PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32

PRACTICE PAPER 01 - CHAPTER 01 REAL NUMBERS (2024-25)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. The exponent of 5 in the prime factorization of 3750 is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

2. If two positive integers a and b are written as a = x2y2 and b = xy3, where x and y are prime
numbers, then the LCM (a, b) is:
(a) xy (b) xy2 (c) x3y3 (d) x2y3

3. The HCF and the LCM of 12, 21, 15 respectively are

(a) 3, 140 (b) 12, 420 (c) 3, 420 (d) 420, 3

4. If the HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m –117, then the value of m is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 3

5. Arnav has 40 cm long red and 84 cm long blue ribbon. He cuts each ribbon into pieces such that
all pieces are of equal length. What is the length of each piece?
(a) 4 cm as it is the HCF of 40 and 84 (b) 4 cm as it is the LCM of 40 and 84
(c) 12 cm as it is the LCM of 40 and 84 (d) 12 cm as it is the HCF of 40 and 84

6. The largest number which divides 70 and 125 leaving remainders 5 and 8 respectively is
(a) 13 (b) 65 (c) 875 (d) 1750

7. If 6370 = 2m × 5n × 7k × 13p, then the value of m + n + k + p is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

8. If a = 23 × 3, b = 2 × 3 × 5, c = 3n × 5 and LCM (a, b, c) = 23 × 32 × 5, then n is equal to

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion (A): If product of two numbers is 5780 and their HCF is17, then their LCM is 340.
Reason (R): HCF is always a factor of LCM.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

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10. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
Assertion (A): 6n ends with the digit zero, where n is natural number.
Reason (R): Any number ends with digit zero, if its prime factor is of the form 2m × 5n, where
m, n are natural numbers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.

11. Explain why 2 × 3 × 5 + 5 and 5 × 7 × 11 + 7 × 5 are composite numbers.

12. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their LCM is 180. What is the HCF of these numbers?

13. Show that any number of the form 6n, where n ∈N can never end with digit 0. (2017)

14. The LCM of two numbers is 9 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 500. Find the HCF
of the two numbers.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Prove that √3 is an irrational number. (2023)

16. 4 Bells toll together at 9.00 am. They toll after 7, 8, 11 and 12 seconds respectively. How many
times will they toll together again in the next 3 hours?

17. Given that √3 is irrational, prove that 5 + 2√3 is irrational. (CBSE Sample Paper 2022)

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. (a) Find the largest possible positive integer that divides 125, 162 and 259 leaving remainder 5, 6
and 7 respectively. (3)
(b) An army contingent of 678 soldiers is to march behind an army band of 36 members in a
Republic Day parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the
maximum number of columns they can march? (2)

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. A morning walk may help improve your mental clarity and ability to focus throughout the day. A
recent study found that amongst older adults, those who started their days with a morning walk
improved their cognitive function, compared to those who remained sedentary. Walking may
also help you think more creatively. In a morning walk three students step off together, their
steps measure 80 cm, 85 cm and 90 cm respectively.

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 (i) What is the HCF of 80 and 90? (1)
(ii) Find the sum of exponents of the prime factors of total distance. (1)
(iii) What is the minimum distance each should walk so that he can cover the distance
incomplete steps? (2)

20. A family room is an informal, all purpose room is a house. The family room is designed to be a
place where family and guests gather for group recreation like talking, reading, watching TV and
other family activities. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8 m 25 cm, 6 m 75 cm and 4
m 50 cm.

(i) Determine the longest rod which can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly. (2)
(ii) What is LCM of the given three measurements? (1)
(iii) If the HCF (825 and 675) = 75, then find LCM (825 and 675). (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 02 - CHAPTER 02 POLYNOMIALS (2024-25)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial kx2 + 4x + 3k is equal to their product, then
the value of k is
(a) -3/4 (b) 3/4 (c) 4/3 (d) -4/3

2. If α and β are the zeroes of f(x) = 2x2 + 8x – 8, then

(a) α + β = αβ (b) α + β > αβ (c) α + β < αβ (d) α + β + αβ = 0

3. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 25x + 156 are

(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative (d) can’t be determined

4. A quadratic polynomial whose one zero is 5 and product of zeroes is 0, is

(a) x2 – 5 (b) x2 – 5x (c) 5x2 + 1 (d) x2 + 5x

5. If the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = (p2 – 23)x2 – 2x – 12 is 1, then p takes the value
(s)
(a) √23 (b) –23 (c) 2 (d) ±5

6. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + 5x + c, and α – β = 3, then c =

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 5

7. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, c  0 are equal then

(a) c and a have opposite signs (b) c and b have opposite signs
(c) c and a have the same sign (d) c and b have the same sign

8. The value of k such that the quadratic polynomial x2 – (k + 6)x + 2(2k + 1) has sum of the zeroes
as half of their product, is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) –5 (d) 5

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

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9. Assertion (A): 5x + 2 is a linear polynomial.
Reason (R): A polynomial of degree 1 is a linear polynomial.

10. Assertion (A): A quadratic polynomial having 5 and –3 as zeroes is x2 – 2x – 15.

Reason (R): The quadratic polynomial having α and β as zeroes is given by
p(x) = x2 – (α + β)x + αβ.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. If the sum of the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ky2 + 2y – 3k is equal to twice their product,
find the value of k.
12. If one root of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 3x + p is 3, find the other root. Also, find the value
of p.
13. , are zeroes of the polynomial x2 – 6x + a. Find the value of a, if 3 + 2 = 20.
14. Find a quadratic polynomial whose one zero is 5 and product of zeroes is 30.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. Find the value of k such that the polynomial x2 – (k + 6)x + 2(2k – 1) has sum of its zeroes equal
to half of their product.
11 2
16. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 7 y 2  y  and verify the relationship between
3 3
the zeroes and the coefficients.
17. If α, β re zeros of quadratic polynomial x² – 6x + k, find the value of k such that (α + β)² – 2αβ =
40

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. If one zero of the polynomial (k + 1)x2 – 5x + 5 is multiplicative inverse of the other, then find
the zeroes of kx2 – 3kx + 9, where k is constant.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Case Study-1 : Lusitania Bridge
The below picture are few examples of natural parabolic which is represented by a quadratic
polynomial. A parabolic arch is an arch in the shape of a parabola. In structures, their curve
represents an efficient method of load, and so can be found in bridges and in architecture in a
variety of forms.

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 Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
1
(i) If  and are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – x + 8k, then find the value of k.

(1)
(ii) Find the sum of zeroes of p(x) = kx2 – kx + 5. (1)
(iii) Write a quadratic polynomial whose one zero is 4 and product of zeroes is 0. (2)
OR
Find the zeroes of p(x) = x2 – 7x + 12 (2)

20. In Maths activity period, Roma’s Maths teacher told her to draw the graph of a polynomial
having at most two zeroes. She draws the graph as shown below:

(i) Name the shape drawn by Roma. (1)

2
(ii) Find the zeroes of p(x) = x – 49 (1)
(iii) If 1 is a zero of polynomial p(x) = mx2 – 3(m – 1)x + 4, then find the value of m. (2)
OR
If α and β are zeroes of the polynomial x2 – px + q2, then find the value of α + β – αβ. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 03 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 03 LINEAR EQUATIONS IN TWO VARIABLES

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of the lines is 3x – 2y = 5. The equation
of the second line can be
(a) 9x + 8y = 7 (b) –12x – 8y = 7 (c) –12x + 8y = 7 (d) 12x + 8y = 7

2. What is the value of k such that the following pair of equations have infinitely many solutions?
x – 2y = 3 and – 3x + ky = – 9.
(a) (–6) (b) –3 (c) 3 (d) 6

3. The pair of linear equations (3/2)x + (5/3)y = 7 and 9x + 10y = 14 is

(a) consistent (b) inconsistent
(c) consistent with one solution (d) consistent with many solutions

4. If the system of equations 3x + y = 1 and (2k – 1)x +(k – 1)y = 2k + 1 is inconsistent, then k =
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2

5. The values of x and y satisfying the two equations 32x + 33y = 34, 33x + 32y = 31 respectively
are
(a) –1, 2 (b) –1, 4 (c) 1, –2 (d) –1, –4

6. What is the value of q if p/2 + 3q = 6 and 2p – 2q = 10?

(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 16

7. If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is
(a) −5/4 (b) 2/5 (c) 15/4 (d) 3/2

8. The pair of equations ax + 2y = 9 and 3x + by = 18 represent parallel lines, where a, b are

integers, if :
(a) a = b (b) 3a = 2b (c) 2a = 3b (d) ab = 6

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

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9. Assertion (A): If the pair of linear equations 3x + y = 3 and 6x + ky = 8 does not have a
solution, then the value of k = 2.
Reason (R): If the pair of linear equations x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x + ky = 3 does not have a
solution, then the value of k = 2.

10. Assertion (A): If the equation 3x – y + 8 = 0 and 6x – ky = –16 represent coincident lines, then
the value of k = 2.
Reason (R): If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of
k is 15.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. For what value of k, will the following pair of equations have infinitely many solutions:
2x + 3y = 7 and (k + 2)x – 3 (1 – k)y = 5k + 1

12. If 49x + 51y = 499, 51x + 49y = 501, then find the value of x and y.

13. If x = a and y = b is the solution of the pair of equations x – y= 2 and x + y = 4, find the values of
a and b.

14. The age of the father is twice the sum of the ages of his two children. After 20 years, his age will
be equal to the sum of the ages of the children. Find the age of the father.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. In the figure, ABCDE is a pentagon with BE||CD and BC||DE. BC is perpendicular to CD.
AE = AB = 5 cm, BE = 7 cm, BC = x – y and CD = x + y. If the perimeter of ABCDE is 27 cm.
find the value of x and y, given x, y ≠ 0.

16. A fraction becomes 1/3 when 2 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1/2 when 1 is
subtracted from the denominator Find the fraction.

y 
17. If 2x + y = 23 and 4x – y = 19, find the value of (5y – 2x) and   2 
x 

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. Determine graphically the co-ordinates of the vertices of triangle, the equations of whose sides
are given by 2y – x = 8, 5y – x = 14 and y – 2x = 1.

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 SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. A book store shopkeeper gives books on rent for reading. He has variety of books in his store
related to fiction, stories and quizzes etc. He takes a fixed charge for the first two days and an
additional charge for subsequent days. Amruta paid ` 22 for a book and kept for 6 days; while
Radhika paid `16 for keeping the book for 4 days.

Assume that the fixed charge be ` x and additional charge (per day) be ` y.
(a) Represent the situation of amount paid by Radhika and Amruta algebraically.
(b) What are the fixed charges for a book and the additional charges for each subsequent day for
a book?
(c) What is the total amount paid by both, if both of them have kept the book for 2 more days?

20. Two friends purchased the same company car and same green colour. They are travelling in
separate car which starts at place A and other car at place B. Place A and B are 100 km apart on
a highway. One car starts from A and another from B at the same time.
Situation 1: If the cars travel in the same direction at different speeds, they meet in 5 hours.
Situation 1: If they travel towards each other, they meet in 1 hour.

(a) Assuming that the speed of first car and second car be x km/h and y km/h respectively, find
the pair of linear equations representing the situations.
(b) What is the speed of car starts at A and speed of car starts at B?

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 04 - CHAPTER 04 QUADRATIC EQUATIONS (2024-25)

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. Let p be a prime number. The quadratic equation having its roots as factors of p is
(a) x2 – px + p = 0 (b) x2 – (p + 1)x + p = 0
2
(c) x + (p + 1)x + p = 0 (d) x2 – px + p + 1 = 0

2. Values of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2 – kx + k = 0 has equal roots, is:
(a) 0 only (b) 4 (c) 8 only (d) 0, 8

3. The value(s) of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2 + kx + 2 = 0 has equal roots, is
(a) 4 (b) ± 4 (c) – 4 (d) 0

4. Which of the following is not a quadratic equation?

(a) 2(x – 1)2 = 4x2 – 2x + 1 (b) 2x – x2 = x2 + 5
(c) (√2 x + √3)2 + x2 = 3x2 – 5x (d) (x2 + 2x)2 = x4 + 3 + 4x3

5. If α, β are roots of the equation x2 + 5x + 5 = 0, then equation whose roots are α + 1 and β + 1 is
(a) x2 + 5x – 5 = 0 (b) x2 + 3x + 5 = 0 (c) x2 + 3x + 1 = 0 (d) none of these

6. (x2 + 1)2 – x2 = 0 has

(a) four real roots (b) two real roots (c) no real roots (d) one real root

7. If the difference of the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0 be 1, then

(a) b2 – 4c + 1 = 0 (b) b2 + 4c = 0 (c) b2 – 4c – 1 = 0 (d) b2 – 4c = 0

8. If the equation x2 – (2 + m)x + (–m2 – 4m – 4) = 0 has coincident roots, then

(a) m = 0, m = 1 (b) m = 2, m = 2 (c) m = –2, m = –2 (d) m = 6, m = 1

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement
of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A) : The equation x2 + 3x + 1 = (x – 2)2 is a quadratic equation.
Reason (R) : Any equation of the form ax2 + bx + c = 0 where a ≠ 0, is called a quadratic
equation.

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10. Assertion (A) : The value of k = 2, if one root of the quadratic equation 6x2 – x – k = 0 is 2/3.
Reason (R) : The quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0 has two roots.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Solve the quadratic equation: x2 – 2ax + (a2 – b2) = 0 for x.

12. Solve the quadratic equation: x2 + 2√2x − 6 = 0 for x.

13. Find the value of ‘k’ for which the quadratic equation 2kx2 – 40x + 25 = 0 has real and equal
roots.

14. If the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation ky2 – 11y + (k – 23) = 0 is 13/21 more than the
product of the roots, then find the value of k.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.
15. Find the value of ‘p’ for which the quadratic equation p(x – 4)(x – 2) + (x – 1)2 = 0 has real and
equal roots.

16. The sum of two numbers is 34. If 3 is subtracted from one number and 2 is added to another, the
product of these two numbers becomes 260. Find the numbers.

17. If α and β are roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 7x + 10 = 0, find the quadratic equation whose
roots are α2 and β2.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. In a class test, the sum of Arun’s marks in Hindi and English is 30. When he got 2 marks more in
Hindi and 3 marks less in English, the product of the marks would have been 210. Find his marks
in the two subjects.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. Case Study-1 : Lusitania Bridge
Japan's LO series Maglev is the fastest train in the world, with a speed record of 602 km/h. It
could go the distance from New York City to Montreal in less than an hour. China has half of the
eight fastest trains and the world's largest high speed railway network. Suppose a fast train takes
3 hours less than a slow train for a journey of 600 km. If the speed of the slow train is 10 km/h
less than that of the fast train, then answer the following questions:

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 (a) Find the speed of slow train. (2)
(b) Find the speed of fast train. (1)
(c) How much time taken by the slow train to cover the distance 600 km? (1)

20. Generally, new methods such as aquaponics Raised-bed gardening raised beds and cultivation
under glass are used. Marketing can be done locally in farmers markets, traditional markets or
farmers can contract their whole crops to wholesalers, canners or retailers.
A farmer wishes to grow a 100 m2 rectangular vegetable garden. Since he has with the only 30 m
barbed wire, he fences three sides of the rectangular garden letting compound wall of his house
act as the fourth side-fence.

(a) Represent given problem in quadratic form. (2)

(b) Find the length of the vegetable garden. (1)
(c) If length of the vegetable garden is 5 m, then find the breadth. (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 05 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 05 ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are –3 and 4 is
(a) 17 (b) 137 (c) 143 (d) –143
2. If k, 2k – 1 and 2k + 1 are three consecutive terms of an A.P., then the value of k is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) –3 (d) 5
3. The sum of the first 16 terms of the A.P.: 10, 6, 2, ... is:
(a) –320 (b) 320 (c) –352 (d) –400
4. If the 2nd term of an AP is 13 and the 5th term is 25, what is its 7th term?
(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 37 (d) 38
5. Which term of the AP: 21, 42, 63, 84… is 210?
(a) 9th (b) 10th (c) 11th (d) 12th
6. The common difference of an A.P., whose nth term is an = (3n + 7), is:
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 6
7. The value of p for which (2p + 1), 10 and (5p + 5) are three consecutive terms of an A.P., is:
(a) – 1 (b) – 2 (c) 1 (d) 2
8. The number of terms of an A.P. 5, 9, 13, ..... 185 is:
(a) 31 (b) 51 (c) 41 (d) 46

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): Common difference of an A.P. in which a21 – a7 = 84 is 14.

Reason (R): nth term of AP is given by an = a + (n – 1)d.
10. Assertion (A): If the second term of an A.P., is 13 and the fifth term is 25, then its 7th term is
33.
Reason (R): If the common difference of an A.P. is 5, then a18 – a13 is 25.

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 SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Determine the A.P. whose third term is 16 and 7th term exceeds the 5th term by 12.

12. Which term of the A.P. 3, 15, 27, 39, .... will be 120 more than its 21st term?

13. If seven times the 7th term of an A.P. is equal to eleven times the 11th term, then what will be its
18th term?

14. Find how many integers between 200 and 500 are divisible by 8.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Solve for x : 1 + 5 + 9 + 13 + .... + x = 1326

16. Find the middle terms of the A.P. 7, 13, 19 .... 241.

17. The first term of an A.P. is –5 and the last term is 45. If the sum of the terms of the A.P. is 120,
then find the number of terms and the common difference.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. The sum of four consecutive numbers in A.P. is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first and
last terms to the product of two middle term is 7 : 15. Find the numbers.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. A school auditorium has to be constructed with a capacity of 2000 people. The chairs in the
auditorium are arranged in a concave shape facing towards the stage in such a way that each
succeeding row has 5 seats more than the previous one.

(a) If the first row has 15 seats, then how many seats will be there in 12th row?
(b) If there are 15 rows in the auditorium, then how many seats will be there in the middle row?
(c) If total 1875 guests were there in the auditorium for a particular event, then how many rows
will be needed to make all of them sit?
OR
(c) If total 1250 guests were there in the auditorium for a particular event, then how many rows
will be left blank out of total 30 rows?

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20. Manpreet Kaur is the national record holder for women in the shot-put discipline. Her throw of
18.86 m at the Asian Grand Prix in 2017 is the maximum distance for an Indian female athlete.
Keeping her as a role model, Sanjitha is determined to earn gold in Olympics one day. Initially
her throw reached 7.56 m only. Being an athlete in school, she regularly practiced both in the
mornings and in the evenings and was able to improve the distance by 9 cm every week.
During the special camp for 15 days, she started with 40 throws and every day kept increasing
the number of throws by 12 to achieve this remarkable progress.

(a) How many throws Sanjitha practiced on 11th day of the camp?
(b) What would be Sanjitha’s throw distance at the end of 6 weeks?
OR
(b) When will she be able to achieve a throw of 11.16 m?
(c) How many throws did she do during the entire camp of 15 days?

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 06 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 06 TRIANGLES

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. Shown below are two triangles such that length of two sides of each is known. Along with the
given information, which of these is sufficient to conclude whether ∆KLM is similar to ∆PQR?

(I) ∠KLM = ∠PQR

(II) Ratio of KM : PR = 1 : 2
Options:
(a) only (I)
(b) only (II)
(c) either (I) or (II)
(d) the given information is enough to conclude that ∆KLM ~ ∆PQR as ratio of sides is known

2. Leela has a triangular cabinet that fits under his staircase. There are four parallel shelves as
shown below.

The total height of the cabinet is 144 cm. What is the maximum height of a book that can stand
upright on the bottom-most shelf?
(a) 18 cm (b) 36 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 86.4 cm

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3. In the given figure, ∆ABC ~ ∆QPR. If AC = 6 cm, BC = 5 cm, QR = 3 cm and PR = x; then the
value of x is:

(a) 3.6 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 3.2 cm

4. In the following figure, Q is a point on PR and S is a point on TR. QS is drawn and ∠RPT =
∠RQS. Which of these criteria can be used to prove that ∆RSQ is similar to ∆RTP?

(a) AAA similarity criterion (b) SAS similarity criterion

(c) SSS similarity criterion (d) RHS similarity criterion

5. Shown below are three triangles. The measures of two adjacent sides and included angle are
given for each triangle.

(a) ΔRPQ and Δ XZY

(b) ΔRPQ and Δ MNL
(c) ΔXZY and Δ MNL
(d) ΔRPQ, Δ XZY and Δ MNL are similar to one another.

6. In the following figure, ST || QR, point S divides PQ in the ratio 4 : 5. If ST = 1.6 cm, what is the
length of QR?

(a) 0.71 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 3.6 cm (d) cannot be calculated from the given data.

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7. In the given figure, DE || BC, AE = a units, EC = b units, DE = x units and BC = y units. Which
of the following is true?

a b ax ay x a
(a) x  (b) y  (c) x  (d) 
ay a b a b y b

8. In the figure given below, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such
that PA = 6 cm, PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and ∠CDP = 30°. Then,
∠PBA is equal to:

(a) 50° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 100°

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a ΔABC such that
DE║BC then the value of x is 4, when AD = x cm, DB = (x – 2) cm, AE = (x + 2) cm and EC =
(x – 1) cm.
Reason (R): If a line is parallel to one side of a triangle then it divides the other two sides in the
same ratio.

10. Assertion (A): D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a ΔABC such that AB
= 10.8cm, AD = 6.3cm, AC = 9.6cm and EC = 4cm then DE is not parallel to BC.
Reason (R): If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then it is parallel to the
third side.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. In the given figure, considering triangles BEP and CPD, prove that BP × PD = EP × PC.

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12. What value(s) of x will make DE || AB in the given figure?

AO BO 1
13. In the given figure,   and AB = 4 cm. Find the value of DC.
OC OD 2

14. In the given figure, ΔAMB ~ ΔCMD.

Determine MD in terms of x, y and z.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. In figure, ΔABC is right angled at C and DE ⊥ AB. Prove that ΔABC ~ ΔADE and hence find
the lengths of AE and DE.

16. In figure, M is mid-point of side CD of a parallelogram ABCD. The line BM is drawn

intersecting AC at L and AD produced at E. Prove that EL = 2BL.

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17. In an isosceles ΔABC, the base AB is produced both ways to P and Q such that AP × BQ =
(AC)2. Prove that ΔACP ~ ΔBCQ.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle, the other two sides are divided in the same
ratio, prove it. Use this result to prove the following :
1
In figure, D and E are points on AB and AC respectively, such that DE || BC. If AD = BD, AE
3
= 4.5 cm, find EC.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. While browsing through the catalogue of wooden shelves, Karthik came across this beautiful triangular
shaped shelf. In the shelf, DE is parallel to the base BC could be used for displaying small plants and
showpieces.

(a) Find the relation between the sides AD, DB, AE and EC. Also, mention the theorem used. (1)
(b) With measurement AE = 1.8 cm, BD = 7.2 cm and CE = 5.4 cm. Karthik thought of finding
the length of side AD from the given figure of shelf. How he will find the length. (1)
(c) Find the value of x if AD = (x + 3) cm, BD = (3x + 19) cm, AE = x cm and EC = (3x + 4) cm.
(2)
OR
(c) If AB = 9 cm, AC = 18 cm, AD = 2 cm and AE = 4 cm, then prove that DE || BC. (2)

20. Anjali placed a light bulb at a point O on the ceiling and directly below it placed a table. He cuts a
polygon, say a quadrilateral PQRS, from a plane cardboard and place this cardboard parallel to the ground
between the lighted bulb and the table. Then a shadow of PQRS is cast on the table as P′Q′R′S′.
Quadrilateral P′Q′R′S′ is an enlargement of the quadrilateral PQRS with scale factor 1 : 3. Given that PQ
= 2.5 cm, QR = 3.5 cm. RS = 3.4 cm and PS = 3.1 cm; ∠P = 115°, ∠Q = 95°, ∠R = 65° and ∠S = 85°.

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 (a) Find the length of R′S′. (1)
(b) Find the measurement of ∠Q′ (1)
(c) Find the ratio of sides P′Q′ and Q′R′. (2)
OR
(c) Find the sum of the lengths Q′R′ and P′S′. (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 06 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 07 COORDINATE GEOMETRY
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. Three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(1, 4), B(–2, 3) and C(5, 8). The ordinate of the
fourth vertex D is
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
2. Points A(–1, y) and B(5, 7) lie on a circle with centre O(2, –3y). The values of y are
(a) 1, –7 (b) –1, 7 (c) 2, 7 (d) –2, –7
3. If A(4, –2), B(7, –2) and C(7, 9) are the vertices of a ∆ABC, then ∆ABC is
(a) equilateral triangle (b) isosceles triangle
(c) right angled triangle (d) isosceles right angled triangle
4. If (a, b) is the mid point of the line segment joining the points A (10, –6) and B (k, 4) and a – 2b
= 18, the values of k is
(a) 30 (b) 22 (c) 4 (d) 40
5. The coordinate of point P on X-axis equidistant from the points A (–1, 0) and B (5, 0) is
(a) (2, 0) (b) (0, 2) (c) (3, 0) (d) (2, 2)
 13 
6. A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through  , 0  . The point which does not lie in
2 
the interior of the circle is
 3   7  1  5
(a)   ,1 (b)  2,  (c)  5,   (d)  6, 
 4   3  2  2
7. If P(1, 2), Q(4, 6), R(5, 7) and S(a, b) are the vertices of a parallelogram PQRS, then
(a) a = 2, b = 4 (b) a = 3, b = 4(c) a = 2, b = 3 (d) a = 3, b = 5
8. The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the ΔAOB as shown
in the figure is
x y  y x
(a) (x, y) (b) (y, x) (c)  ,  (d)  , 
2 2 2 2

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In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): Mid-point of a line segment divides line in the ratio 1 : 1.
Reason (R): The ratio in which the point (–3, k) divides the line segment joining the points (–5,
4) and (–2, 3) is 1 : 2.
10. Assertion (A): The origin is the only point equidistant from (2, 3) and (-2, -3).
Reason (R): The origin is the mid-point of the line joining (2, 3) and (-2, -3).

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. The line segment AB joining the points A(3, –4) and B(1, 2) is trisected at the points P(p, –2)
and Q(5/3, q). Find the values of p and q.
12. Find the point on x-axis which is equidistant from the points (2, – 5) and (–2, 9).
13. Find the value of x such that PQ = QR where the coordinates of P, Q and R are (6, –1), (1, 3) and
(x, 8) respectively.
14. Find the coordinates of the point of trisection of the line segment joining (1, –2) and (–3, 4).
Ans: Let the points P and Q trisect AB.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Show that the points A(3, 5), B(6, 0), C(1, – 3) and D(–2, 2) are the vertices of a square ABCD.

16. In what ratio does the line x – y – 2 = 0 divide the line segment joining (3, –1) and (8, 9)?

17. Show that points A(7, 5), B(2, 3) and C(6, – 7) are the vertices of a right triangle. Also find its
area.
OR
Find the ratio in which the point (2, y) divides the line segment joining the points A(–2, 2) and
B(3, 7). Also find the value of y.
SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. Find the centre of a circle passing through (5, – 8), (2, – 9) and (2, 1).
OR
If the points (10, 5), (8, 4) and (6, 6) are the mid-points of the sides of a triangle, find its vertices.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. In a GPS, The lines that run east-west are known as lines of latitude, and the lines running north-
south are known as lines of longitude. The latitude and the longitude of a place are its
coordinates and the distance formula is used to find the distance between two places. The
distance between two parallel lines is approximately 150 km. A family from Uttar Pradesh
planned a round trip from Lucknow (L) to Puri (P) via Bhuj (B) and Nashik (N) as shown in the
given figure below.

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 Based on the above information answer the following questions using the coordinate geometry.
(i) Find the distance between Lucknow (L) to Bhuj(B).
(ii) If Kota (K), internally divide the line segment joining Lucknow (L) to Bhuj (B) into 3 : 2
then find the coordinate of Kota (K).
(iii) Name the type of triangle formed by the places Lucknow (L), Nashik (N) and Puri (P)
OR
Find a place (point) on the longitude (y-axis) which is equidistant from the points Lucknow (L)
and Puri (P).
20. Jagdhish has a field which is in the shape of a right angled triangle AQC. He wants to leave a
space in the form of a square PQRS inside the field from growing wheat and the remaining for
growing vegetables (as shown in the figure). In the field, there is a pole marked as O.

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 Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Taking O as origin, coordinates of P are (–200, 0) and of Q are (200, 0). PQRS being a
square, what are the coordinates of R and S?
(ii) (a) What is the area of square PQRS ?
OR
(b) What is the length of diagonal PR in square PQRS?
(iii) If S divides CA in the ratio K : 1, what is the value of K, where point A is (200, 800) ?

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 09 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 08 INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. (sec²θ – 1) (cosec²θ – 1) is equal to:

(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2

7
2. In ABC right angled at B, sin A = , then the value of cos C is ………….
25
7 24 7 24
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 25 24 7
5sin   3cos 
3. If 5 tan θ = 4, then the value of is
5sin   2 cos 
(a) 1/6 (b) 1/7 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/5

2sin A  3cos A
4. If cosec A = 13/12, then the value of
4sin A  9cos A
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3

5. Given that sin α = 1/2 and cos β = 1/2, then the value of (β – α) is
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°

6. If tan θ = 1, then the value of sec θ + cosec θ is:

(a) 3√2 (b) 4√2 (c) 2√2 (d) √2

1
7. If sin 2A = tan² 45° where A is an acute angle, then the value of A is
2
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 15°

8. If is an acute angle and tan + cot = 2, then the value of sin3 + cos3 is
1 2
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) 2
2 2

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

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(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): In a right ∆ABC, right angled at B, if tan A = 1, then 2 sin A. cos A = 1.
Reason (R): tan 45° = 1 and sin 45° = cos 45° = 1/√2

10. Assertion (A): sin (A + B) = sin A + sin B

Reason (R): For any value of θ, 1 + tan²θ = sec²θ

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle with AD = 8 cm and CD = 12 cm. Line segment CE is
drawn, making an angle of 60° with AB, intersecting AB at E. Find the length of CE and BE.

1
12. If sin (A + B) = √3/2 and sin (A – B) = , 0 ≤ A + B ≤ 90° and A > B, then find A and B.
2

13. Evaluate: 3 cos2 60° sec2 30° – 2 sin2 30° tan2 60°.

tan 2  cot 2 
14. Simplify: 
1  tan 2  1  cot 2 
OR
2 2
If 7 sin A + 3 cos A = 4, then find tan A

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

p2 1
15. If cosecθ + cotθ = p, then prove that cos  
p2 1

sin   cos   1
16. Prove that  sec   tan 
sin   cos   1
OR
If sin θ + cos θ = √3 , then prove that tan θ + cot θ = 1.

cos2  sin 2 
17. Prove that:   1  sin  cos 
1  tan  1  cot 
OR
If cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ, show that cos θ – sin θ = √2 sin θ.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. (a) Prove that (sinA + cosecA)2 + (cosA + secA)2 = 7 + tan2A + cot2A [3]
(b) If xsin3θ + ycos3θ = sinθ cosθ and xsinθ = ysinθ then find x2 + y2. [2]

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 SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. A sailing boat with triangular masts is shown below. Two right triangles can be observed.
Triangles ABC and ABD, both right-angled at B. The distance BC = 1 m and BD = 2 m and
height AB = 4 m.

Based on the given in formation, answer the following questions:

(a) Find the value of sec D. [1]
(b) Find the value of cosec C. [1]
(c) Find the value of tan D + cot C. [1]
(d) Find the value of sin²C + cos²D [1]

20. Varanasi is a city of temples, including the gold-plated Vishwanath temple of Lord Shiva; the
Bharat Mata, or Mother India, temple that boasts a huge three dimensional relief map of the
Indian subcontinent carved out of marble; and the hundreds of small temples that dot the
waterways and alleys. It is a city of scholars, home to one of Asia's largest universities. It is also
a city of legends. The figure below shows one such temple along the banks of the sacred river
“Ganges” or “Ganga”. A person sitting at point marked A looks at the top of a nearby temple and
imagines that a right angled triangle ABC can be drawn as shown in the figure below.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions. (Take √3 =1.732)
(a) Find the value of sin A. [1]
(b) Find the value of sin C. [1]
(c) Find the value of tan A – cot C. [1]
(d) Find the value of cosec²C. [1]

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 11 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 09 SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40
CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. If 300 m high pole makes an angle of elevation at a point on ground which is 300 m away from
its foot, then the angle of elevation is:
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 30° (d) 45°

2. The angle of depression of a bike parked on the road from the top of a 90 m high pole is 60
degrees. The distance of the bike from the pole is:
(a) 20√3 m (b) 90 m (c) 15√3 m (d) 30√3 m

3. A stone is 15√3 m away from a tower 15 m high, then the angle of elevation of the top of the
tower from the stone is:
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 90°

4. The ratio of the length of a tower and its shadow is √3 : 1. The altitude of the sun is:
(a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 30° (d) 45°

5. The tops of the poles of height 16 m and 10 m are connected by a wire of length l meters. If the
wire makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal, then l =
(a) 26 m (b) 16 m (c) 12 m (d) 10 m

6. The tops of two poles of heights 20 m and 14 m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an
angle of 30° with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is
(a) 8 m (b) 10 m (c) 12 m (d) 14 m

7. If the angle of depression of an object from a temple is 30°, and the distance of the object from
the temple is 45 m, then the height of the temple is:
(a) 45√3 m (b) 15√3 m (c) 20 m (d) 20√3 m

8. If two towers of heights h1 and h2 subtend angles of 60° and 30° respectively at the mid-point of
the line joining their feet, then h1 : h2 =
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

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9. Assertion (A): If the length of shadow of a vertical pole is equal to its height, then the angle of
elevation of the sun is 45º.
Reason (R): According to Pythagoras theorem, h² = l² + b², where h = hypotenuse, l = length and
b = base.

10. Assertion (A): The ladder 20 m long makes an angle 60° with the wall, then the height of the
point where the ladder touches the wall is 15 m.
Adjacent Side
Reason (R): For an angle θ, cos  
Hypotenuse

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. The angle of depression of a car standing on the ground, from the top of a 85 m high tower is
45º. Find the distance of the car from the base of the tower.

12. A pole casts a shadow of length 2√3 m on ground, when the sun’s elevation is 60°. Find the
height of the pole.

13. The figure shows the observation of point C from point A. Find the angle of depression from A.

14. The shadow of a flagstaff is three times as long as the shadow of the flagstaff when the sunrays
meet the ground at an angle of 60°. Find the angle between the sunrays and the ground at the
time of longer shadow.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. A man rowing a boat away from a lighthouse 150 m high takes 2 minutes to change the angle of
elevation of the top of lighthouse from 45° to 30°. Find the speed of the boat. (Use 3 = 1.732)

16. A man on the deck of a ship, 12 m above water level, observes that the angle of elevation of the
top of a cliff is 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the cliff is 30°. Find the distance of
the cliff from the ship and the height of the cliff. [Use 3 = 1.732]

17. As observed from the top of a 100 m high light house from the sea-level, the angles of
depression of two ships are 30⁰ and 45⁰. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side
of the light house, find the distance between the two ships [Use √3 = 1.732]

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.
18. At a point A, 20 metres above the level of water in a lake, the angle of elevation of a cloud is
30°. The angle of depression of the reflection of the cloud in the lake, at A is 60°. Find the
distance of the cloud from A.

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 SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)
Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height of 88.2 m
from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any instant is
60°. After 30 seconds, the angle of elevation reduces to 30° (see the below figure).

Based on the above information, answer the following questions. (Take √3 =1.732)
(i) Find the distance travelled by the balloon during the interval. (2)
(ii) Find the speed of the balloon. (2)
OR
(ii) If the elevation of the sun at a given time is 30°, then find the length of the shadow cast by a
tower of 150 feet height at that time. (2)

20. Anita purchased a new building for her business. Being in the prime location, she decided to
make some more money by putting up an advertisement sign for a rental ad income on the roof
of the building.

From a point P on the ground level, the angle of elevation of the roof of the building is 30° and
the angle of elevation of the top of the sign board is 45°. The point P is at a distance of 24 m
from the base of the building.

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 On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the height of the building (without the sign board). (2)
OR
Find the height of the building (with the sign board) (2)
(ii) Find the height of the sign board. (1)
(iii) Find the distance of the point P from the top of the sign board. (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 08 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 10 CIRCLES

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. In the given figure, PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with
centre C and radius 4cm. If PA ⊥ PB, then the length of each tangent is:

(a) 3 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 6 cm

2. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent at A. If ∠AOB
= 100°, then ∠BAT is equal to:

(a) 100° (b) 40° (c) 50° (d) 90°

3. In the figure, if PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O such that ∠APB = 50°, then
∠OAB is:

(a) 25º (b) 30º (c) 40º (d) 50º

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4. In the given figure, PT is a tangent at T to the circle with centre O. If ∠TPO = 25°, then x is
equal to:

(a) 25° (b) 65° (c) 90° (d) 115°

5. In figure if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q whose centre is O, AB is a chord parallel to PR

and BQR = 70°, then AQB is equal to

(a) 20° (b) 40° (c) 35° (d) 45°

6. In the given figure, quadrilateral ABCD is circumscribed, touching the circle at P, Q, R and S
such that ∠DAB = 90°, If CR = 23 cm and CB = 39 cm and the radius of the circle is 14 cm, then
the measure of AB is

(a) 37 cm (b) 16cm (c) 30 cm (d) 39 cm

7. A circle touches x-axis at A and y-axis at B. If O is origin and OA = 5 units, then diameter of the
circle is
(a) 8 units (b) 10 units (c) 10 2 units (d) 8 2 units

8. Two parallel lines touch the circle at points A and B respectively. If area of the circle is 25 π cm2,
then AB is equal to
(a) 5 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 25 cm

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

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9. Assertion (A): The length of the tangent drawn from a point 8 cm away from the centre of circle
of radius 6 cm is 2√7 cm.
Reason (R): If the angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, then the angle between the
tangents at the end points of radii at their point of intersection is 50°.

10. Assertion (A): A circle can have infinitely many tangents.

Reason (R): The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. In the given figure, AOB is a diameter of a circle with centre O and AC is a tangent to the circle
at A. If ∠BOC = 130º, then find ∠ACO.

12. In figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, find ∠PRQ.

13. Two concentric circles of radii a and b (a > b) are given. Find the length of the chord of the
larger circle which touches the smaller circle.

14. In the figure, if O is centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle of
50° with PQ, find ∠POQ.

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 SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. Prove that the rectangle circumscribing a circle is a square.

16. In the figure, a circle is inscribed in a ∆ABC, such that it touches the sides AB, BC and CA at
points D, E and F respectively. If the lengths of sides AB, BC and CA are 12 cm, 8 cm and 10
cm respectively, find the length of AD, BE and CF.

17. In the below figure, XY and X′Y′ are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another
tangent AB with point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X′Y′ at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. (a) Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. (4)
(b) In the given figure, common tangents AB and CD to two circles intersect at E. Prove that AB
= CD. (1)

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. A Ferris wheel (or a big wheel in the United Kingdom) is an amusement ride consisting of a
rotating upright wheel with multiple passenger carrying components (commonly referred to as
passenger cars, cabins, tubs, capsules, gondolas, or pods) attached to the rim in such a way that
as the wheel turns, they are kept upright, usually by gravity.

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 After taking a ride in Ferris wheel, Monika came out from the crowd and was observing her
friends who were enjoying the ride. She was curious about the different angles and measures that
the wheel will form. She forms the figure as given below.

(a) In the given figure, find ∠ROQ. (2)

(b) Find the measure of ∠RQP. (2)
OR
(b) Find measure of ∠RSQ. Also, find the sum of ∠ORP and ∠OQP. (2)

20. Varun has been selected by his School to design logo for Sports Day T-shirts for students and
staff. The logo is designed in different geometry and different colours according to the theme. In
given figure, a circle with centre O is inscribed in a ∆ABC, such that it touches the sides AB, BC
and CA at points D, E and F respectively. The lengths of sides AB, BC and CA are 12 cm, 8 cm
and 10 cm respectively.

(a) Find the length of AD and BE. (2)

OR
If the radius of the circle is 4 cm, find the area of ∆OAB.
(b) Find the perimeter of ∆ABC. (1)
(c) Find the length of CF. (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI, GPRA CAMPUS, HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 12 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 11 AREAS RELATED TO CIRCLES

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
1. What is the area of a semi-circle of diameter ‘d’?
1 1 1 1 2
(a) d2 (b)  d 2 (c)  d 2 (d) d
16 4 8 2

2. In the given figure, the area of the segment ACB is

r2 r2 r2 r2
(a) (  2) (b) (  2) (c) (  1) (d) (  1)
4 4 4 4

3. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of 6 cm is:

(a) 36π cm² (b) 18π cm² (c) 12π cm² (d) 9π cm²

4. The minute hand of a clock is 84 cm long. The distance covered by the tip of minute hand from
10:10 am to 10:25 am is :
(a) 44 cm (b) 88 cm (c) 132 cm (d) 176 cm

5. An arc of a circle is of length 5π cm and the sector it bounds has an area of 20π cm². Then the
radius of the circle is:
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 16 cm

6. If a square ABCD is inscribed in a circle of radius ‘r’ and AB = 4 cm, then the value of r is:
(a) 2 cm (b) 2 √2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 4 √2 cm

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7. ABC is an equilateral triangle. The area of the shaded region if the radius of each of the circle is
1 cm, is

  
(a) 2  (b) 3  (c) 3 (d) 3
3 2 4

8. If the difference between the circumference and the radius of of a circle is 37 cm, then using π
22
= , the circumference (in cm) of the circle is:
7
(a) 154 (b) 44 (c) 14 (d) 7

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): If the radius of an arc is 8 cm and the central angle is 40°, then the length of an
arc is 5.59 cm.

Reason (R): Length of arc =  r 2 
3600

10. Assertion (A): In a circle of radius 4 cm, the angle of a sector is 45°, then the area of the sector
is 44/7 cm².

Reason (R): Area of sector =  r 2 
3600

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. In the given figure, the shape of the top of a table is that a sector of a circle with centre O and
22
AOB = 90°. If AO = OB = 42 cm, then find the perimeter of the top of the table. [Use = ]
7

12. A plot is in the form of a rectangle ABCD having semicircle on BC as shown in the figure. The
semicircle portion is grassy while the remaining plot is without grass. Find the area of the plot
22
without grass where AB = 60 m and BC = 28 m. [Use = ]
7

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13. The measure of the minor arc of a circle is 1/5 of the measure of the corresponding major arc. If
the radius of the circle is 10.5 cm, find the area of the sector corresponding to the major arc. [ =
22/7]

14. A rectangular piece is 20 m long and 15 m wide. From its four corners, quadrants of radii 3.5 m
have been cut. Find the area of the remaining part.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. In the fig., find the perimeter of shaded region where ADC, AEB and BFC are semicircles on
diameters AC, AB and BC respectively.

16. In fig., ABC is a right-angled triangle, right-angled at A. Semicircles are drawn on AB, AC and
BC as diameters. Find the area of the shaded region.

17. In figure arcs have been drawn with radii 14 cm each and with centres P, Q and R. Find the area
of the shaded region.

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 SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. In the given figure, three circles each of radius 3.5 cm are drawn in such a way that each of them
touches the other two. Find the area of shaded region enclosed between these three circles. [Use
π = 22/7 and √3 = 1.732]

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.

19. Governing council of a local public development authority of Dehradun decided to build an
adventurous playground on the top of a hill, which will have adequate space for parking.
After survey, it was decided to build rectangular playground, with a semi–circular area allotted
for parking at one end of the playground. The length and breadth of the rectangular playground
are 14 units and 7 units, respectively. There are two quadrants of radius 2 units on one side for
special seats.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(a) What is the total perimeter of the parking area? (1)
(b) What is the total area of parking and the two quadrants? (2)
OR
What is the ratio of area of playground to the area of parking area?
(c) Find the cost of fencing the playground and parking area at the rate of ₹ 2 per unit. (1)

20. Sprinklers are crop irrigation equipment which rotate around a center and spay water on the
crops in the circular region.
Two such high powers sprinklers, occupying negligible area are installed in a straight line in a
field such that they spray water on an common area. Shown below are the side and top views
where points A and B are the sprinklers.

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 Side view of the sprinklers

Top view of the region sprayed

(Note: The figures are not to scale.)

Both the sprinklers spray over an equal area. It is given that, CD = 400 m and ∠CAD = ∠CBD =
90°.
(a) Find the radius of the circular region sprayed by the sprinkler. (1)
(b) Find the area of the overlapping region. (2)
(c) Find the perimeter of the overlapping region. (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 14 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 12 SURFACE AREAS AND VOLUMES

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS STANDARD MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. A solid figure made up of a right circular cylinder and a hemisphere of equal radius (r cm) has been
shown. The total surface area of the solid is equal to the surface area of a sphere with twice the
radius of this solid.

Which of the following gives the height of the cylinder in the above solid?
(a) 6r cm (b) 6.5r cm (c) 7r cm (d) 17.5r cm

2. Two identical solid cubes of side k units are joined end to end. What is the volume, in cubic units, of
the resulting cuboid?
(a) k³ (b) 2k³ (c) 3k³ (d) 6k³

3. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 27 : 64. The ratio of their surface areas is:
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9

4. The base radii of a cone and a cylinder are equal. If their curved surface areas are also equal, then the
ratio of the slant height of the cone to the height of the cylinder is:
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1

5. Two cubes each with 6 cm edge are joined end to end. The surface area of the resulting cuboid is:
(a) 180 cm² (b) 360 cm² (c) 300 cm² (d) 260 cm²

6. A sphere of diameter 18 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of diameter 36 cm, partly filled with
water. If the sphere is completely submerged, then the water level rises (in cm) by
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

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7. A rectangular block 6 cm × 12 cm × 15 cm is cut into exact number of equal cubes. The least
possible number of cubes will be
(a) 6 (b) 11 (c) 33 (d) 40
8. A solid is in the shape of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same base radius. If the curved surface
areas of the hemispherical part and the conical part are equal, then find the ratio of the radius and the
height of the conical part.
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : √3 (c) √3 : 1 (d) 3 : 1

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): If two identical solid cube of side 7 cm are joined end to end. Then the total surface
area of the resulting cuboid is 490 cm2.
Reason (R): Total surface area of cuboid = lb + bh + hl
10. Assertion (A): The radii of two cones are in the ratio 2 : 3 and their volumes in the ratio 1 : 3. Then
the ratio of their heights is 3 : 2.
1
Reason (R): Volume of the cone =  r 2 h .
3

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. A hollow cube of internal edge 22cm is filled with spherical marbles of diameter 0.5 cm and it is
assumed that 1/8 space of the cube remains unfilled. Find the number of marbles that the cube can
accommodate.
1
12. The volume of a right circular cylinder with its height equal to the radius is 25 cm3. Find the height
7
of the cylinder. [Use π = 22/7]
13. A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of the solid is 20 cm
and the diameter of the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the total volume of the solid. [Use π = 22/7]
OR
A medicine-capsule is in the shape of a cylinder of radius 0.25 cm with two hemispheres stuck to
each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 2 cm. What is the total surface area of the
capsule?
14. In the below figure, a tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. The cylindrical
part is 3.5 m high and conical part has slant height 4.2 m. Both the parts have same radius 2 m. Find
the area of the canvas used to make the tent. [Use π = 22/7]

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 SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. A sector of a circle of radius 12 cm has the angle 120°. It is rolled up so that two bounding radii are
joined together to form a cone. Find the volume of the cone.

16. A godown building is in the form as shown in the figure.

The vertical cross section parallel to the width side of the building is a rectangle of dimensions 7 m ×
3 m, mounted by semicircle of radius 3.5 m. The inner measurements of the cuboidal portion of the
building are 10 m × 7 m × 3 m. Find the interior surface excluding the floor.

17. A conical vessel of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm is completely filled with water. A sphere is lowered
into the water and its size is such that when it touches the sides, it is just immersed. What fraction of
water overflows?

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. There are two identical solid cubical boxes of side 7 cm. From the top face of the first cube a
hemisphere of diameter equal to the side of the cube is scooped out. This hemisphere is inverted and
placed on the top of the second cube’s surface to form a dome. Find :
(a) the ratio of the total surface area of the two new solid formed.
(b) volume of each new solid formed.
OR
A rocket is in the form of a right circular cylinder closed at the lower end and surmounted by a cone
with the same radius as that of the cylinder. The diameter and height of the cylinder are 6 cm and 12
cm, respectively. If the slant height of the conical portion is 5 cm, find the total surface area and
volume of the rocket [Use = 3.14].

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. The word ‘circus’ has the same root as ‘circle’. In a closed circular area, various entertainment acts
including human skill and animal training are presented before the crowd.

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 A circus tent is cylindrical upto a height of 8 m and conical above it. The diameter of the base is 28
m and total height of tent is 18.5 m.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
(i) Find slant height of the conical part. (1)
(ii) Determine the floor area of the tent. (1)
(iii) (a) Find area of the cloth used for making tent. (2)
OR
(b) Find total volume of air inside an empty tent.

20. Khurja is a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh famous for the pottery. Khurja pottery is
traditional Indian pottery work which has attracted Indians as well as foreigners with a variety of
tea-sets, crockery and ceramic tile works. A huge portion of the ceramics used in the country is
supplied by Khurja and is also refered as ‘‘The Ceramic Town’’.
One of the private schools of Bulandshahr organised an Educational Tour for class 10 students to
Khurja. Students were very excited about the trip. Following are the few pottery objects of Khurja.

Students found the shapes of the objects very interesting and they could easily relate them with
mathematical shapes viz sphere, hemisphere, cylinder etc. Maths teacher who was accompanying the
students asked following questions :
(a) The internal radius of hemispherical bowl (filled completely with water) in I is 9 cm and radius
and height of cylindrical jar in II is 1.5 cm and 4 cm respectively. If the hemispherical bowl is to be
emptied in cylindrical jars, then how many cylindrical jars are required ? (2)
(b) If in the cylindrical jar full of water, a conical funnel of same height and same diameter is
immersed, then how much water will flow out of the jar ? (2)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 16 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 13 STATISTICS

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. In a continuous frequency distribution with usual notations, if l = 32.5, f1 = 15, f0 = 12, f2 = 8 and h =
8, then the mode of the data is:
(a) 32.5 (b) 33.5 (c) 33.9 (d) 34.9

2. For the following distribution:

Height (in cm) Below Below Below Below Below Below
140 145 150 155 160 165
No. of Students 4 11 29 40 46 51
the upper limit of the modal class is
(a) 165 (b) 160 (c) 155 (d) 150
3. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights (in cm) of 60 students of a class:
Class 150 – 155 155 – 160 160 – 165 165 – 170 170 – 175 175 – 180
Frequency 15 13 10 8 9 5
The upper limit of the median class in the given data is:
(a) 165 (b) 155 (c) 160 (d) 170
4. If mode of some data is 7 and their mean is also 7 then their median is
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) 7

5. The mean and median of a distribution are 14 and 15, respectively. The value of the mode is:
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 13

6. If the value of each observation of a statistical data is increased by 3, then the mean of the data
(a) remains unchanged (b) increases by 3 (c) increases by 6 (d) increases by 3n

7. Consider the following distribution:

Marks Obtained No. of Students
More than or equal to 0 63
More than or equal to 10 58
More than or equal to 20 55
More than or equal to 30 51
More than or equal to 40 48
More than or equal to 50 42
The frequency of the class 30–40 is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 48 (d) 51

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8. Consider the following frequency distribution of the heights (in cm) of 60 students of a class:
Class 150 – 155 155 – 160 160 – 165 165 – 170 170 – 175 175 – 180
Frequency 16 12 9 7 10 6
The sum of the lower limit of the modal class and the upper limit of the median class is
(a) 310 (b) 315 (c) 320 (d) 330

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

9. Assertion (A): If the value of mode and median is 50.5 and 45.5 respectively, then the value of 2
mean is 86.
Reason (R): Median = (Mode + 2 Mean)

10. Assertion (A): Consider the following frequency distribution:

Class Interval 10 – 15 15 – 20 20 – 25 25 – 30 30 – 35
Frequency 5 9 12 6 8
The modal class is 10 – 15.
Reason (R): The class having maximum frequency is called the modal class.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. If mode of the following frequency distribution is 55 then find the value of x.
Class 0 – 15 15 – 30 30 – 45 45 – 60 60 – 75 75 – 90
Frequency 10 7 x 15 10 12

12. The mode of a grouped frequency distribution is 75 and the modal class is 65-80. The frequency of
the class preceding the modal class is 6 and the frequency of the class succeeding the modal class is
8. Find the frequency of the modal class.

13. If the mean of the following frequency distribution is 62.8, then find the missing frequency x :
Class 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100 100 – 120
Frequency 5 8 x 12 7 8

14. Calculate median marks of the following data:

Marks 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 Total
No. of Students 8 16 36 34 6 100

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution is 53. Find the value of k.
Class 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
Frequency 12 15 32 k 13

16. The below table shows the ages of persons who visited a museum on a certain day. Find the median
age of the person visiting the museum.
Age (in years) Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
10 20 30 40 50 60
No. of persons 3 10 22 40 54 71

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17. Heights of 50 students in class X of a school are recorded and following data is obtained:
Height (in cm) 130 – 135 135 – 140 140 – 145 145 – 150 150 – 155 155 – 160
No. of students 4 11 12 7 10 6
Find the median height of the students.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. The distribution below gives the marks of 40 students of a class, if the median marks are 32.5, find
the frequencies f1 and f2
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
No. of students f1 5 9 12 f2 3 2 40
OR
The mean of the following data is 42. Find the missing frequencies x and y if the sum of frequencies
is 100.
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 7 10 x 13 y 10 14 9

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. India meteorological department observe seasonal and annual rainfall every year in different
subdivisions of our country.

It helps them to compare and analyse the results. The table given below shows sub-division wise
seasonal (monsoon) rainfall (mm) in 2018 :
Rainfall (in mm) Number of Sub-divisions
200 – 400 2
400 – 600 4
600 – 800 7
800 – 1000 4
1000 – 1200 2
1200 – 1400 3
1400 – 1600 1
1600 – 1800 1

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(a) Write the modal class.
(b) Find the median of the given data.
OR
Find the mean rainfall in this season.

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 (c) If sub-division having at least 1000 mm rainfall during monsoon season, is considered good
rainfall sub-division, then how many sub-divisions had good rainfall?

20. ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’ is a country-wide campaign initiated by our Honourable Prime Minister
of India, Mr. Narendra Singh Modi in the year 2014 to eliminate open defecation, to improve solid
waste management and to accelerate the efforts to achieve universal sanitisation.

As part of the ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, some houses of a locality in Agra decided to clean up and
beautify a Primary School of their locality by planting a number of plants. They involved the school
kids and the local community in doing so.
The data indicating the number of plants contributed by different houses is tabulated below:
Number of plants contributed Number of houses
1–3 10
4–6 8
7–9 x
10 – 12 7
13 – 15 12
16 – 18 4

(a) If the mean number of plants contributed is 8.9, then how many houses contributed 7 to 9 plants?
(2)
(b) What is the median class? (1)
(c) Find the median number of plants contributed. (1)

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PM SHRI KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA GACHIBOWLI,GPRA CAMPUS,HYD–32
PRACTICE PAPER 15 (2024-25)
CHAPTER 14 PROBABILITY

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS STANDARD MAX. MARKS : 40

CLASS : X DURATION : 1½ hrs
General Instructions:
(i). All questions are compulsory.
(ii). This question paper contains 20 questions divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii). Section A comprises of 10 MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 2 marks
each. Section C comprises of 3 questions of 3 marks each. Section D comprises of 1 question of 5
marks each and Section E comprises of 2 Case Study Based Questions of 4 marks each.
(iv). There is no overall choice.
(v). Use of Calculators is not permitted

SECTION – A
Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.

1. There is a square board of side ‘2a’ units circumscribing a yellow circle. Jayadev is asked to keep a
dot on the above said board. The probability that he keeps the dot on the shaded region is:
(a) /4 (b) (4 − ) /4 (c) ( − 4) /4 (d) 4/

2. If a card is drawn from a deck of cards, what is the probability of a card drawn to be a red or a black
card and what can we say about that event?
(a) 1 and it is a sure event. (b) 0 and it is a sure event.
(c) 1 and it is an impossible event. (d) 0 and it is an impossible event.

3. In an MCQ test, a student guesses the correct answer x out of y times. If the probability that the
student guesses the answer to be wrong is 2/3 then what is the relation between x and y
(a) y = 3x (b) x = 3y (c) 3x = 2y (d) 2x = 3y

4. If a letter is chosen at random from the letters of English alphabets, then the probability that it is a
letter of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’ is:
(a) 4/13 (b) 9/26 (c) 5/13 (d) 11/26

5. Cards numbered 7 to 40 were put in a box. Anish selects a card at random. What is the probability
that the selected card is a multiple of 7?
(a) 7/34 (b) 5/34 (c) 6/35 (d) 7/35

6. A bowl contains 3 red and 2 blue marbles.

Roohi wants to pick a red marble. Which of the following changes could she make so that the
probability of picking a red marble is greater than it was before?
(i) Adding a red marble
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 (ii) Removing a blue marble
(iii) Adding 1 red and 1 blue marble
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i) and (ii) (c) Only (i) and (iii) (d) All of the above

7. A dice is thrown twice. The probability of getting 4, 5 or 6 in the first throw and 1, 2, 3 or 4 in the
second throw is:
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4

8. A school has five houses A, B, C, D and E. A class has 23 students, 4 from house A, 8 from house B,
5 from house C, 2 from house D and the rest from house E. A single student is selected at random to
be the class monitor. The probability that the selected student is not from houses A, B and C is:
(a) 4/23 (b) 6/23 (c) 8/23 (d) 17/23

In the following questions 9 and 10, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
9. Assertion (A): The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is 2/7.
Reason (R): The probability that a non–leap year has 53 Sundays is 5/7.

10. Assertion (A): The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of good
eggs in the lot is 386.
Reason (R): If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be
1 – p.

SECTION – B
Questions 11 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
11. Cards, marked with numbers 5 to 50, are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. A card is drawn
from the box at random. Find the probability that the number on the taken card is
(i) a prime number less than 10. (ii) a number which is a perfect square.

12. The king, queen and jack of diamonds are removed from a pack of 52 cards and then the pack is well
shuffled. A card is drawn from the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting a card of (i)
diamonds, (ii) a jack

13. Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability
(i) that the number on each dice is even
(ii) that the sum of numbers appearing on two dice is 5.

14. Find the probability that a leap year should have exactly 52 tuesday.

SECTION – C
Questions 15 to 17 carry 3 marks each.

15. A bag contains 12 balls out of which x are white.

(i) If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it will be a white ball?
(ii) If 6 more white balls are put in the bag, the probability of drawing a white ball will be double
than that in (i). Find x.

16. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a face card or a black card (ii) neither an ace nor a king (iii) a jack and a black card

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17. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the numbers obtained:
(a) have a sum less than 7 (b) have a product less than 16 (c) is a doublet of odd numbers.

SECTION – D
Questions 18 carry 5 marks.

18. From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks and Kings of red colour and Queens and Aces of black
colour are removed. The remaining cards are mixed and a card is drawn at random. Find the
probability that the drawn card is:
(a) a black queen. (b) a card of red colour. (c) a Jack of black colour. (d) a face card.

SECTION – E (Case Study Based Questions)

Questions 19 to 20 carry 4 marks each.
19. A school offers several sports to its students such as cricket, football, basketball, tennis, badminton
and swimming. Based on past records, the sports teacher prepared a pie chart as shown below
showing preference of students towards a particular sport.

(a) Find the probability of favourite sport being either swimming or badminton.
(b) Find the probability of favourite sport being neither football nor cricket.
(c) Find the probability of favourite sport being basketball, tennis or cricket.

20. Two friends are travelling in a bus. They were feeling bored, so they started playing a game with a
pair of dice that one of them had. Each of them started rolling the pair of dice one by one, stating
one condition before rolling. If the person gets the numbers according to the condition stated by him,
he wins and get a score.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) (a) First friend says, “a doublet”. What is the probability of his winning? (1)
(b) Second friend says, ‘‘sum less than 9’’. What is the probability of his winning? (1)
(ii) (a) First one says, “6 will come up either time.” What is the probability of his winning? (1)
(b) Second one says, “sum is an even number”. What is the probability of his losing? (1)

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