years.
d. minimum imposable penalty exceeds six years.

74. A judicial affidavit shall be prepared in the language known to the witness and, if not in English or Filipino, accompanied by a
translation in English or Filipino, and shall contain the necessary data/information, except
a. The name, age, residence or business address, and occupation of the witness.
b. The name and address of the lawyer who conducts or supervises the examination of the witness and the place where
the examination is being held.
c. A statement that the witness is answering the questions asked of him, fully conscious that he does so under oath, and
that he may face administrative liability for false testimony or perjury.
d. Questions asked of the witness and his corresponding answers, consecutively numbered.
e. The signature of the witness over his printed name.
f. A jurat or a proof that an oath was taken before an administering officer or a notary public.
75. It contains the daily registry of all crime incident reports, official summaries of arrest, and other significant events reported in a
police station. It is where all types of operational and undercover dispatches shall be recorded containing the five "Ws" (who,
what, where, when and why) and one “H” (how) of an information.
a. Police journal
b. Police logbook
c. Police blotter
d. Police file
76. What is the electronic reporting system that facilitates crime documentation, modernizes data storage and provides quick and
reliable transmission of crime information from lower units and NOSUs of the PNP to the National Headquarters at Camp Crame,
Quezon City?
a. PNP radio message form
b. Memorandum form of communication
c. Civilian Business Letter format
d. PNP Crime Incident Reporting System (CIRS)
77. All reports shall be recorded directly to the blotter book except for crime incidents in which the
a. the five Ws and one H of information should all be answered.
b. duty officer shall first accomplish the Incident Record Form (IRF).
c. duty investigator will be the one to make the entries into the blotter.
d. PNCO on duty should gather more information to be entered into the police blotter.
78. Who is appointed by the Unit Commanders who shall be responsible in consolidating and maintaining crime data files of each
unit to ensure consistency and continuity?
a. Investigator-on-case
b. Chief investigator
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 c. Crime Registrar
d. Knight
79. The police unit with the territorial jurisdiction where the crime was committed shall have the primary responsibility to record and
report the same. How about to a continuing crime that is committed in various areas of responsibilities, how should it be recorded
and reported?
a. It should be recorded and reported by whoever is the first responder.
b. It should be recorded and reported as a single crime by the unit taking cognizance of the crime.
c. The memorandum form of communication is used to record and report the crime.
d. All the police stations whose jurisdiction the crime was committed should submit separate reports.
80. After arrest, a suspect is taken into police custody and "booked" or "processed". During booking, the following procedures shall
be performed by designated police officers, except
a. Record the arrest made in the Police Blotter
b. Conduct pat down or strip search of the suspect
c. Submit the suspect for medical examination
d. Take the criminal suspect's personal information (i.e.name, date of birth, physical characteristics, etc.)
e. Record information about the suspect's alleged crime
f. Perform a record search of the suspect's criminal background
g. Fingerprint and photograph the suspect
h. Take custody of any real property carried by the suspect (i.e. keys, purse), to be returned upon the suspect's release
i. Place the suspect in a police station lock-up/holding cell or local jail.
81. The Arresting Officer shall ask the Desk Officer to record in the police blotter the circumstances of the arrest as well as the
identity of the suspects and names of Arresting Officers (AO). The AO shall sign in the blotter entry. What action signifies that
the police station has officially taken cognizance of the arrest?
a. The act of arresting the suspects and bringing them to the police station.
b. The process of asking questions from the suspects and recording them.
c. This procedure of assigning a blotter number to the arrest of the suspects.
d. The act of bringing the suspects to the prosecutor for inquest proceedings.
82. A strip search, if conducted, will be so indicated in the blotter. A strip search may be conducted as the situation demands but
a. only with the authority of the Chief of Police (COP) or the Officer on Duty.
b. only women suspects could be stripped.
c. the search should be witnessed by the nearest kin or relative.
d. the strip search should be for illegal drugs only.
83. Who has the responsibility of escorting the suspects to and from the government hospital for medical examination?
a. Investigator-on-case
b. Arresting officer
c. Duty Officer
d. First responder
84. What procedure is necessary to ensure that the suspect/s do not carry any deadly weapons or contraband after having been
referred to a government hospital for medical examination?
a. Strip search
b. CCTV monitor
c. redundancy pat-down search
d. x-ray machine
85. Shall the Duty Investigator process all suspects brought to them by the Arresting Officers?
a. It is the duty of the duty investigator to process all suspects.
b. Those who have not undergone a medical examination in a government hospital shall not be processed.
c. The duty investigator could select whom to process.
d. Those without the required documents will not be processed.
86. The arresting officer, or the investigator, as the case may be, must inform the person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation of the following rights under the Miranda Doctrine in a language or dialect known to and understood by him, except
a. That he has the right to remain silent forever.
b. That if he waives his right to remain silent, anything he says can be used in evidence against him in court.
c. That he has the right to counsel of his own choice.
d. That, if he cannot afford one, he shall be provided with an independent and competent counsel.
e. That he has the right to be informed of such rights.
87. Does the PNP Custodial Center, an informal and temporary penal facility for arrested suspects, allow conjugal visits for detention
prisoners?
a. Yes
b. It depends
c. No
d. Sometimes
88. What is mandatory before any transfer of custody of arrested person is made?
a. Strip search
b. Medical examination
c. Pat down search
d. Fingerprinting
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 89. In transporting detention prisoner by a patrol jeep, where must the subject and the PNP escort sit?
a. The subject must be seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the right side facing the
subject.
b. The subject must be seated on the right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the
subject.
c. The subject must be seated on the right rear seat and the PNP escort personnel shall sit on the left rear seat.
d. The subject sits at the back while the PNP escort sits beside the driver.
90. While transporting detention prisoners, how should their hands be secured by handcuffs?
a. Handcuff at the back
b. Handcuff under his knees.
c. Handcuff in front
d. Handcuff attached to the vehicle
91. In transporting detention prisoners by a patrol car, where must the subject and the PNP escort sit?
a. The subject must be seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the right side facing the
subject.
b. The subject must be seated on the right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the
subject.
c. The subject must be seated on the right rear seat and the PNP escort personnel shall sit on the left rear seat.
d. The subject sits at the back while the PNP escort sits beside the driver.
92. Should not a Detention Prisoner be allowed travel and escort outside the detention cell to places devoted for recreation, worship,
entertainment, meals and dining and others of similar and analogous description?
a. Yes, unless in extreme emergency situations.
b. Yes, unless upon lawful orders of the court.
c. No. Detention prisoners are not convicted prisoners; hence they have the right to travel to recreation, worship and
entertainment places.
d. No. Detention prisoners have to ask permission from the warden.
93. The following statements are correct insofar as transporting detention prisoners is concerned, except
a. In no case shall a Detention Prisoner be transported using public utility land vehicles that are not exclusively utilized
for the purpose.
b. In no case shall a high-risk Detention Prisoner be transported without proper escort and handcuffs.
c. In no case shall a Detention Prisoner be allowed out of the Detention Cell without proper escort.
d. Transport and escort of Detention Prisoner shall not be limited from the detention cell to the proper office for inquest,
or court for hearing, or to the nearest hospital/clinic in case of the mandatory medical examination prior to detention or
during actual medical emergency, or in court-permitted transport.
94. Should female detainees be transported in handcuffs?
a. No. It is a violation of human rights to handcuff female detainees.
b. No. Handcuffs are not necessary when dealing with women and children.
c. Yes, preferably aided by a police woman.
d. Women should also be handcuffed in between the knees.
95. Detention Prisoners shall as much as possible be transported
a. wearing proper, decent attire so that they will not be identified as detention prisoners.
b. wearing civilian attire in order to remove from them the bad impression of being a prisoner.
c. wearing detention prisoner uniform or proper attire that may identify them as detention prisoners.
d. together with their nearest kin or relative or counsel to make sure he is not abused or maltreated.
96. Does the investigator's job end upon the filing of the case with the Prosecutor's Office?
a. The investigator's job is finished upon completion of the case folder and submitting it to the prosecutor.
b. The investigator on case shall continuously monitor the case up to its final resolution.
c. The investigator has to gather other pieces of information as may be required by the court.
d. The prosecutor sometimes has to call up the investigator to help him prosecute the case.
97. Who has the responsibility of taking the dying declaration of severely injured person/s, if any at the crime scene?
a. Investigator-on-case
b. Patrol officer
c. First responder
d. Chief investigator
98. The following are requisites of a "Dying Declaration", except
a. That death is imminent and the declarant is unconscious of that fact.
b. That the declaration refers to the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death.
c. That the declaration relates to facts which the victim is competent to testify to.
d. That the declaration is offered in a case where in the declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
99. He shall make the initial assessment on whether a crime has actually been committed and shall conduct the preliminary interview
of witnesses to determine what and how the crime was committed.
a. Investigator-on-case
b. Patrol officer
c. First responder
d. Chief investigator

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 100. The First Responder (FR), upon the arrival of the IOC, shall turnover the crime scene to the duty investigator/IOC after the
former has briefed the investigator of the situation. What will the FR do?
a. The FR will go back to his usual patrol duties.
b. The FR shall stay in the crime scene to assist the IOC in the maintenance of security, crowd control, preservation of
evidence and custody of witness/suspect until such time the investigation is completed and temporarily turned over to
the Chief of Police (COP) for the continuance of crime scene security.
c. The first responder will go back to the police station.
d. The first responder will wait for further instructions from the Chief of Police.

SET 3

1. Who shall assume full responsibility over the crime scene and shall conduct a thorough assessment of the scene and inquiry
into the incident?
a. Chief of Police
b. SOCO team
c. First responder
d. Investigator-on-case
2. Who shall assume the responsibility of pursuing the investigation when the heinous case is not solved by the Special
Investigation Task Group within six (6) months and already classified as a cold case?
a. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
b. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
c. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management (DIDM)
d. The PNP Crime Laboratory Office
3. Could the Investigator-on-case (IOC) proceed with the Crime Scene Investigation (CSI) without the SOCO team?
a. No, the CSI should be conducted by the SOCO.
b. No, the CSI should be conducted jointly by the IOC and SOCO team.
c. Yes, if the IOC determines that a SOCO team is not required.
d. Yes, the IOC is always authorized to conduct CSI.
4. The SOCO team shall not enter the crime scene unless
a. the first responder has established the extent of the crime scene by putting the police line.
b. the IOC makes the official written request wherein he assures the SOCO team of his presence and support.
c. the bomb squad has declared that the area is safe from improvised explosives devices.
d. the IOC is willing to accompany them conduct the crime scene investigation.
5. What could be conducted jointly by the IOC and the SOCO Team after briefing the latter upon their arrival at the crime scene?
a. Crime scene search
b. Photographing the crime scene and lifting of latent prints.
c. The crime scene investigation
d. The preliminary crime scene survey.
6. In case the SOCO Team needs to temporarily suspend the processing of the crime scene, who is primarily responsible and
accountable for securing the crime scene and ensuring its integrity until the return of SOCO Team and the conclusion of the
CSI?
a. The investigator-on-case
b. The chief of police
c. The first responder
d. The patrol officer
7. Who shall be responsible in ensuring that all pieces of potential evidence have been collected by the SOCO Team and decide
on the lifting of the security cordon and the release of the crime scene upon consultation with the SOCO Team Leader?
a. The investigator-on-case
b. The chief of police
c. The first responder
d. The patrol officer
8. The crime scene has been permanently released to the owner by the police. Could the police re-enter into the crime scene after
its release to the owner?
a. No. The police have permanently released the crime scene to the owner.
b. No. Re-entry into the crime scene will require a Search Warrant issued by the Court.
c. No. The police should be accompanied by the National Bureau of Investigation.
d. Yes, the police have the power to re-enter the crime scene after its release to the owner.
9. The IOC shall ensure that the appropriate inventory has been provided by the SOCO Team and shall only lift the security cordon
and release the crime scene
a. on order of the Chief of Police.
b. when the necessary photographs have been taken.
c. only after completion of the documentation process.
d. if the investigation has been completed.
10. The IOC or the COP shall turn-over the crime scene to the owner of the property. How about if the crime scene is a public place,
whom could it be turned-over to?
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 a. The Mayor
b. Any local person in authority
c. The Barangay Captain
d. The owner of the place
11. Who investigates killings and violence committed against Senators, Congressmen, Governors, Cabinet Secretaries,
Undersecretaries, and SC and CA Justices?
a. The Regional DDirector as SITG Supervisor and the DRDO as SITG Comdr
b. The DRDO as SITG Supervisor and the PD or CD as SITG Comdr
c. The PDas SITG Supervisor and the COP as SITG Comdr
d. The Regional Director as SITG Supervisor and the PD or CD as SITG Comdr
12. How many days should the IOC accomplish and submit the Investigator's Report with all the required attachments to the COP?
a. Within one (1) working day from date of incidence
b. Within two (2) working days from date of incidence
c. Within three (3) working days from date of incidence
d. within one (1) day from date of receipt of the incident report.
13. How many months should every Special Investigation Task Group resolve a case?
a. Six (6) months from the commission of the crime.
b. Three (3) months from the commission of the crime.
c. Six (6) months from the time it takes cognizance of the said case.
d. Three (3) months from the time it takes cognizance of the said case.
14. In bombing cases, what should be done first by the EOD personnel prior to entry of the SOCO?
a. Investigate the person who notified the police about the bombing incident.
b. Advice SOCO of what to do.
c. Brief the team leader of the SOCO.
d. Clear the area and declared it “secured”
15. All evidence collected must be pre-cleared by the EOD prior to documentation. What should the EOD personnel do before
entering the crime scene?
a. Get clearance from SOCO
b. Receive briefing from the investigator-on-case
c. Prepare everything they needed for their investigation
d. Submit to the SOCO for swabbing
16. In suspected or reported chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear (CBRN) situations, before the conduct of the crime scene
investigation, shall directly coordinate with the ___.
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. PNP Crime Investigation and Detection Group
c. PNP Crime Laboratory Office
d. Special Rescue Team of the Bureau of Fire and Protection.
17. In mass victim situation, who shall act as the FR to the Interim Disaster Victim Identification Task Group (IDVITG) of the PNP
Crime Laboratory that shall immediately assess the forensic specialists needed to be deployed at the crime and relay the
requirements to the PNP Crime Laboratory Headquarters?
a. The local police station concerned
b. The regional/district SOCO
c. The National Bureau of Investigation
d. The PNP Criminal Investigation and Detection Group.
18. Does the SOCO have motu propio authority to direct all the operating units involved in the police operation to submit their
respective personnel for forensic examination; their service firearms or ballistics test; and other pieces of evidence involved?
a. Yes, to determine whether there were lapses committed by the police during the police operation.
b. Yes, to establish the identity of those who participated in the commission of the crime.
c. Yes, to expedite the investigation of the case.
d. No, all PNP units are not under control by SOCO.
19. Considering the instability of the situation, the safety of the responders and persons found at the scene of the crime; and the
preservation of the place of incident, the venue of the processing, debriefing and investigation shall be at ____.
a. The nearest police station
b. A neutral and secured place
c. The office of the Barangay Captain
d. A secured public place.
20. The following procedure shall be followed during a hostage situation, EXCEPT ____
a. Crisis Management Task Group shall be deactivated immediately.
b. Incident scene shall be secured and isolated.
c. Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident scene.
d. Witnesses’ names, address, and other information shall be recorded. Witness shall be directed to safe location.
21. Who shall spearhead and coordinate the investigative and prosecutorial efforts of the PNP to facilitate the speedy resolution
and successful prosecution of heinous/sensational cases include the conviction of the perpetrators?
a. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
b. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Directorate for Investigation and Detective Management
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 d. The Special Investigation Task Group
22. When does the investigation of heinous or sensational crimes start?
a. It starts when all pieces of evidence were collected from the crime scene.
b. From the arrival of the Investigator-on-case on the ground.
c. From the arrival of the FR on the ground.
d. When the suspect, victim or witnesses are brought to the police station for questioning.
23. The On Scene Command Post (OSCP) shall be utilized by the SITG to conduct on-scene or on-the-ground investigation.The
tent or van of the OSCP shall be marked appropriately as "PNP On-Scene Command Post” and shall also be posted with the
mobile Phone or contact numbers of the SITG Commander, Assistant Commander and the Investigator-On-Case. The OSCP
shall be maintained for as long as necessary. Who has the power to deactivate or transfer an OSCP?
a. The Chief PNP
b. The Regional Director
c. The Provincial Director
d. The Chief of Police
24. What could be utilized as alternate On Scene Command Post (OSCP) of the Special Investigation Task Group (SITG)?
a. The PNP Provincial Office which has jurisdiction over the area
b. The Police Station which has jurisdiction over the area
c. The local Municipal Office
d. The office of the Barangay Captain
25. In case the investigator-on-case is dismissed or retired or separated from the service, who shall be responsible for the court
presentation of heinous or sensational cases?
a. SITG Commander
b. The Chief of Police
c. The new Investigator-on-case
d. All remaining members of the investigation team
26. The extension of the SITG can be considered based on the manifestation of the Regional Director to TDIDM (Attn: C, CMD) as
a result of his/her evaluation that the case could be resolved in a certain period of time, but in no case shall this exceed
a. Six (6) months
b. one (1) month
c. Three (3) months
d. Two (2) months
27. What happens to the case if the Special Investigation Task Group (SITG) fails to resolve the heinous or sensational case within
six (6) months or after the extension?
a. The case folder will be turned over to the National Bureau of Investigation for them to gather more pieces of evidence
for the re-filing of the case.
b. The case folder will be turned over to the Police Station's Chief Investigator for him to gather more pieces of evidence
for the re-filing of the case.
c. The case will be considered a "cold case"
d. The case could not be filed anymore.
28. The Chain of custody of evidence must be strictly observed. For the continuation of the investigation, all the records of cold
cases and cleared cases including the pieces of evidence gathered shall be officially/turned over to the ___.
a. The Chief, investigation division
b. The National Bureau of Investigation
c. Regional Criminal Investigation and Detection Unit (RCIDU), CIDG in the respective PROS
d. Chief of Police of the local police in the area
29. The involvement of PNP personnel during strikes, lockouts and labor disputes in general shall be limited to the following,
EXCEPT
a. maintenance of peace and order.
b. enforcement of laws.
c. implementation of legal orders of the duly constituted authorities.
d. arrest of law violators.
30. Except in cases of actual violence when the police can immediately respond, what is needed so that the PNP could render
assistance to labor disputes?
a. A written request addressed to the Chief of Police concerned.
b. A written request addressed to the Provincial Director concerned.
c. A written request addressed to the Regional Director/District Director concerned.
d. A written request addressed to the Chief PNP.
31. When is a PNP personnel not allowed to render police assistance in connection with a strike or lockout?
a. When there is question or complaint as regards his relationship by affinity or consanguinity to any official/leader of the
parties in the controversy or if he has financial or pecuniary interest therein.
b. When there is no written request from the organizers or leaders of the public assembly for the police officer to render
police assistance.
c. When the police officer is not assigned in the police station that has jurisdiction of the area where the strike or lockout
happened.
d. When the police officer is not ordered by his supervisor or superior officer to respond.

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 32. PNP personnel, in dealing with strikers or rallyists, shall exercise maximum tolerance and when called for by the situation or
when all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted, police officers may
a. fire warning shots in order to control the strikers and rallyists.
b. point the muzzles of their issued firearms in order to put the strikers under arrest.
c. use tear gas, smoke grenades, stun gun and water cannons in order for the strikers and rallyists to submit.
d. employ such means as may be necessary and reasonable to prevent or repel an aggression.
33. PNP personnel should not interfere in a strike, picket or lockout, except as provided. Who will determine whether a strike, picket
or lockout is legal or illegal?
a. Department of Justice.
b. The courts
c. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE) and its appropriate agencies.
d. National Police Commission
34. Could personal escort be provided to any of the parties to the controversy in a strike or lockout?
a. Yes, on order by the Chief of Police concerned.
b. Yes, upon written request from DOLE and the other party shall be informed accordingly.
c. Yes, on order by the courts.
d. No. Escorts are not allowed for the police to maintain their impartiality.
35. Why should liaison be established and maintained with the representatives of DOLE, management and the union in the
strike/lockout area?
a. Liaison officer need to be informed of everything so that managers will know what decisions to make.
b. The liaison officers could solve problems between management and labor unions.
c. For the maintenance of peace and order, as well as to maintain a continuing peaceful dialogue between the parties to
the strike/lockout.
d. So that necessary information could be immediately transmitted.
36. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in such manner
that their presence may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either side. What is the distance of
the members of the peacekeeping detail to the picket line?
a. 50 feet
b. 50 meters
c. 100 feet
d. 100 meters
37. How about in cases where in the distance includes a public thoroughfare, what should the police do?
a. They may position themselves ten (10) meters away
b. They may station themselves in such public thoroughfare to ensure the free flow of traffic.
c. They should not be very near or very far from the picket line so that they could observe what is going on and can
respond immediately in cases of violence.
d. The police should ask help from the Highway Patrol Group for them to maintain order in the public thoroughfare.
38. The pertinent provisions of the Public Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa Blg. 880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as
amended and other applicable laws, shall be observed during rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public assemblies. Law
enforcement agents shall, at all times observe the following, except
a. Exercise maximum tolerance
b. In case of unlawful aggression, only reasonable force may be employed to prevent or repel it
c. The employment of tear gas and water cannons shall be made under the control and supervision of the Station
Commander.
d. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or participant shall be made during the public assembly, unless he/she violates any
pertinent law as evidence warrants.

39. What is the role of the PNP in the service of lawful orders or writs?
a. The PNP, for security reasons, shall implement or execute the order or writ.
b. The role of the PNP is only supportive. They only enforce such orders or writs when specifically stated and requested
in the order or writ.
c. The PNP and the office that issued the order or writ, shall jointly implement or execute the order or writ.
d. The PNP shall not, in any way, meddle in the implementation or execution of the order or writ.
40. Personnel of the PNP should
a. bring in any individual who seeks to replace strikers.
b. introduce or escort in any manner, any individual who enters or leaves the premises of the strike area.
c. work in replacement of the strikers.
d. use reasonable and necessary force.
41. The PNP adheres to the Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations
which requires
a. law enforcement officials to respect and protect human dignity
b. maintain and uphold the human rights of all persons
c. limit the use of force to situations where it is strictly necessary and to the extent required for the performance of their
duty.
d. All of the above.

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 42. Lightning demonstrations or rallies in areas where public assembly is prohibited shall be dispersed peacefully. However, should
any of the participants refuse to disperse voluntarily or violate any law or ordinance during an unauthorized public assembly;
they shall
a. be sternly warned that a repetition of the same will be dealt with more severely.
b. by all means, be dispersed in order to maintain public order and security in the place.
c. be taken into police custody and be charged accordingly.
d. be given an ultimatum of two (2) hours to disperse by themselves, and after the lapse of the two-hour period, they shall
be dispersed, if they did not do so.
43. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a permit for the holding of the public assembly?
a. Chief of Police
b. DOLE
c. Ground Commander
d. The PNP Provincial Director
44. What should the police do when they were told by the organizers of a public assembly that they do not have in possession the
permit for the holding of the public assembly, but they have filed an application with the office of the Mayor?
a. They should disperse the public assembly immediately because they do not have a permit when a permit is necessary.
b. Coordinate with the mayor or his representative whether an application has been filed. Ask the mayor whether the rally
shall continue or not.
c. The ranking police officer shall decide whether the public assembly should continue or not.
d. Go out from the place because their presence is not needed.
45. Violators of the law during rallies and demonstrations shall be apprehended and brought to the nearest Police Station for proper
disposition. What should be exercised by the police in the conduct of dispersal operations?
a. Maximum force
b. Maximum civility
c. Maximum tolerance
d. Maximum power
46. What is the rank of the police officer who heads the Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) contingent?
a. Preferably Police Captain
b. Police Lieutenant
c. Police Colonel
d. Police Executive Master Seargent
47. 47. What is the distance of the police contingent from the area of activity of the public assembly?
a. At least 50 meters
b. At least 100 meters
c. At least 50 feet
d. At least 100 feet
48. Which of the following public assemblies, without a permit, should be dispersed?
a. Public assemblies held in freedom parks
b. Public assemblies held on private property
c. Public assemblies held in public places
d. Public assemblies on private roads.
49. When shall the PNP provide police assistance for the maintenance of peace and order or to ensure the safety of those
participating in the public assemblies held in freedom parks or on private property?
a. At the onset of the public assembly.
b. Only when requested by the leaders or organizers.
c. As directed by the Chief of Police.
d. The PNP should not provide police assistance any way the public assembly is conducted in a freedom park or on a
private property.
50. Who issues the permit for the holding of a public assembly?
a. The governor of the province exercising jurisdiction over the place where it will be held.
b. The mayor of the city or municipality exercising jurisdiction over the place where it will be held.
c. The Barangay Captain of the barangay exercising jurisdiction over the place where it will be held.
d. The Chief of Police
51. May a public assembly held with or without a permit be peacefully dispersed?
a. A public assembly held with or without a permit may be peacefully dispersed if the rallyists taunt the police.
b. A public assembly held with or without a permit may be dispersed at all cost.
c. A public assembly with a permit may be dispersed if the same is being held in violation of the terms and conditions
imposed in the permit.
d. A public assembly held with or without a permit may not be dispersed.
52. In case the police decided to disperse the public assembly, what should they do first before the dispersal operation?
a. The PNP shall notify the concerned organizers and leaders of the public assembly.
b. The PNP shall wait for the arrival of the Bureau of Fire Protection with their fire truck.
c. The PNP shall conduct a dry run to ensure the success of the dispersal operation.
d. Invite the media, NGOs and barangay officials to witnesses in order to maintain transparency in the conduct of the
dispersal operation.

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 53. Who investigates killings and violence committed against Vice Governors, Provincial Board Members, Mayors, Vice Mayors,
Judges, Prosecutors & IBP lawyers, militants, media practitioners, and foreign nationals?
a. The Regional Director as SITG Supervisor and the DRDO as SITG Comdr
b. The DRDO as SITG Supervisor and the PD or CD as SITG Comdr
c. The PD as SITG Supervisor and the COP as SITG Comdr
d. The Regional Director as SITG Supervisor and the PD or CD as SITG Comdr
54. Should the SOCO Team join any operations conducted by the local police or accompany the First Responders or the IOC in
going to the crime scene?
a. Yes. It is their mandate.
b. Yes, but they will only be accompanied by the IOC in order not to contaminate the crime scene.
c. Yes, after they are properly briefed by the first responder.
d. No. They will only respond upon request through the Operations Center and after the IOC has already made the proper
assessment of the crime scene.
55. The CDM contingent shall be in prescribed uniform
a. with their issued service firearm.
b. without firearm.
c. preferably the field service uniform or black fatigue.
d. without name plate or name patch for the security of the police officers.
56. When shall tear gas, smoke grenades, water cannons, or any similar anti-riot device be used?
a. When the public assembly is not conducted in the proper manner.
b. When the public assembly is attended by suspicious-looking individuals.
c. Only when the public assembly is attended by actual violence or serious threats of violence, or deliberate destruction
of property.
d. When some items are thrown at the police.
57. Should not all public assemblies with permits be dispersed?
a. No. The police could decide whether to disperse the public assembly or not.
b. No, when an assembly becomes violent, the police may disperse such public assembly.
c. Yes, the police should not disperse public assemblies with permits because they are legal.
d. Yes, the police should instead join the public assembly in order to establish police community relations and win the
hearts and minds of the people.
58. At the first sign of impending violence during a public assembly, the Ground Commander of the PNP contingent shall
a. arrest the leaders or organizers of the public assembly.
b. audibly issue a warning to the participants of the public assembly, and after allowing a reasonable period of time to
lapse, he shall immediately order it to disperse.
c. audibly warn the participants that if the disturbance persists, the public assembly will be dispersed.
d. call the attention of the leaders of the public assembly and ask the latter to prevent any possible disturbance.
59. If actual violence reaches a point where rocks or other harmful objects from the participants are thrown at the police officers or
at the non-participants, or at any property, causing damage to it, the Ground Commander of the PNP contingent shall
a. arrest the leaders or organizers of the public assembly.
b. audibly issue a warning to the participants of the public assembly, and after allowing a reasonable period of time to
lapse, he shall immediately order it to disperse.
c. audibly warn the participants that if the disturbance persists, the public assembly will be dispersed.
d. call the attention of the leaders of the public assembly and ask the latter to prevent any possible disturbance.
60. If the violence or disturbance does not stop, the Ground Commander of the PNP contingent shall
a. arrest the leaders or organizers of the public assembly.
b. audibly issue a warning to the participants of the public assembly, and after allowing a reasonable period of time to
lapse, he shall immediately order it to disperse.
c. audibly warn the participants that if the disturbance persists, the public assembly will be dispersed.
d. call the attention of the leaders of the public assembly and ask the latter to prevent any possible disturbance.
61. Should not any leader, organizer or participant in a public assembly be arrested?
a. No, the leaders, who usually violate during the public assembly, should be arrested.
b. Yes, leaders, organizers or participants to a public assembly with a valid permit should not be arrested.
c. Yes, unless he violates a law, statute, or ordinance during the assembly.
d. Yes, nobody should be arrested during a public assembly as it is one of the constitutional rights of Filipinos.
62. It shall be prohibited for a police officer to commit the following acts during peaceful assembly committed within one hundred
(100) meters from the area of activity of the public assembly, except
a. The carrying of a deadly or offensive weapon or device such as firearm, pillbox, bomb, and the like.
b. The carrying of a bladed weapon.
c. The malicious burning of any object in the streets or thoroughfares.
d. Not carrying of firearms by CDM contingents.
e. The interfering with or intentionally disturbing them holding of a public assembly by the use of a motor vehicle, its horns
and loud sound systems.
f. The drinking of liquor or alcoholic beverages; and Gambling of any kind.
63. The PNP CDM contingent monitors the activities at the public assembly area and responds to any request for police assistance.
For public assembly without permits where a permit is required, the PNP shall exhaust all peaceful remedies to persuade the

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 demonstrators to disperse. This may include the involvement of Local Chief Executives /community leaders when available to
intervene in the situation so that dispersal operations could be avoided. These are done during the
a. Planning Stage
b. Confrontational Stage
c. Peaceful Stage
d. Violent Stage
64. Should negotiation fail and the demonstrators refuse to disperse voluntarily and peacefully, thereby causing public
inconvenience, CDM contingents may
a. arrest the leaders or organizers.
b. utilize water cannons to disperse the demonstrators.
c. hit the organizers and leaders with stun gun in order to control them and put them under arrest.
d. commence dispersal operations.
65. The PNP CDM contingent initiates dialogue with the leaders/organizers to ensure the peaceful holding of a public assembly,
including among others, the detail of police escort and prepares appropriate security and CDM contingency plans. These are
done during the
a. Planning Stage
b. Confrontational Stage
c. Peaceful Stage
d. Violent Stage
66. At the first sign of an impending violence during a public assembly, the Ground Commander shall
a. arrest the leaders or organizers.
b. utilize water cannons to disperse the demonstrators.
c. commence dispersal operations.
d. call the attention of the leaders/organizers of the public assembly and ask the latter to prevent any possible disturbance.
67. Why is it necessary for the CDM contingents to hold the line?
a. It will be easier for the contingent to arrest violators.
b. To prevent demonstrators from proceeding to other areas where the holding of a public assembly is prohibited.
c. Demonstrators have the tendency to go anywhere and could destroy private and public properties.
d. Holding the line is important in order to protect the VIP from attack by the demonstrators.
68. If actual violence reaches a point where rocks or other harmful objects from the participants are thrown at the CDM contingents
or the nonparticipants, or at any property causing damage to it, the Ground Commander shall
a. use non-lethal weapons to suppress violence, to protect lives and prevent further damage to properties.
b. tactically deploy PNP security elements to provide immediate assistance to the CDM contingents.
c. withdraw the CDM contingents.
d. audibly warn the participants that if the disturbance persists, the public assembly will be dispersed.
69. If the violence or disturbance does not stop, the Ground Commander shall audibly issue a warning to the participants of the
public assembly, and after allowing a reasonable period of time to lapse, shall
a. use non-lethal weapons to suppress violence, to protect lives and prevent further damage to properties.
b. tactically deploy PNP security elements to provide immediate assistance to the CDM contingents.
c. withdraw the CDM contingents.
d. immediately order it to disperse.
70. What could use in order to disband the rank of the demonstrators, contain or isolate them from each other and prevent them
from regrouping?
a. Shields and truncheons c. CDM formations
b. Water cannons and tear gas
c. CDM formations
d. Stun guns
71. Reserve CDM contingents may be employed when situation requires. When may water cannons and riot sticks be used during
a public assembly?
a. Water cannons and riot sticks may be used in lieu of tear gas and stun guns.
b. To repel aggression and to disperse demonstrators.
c. To frighten the demonstrators not to violate during the public assembly.
d. Water from the septic tank used against violent demonstrators is one good way of teaching the people not to join rallies
and demonstrations.
72. CDM contingents shall be withdrawn after the area has been cleared of possible danger to public safety. Should sufficient police
force be maintained in the area?
a. No. There is no use as the area has been already cleared of possible danger to public safety.
b. No. The area should be left to the barangay officials with their BPATs.
c. Yes, to ensure peace and order.
d. Yes, but only one police officer should stay behind in order to monitor the area.
73. Should not public assembly with permit or one held in a freedom park or private property be dispersed?
a. No public assembly may be held in a public place.
b. A freedom park should not be occupied by any certain group of people only at any given day and time because it is for
the public.
c. Yes, as long as it remains peaceful and no incidence of violence occurs.
d. Yes, for as long as the leaders, organizers and participants adhere to what was agreed upon.
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 74. During the confrontational stage, what is the use of the truncheon or baton?
a. An instrument to strike individuals who don't like to obey.
b. It may be utilized only to push back demonstrators, but when demonstrators become aggressive, truncheon shall be
the principal non-lethal weapon for dispersal.
c. May be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary
positions.
d. May be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and who refuse
to disperse despite earlier efforts.
75. Whenever the police decide to utilize water cannons, when should they do it?
a. An instrument to strike individuals who don't like to obey.
b. It may be utilized only to push back demonstrators, but when demonstrators become aggressive, truncheon shall be
the principal non-lethal weapon for dispersal.
c. May be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary
positions.
d. May be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and who refuse
to disperse despite earlier efforts.
76. When may tear gas and pepper spray be utilized?
a. An instrument to strike individuals who don't like to obey.
b. It may be utilized only to push back demonstrators, but when demonstrators become aggressive, truncheon shall be
the principal non-lethal weapon for dispersal.
c. May be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary
positions.
d. May be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and who refuse
to disperse despite earlier efforts.
77. The following are Guidelines in dealing with Assemblies, Rallies, Demonstrations and Marches, except
a. There shall always be a designated Ground Commander at the rally site.
b. Apply fast dispersal technique whenever it is applicable. Take the ground immediately.
c. Ground Commander shall refrain from using water cannon and tear gas as much as possible.
d. If necessary, provide a medical team to extend assistance.
e. All CDM operations shall be properly documented with video and photo coverage.
f. Respect for human rights and equal treatment and protection for everybody shall be strictly observed.
78. During lightning rallies or demonstrations, what should the Ground Commander do?
a. Use non-lethal weapons to suppress violence, to protect lives and prevent further damage to properties.
b. Tactically deploy PNP security elements to provide immediate assistance to the CDM contingents.
c. Audibly warn the participants that if the disturbance persists, the public assembly will be dispersed.
d. Exhaust efforts through dialogue with the leaders/organizers for voluntary dispersal.
79. The CDM contingent shall not carry any kind of firearms but may be equipped with
a. baton or riot sticks, crash helmets with visor and cal.38 revolver.
b. baton or riot sticks, crash helmets with visor, gas masks, boots or ankle-high shoes with shin guards.
c. baton or riot sticks, crash helmets with visor and jungle knives.
d. any kind of weapon in order to defend themselves, when necessary.
80. Maximum tolerance shall always be observed. When shall tear gas, smoke grenades, water cannons, or any similar anti-riot
device be used?
a. When the demonstrators too noisy.
b. When rocks or other materials are thrown by the demonstrators.
c. Tear gas, smoke grenade and water cannons are necessary in order for the police to maintain maximum tolerance.
d. When the public assembly is attended by actual violence or serious threats of violence, or deliberate destruction of
property.
81. The commitment of a CDM contingent must be viewed as a last resort. Their role, therefore, should never be greater than what
is necessary under the circumstances. This does not mean though that the number of troops employed should be minimized.
Why is it that doubts concerning the number of troops required should normally be resolved in favor of deployment of large
number?
a. A large number of PNP troops could demoralize the demonstrators not to commit violations during the rally.
b. PNP personnel perform better when they are more in number.
c. The presence of such large number may prevent the development of situations in which the use of excessive force
would be necessary.
d. A large number of troops is necessary should dispersal operation is required.
82. In selecting an operational approach to a civil disturbance situation, the Ground Commander and his personnel must
a. verbally threaten the demonstrators so that an actual dispersal operation could be avoided.
b. stick to the "minimum necessary force” principle.
c. not, in any manner, harm or injure the demonstrators.
d. adhere to the maximum force principle.
83. Efforts should be exerted to create the image of a restrained and well-disciplined force, the sole purpose of which is to assist in
the restoration of law and order. Further, while CDM contingent should be visible, any activity which might
a. excite rather than calm should be avoided when possible.
b. excite rather than calm should be absolutely avoided.
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 c. help the demonstrators come to their proper senses should be avoided.
d. cause the demonstrators to identify the CDM contingents should be absolutely avoided.
84. In situations requiring the use of baton/ truncheons, could the PNP CDM contingent hit protesters with the baton or truncheon
on the head, face, neck, shoulders blades, elbows, fingers, groins, knees, and ankles?
a. Truncheons should not be used with caution and due diligence to avoid unnecessary injury.
b. Yes, sometimes the police cannot avoid hitting protesters on any parts of their bodies.
c. No, since strikes to this part may cause serious to permanent injuries, or even death.
d. The police cannot choose which part of the body of the protester to hit because it is very different on the ground.
85. Protesters that are arrested must be properly restrained/handcuffed using scientific control methods; and thereafter, brought
safely to the police station for processing. Arrested protesters must
a. be sent home after twelve (12) hours since what they have committed is a slight offense.
b. not be kicked, punched, or dragged by hair or feet.
c. be handled with a tender loving care.
d. not join future public assemblies, or else they will be re-arrested and put behind bars.
86. During police operations, what part of the body of the subject could a police officer target to hit with a baton or truncheon?
a. The hands, in order that the subject cannot do something to harm or injure the police officer.
b. The feet so that the subject will not run away, but instead surrender.
c. The fleshy part of the body such as arms, torso, legs, and thighs.
d. The buttocks since it is the fleshiest part of the body to make sure the subject will not be subjected to unnecessary
harm or injury.
87. Could female police officers be deployed for civil disturbance management operations?
a. Male police personnel should only be deployed for CDM operations considering the nature of the operation.
b. Deploy properly trained and equipped female CDM personnel as front-liners, when appropriate.
c. Female police personnel could be deployed during CDM operations for police community relations purposes only.
d. CDM operations necessitate the deployment of properly trained PNP personnel.
88. Police assistance in the enforcement or implementation of a demolition or ejectment order shall be granted only upon the
following, EXCEPT
a. A verbal request of the Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi-judicial and administrative bodies.
b. A valid order issued by a competent court, quasi-judicial or administrative body.
c. When required, with written permission from the Local Housing Board.
d. Said police assistance shall be coordinated with the concerned local Chief Executive before its enforcement.
89. What is mandatory before a demolition involving informal settlers be effected?
a. The informal settlers are assigned relocation sites.
b. A pre-demolition conference being conducted between and among the parties involved.
c. The informal settlers are given land titles.
d. The informal settlers are properly advised of what to do.
90. The duties of PNP personnel in any demolition or ejectment activity shall be limited to the following, except
a. The maintenance of peace and order
b. The protection of life and property
c. The enforcement of laws and legal orders
d. The arrest of law violators.
91. PNP personnel tasked to provide police assistance during a demolition shall not
a. be in prescribed uniform during the actual demolition.
b. be limited only to occupying the first line of law enforcement and civil disturbance control.
c. participate in the physical dismantling of any structure subject of demolition.
d. use only necessary and reasonable force.
92. As much as practicable, who should lead the PNP contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff or equivalent officer during the
demolition/ejectment activity?
a. A police commissioned officer with preferably the rank of Police Senior Inspector.
b. A police commissioned officer with at least the rank of Police Senior Inspector.
c. The Chief of Police (COP)
d. The PNP Provincial Director
93. During a demolition activity, when could the police used tear gas, water cannon, and other reasonable force?
a. When rocks or other materials are thrown by the demonstrators.
b. Tear gas, smoke grenade and water cannons are necessary in order for the police to maintain maximum tolerance.
c. When the public assembly is attended by actual violence or serious threats of violence, or deliberate destruction of
property.
d. When all other peaceful and non-violent means have been exhausted.
94. In case the final decision or order to be implemented is rendered by the Supreme Court, the Court of Appeals, the Court of Tax
Appeals, the Sandiganbayan, quasi-judicial bodies or administrative bodies. The request for police assistance shall be submitted
to
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director having territorial jurisdiction over the place.
c. The Office of the Regional Director of the Police Regional Office (RD, PRO) having territorial jurisdiction over the place.
d. The Office of the Chief, PNP

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 95. If the final decision or order is rendered by the Regional Trial Court or the Municipal Trial Court, the request shall be submitted
to
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director having territorial jurisdiction over the place.
c. The Office of the Regional Director of the Police Regional Office (RD, PRO) having territorial jurisdiction over the place.
d. The Office of the Chief, PNP
96. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions/orders/writs shall be acted only, upon compliance of the
following conditions: except
a. The request for police assistance is based on an order of the court, quasi-judicial or administrative bodies.
b. The written request for police assistance shall b signed by the Sheriff or equivalent officer in quasi-judicial or
administrative bodies.
c. The request is filed at least five (5) working day after to the actual implementation.
d. The original document of the final decision/order/resolution must be presented. In the absence of the same, a copy
duly authenticated by the Clerk of Court or other authorized representative of the court quasi-judicial or administrative
body will suffice.
97. If the request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions/orders/writs satisfies all the requirements and unless
a specific period is written in the order or due to inherent impossibility of rendering assistance in which a longer period is required,
police assistance shall be rendered within
a. Three (3) working days from filing with the Office of the C, PNP or RD, PRO.
b. Three (3) working days from receipt of the directive from the C, PNP or RD, PRO.
c. Five (5) working days from filing with the Office of the C, PNP or RD, PRO.
d. Five (5) working days from receipt of the directive from the C, PNP or RD, PRO.
98. Who will be tasked by the Chief, PNP, on recommendation by the Director for Operations, to render police assistance in the
implementation of final decisions/orders/writs?
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
c. The PNP Regional Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
d. Any operational support unit of the PNP or the PRO that has jurisdiction over the area.
99. In case of direct filing or request to local police units or operational support units, the request shall be
a. acted upon immediately by the Chief of Police or the Provincial or Regional Officer of the support unit, and inform
higher headquarters of the whatever development.
b. referred to the OCPNP or RD, PRO, as appropriate, and in the meantime, no police assistance shall be rendered until
the C, PNP or RD, PRO shall have acted on the request.
c. refused because the request should not be submitted to them.
d. taken and submitted to OCPNP or RD, PRO, as appropriate.
100. PNP personnel shall observe maximum tolerance and respect for individual rights at all times. Dialogue with those who may be
affected by the implementation of the decision/order/resolution is encouraged to prevent violence, and the assistance of local
public officials, when warranted, should be requested. Who has the final disposition whether to proceed with the implementation
of the decision/order/resolution or not?
a. The Judge
b. The CPNP
c. The Ground Commander
d. The Sheriff or the equivalent officer of quasi-judicial or administrative bodies.

SET 4

1. For police assistance in the implementation of final decisions/orders/writs, the role of the PNP shall not include
a. the maintenance of peace and order, crowd control.
b. the security of the Sheriff or equivalent officer of quasi-judicial or administrative body.
c. the dismantling, hauling of personal property and other analogous acts.
d. the use of reasonable force that shall only be resorted to forself-defense and defense of strangers.
2. For police assistance in the implementation of final decisions or orders or resolutions of the COMELEC or DILG or local
government unit, who will approve the clearance to render police assistance?
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
c. The PNP Regional Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
d. The C, PNP
3. Who will approve the request for police assistance, regardless of the place of execution, in the implementation of the
Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program?
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
c. The PNP Regional Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
d. The C, PNP
4. The role of the PNP when rendering police assistance in the implementation of the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program
shall not include
a. maintenance of peace and order, crowd control
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 b. the security of the duly authorized officer of the DAR.
c. the actual implementation of the decision/order/resolution or in the conduct of any of the preliminary agrarian activities.
d. the exercise utmost impartiality and neutrality in effecting its role.
5. When the DAR personnel are refused admittance into the property, could the PNP personnel encroach on the property by
themselves?
a. No. They cannot do it without an order from the DAR specifically for the purpose.
b. No. They have to secure a search warrant from the court.
c. No. They have to ask permission from their COP because of the doctrine of Command Responsibility.
d. Yes. They have the police power.
6. Request for police assistance in the implementation of Decisions/Orders issued by the court, quasi-judicial or administrative
bodies that are immediately executory shall be approved for implantation by
a. The Chief of Police concerned.
b. The PNP Provincial Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
c. The PNP Regional Director who has jurisdiction over the area.
d. The C, PNP
7. In a hostage situation, what should be done first?
a. A Critical Incident Management Committee shall be activated immediately.
b. Incident scene shall be secured and isolated.
c. Identify and secure the stronghold.
d. Unauthorized persons shall not be allowed entry and exit to the incident scene.
e. Witnesses' names, addresses, and other information shall be recorded.
f. Witnesses shall be directed to a safe location.
g. Evacuate all victims/injured persons immediately when the opportunity permits.
8. Why is it that as much as possible, the police, in a hostage situation, should ensure the control of communication lines, and cut-
off all other lines as well as electricity and water supply?
a. To force the hostage taker to release his hostage and surrender.
b. To allow for more bargaining
c. Communication lines should be controlled by the police so that they could learn whatever information relayed to the
hostage taker.
d. To deprive the hostage taker of the use of these services.
9. In a hostage situation, what shall be the last paramount concern?
a. The safe release of the hostage.
b. The arrest of the hostage.
c. The arrest of the perpetrator.
d. The immediate solution of the conflict.
10. What should be conducted by the police immediately after the conclusion of the hostage incident or any police operation?
a. Debriefing
b. Roll call
c. Briefing
d. Rank inspection
11. There shall be only one Ground Commander/On-Scene Commander during a hostage situation. Who should be the ground
commander/on scene commander?
a. A PCO with the rank of Police Captain.
b. At least a senior rank and/or one (1) with experience in hostage/crisis situation or relative training.
c. A PCO preferably with the rank of Police Captain
d. Police Executive Master Sergeant
12. In a hostage situation, who may issue appropriate press statements?
a. The ground commander
b. The spokesperson designated by the ground commander
c. The ground commander or the designated spokesperson
d. The police information officer
13. The Negotiation Team is directly under control and be designated by the Ground Commander. No one shall be allowed to talk
to the hostage taker
a. without authority.
b. if not told to so.
c. without clearance from the ground commander.
d. without clearance from the negotiator or ground commander.
14. They shall wear authorized and easily recognizable uniform during the conduct of the operation and shall be alerted for
deployment in case the negotiation fails.
a. Ground commander
b. Assault team
c. Negotiators
d. Support personnel
15. Is proper coordination with all participating elements in a hostage situation important?
a. Yes. The crisis could not be solved without proper coordination.
b. Yes, in order to consolidate efforts in solving the crisis.
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 c. No. Sometimes coordination will even destroy the operation especially when some of the police officers who have
come to know about the operation are corrupt.
d. Coordination is a must, especially in hostage situations.
16. What is always paramount while in the process of negotiating for the release of a hostage?
a. The safety of the hostage taker
b. The safety of the police officers
c. The safety of the hostage
d. The surrender or arrest of the hostage taker
17. The following are guidelines in hostage negotiation, except
a. Situation must be stabilized first and contained before the start of the negotiation.
b. All relevant tools and information that can strengthen a negotiator's position and create a favorable climate for a
successful negotiation must be prepared e.g. facts relevant to the situation, financial and non-financial terms, issues
and concerns, etc.
c. Police officers without proper training could be allowed to participate in hostage negotiations.
d. Whatever the scale of an incident and the extent of resources deployed, it is essential that proper liaison exist between
Tactical/Assault Team, Technica Support Team and the Negotiation Team.
e. All activities on the scene, even the delivery of food to the stronghold, must have tactical coordination with the
NTL/Coordinator.
18. Could the police introduce outsiders (non-law enforcement officers) into the negotiation process?
a. No, the outsiders might muddle up the situation.
b. No, non-law enforcement officers usually do not have the proper training.
c. Yes, but they should be under direct and strict supervision by the ground commander.
d. Yes, when their presence is extremely necessary in the solution of the crisis and if introduced, they shall be properly
advised on the do's and don'ts of hostage negotiations.
19. In case the negotiator breaks down or he/she finds himself/herself in a deadlock, what is recommended?
a. Coordinate to the assault team to take charge of the situation, and pull the trigger, if necessary.
b. Employ the service of a mediator.
c. Change the negotiator with another more skillful negotiator.
d. The ground commander now takes charge.
20. He will act as a referee, helping the negotiators resolve their differences, and he must be well-versed about the issues in order
to be able to eventually recommend an effective solution.
a. The ground commander
b. The chief or primary negotiator
c. The mediator
d. The psychologist
21. Who shall conduct a timely, thorough and comprehensive investigation of all cases involving violence against women and their
children, committed within their respective area of responsibility, consistent with domestic laws, rules and regulations, and
international human rights standards?
a. The PNP Women and Children Protection Desks (WCPD)
b. The Local Social Welfare Development Office (LSWDO)
c. The Local Social Welfare Development Office (LSWDO) in coordination with the PNNP Women and Children Protection
Desks (WCPD)
d. The PNP Women and Children Protection Desks (WCPD) in coordination with the Local Social Welfare Development
Office (LSWDO),
22. Who are referred to as children as defined under Republic Act No.7610?
a. Those below twelve (12) years of age or older but are incapable of taking care of themselves
b. Those below fifteen (15) years of age or older but are incapable of taking care of themselves
c. Those below eighteen (18) years of age or older but are incapable of taking care of themselves
d. Persons who are imbecile.
23. In the phrase, "women and their children", who are the children of these women?
a. The biological children of the victim woman.
b. The term includes the biological children of the victim woman and other children under her care.
c. All the children living inside the woman-victim's house
d. The biological children and grandchildren of the woman victim.
24. Immediately after taking the essential elements of information during the course of investigation, the WCPD officer shall
a. refer the victim-survivor to the local DSWD.
b. refer the victim-survivor to her parents, relatives or guardian.
c. refer the victim-survivor to the nearest PNP Crime Laboratory and/or hospital or any medical facilities for appropriate
medico-legal examination.
d. file the case with the Prosecutor's office.
25. It shall be the WCPD officer’s duty to ensure that as far as possible, the examining physician must___.
a. be a woman physician.
b. be a registered medical doctor.
c. be of the same gender as the victim-survivor, especially in sexual violence cases.
d. treat the victim survivor with utmost sensitivity.
26. The WCPD officer shall ensure the confidentiality of identity with the case under investigation. For this purpose, he must
31 | P a g e
 a. maintain a separate blotter on crimes committed under the Act.
b. allow media access to information concerning VAWC reported to PNP.
c. allow unauthorized persons inside a room where police investigation as well as the medical/physical examination are
being conducted.
d. ensure that only facts, not opinions, are given to the media.
27. After the conduct of police investigation, the WCPD officer shall refer the victim-survivor to the social worker of the LGU, any
available DSWD shelters, NGOs and other service providers for
a. further documentation.
b. psycho-social intervention and other rehabilitation programs.
c. medical and physical examination.
d. whatever help these agencies could extend to the child survivor.
28. What is the purpose the WCPD officer shall forward the investigation report, together with the relevant evidence, including the
formal statements of witnesses and result of medico-legal examination, to the prosecutor?
a. For review and assessment
b. For further study and evaluation.
c. For filing of appropriate criminal action under the Act.
d. The prosecutor might see liabilities of the WPCD officers who handled the case of the victim survivor,
29. If victim-survivor is found to have manifestations of the Battered Woman Syndrome which is validated by past police records
and testimonies from witnesses in interest, the WCPD officer shall inform the Punong Barangay, the local social worker, or the
concerned NGOs, local professional or civic groups in the area
a. so that the victim survivor will be brought to the Philippine National Mental Hospital.
b. for appropriate psychiatric and psychological evaluation.
c. for them to look for ways to help the victim survivor.
d. for the apprehension of the suspect for him to explain how the victim-survivor is found to have manifestations of the
Battered Woman Syndrome.
30. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a complaint or report or information that a child has been or is being abused,maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or abandoned, or is under imminent danger of being abused or exploited, shall take
immediate action thereon. How many hours the police should have taken action?
a. Within twelve (12) hours
b. Within twenty-four (24) hours
c. Under no circumstance shall be beyond thirty-six (36) hours
d. Under no circumstance shall be beyond forty-eight (48) hours
31. Upon rescue of the child-victim, the law enforcers shall turn over the child-victim to
a. the Care and supervision of her parents or guardian.
b. the Punong barangay for psycho-social intervention and other rehabilitation programs.
c. a government hospital for medical and physical examination.
d. the LSWDO for protective custody.
32. The police officer shall ensure that the child-victim shall not be subjected or exposed to multi-victimization in the course of
investigation. Hence, the police officer shall see to it that the interviews and statements of the victim shall
a. be witnessed by the counsel and two barangay officials.
b. be done in the presence of the victim's parents or guardians.
c. be recorded and/or video-taped.
d. in no instance be conducted in the presence of the suspect.
33. Investigation of child abuse cases shall be assigned preferably to members of the Women and Children Protection Desk
(WCPD). How about in their absence?
a. The case could be assigned to the investigation division.
b. The case should be assigned to the police officer of the same gender who has appropriate training on child rights, and
investigation and handling of child abuse cases.
c. The case could be assigned to any woman police officer.
d. The investigation of the child abuse case shall wait until WVCPD officer is available.
34. The police officer shall at all times respect the right to privacy of the child and shall observe confidentiality of information and
records pertaining to child rights cases he investigated or is investigating, from the beginning of the investigation and/or initial
custody of the child-victim and at all times thereafter, EXCEPT
a. when the victim is no longer considered a child, according to the definition of a child.
b. when the child-victim wants the information to relayed to the public.
c. when the release of any information about the child's case is pursuant to an Order issued by a competent court.
d. in cases not covered under the law on children.
35. In the rescue of minors, the PNP shall coordinate with concerned national and/or local authorities. Who will head the rescue
team?
a. A PCO with t least the rank of Police Inspector
b. A PCO with t least the rank of Police Senior Inspector
c. A responsible personnel from the DSWD
d. Officer/s of the WCPD
36. All police officers participating in the rescue operations shall be in prescribed uniform. Should circumstances require that certain
police officer/s be in civilian clothes during the actual operations, he must
a. inform his Chief of Police for approval.
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 b. have the official identification card which he must show when required.
c. coordinate with the other participating units or agencies to avoid mis encounter.
d. Bring with him his police uniform so that he could just wear it in case he needs to be in proper uniform.
37. What should the police officers do upon arrival at the scene of the rescue operation?
a. Cordon the scene. Isolate it from bystanders and kibitzers.
b. Bring the injured to the nearest hospital for proper medication.
c. Properly introduce themselves and inform the people in the area where the child-victim is located as to the purpose of
their operation.
d. Ask from the people present about all information they would like to have for the success of the rescue operation.
38. From the moment a child in conflict with the law (CICL) is taken into custody, the law enforcement officer shall not
a. properly identify/himself as police officer and present the proper identification to the child.
b. explain to the child, in simple language and in the dialect that he can understand, the reason why he is being taken
into custody and the offense he allegedly committed.
c. refrain from using vulgar or profane words and from sexually harassing or abusing, or making sexual advances to the
child in conflict with the law.
d. display or use any firearm, weapon, handcuffs or instruments of force or restraint, unless absolutely necessary and
only after all other methods of control have been exhausted and have failed.
e. refrain from subjecting the child in conflict with the law to greater restraint than is necessary for his apprehension.
f. avoid the use of unnecessary force.
g. Search on child in conflict with the law shall only be done by a police officer of the same gender as the child.
h. determine the age of the child.
39. The police shall turnover custody of the child in conflict with the law to the LSWDO or other accredited NGOs immediately child's
apprehension. How many hours after apprehension should the child be turned over?
a. Not later than eight (8) hours
b. Not later than eighteen (18) hours
c. Not later than twelve (12) hours
d. Not later than twenty-four (24) hours
40. What should be done to a CICL when he is fifteen (15) years or below?
a. He shall undergo an Intensive Juvenile Intervention program.
b. He will be prosecuted and tried on the crime he committed but will begin to serve his sentence once he reaches the
age of majority.
c. He shall be immediately released to his parents or guardian or nearest relative.
d. He shall be deemed a neglected child under PD 603, as amended, and shall be mandatorily placed in a special facility
within the youth care facility or "Bahay Pag-asa" called the Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (IJISC).
41. How about when the CICL is above twelve (12) years of age up to fifteen (15) years of age and commits serious crimes such
as parricide, murder, infanticide, kidnapping and serious illegal detention where the victim is killed or raped, robbery with
homicide or rape, destructive arson, rape, or carnapping where the driver or occupant is killed or raped or offenses under RA
9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002) punishable by more than twelve (12) years of imprisonment?
a. He shall undergo an Intensive Juvenile Intervention program.
b. He will be prosecuted and tried on the crime he committed but will begin to serve his sentence once he reaches the
age of majority.
c. He shall be immediately released to his parents or guardian or nearest relative.
d. He shall be deemed a neglected child, and shall be mandatorily placed in a special facility within the youth care facility
or "Bahay Pag-asa” called the Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (IJISC).
42. How is a child who violated local ordinances concerning juvenile status offenses considered?
a. child at risk
b. juvenile delinquent
c. child in conflict with the law
d. neglected child
43. No penalty shall be imposed on children for violations of local ordinances concerning juvenile status offenses: Hence, they shall
be instead brought to their residence or to any barangay official at the barangay hall to
a. undergo the Intensive Juvenile Intervention program.
b. be released to the custody of their parents and appropriate intervention program will be provided.
c. be prosecuted and tried on the crime they had committed but will begin to serve their sentence once they reach the
age of majority.
d. undergo hard labor.
44. Should detention of the child in conflict with the law be necessary, where should he be placed?
a. He shall be mandatorily placed in a special facility within the youth care facility or "Bahay Pag-asa”called the Intensive
Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (IJISC).
b. He shall be placed inside detention cells for CICL while awaiting final disposition of his case.
c. The child shall be secured inside facilities controlled and supervised by the DSWD.
d. The child shall be secured in quarters separate from that of the opposite sex and adult offenders, and shall not be
locked up in a detention cell.
45. The police shall take the statement of the child in the presence of the following, except
a. The child's counsel of choice or in the absence thereof, a lawyer from the PAO.
b. The child's parents, guardian, or nearest relative.
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 c. LSWDO
d. The barangay captain or any barangay official.
46. In the absence of the child's parents, guardian, or nearest relative, and the LSWDO, the investigation by the police shall be
conducted in the presence of
a. the child's counsel of choice or in the absence thereof, a lawyer from the PAO.
b. an NGO, religious group, or member of the Barangay Council for the Protection of Children (BCPC).
c. Barangay captain
d. Municipal Council for the Protection of Children.
47. The following shall be recorded in the initial investigation, EXCEPT
a. Whether handcuffs or other instruments of restraint were used, and if so, the reason for such.
b. That the parents or guardians of a child, the DSWD, and the PAO have been duly informed of the apprehension and
the details thereof.
c. That the CICL was duly informed of his constitutional rights.
d. The exhaustion of measures to determine the age of a child and the precise details of the physical and medical
examination or the failure to submit a child to such examination.
48. It is a container filled with explosive, incendiary material, smoke, gas, or other destructive substance, designed to explode. It
can appear obvious or concealed and can vary in size, shape or sophistication and may not necessarily explode.
a. Bomb
b. Poison bomb
c. Bomb threat
d. Projectile
49. It is either a written or verbal threat communicated through electronic, oral or other means that threatens to place or use an IED
at a certain time, date, or place against any specific person or place.
a. Poison bomb
b. Memorandum
c. Bomb threat
d. Poison letter
50. The First Responder (FR), the police investigator, and the police detective must remember the following basic facts on bomb
threat, EXCEPT
a. A threat is considered only a threat until something visible is found.
b. Determined bombers frequently give warnings of a possible explosion/incendiary attack.
c. Bomb threat is an excellent way to disrupt productivity without actually risking life, limb and/or property.
d. The consequences of conviction for "threatening “are not necessarily as serious as those that could result from actual
placement/initiation of a bomb.
51. What should the first responder to a bomb threat do before going to the crime scene?
a. Determine the exact location of the establishment under threat.
b. Assess or analyze the threat whether it is a long term or a short-term threat.
c. Alert Explosives Ordnance Demolition Team (EODT)for bomb search mission and emergency readiness.
d. Notify Higher Headquarters.
52. The first responder, upon arrival at the scene shall conduct or cause a search for suspicious device/s together with
a. persons familiar with the location.
b. the EOD team
c. the SOCO team
d. the investigator-on-case
53. What is the recommended minimum distance of the designated "safe" assembly area, that is well away from the threatened
structure, out of line-of-sight of the building and well clear of windows from the scene?
a. 100 meters
b. 300 meters
c. 150 meters
d. 400 meters
54. Why is it that the police should advise employees and visitors to take their personal belongings during evacuation?
a. So that the personal belongings will not be included in the properties that could be destroyed in case of an actual bomb
explosion.
b. To eliminate superfluous "suspicious objects” and to reduce the number of items to be "checked out".
c. The employees and visitors might be tempted to go back to get their personal belongings, only to be hit by the bomb
explosion.
d. The personal properties of employees and visitors might contain incendiary materials that could worsen a bomb
explosion.
55. Unless a bomb is found, personnel may not order an evacuation of the affected area, but may inform the person in-charge of
the property of the need to evacuate. The following procedures shall be followed during evacuation, EXCEPT
a. Evacuation and assembly point routes must be searched to ensure that personnel are not unnecessarily exposed to
danger during the evacuation.
b. Never assemble personnel in front of or directly below glassed areas.
c. Select safe and climatically acceptable assembly areas where evacuees may wait for a considerable period.
d. Avoid car parks as assembly areas and be mindful of the car bomb potential.

34 | P a g e
 e. Install procedures to ensure that escape routes are clear. Evacuation routes and assembly areas must be searched
before evacuation.
f. Install procedures to ensure windows and doors are left closed and lights left off.
g. Include a procedure for machinery shutdown. This can include plant and equipment, electronics, computer equipment,
securing files and correspondence.
56. When a suspected device is discovered, the police should cause the evacuation of people in the affected area to a distance of
at least
a. 100 meters
b. 300 meters
c. 150 meters
d. 250 meters
57. The first responder, upon arrival at the scene of a bomb threat, in order to maintain security for the protection of life and property,
should do the following, except
a. Any discovered device shall be isolated.
b. Touch, tamper with or disarm any suspected bomb or IED.
c. Report discovery of suspected device.
d. Do not permit radio transmission within the premises/building.
e. Turn off all electricity and gas units within the premises/building.
f. Secure the area and prevent people from approaching.
g. Establish traffic control; (h) Summon ambulance and fire trucks to the scene.
h. Await the arrival of bomb disposal team.
i. Notify Higher Headquarters of the situation.
58. An immediate investigation to determine the time of detonation/explosion, the time when the call for bomb threat was received;
and the type of device should be conducted during an actual bomb explosion. Who should initiate an investigation if investigators
have not yet arrived?
a. The SOCO team
b. The first responder
c. The EOD team
d. The Chief of Police
59. The Anti-Terrorism Council was mandated by law to assume the responsibility for the proper and effective implementation of
the anti-terrorism policy of the country. The Philippine National Police, among other law enforcement agencies, serves as
support agency for the Council. Who will chair the Anti-Terrorism Council?
a. The Chief PNP
b. The Chief of Staff, AFP
c. The Executive Secretary
d. The DOJ Secretary
60. In the event of a suspected terrorist attack, and during the development of the case, the PROs shall ensure the management
and containment of the incident and shall coordinate with the
a. Task Force Oplan Dragon Bravo Commander
b. Task Force (TF) Sanglahi-Alpha Commander
c. Scene of the Crime Operation team
d. Armed Forces of the Philippines
61. It will be furnished with all Post-Blast Investigation (PBI) and initial reports pertaining to Explosives and Related Incidents (ERI).
What will be the fusion center for the reporting of Explosives and Related Incidents?
a. The Firearms and Ordnance Division of the PNP
b. The Firearms and Ordnance Division of the AFP
c. The Philippine Bomb Data Center (PBDC)
d. The National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
62. What is the actual police intervention in an incident where the acquisition of matters of evidentiary value is traceable within the
computer's hardware, software, and its network?
a. Digital response
b. Computer response
c. Cybercrime Response
d. No response
63. Search of computers (or electronic device, digital media, and other similar devices) and seizure of data therefrom require
a. a warrant issued by the prosecutor.
b. skill and perseverance
c. a warrant issued by the court
d. the necessary requirements
64. Ensure that the computer hard desk is duplicated by the forensic expert and the original is kept by the evidence custodian for
future court presentation. If further search and analysis be undertaken, which one should be used?
a. The imaged disk
b. The image disk or the original disk
c. The original disk
d. The computer disk
65. In the search and seizure of wireless telephone, why is it that when the device is on, do not turn it off?
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 a. Turning it on could alter evidence in the device.
b. Turning it off could activate lockout feature.
c. Turning it off could erase all valuable information from the computer.
d. Turning it off might destroy the computer.
66. In the search and seizure of wireless telephone, why is it that when the device is off, leave it off?
a. Turning it off could activate lockout feature.
b. Turning it on could alter evidence in the device.
c. Turning it on could erase all valuable information from the computer.
d. Turning it on might destroy the computer.
67. All seized electronic equipment shall be turned over to the Anti-Cybercrime Group (ACG), and in the absence of ACG in the
area, the seized items shall be turned over to
a. the local Regional/Provincial Crime Laboratory Office (R/PCLO).
b. the police station that has jurisdiction over the area.
c. the Scene of the Crime Operation team.
d. the Cybercrime Department of the NBI.
68. What was mandated by law to carry out the provisions of RA 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002), serve as
the implementing arm of the Dangerous Drugs Board, and be responsible for the efficient and effective enforcement of all the
provisions on any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical as provided in the Act?
a. The anti-drug units of the PNP
b. The Bureau of Customs
c. The AFPs Narcotics Group
d. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
69. Does the PNP still possess the authority to conduct anti-illegal drug operations?
a. No. PDEA deputation is necessary or required for PNP personnel.
b. No. All authority regarding illegal drugs is the sole mandate of PDEA.
c. Yes, provided that the case shall eventually transferred to the PDEA.
d. Yes. Dealing with illegal drugs is one of the inherent functions of the PNP.
70. PNP units, prior to any anti-drug operations shall, as far a practicable, coordinate with the
a. PDEA.
b. Other adjacent or nearby friendly forces.
c. other adjacent PNP units.
d. local government officials.
71. Aside from regularly updating the PDEA on the status of th cases involving anti-drug operations. Within how many hours the
PNP anti-drug units shall coordinate/inform the PDEA of the anti-drug operations from the time of the actual custody of the
suspects or seizure of said drugs and substances as well as paraphernalia and transport equipment used in illegal activities
involving such drugs and/or substances?
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 36 hours
72. The word "as far as practicable" means that the prior coordination may be done, practiced or accomplished as maybe feasible
and possible to be performed. How about if prior coordination cannot be made?
a. Never mind coordinating.
b. Submit an after-operation report to the police station that has jurisdiction over the place where the illegal drug operation
took place.
c. Submit an explanation as to why prior coordination was not made.
d. Post coordination shall be made in lieu of prior coordination.
73. Who shall physically inventory and photograph the seized illegal drugs in the presence of the accused or the person/s from
whom such items were confiscated and/or seized, or his/her representative or counsel, a representative from the public official,
who shall be required to sign the copies of the inventory and be given a copy thereof?
a. The investigator-on-case
b. The apprehending officer/team having initial custody and control of the drugs.
c. The PDEA
d. The first responder
74. When shall the physical inventory and photograph of the seized illegal drugs be done in the presence of the accused or the
person/s from whom such items were confiscated and/or seized, or his/her representative or counsel, a representative from the
media and the Department of Justice (DOJ), and any elected public official?
a. Within eight (8) hours
b. Within twenty-four (24) hours
c. Within twelve (12) hours
d. Immediately after seizure and confiscation,
75. Photographs of the pieces of evidence must be done in the following manner, except
a. Taken upon discovery without moving or altering its position in the place where it was situated, kept or hidden.
b. Include the process of recording the inventory and the weighing of dangerous drugs.
c. If possible, under existing conditions, photograph the registered weight of the evidence on the scale focused by the
camera, in the presence of persons required.
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 d. None of the above.
76. Why must the seizing officer mark the evidence with his initials indicating therein the date, time and place where the evidence
was found and seized?
a. The seized pieces of evidence could not be accepted as evidence without the markings.
b. To ensure identification, especially in court.
c. To properly identify who found and seized the illegal drugs.
d. To make sure the pieces of evidence will not be lost.
77. What should be done to the suspected drug evidence acquired when the situation requires urgent action so that if the result
yielded positive, this will be the basis of the seizure and the conduct of further drug analysis?

a. The suspected drug evidence should be immediately brought to the nearest crime laboratory office for an initial test.
b. The suspected drug evidence may be field-tested using a drug test kit.
c. The police could use K9 dogs to determine whether the items to be seized are illegal drugs.
d. The IOC could make use of his senses to initially
78. Upon confiscation/seizure of dangerous drugs, plant sources chemicals, as well as instruments/paraphernalia and/or be
submitted to the PNP Crime Laboratory for laboratory examination and proper disposition?
a. Eight (8) hours
b. Twelve (12) hours
c. Twenty-four hours
d. eighteen (18) hours
79. Would containers, packaging, equipment, etc., suspected of containing trace amounts of drugs including controlled precursors
and essential chemicals be considered drug evidence?
a. No. They do not contain illegal drugs.
b. Yes. They shall be submitted for analysis.
c. Yes, but they should be seized in the presence of the owner.
d. No, the trace amount of drugs in these items were planted by the police.
80. In every negotiation operation, who shall be designated to be responsible for the inventory and initial custody of all drug and
non-drug evidence during the anti-drug operations?
a. Evidence custodian
b. Property custodian
c. A seizing officer
d. Safe keeper

81. Could cellphones, computers/laptops or any other electronic equipment or gadgets found during an anti-illegal drug operation
be seized?
a. No. Lawful personal properties must not be seized.
b. No. They are not stated or included in the warrant.
c. Yes, but they should be immediately returned after determining the rightful owner.
d. Yes. They should be properly preserved for evidentiary purposes and technical exploitation.
82. Within how many hours should a certification of the forensic laboratory examination results, which shall be done under oath by
the forensic laboratory examiner, be issued?
a. Eight (8) hours after the confiscation of the subject item/s
b. Twelve (12) hours after the receipt of the subject item/s
c. Eighteen (18) hours after the confiscation of the subject item/s
d. Twenty-four (24) hours after the receipt of the subject item/s
83. How about when the volume of the dangerous drugs, plant sources of dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors and essential
chemicals does not allow the completion of testing within the time frame?
a. The forensic laboratory examiner will properly inform the unit concerned as to how many more days for him to complete
the examination.
b. A partial laboratory examination report shall be provisionally issued stating therein the quantities of dangerous drugs
still to be examined by the forensic laboratory.
c. The forensic laboratory examiner will get a sample of each of the packages to be examined.
d. The forensic laboratory examiner is only allowed an extension of eight (8) hours to complete an examination.
84. When the volume of the dangerous drugs, plant sources of dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors and essential chemicals
does not allow the completion of testing after the lapse of the 24-hour time frame, within how many more hours should the final
certification be issued on the completed forensic laboratory examination?
a. Eight (8) hours after the confiscation of the subject item/s
b. Twelve (12) hours after the receipt of the subject item/s
c. Eighteen (18) hours after the confiscation of the subject item/s
d. Twenty-four (24) hours after the receipt of the subject item/s
85. It is the PNP's lead unit in the conduct of anti-kidnapping operations which operates in close coordination with the local police
units, other law enforcement agencies and the community.
a. The National Anti-Kidnapping Task Force (NAKTAF)
b. The Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
c. The Anti-Kidnapping Group (AKG)
d. The Special Action Force (PNP SAF)
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 86. If the kidnapping is perpetrated by Organized Crime Group/Criminal Group (OCG/CG) and with ransom demand, who shall take
initial action/operational response?
a. Higher authorities for the activation of AFP-PNP Joint Task Force, Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC) or
Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG); local Chief Executive; and other concerned agencies.
b. The PNP Anti Kidnapping Group
c. Concerned PNP territorial units
d. The National Bureau of Investigation Organized Crime Division
87. If the kidnapping is perpetrated by Threat Groups/Terrorists, who shall take action?
a. Higher authorities for the activation of AFP-PNP Joint Task Force, Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC) or
Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG); local Chief Executive; and other concerned agencies.
b. The PNP Anti Kidnapping Group
c. Concerned PNP territorial units
d. The National Bureau of Investigation Organized Crime Division
88. If kidnapping is perpetrated by other individuals, who shall take appropriate operational response?
a. Higher authorities for the activation of AFP-PNP Joint Task Force, Critical Incident Management Committee (CIMC) or
Critical Incident Management Task Group (CIMTG); local Chief Executive; and other concerned agencies.
b. The PNP Anti Kidnapping Group
c. Concerned PNP territorial units
d. The National Bureau of Investigation Organized Crime Division
89. The PNP, being at the forefront of crisis situations, must play an active role by organizing its own Incident Management
Committee (IMC) in support to the NPOC and NDRRMC. Who is responsible for human-induced (man-made) critical incidents?
a. The National and LocaI Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC).
b. The National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
c. The Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
d. The ground commander
90. Who is responsible for natural calamities and disasters?
a. The National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC)
b. The National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
c. The Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
d. The ground commander
91. Who is designated as the Cabinet - Officer Primarily Responsible (C-OPR) for threats to peace and order such as civil
disturbance, violent labor strikes, riots, anarchy, and disorderly mass demonstrations? He shall act also as the Vice Chairman
on Disaster Preparedness, NDRRMC.
a. The National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council (NDRRMC).
b. The National and Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
c. The Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
d. The ground commander
92. In the event of natural/disaster incidents, who shall act as the first responder in the affected area in order to provide area security
and support to the conduct of search and rescue operations to be spearheaded by the area DRRRMCs?
a. The PNP
b. The Local Peace and Order Council (NPOC)
c. The AFP
d. The local government Unit
93. What is designed to predict or prevent the probability of occurrence of crises at the same time prepare to handle them when
such occur?
a. Preventive
b. Proactive
c. Reactive
d. Suppressive
94. It attempts to remove uncertainty from the future. It is undertaken through Strategic, Operational and Tactical Situation
Awareness (SA) processes.
a. Prevent
b. Prepare
c. Predict
d. Perform
95. What is the deliberate action aimed at avoiding future harm by addressing its causes. It is closely related to mitigation which
accepts that a potentially harmful incident cannot be prevented, but harmful consequences arising from it can be minimized by
precautionary measures.
a. Prevent
b. Prepare
c. Predict
d. Perform
96. This is essential for effective response in which the process could bring out flaws and weaknesses and enable corrections and
remedies to be effected, to heighten levels of readiness of systems, procedures, organization, equipment and logistics, to better
cope with actual crisis.
a. Prevent
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 b. Prepare
c. Predict
d. Perform
97. What is the institution of passive and active security measures, remedy or solution to destabilizing factors or security flaws to
such crisis, or emergency, vigilance and alertness to signs or manifestations of developing crisis,or emergency and
establishment of alert systems?
a. Preventive
b. Proactive
c. Reactive
d. Suppressive

98. It is the actual implementation of contingency plans when a crisis occurs, despite the pro-active measures undertaken. Once a
crisis occurs, priorities shift from building or enhancing capabilities to employing resources to save lives, protect property and
environment, and preserve the social, economic and political structure of the jurisdiction.
a. Prevent
b. Prepare
c. Predict
d. Perform
99. A man-made Critical Incident has just occurred or has just been pre-empted; or incidents are expected.
a. Level 4 (Extreme)
b. Level 2 (Moderate)
c. Level 3 (High)
d. Level 1 (Low)
100. The following are general rules on media relations during crisis, except
a. It is the responsibility of any Unit Head/Chief or Ground Commander to respond to queries raised by the press, as well
as decide on what media lines or press releases would be given out to the media unless, he delegates this responsibility
to the unit PIO or spokesperson.
b. No information regarding the incident shall be released without clearance from the Ground Commander.
c. Ground Commander must designate/establish a media area for pooled coverage and ensure safety of all media
personnel covering the incident.
d. d. Media practitioners shall be confined to an area designated by the incident commander and,in the process of
hostage-taking incident, could be allowed to air live coverage of unfolding event for the information of everybody.
e. Suspect/s arrested for any violation of the law shall in no case be presented in a 'firing line' to the media and must
maintain a limit of disclosure.
f. In cases when information must be denied or withheld to the press, the basis for such shall be fully and courteously
explained.
g. Ranking officer at crime or incident scenes may provide factual information to the media subject to the limitation by
existing policies.
h. In cases of inter-agency operations, the department/agency with primary jurisdiction will determine the dissemination
of appropriate media lines.

***End***

ANSWER KEY

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