CNS 1 Module
CNS 1 Module
CNS1
EMBRYONIC DIVISION
1. A patient was observed to have a unilateral sudden, violent, flailing motion of his upper and lower
extremities. What subdivision of the developing brain is the structure affected classified?
a. Myelencephalon
b. Telencephalon
c. Metencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
e. NOTA
1
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2. The following are structures present in the central nervous system except:
a. Schwann Cells
b. Nerve tract
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Glial cells
NEUROCONDITION1
MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
Autoimmune disease with segmental demyelination, inflammation and gliosis.
Other name: Demyelination disease of CNS, Crippling disease of young adult
Etiology
• idiopathic
Risk factors
• F>
• 20-40 years old
• Temperate places
• Family History
• Smoking
• Decrease Vit D levels
2
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Sites of Predilection
• Periventricular White Matter
• Optic Nerve
• Brainstem
• Cortex
• CST
• Cerebellum
• Cervical Spinal Cord ( Posterior White Column )
7 functional systems
• Visual
• Pyramidal
• Sensory
• Cerebellum
• Brainstem
• Bowel/Bladder/Sexual
• Mental
POBCCCC
Multiple Sclerosis
Ni Charcot Iyan
Common sa Babae
Na Adult young
That lives in a Cold
Far far away
Immune Disease
With SIN no way
Hallmark nito ay plaque 3x
Makikitamo sa MRI
Bigyan mo ng Interferon
Betaseron, Extavia, Avonex, Rebif
85-relapsing remitting
20 secondary
10 primary
5 PRMS
3
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3. A 21-year-old right handed female student was working in the photography lab 1 week ago, which
required standing all day. After that, she experienced a cold sensation in the left foot and her entire
left leg fell asleep. The feeling lasted 4 to 5 days and then slowly went away. Her right lower
extremity was fine. She had a slight back pain, which she thought was due to using a poor mattress.
Past history includes an episode of optic neuritis in the left eye 2 years ago. One day, her left eye
became blurred and her vision went out. In 1 week, her vision returned to normal. She has not had
a repeat episode since then. She had an MRI of her brain, which was normal that time. Examination
is significant for brisk reflexes and sustained clonus at the right ankle. Babinski sign is present on
the right. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
a. Stoke
b. Transcient ischemic attack
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. GBS
e. Parkinson’s disease
4
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6. Characterized by discrete attacks of neurological deficits (relapse) with either full or partial recovery
(remission) in subsequent weeks to months.
a. RRMS
b. SPMS
c. PPMS
d. PRMS
Relapsing-Remitting MS Primary-Progressive MS
· Characterized by discrete attacks of · Characterized by disease progression
neurological deficits (relapse) with either full or and steady function decline from onset;
partial recovery (remission) in subsequent patients may experience modest fluctuations
weeks to months. in neurological disability but discrete attacks
· The periods between relapses are do not occur
characterized by lack of disease progression · PPMS is associated with LATER
· The stable patient may have a local ONSET and more equal gender distribution
inflammatory activity that is clinically silent · Affect 10% of the patients with MS
· Affect 85% of the patients
5
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CEREBRUM
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7. This divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes
a. longitudinal cerebral fissure
b. parietooccipital fissure
c. Rolandic sulcus
d. Sylvian sulcus
e. calcarine sulcus
LOBE FUNCTIONS:
Frontal – Motor, Language, Intelligence, Cognition, Judgment
Parietal- Sensation and Perception
Temporal- Hearing, Memory, Smell
Occipital- Vision
Insular- Emotion and Pain
Limbic- Memory, Olfaction, Sex Drive, Emotion
8. A 99 year-old woman was found unconscious at home. Two days later, the therapist examines her
in the hospital. Findings include normal sensation and movement on the right side of the body with
impaired sensation (touch, pressure, proprioception) and paralysis on the left side of the body. The
left side of her lower face and her trunk are similarly impaired. The most likely location of the lesion
is the
a. left side of brainstem
b. left parietal lobe
c. spinal cord
d. right parietal lobe
9. The patient has experienced a lesion in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere. Which of the
following would most likely be affected?
a. vision
b. sensory perception and interpretation
c. personality and speech
d. hearing and comprehension of speech
7
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10. The motor homunculus is located on the ______, while the somatosensory homunculus is located
on the _____.
a. Precentral gyrus of the parietal lobe; Postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
b. Postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe; Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
c. Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe; Postcentral lobe of the parietal lobe
d. Postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe; Precentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
FIBER CONNECTION:
• Commissural Fiber – connects corresponding regions of two hemisphere
• Corpus callosum
• Anterior commissure
• Posterior commissure
• Habenular commissure
• Association Fiber – connects various cortical regions within the same hemisphere
• ARCUATE FASCICULUS
• Superior Longitudinal Fasciculus
• Inferior Longitudinal Fasciculus
• Fronto-Occipital Fasciculus
• Projection Fiber – connects cerebral hemisphere with interior structures
8
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BA 19 BA 18,19
Simultagnosia (di ma-construct bigger picture; common in Balint
Syndrome)
Prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces)
12. A patient with brain injury has visual agnosia. As a PT that has proper knowledge of the different
areas of the brain and their functions, where is the most probable lesion in this condition:
a. area 18, 19
b. area 5,7
c. area 3, 1, 2
d. area 41
9
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CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
• Functions
• Absorbs shock and protects the brain and the spinal cord
• Helps transport nutrients and wastes from the blood and the nervous tissue
• Regulate ICP (N: 60-150 mmhg)
• ”PNR” (Protect-Nutrients-Regulates ICP)
CSF FLOW:
1. Choroid Plexus
2. Lateral Ventricles (2)
3. Interventricular Foramen (Foramen of Monroe)
4. 3rd Ventricle
5. Cerebral aqueduct of sylvius
6. 4th Ventricle
7. Openings
- Foramen of Magendie (Medial)
- Foramen of Luschka (Lateral)
8. Central Canal
9. Subarachnoid Space (End: S2-S3)
10. Arachnoid Villi
14. This is the midline opening at the inferior part of the roof of fourth ventricle towards the
subarachnoid space where most of the CSF passes through.
a. Foramen of Monro
b. Foramen of Luschka
c. Foramen of Magendie
d. Foramen Magnum
10
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NEUROCONDITION2
TBI
16. Which of the following is not true about diffuse axonal injury (DAI)?
a. Primarily occurs at grey matter
b. Only seen in traumatic brain injury (TBI)
c. Responsible for loss of conscience (LOC)
d. Occurs from acceleration-deceleration and rotational forces
11
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17. During muscle tone testing, you noted slight resistance to passive movement manifested by a
catch, followed by a resistance throughout less than half of the remaining ROM. Using the modified
Ashworth Scale of Spasticity, your assessment should be:
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 1+
c. Grade 2
d. Grade 3
e. Grade 4
Score Description
Tardieu Scale
SCORE DESCRIPTION
12
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18. A fatiguable clonus, less than 10 seconds when maintaining pressure, appearing at a precise angle.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None of these
PRINCIPLES OF EXPERIENCE-DEPENDENT
NEUROPLASTICITY
failure to drive specific brain functions can
lead to functional degradation
training that drives a specific brain function
can lead to an enhancement of that function
the nature of the training experience dictates
the nature of the plasticity
induction of plasticity requires sufficient
repetition
Induction of plasticity requires sufficient
training intensity
different forms of plasticity occur at different
times during training
the training experience must be sufficiently
salient to induce plasticity
training-induced plasticity occurs more readily
in younger brains
plasticity in response to one training
experience can enhance the acquisition of
similar behaviors
13
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20. Which of the following is true about Glasgow Coma Scale in traumatic brain injury?
a. A GCS of 2 is a severe injury
b. A GCS of 8 is a moderate injury
c. A GCS of 10 is a moderate injury
d. A GCS of 12 is a mild injury
Severity of TBI
MILD MODERATE SEVERE
LOC: 0-30 30-1 >1
PTA: 0-1 1-7 >7
GCS score 13-15 mild 9-12 moderate 3-8 OMG that’s severe
naman and you wouldn’t even feel
if I touch you
14
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22. 32 yr old male with TBI patient can initiate social interaction, but still presents with impaired
judgment. What is his level in the Ranchos Level of Cognitive functioning scale?
a. Level III: Localized response
b. Level VII: Automatic, appropriate response
c. Level I: No response
d. Level IV: confused agitated response
e. Level VI: Confused, appropriate response
RLA
I- No Response Pt is in deep sleep
II- Generelized Response Responses may be physiologic body changes
Responses is limited and the same regardless of the type
of stimulus
III- Localised Response May follow simple command inconsistently
Responses is directly related to the type of stimulus
IV- Confused Agitated Bizzare behaviour
Pt is in heightened state of activity
No short term recall
V- Confused Inappropriate Simple commands are followed fairly consistently
No learning is possible
VI- Confused Appropriate May follow simple direction consistently
Goal directed behaviour
+ carry over for relearned task
VII – Automatic Appropriate Pt performs daily activity automatically , ROBOT LIKE
+ new learning @ a decreased rate JUDGMENT IMPAIRED
VIII- Purposeful Appropriate + Abstract reasoning
+ new learning without supervision
Environmental awareness
IX- Purposeful and
Appropriate with stand-by
assistance upon request
X- Purposeful and
appropriate modified
assitance
15
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Basal Ganglia
23. Which of the following statements is true of the lesions of basal ganglia?
A. muscle tone abnormalities and involuntary movements
B. disorders involving initiation of movement
C. difficulty in continuing and stopping movement
D. all of these
24. Identify the following movement disorder: Large-amplitude, sudden, violent, flailing motions of the
arm and leg of one side of the body
a. HEMIBALLISMUS
b. TREMOR
c. ATHETOSIS
d. CHOREA
e. ASCOGNIA
Movement
Disorders
Chorea Brief rapid, forceful, dysrhytmic, discrete, purposeless,
flinging of limb
Athetosis Slow, writhing movements and inability to maintain position
of limb or body part
Ballismus Large amplitude, flinging movement of limb (usually
proximal)
Dystonia Sustained muscle contraction that leads to repetitive twisting
movements of variable speed and abnormal posture
Tremor Rhytmic, oscillatory movements of a body part
Tic Intermittent, repetitive, stereotypical, abrupt, jerky, typically
affecting the face and head
Stereotypy Purposeless, uniformly repetitive, voluntary, movement of
whole body areas
Akathisia Subjective restlessness, compulsion to move about
Myoclonus Sudden, brief, irregular, contraction of a group of muscle
16
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25. Tourette syndrome is a disorder in which of the persons have any of the following except:
a. Multiple motor and vocal tics
b. Paranoid delusions and hallucinations
c. Obscene and scatologic vocalizations
d. Onset of disease by 21 years of age
e. Persistence of disease for more than 1 year
Diagnostic criteria for tourette syndrome from the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition
(DSM-IV-TR)
1. Both multiple and one or more vocal tics must be present at some time during the illness, although not necessarily
concurrently
2. The tics occur many times a day (usually in bouts nearly every day or intermittently) over more than 1 year, during
which time there must not have been a tic free period of more than 3 consecutive months.
3. The age at onset is younger than 18 years.
4. The disturbance is not caused by the direct physiologic effects of a substance or general medical condition
26. On CT scanning of the brain of the patient with Huntington disease, atrophy is usually most evident
in the:
a. Cerebellum
b. Subthalamic nucleus
c. Pons
d. Putamen snd subthalamic nucleus
e. Substansia nigra
PD
Primary PD 78%
Shaking Palsy
Idiopathic, Genetic, Most Common
• PIGD (postural instability gait disturbed)
• Tremor Predominant
Secondry PD
Least Common
- Encephalitis Lethargica (Von Economo’s Dse) - Post infectious
- Dementia Pugilistica (Punch-Drunk Syn) - Post traumatic (Boxers)
- Manganese - Toxic
- Wilson’s disease (Hepatolenticular degeneration) - Copper Accumulation
- Drug induced - Anti-Hypertensive, Anti-Depressant, Anti-Psychotic
17
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29. Which of the Parkinson plus syndrome is characterized by onset of 40 - 60 years of age, involving
weakness in lower extremities (LE) with possible intention tremor of LE, and ataxia plus dysarthria?
a. Multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome)
b. Supranuclear palsy
c. Olivopontocerebellar atrophy
d. Striatonigral degeneration
30. All of the following clinical presentation are considered positive phenomena:
a. Tremor
b. Rigidity
c. Flexed posture
Positive Prognostic Negative Prognostic Indicator
d. Freezing phenomenon
Indicator
31. What stage in Hoehn- Yahr classification does the patient demonstrate, if the patient has restricted
movements and unsteadiness when turning or rising from a chair?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
19
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IV - All symptoms present and severe 4 – Severe disability; still able to walk or stand
Standing and walking possible only with assistance assisted. Requires help with some activities of
daily living
DIENCEPHALON DIVISIONS
Thalamus
▪Major relay station for most sensory impulses
Hypothalamus
▪Control of the ANS
▪Production of hormones
▪Regulation of emotional and behavioral patterns, eating and drinking, body temperature, and circadian
rhythms
Subthalamus
▪Plays a role in motor control
▪
Epithalamus
▪Consists of pineal gland which secretes a hormone called melatonin – induces sleep
32. The following are the four major parts of diencephalon except:
a. Thalamus
b. Subthalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Claustrum
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33. These regions of the brain appear to be directly responsible for the regulatory function of
maintaining the body temperature at 34°C.
a. corticomedial amygdala
b. preventricular zone of hypothalamus
c. preoptic and anterior hypothalamic area
d. dentate gyrus and hippocampus
CEREBELLUM
- “little brain”
- With 2 hemispheres IPSILATERAL AFFECTATION
21
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34. Symptoms of Incoordination, dysdiadochokinesia, & dysmetria can be expected with a lesion
located in the
a. neocerebellum
b. spinocerebellum
c. vermis
d. vestibulocerebellum
35. A physical therapist completes a coordination assessment on a 67-year-old patient with central
nervous system involvement. After reviewing the results of the assessment, the therapist
concludes the clinical findings are indicative of cerebellar dysfunction. Which finding is NOT
associated with cerebellar dysfunction?
a. Dysmetria
b. Hypertonia
c. Ataxia
d. Nystagmus
22
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