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network test 1 2023

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network test 1 2023

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-2023

Instructions to candidates

Answer ALL questions (2 marks each question).

Question 1

1. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose
two.)

What are the proper statements? (Choose two)


A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

2. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?
A. default gateway address IP address
B. logical address
C. MAC address
D. default gateway address

3. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which
two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
A. DHCPREQUEST
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPDISCOVER
D. DHCPNACK
E. DHCPACK

4. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
A. A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
B. The network is administered by a single organization.
C. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased
connection.
D. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service
provider.
E. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a
common organization.
F. Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service
Provider (TSP).

5. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?


A. the destination device on the local media
B. the destination host address
C. the bits that will be transferred over the media
D. the source application or process creating the data

6. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?


A. It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
B. It accepts frames from the physical media.
C. It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
D. It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

7. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?


A. wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
B. avoiding sharp bends during installation
C. requiring proper grounding connections
D. designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
E. twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
8. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
A. token passing
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. priority ordering

9. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?


A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport

10. Refer to the graphic.


Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of
the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of the server network interface
B. the MAC address of host A
C. the MAC address of router interface e1
D. the MAC address of router interface e0

11. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known
applications?
A. 0 to 255
B. 256 to 1022
C. 0 to 1023
D. 1024 to 2047
E. 49153 to 65535

12. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?


A. acknowledgement of data delivery
B. minimal delays in data delivery
C. high reliability of data delivery
D. same order data delivery
13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts
on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this
problem? (Choose two.)
A. Replace S2 with a router.
B. Place all servers on S1.
C. Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
D. Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
E. Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

14. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
A. If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the
previous router.
B. If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to
the destination host.
C. If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general
route is used to forward the packet.
D. If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the
packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
E. If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote
network can be forwarded using that route.
F. If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network,
the host will drop the packet.
15. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. It supports VLSM.

B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

16. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols?
(Choose two.)
A. require no device configuration
B. provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
C. require less processing power than static routes require
D. consume bandwidth to exchange route information
E. prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
17. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple
devices to share one public IP address?
A. ARP
B. DNS
C. SMB
D. DHCP
E. HTTP
F. NAT

18. What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its
final destination?
A. destination port
B. destination IP
C. source IP
D. source Layer 2 address

19. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?


A. A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network
segment.
B. A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all
destinations.
C. A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the
local network.
D. A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network
when no other route to the destination exists.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway
address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
A. 192.135.250.1
B. 192.31.7.1
C. 192.133.219.0
D. 192.133.219.1

21. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.4.127 /26
B. 172.16.4.155 /26
C. 172.16.4.193 /26
D. 172.16.4.95 /27
E. 172.16.4.159 /27
F. 172.16.4.207 /27

22. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)


A. NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
B. Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
C. Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
D. Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
E. IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

23. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP
addresses? (Choose three.)
A. LAN workstations
B. servers
C. network printers
D. routers
E. remote workstations
F. laptops

24. What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?


A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

25. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point

B. A network with more than one exit and entry point

C. A network with only one entry and no exit point

D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

26. What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
A. 200.10.5.56

B. 200.10.5.32

C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0

27. Very briefly outline how the CRC method functions. [5]

28. With reference to the Transport Control Protocol (TCP), explain how each of the
following is achieved:
i) Data recovery:
ii) Flow control:
iii) Guaranteed delivery [6]

29. List any three situations where it would be ideal to configure static routing. [6]

30. Write the subnet, broadcast address, and valid host range for each of the following:
[15]
i) 192.168.100.25/30
ii) 192.168.100.37/28
iii) 192.168.100.66/27
iv) 192.168.100.17/29
v) 192.168.100.99/26
31.

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