PREPARED FOR

PREPARED BY
Std : 10 : Stars

DIWALI
ASSIGNMENT

HAPPY
DIWALI
~ TEAM GURUKUL
Following students write this assignment.
STANDARD
ROLL NUMBER
/ DIVISION

1,2,3,4,5,7,10,11,12,14,17,18,21,22,23,24,25,27,28,29,34,36,38,3
10-A
9,40,41,42, 44,45,47,49,50,53,54,55
1,2,4,9,11,12,14,15,16,17,18,19,21,22,23,24,27,29,30,35,36,37,39
10-B
,40,41,42, 46,47,48,49,50,52,53,54,55,57
1,2,3,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,13,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,
10-C 26,27,29,31,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,
48,49,50,51, 53,54,55,56,57,58

12-A 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,12,14,16,19,21,26,28,29,33,35,38
 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SUBJECT :- SCIENCE

CH :- 1 : CHEMICAL REACTION AND EQUATION

1. Potato chips manufacturers usually flushed bags of chips with which inert gas to prevent the
chips from getting oxidized?
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Chlorine D) Nitrogen
2. Due to the process of corrosion, ____________ colour coating is seen on silver.
3. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
i) Lead is getting reduced ii) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised
iii) Carbon is getting oxidised iv) Lead oxide is getting reduced
A) (i) and (ii) B) (i) and (iii) C) (i), (ii) and (iii) D) All
4. When silver article is exposed to air, coating of which material will be formed on it?
5. ZnO + C → Zn + CO In given equation reduction takes place in _________ substance.
6. Burning of coal is ____________ type of reaction.
A) Displacement B) Decomposition C) Combination D) Double displacement
7. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
8. Write differences between endothermic reactions and exothermic reactions?
9. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of
heat, light or electricity.

CH :- 2 : ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

1. [T/F] Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
2. Write chemical formula of bleaching powder.
3. [T/F] Methanoic acid is responsible for inflammation from nettle sting.
4. Water is removed when substance ‘X’ is heated, as well as its colour changes from green, then
substance X = ________.
a) CaSO4 B) CuSO4 C) FeSO4 D) BaSO4
5. Write the chemical name of substance which is used by doctor to cure bone fracture.
6. Which of the following is synthetic indicator?
A) Phenolphthalein B) Litmus C) Turmeric D) Onion
7. [T/F] As the pH value of a solution increases from 7 to 14, it represents a decrease in
concentration of H+ ions.
8. Which of the following acid is present in orange?
A) Lactic acid B) Methanoic acid C) Citric acid D) Oxalic acid
9. [T/F] A solution having pH 11 is acidic.
10. A milkman adds very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
b) Why does this milk take long time to set as curd?
11. Give reason : “Aluminium with nitric acid does not produce hydrogen gas”
12. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that acid should be added to water?
13. How will you test acid and base using olfactory indicators? Explain it with an example.
14. Writ the chemical reaction of zinc metal and dilute H2SO4. In this reaction H2 gas is produced but
reaction between zinc metal and dilute HNO3 not produce H2 gas. Why?
15. Write the chemical name of salt which is used to prepare tasty ‘Dhokla’ and also writes it’s
another two uses.

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CH :- 5 : LIFE PROCESSES
1. _________________ is necessary for an autotrophic nutrition.
A) Carbon dioxide B) Chlorophyll C) Sunlight D) All of the above
2. Choose the correct of sent to complete the following reaction.
6CO2 + 12H2O __________ + 6O2 + 6H2O
A) C2H5OH B) C6H12O6 C) CH4 D) CH3COOH
3. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in which
organelles?
4. What regulates the exit of food from stomach and release it in small amounts into the small
intestine?
5. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
A) nutrition B) excretion C) respiration D) transportation
6. The _________ have thick elastic walls. (Capillary, Veins, Artery)
7. The xylem tissue present in the plant are responsible for the
A) transport of food B) transport of H2O C) transport of amino acid D) transport of O2
8. ____________ enzyme is present in the Saliva of human being. [Amylase, Pepsin, Trypsin]
9. Write equation necessary for the process of photosynthesis and write the events taking place
during the process of photosynthesis.
10. What is Lymph? Write its function.
11. Write a note on excretion in plant.
12. Differentiate between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.
13. Write two points of difference between Arteries and Veins.
14. Explain the process of digestion in our stomach and small intestine.

CH :- 6 : CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. If ________ is deficient in our diet, there is a possibility that we might suffered from goitre.
2. [T/F] the reflex action is controlled by the heart.
3. ___________ produces testosterone hormone. (Vas deference, Testis, Ovary)
4. Which actions are controlled by medulla oblongata?
5. Find out the mismatched pair from the following
I) Iodine - activate thyroid gland II) Insulin - regulation of sugar in blood
III) Ovary - regulation of digestive action IV) Pituitary - secretion necessary for balanced
growth
6. [T/F] Abscisic acid is plant hormone which promotes growth.
7. Deficiency of ___________ hormones in childhood leads to dwarfism.
8. [T/F] Salivation, Blood pressure and Vomiting are voluntary actions.
9. _________ disease is caused due to deficiency of iodine.
10. Give the name of plant hormone that inhibits growth.
11. Which part of hind brain is responsible for maintaining the posture and body balance?
12. Match the following
ENDOCRINE GLANDS HORMONE
1) Thyroid gland a) Adrenaline
2) Adrenal gland b) Insulin
c) Thyroxine

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13. Match the following correctly

HORMONES FUNCTIONS OF HORMONES
1) Thyroxine a) Development of female sex organ
2) Testosterone b) Regulates metabolism of body growth
c) Development of male sex organs
14. Which plant hormone promotes cell division?
15. The gap between two neurons is called a ___________
A) impulse B) dendrite C) exon D) synapse
16. How does phototropism and geotropism occur in plants?
17. Draw a neat labelled diagram of neuron?
18. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood.

CH :- 9 : LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

1. [T\F] Optician has prescribed corrective lens indicating -0.4D. this means that lens prescribed
is convex.
2. Which type of image cannot be obtained by a convex lens?
A) virtual and small B) virtual and large C) real and small D) real and large
3. Concave lens with ___________ focal length is having largest power. (20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm)
4. [T/F] Absolute refractive index of any material medium should be always greater than one.
5. If the object is placed at 40 cm in front of plane mirror, what will be the distance between
object placed and image formed?
A) 40 cm B) 80 cm C) 20 cm D) 60 cm
6. ______________ mirror is used in the headlight of a car. (Concave, Convex, Plane)
7. Define power of lens.
8. _____________ is used to measure power of lens.
9. [T/F] Solar cooker achieve higher temperature by using convex mirror to focus the ray of sun.
10. If the optician prescribed +2.0D, then the type of lens will be ___. (Concave, Convex, Bifocal)
11. If object is placed between F1 and 2F1 in front of convex lens. Where will be the image formed?
A) Beyond to 2F2 B) At F2 C) Between 2F2 and F2 D) Infinity
12. Name the type of mirror used in side / rear view mirror of a vehicle. Support your answer with
reason.
13. What is reflection of light? Write laws of reflection of light.
14. Write uses of concave mirror.
15. Draw a ray diagram for concave mirror when object is placed between center of curvature and
principal focus. Also write position, nature and size of the image.
16. An ophthalmologist, Doctor Desai prescribe power + 1.5 D of corrective lens, find the focal length
of lens and write the type of lens prescribed.
17. What is refraction? Right the law of refraction.
18. Define power of lens and its SI unit.

CH :- 11 : ELECTRICITY
1. Name the scientist after whom the SI unit of current is expressed?
2. Name the physical quantity that has kWh unit.
3. I measure the electric current. Which device am I?
4. Who am I? I am used to make a filament of bulbs.

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5. Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filaments of electric bulb because

A) its resistivity is high and melting point is low
B) both the resistivity and melting points are high
C) its resistivity is low and melting point is high
D) both resistivity and melting points are low
6. Which pair from the following is not appropriate?
A) conductor - silver B) alloy - nichrome C) insulator – nickel
7. 1 kWh = _____________ Joule (J)
8. Symbols of some components are given below. Using all of them only once draw an appropriate
circuit diagram. Assume you are already having the wire for connection. Also, name is
component used.

9. An electric refrigerator rated 400W and an electric bulb rated 100W. Operates 10 hour/day.
What is the cost of the energy to operate it for 10 days at Rs. 8.00 per kWh?
10. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1V? Name the
device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
11. State ohm's law. Derive the equation for the law.
12. A current of 0.4A is drawn by filament of an electric bulb for 5 minutes. Find the amount of
electric charge that flows through the circuit.
13. An electric bulb is rated 220V and 100W. When it is operated on 110V find power.
14. Draw the symbols of following components in an electric circuit.
a) Combination of cells b) Plug key (Closed)
c) Wires crossing (without joining) d) A variable resistance
15. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2C across two points having potential difference
of 12V?
16. Write ohm's law and define unit of resistance.

CH :- 13 : OUR ENVIRONMENT
1. True or False : Carbon-di-oxide is a green house gas.
2. FIB: ______ Trophic Level will receive maximum amount of energy. (producer, Primary consumer,
Secondary consumer, Tertiary consumer)
3. MCQ: Which of the following constitute a food – chain?
(A) Grass, Wheat and Mango (B) Grass, Goat and Human
(C) Goat, Cow and Elephant (D) Grass, Fish and Goat
4. By which programme succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986?
5. Give name of two materials which are biodegradable.
6. Match the following
Trophic Level Type of Consumer
2 Trophic level
nd a) Secondary consumer
3 Trophic level
rd b) Primary consumer
c) Tertiary consumer
7. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
8. What is decomposer? What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
9. What is biological magnification? Give its effects on different levels of the ecosystem.
10. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
11. Write the differences between Biotic factor and Abiotic factor?

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SSGV
Std 10 : Maths
True or False
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [56]
1. The sum of two rational number is always rational.
2. The product of two rational numbers is always rational.
3. The product of two irrational numbers is always irrational number is irrational.
4. The sum of rational and irrational number is irrational.
5. The product of rational and irrational number is irrational.
6. p is an irrational number.

7. 2+ 2 is an irrational number..
8. 3.141141114 .......... is an irrational number.
9. The H.C.F. of (120, 504, 882) is 6.
10. The H.C.F. of 15 and 51 is not 1.
1
11. In
2 , 5n
m , m, n Î N and m > n, so, given digit has m number after decimal.
12. By dividing the integer a by 3, we get the remainder 0 and 1.

13. Sum and product at zeros at polynomial is –4 and 3 respectively then quadratic polynomial is x2 + 4x
+ 3.
14. Zeroes at polynomial x2 + 2 2 x – 6 2, 3 2
15. Numbers at zeroes at polynomial p(x) = x2 – 10x + 16 are three.

16. 2 is one zero at p(x) = x2 – 6x + 8 polynomial.

17. If the graph at polynomial intersects X-axis at only one point then polynomial can’t be quadratic
polynomial.

18. If 3 is one zero of polynomial : p(x) = x2 – 11x + k then k = 24

19. The multiplication of zero of cubic polynomial : p(x) = x3 + 5x2 – 2x – 24 is –24.

20. “1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, ... is an AP” check the statement.
21. For any arithmetic sequence first term cannot be zero.
22. Common difference at any AP can’t be zero.
n(n + 1)
23. The arithmetic sum of first n natural numbers is .
2
24. For an arithmetic sequence if Sn = 5n2 – 3n then an = 10n – 8.

25. The arithmetic sum of first n even number is n2.

26. If for an AP if common difference is negative then it is possible that sum of first m terms of AP is the
sum of first n terms of AP
27. 3, 3, 3, 3, .......... is an AP
28. Sum of ` 10,000 is deposited in bank at the rate of 8% per annual on an compound interest. Then amount
depoisted in each year in an account represent arithmetic sequence.

29. 2, 8, 18, 32, ... is an arithmetic sequence.

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30. The arithmetic sum of first n odd natural number is n(n + 1).
31. If one corresponding between two triangles is similarity then all the remaining corresponding are
similarity.
32. The corresponding between two isosceles triangles is a similarity.
33. Shape of two similar figure are same.
34. Square and rectangle are similar figure.
35. Square and rhombus are similar.
36. Any two square are similar.
OA OC
37. Two chords intersects in each other in inner part of circle then = .
OB OD
38. Ratio of the areas of the similar triangle is the same as the ratio of the square of the corresponding sides.
39. The distance of the point (–5, 12) from the origin is –13.
40. The point P(–4, 2) lies on the line segment joining A(–4, 6) and B(–4, –6).
41. If AB + BC > AC then the points A, B and C are not collinear.
42. A = B if and only if d (A, B) = 0.
43. The midpoint of the line segment joining A(8, –3), B(–3, 5) is (5, 4).
44. The circumcenter of a right angle triangle is the midpoint of the hypotenuse.
45. The coordinates of the origin is (0, 0)

46. The distance between the points (2, 3) and (4, 1) is 2 2 .

2
47. The Probability of an event that leap year has 53 Thursday is .
7
48. Probability of any event can’t be zero.
49. If E' is the complementary events of E then P(E') = P(E) – 1
50. Range of probability of event E is 0 < P(E) < 1.
51. For given events A and B if P(A) + P(B) = P(A) – P(B) then B is impossible event.
1
52. Probability of an event that one prime number is selected from 1 to 30 is .
3
53. For any event A, P(A) is always greater than P(A')
54. Sum of all primary events of the sample space is one.
55. Probability of an event that Sun rises in west is 1
56. Two coins are tossed togather. The probability of an event that on both coin head or tail comes up is 0.5.

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SSGV
Std 10 : Maths
MCQs
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [100]
1. If p, p + 2, p + 4 are prime numbers then p = ..........
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 29 (D) 191
2. If HCF (x, y) = 1 then HCF (x – y, x + y) = ..........
(A) 4 (B) 1 or 2 (C) x or y (D) x + y or x – y
3. Out of the following .......... is a square of any natural number.
(A) 136162 (B) 126738 (C) 410883 (D) 385641
4. If HCF (a, b) = 18 then LCM (a, b) = .......... is not possible.
(A) 36 (B) 72 (C) 48 (D) 108
5. LCM (a, 18) = 36 HCF (a, 18) = 2 then a = ......... .
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
6. The least perfect square number which is divisible 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is .......... .
(A) 900 (B) 1200 (C) 2500 (D) 3600
7. Out of the following .......... is rational number.
4 0
(A) 3 (B) p (C) (D)
0 4
8. Out of the following equations, which equation has 3 as a solution ?
(A) x2 – x – 6 = 0 (B) x2 + x – 6 = 0 (C) x2 – x + 6 = 0 (D) x2 + x + 6 = 0
9. Numbers at zeros at the graph at p(x) between 0 and 4 are ......
Y
(A) 3

(B) 6

(C) 2 X' X
–3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3
(D) 4

Y'
10. ...... is the cubic polynomial for a = – 3, b = 5, c = 7 and d = 1.
(A) –3x3 + 5x2 – 7x – (B) –3x3 + 5x2 + 7x + 1 (C) x3 – 5x2 + 7x + 1 (D) –3x3 – 5x2 + 7x + 1
1 3
11. If a, b and g are zeros at p(x) = x – 5x2 – 11x – 3 then a + b + g = .......
2
5 5
(A) – (B) (C) 10 (D) –10
2 2
12. If 2x2 + 3x + 1 = (x + 2) (2x – 1) + m then m = .......
(A) 3 (B) –3 (C) 2 (D) 0
13. If p(x) = 3x3 + x2 + 5x + 1 is cubic polynomial then d = .......
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 1 (D) 0
14. Sign of both the zeroes at polynomial x2 + 99x + 127 is .......
(A) positive (B) negative (C) same (D) opposite

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15. ...... of the following are the zeroes at the polynomial p(x) between –1 and +1.
Y
(A) zero

(B) two

(C) one X' X

–3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3
(D) three

Y'
16. Give zeroes of quadradic polynomial x2 + 2x – 15.
(A) 3 and 5 (B) –3 and –5 (C) 3 and –5 (D) –3 and 5
1 1 1
17. a, b and g are the roots ofcubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d then + + = .......
ab bg ga
b d c c
(A) (B) (C) (D) –
d b d d
18. When polynomial of degree 4 is divided by quadratic polynomial then power of remainder polynomial
is .......
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
19. A quadratic polynomial has not the singal real root then its graph .......
(A) touches X-axis in single point. (B) does not intersect at X-axis.
(C) intersect X-axis in two distinct points. (D) intersect both axis.
20. Out of the following, which is the solution of the equation 2x + 3y = 7 ?
(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 1) (C) (–1, –2) (D) (–2, –1)
21. Out of the following, which is true for ax + by + c = 0 ?
(A) a, b = 0 (B) a + b = 0 (C) a2 + b2 ¹ 0 (D) a2 + b2 = 0
22. If the graph of the equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 is two parallel lines then out
of the following which is true ?
a1 b a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(A) ¹ 1 (B) a = b ¹ c (C) a = b = c (D) None of these
a2 b2 2 2 2 2 2 2

23. The graph of the equations 5x – 3y + 9 = 0 and 10x – 6y + 18 = 0 represents .......... lines.
(A) parrallel (B) Perpendicular (C) Coincident (D) Intersecting
24. If the linear equations in two Variables are consistent, then the lines are .......... .
(A) Intersecting (B) Parallel
(C) Allways coincident (D) Intersecting or coincident
25. If the solution set of the equations px + 3y = p – 3 and 12x + py = p is an infinite set then p = ......... .
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
26. If am ¹ bl then the equations ax + by = 0 and lx + my = n have .......... solution.
(A) Unique (B) Empty
(C) Infinite (D) may be or may not be.
27.) 2x – 3y = 7 and (a + b)x – (a + b – 3)y = 4a + b represent the same lines then ........ .
(A) a + 5b = 0 (B) 5a + b = d (C) a – 5b = 0 (D) 5a – b = 0
28. The equation of line which is parallel to the line 2x + 3y – 8 = 0 is .......... .
(A) 4x + 6y – 12 = 0 (B) 2x – 3y + 8 = 0 (C) x + 2y – 4 = 0 (D) 6x + 9y – 2y = 0
29. The equation of line which is coincident to the line x + 2y – 4 = 0 is .......... .
(A) 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 (B) 3x + 6y – 12 = 0 (C) 2x + y – 4 = 0 (D) x + 4y – 8 = 0

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30. In a two digit number, the sum of the digits is equal to the product of the digits Find the number.
(A) 11 (B) 22 (C) 23 (D) 10
31. If 17x + 23y = 40 and 23x + 17y = 80, then x + y = ...........
(A) 120 (B) 40 (C) 3 (D) 80
x y
32. How we can show the pair of linear equation + = 1 in a standard form ?
2 3
(A) 2x + 3y = 1 (B) 2x + 3y – 1 = 0 (C) 3x + 2y = 6 (D) 3x + 2y – 6 = 0
33. Which one is true for the linear pair of equation’s graph when we have two intersecting lines and unique
solution ?
a1 b1 a1 b1 a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(A) ¹ (B) = (C) = = (D) = ¹
a 2 b2 a 2 b2 a 2 b2 c2 a 2 b2 c2
34. Which one of the following shows the concide lines ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. The graph of pair of Linear equations in two variables 2x + 3y – 9 = 0 and 4x + 6y – 18 = 0 is ..........
(A) Intersecting lines (B) Coinciding lines (C) Parallel lines (D) Perpendicular lines
36. By which number we have to multiply the equation x + y = 5 into equation (i) and 2x – 3y = 4 from equation
(ii) to eliminate y ?
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 3 (D) –3
37. The ones of two digit is y and tens is x, then that number (digit) is .......... .
(A) 10y + x (B) 10x + y (C) 10x – y (D) 10y – x
x y 1
38. The denominator of is .......... .

(A) b1 c2 – b2 c1 (B) c1 a2 – c2 a1 (C) b1 a2 – b2 a1 (D) a1 b2 – a2 b1

39. Kinjal is asking to Dipti that before 3 years the sum of their ages were 36, then tell me that after 4 years
what will be the sum of their ages ?
(A) 53 years (B) 43 years (C) 39 years (D) 50 years
40. The ones of two digit is x and tens is y, then the double of that digit is .......... .
(A) 10x + 2y (B) 2y + 20x (C) 20y + 2x (D) 2x + 10y
41. Which of the following method is used for the solution of pair of linear equations in two variables ?
(A) Graphic Method (B) Substitution Method (C) Elimination (D) All of them
42. The sum of the ages of son and father before 5 years was 30 years. After 3 years the sum of their ages will
be ........... .
(A) 46 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 38
43. In the following graphics two lines are given
Y yûk

X yûk

(A) Their solution is infinite.

(B) The solution of pair of equations is unique.
(C) By changing one variable in 10 another variable in solving pair of linear conditions is called method
of substitution.
(D) They have no solution
44. In the following figure, the measurements of side of rectangular ABCD is given. Find the values of x and y.
D 40 C
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 In the following figure, the Shree Swaminarayan
measurements Gurukul
of side English Medium
of rectangular ABCD School
is given. Find the values of x and y.
D 40 C

(x – y) 6

A (x + y) B
(A) x = 23, y = 17 (B) x = 12, y = 28 (C) x = 14, y = 30 (D) x = 10, y = 25
45. Out of the following equations, which is a quadratic equation ?
1 1 1 1
(A) x + = x2 (B) x2 + = 2 (C) x2 + = 3 (D) x + = 3
x x2 x x
46. .......... is a quadratic equation.
1 1
(A) x + = x2 (B) x3 + x + 5 = 2 (C) 2x + = 5 (D) 4x 4 + 4x + 1 = 0
x x2
47. ........... is not a quadratic equation.
(A) 5x2 + 6x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 + 3x + 2 = 0
(C) x2 + 3x + x - 3 = 0 (D) 3x2 + 8x – 3 = 0
48. (2x + 1) (3x + 2) = 6 (x + 1) (x – 2) is a .......... equation
(A) Linear (B) Quadratic (C) Cubic (D) Fourth degree
49. Out of the following which is the solution of the given equation x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 ?
(A) –4 (B) –3 (C) 3 (D) 6
50. Out of the following, which equation has the solution x = 3.
(A) x2 – 8x + 15 = 0 (B) x2 + 8x – 15 = 0 (C) x2 – 8x – 15 = 0 (D) x2 + 8x – 15 = 0
51. The equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ¹ 0 has equal roots. Then
(A) a2 = 4bc (B) b2 = 4ac (C) c2 = 4bc (D) a + b + c = 0
52. Out of the following which equation has repeated roots ?
(A) x2 – 36 = 0 (B) x2 = 25 (C) x2 – 4x + 4 = 0 (D) x2 – 6x – 8 = 0
53. Out of the following which equation has equal real roots ?
1
(A) x2 – 2x – 15 = 0 (B) x2 + x + = 0 (C) 4x2 – 6x + 2 = 0 (D) x2 + x – 3 = 0
4
54. .......... equation has no equal roots.
(A) x2 – 10x + 25 = 0 (B) x2 + 6x + 4 = 0 (C) x2 – 6x + 9 = 0 (D) x2 + 8x + 15 = 0
55. Discriminant at the equation 5x2 – 6x + 1 = 0 is .......... .
(A) 16 (B) 56 (C) 4 (D) 66
56. ...... of the following equations has solution 3.
(A) x2 – x – 6 = 0 (B) x2 + x – 6 = 0 (C) x2 – x + 6 = 0 (D) x2 + x + 6 = 0
x k
57. Roots of the quadratic equation = are ......
k x
(A) k, – k (B) –k, –k (C) k, k (D) k2, –k2
58. If 4 is one root of the equation x2 + ax – 8 = 0 then a = .......... .
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) –2 (D) –4
59. ...... of the following mathematician gives the general formula for solution of quadratic equation.
(A) Bhaskaracharya (B) Euclid (C) Sridharcharya (D) Aryabhatta
60. Which at the following is not quadratic equation ?
(A) 4x2 – 3 = 0 (B) 3x2 – 4 x + 1 = 0 (C) 2x – 7 = 0 (D) 4x2 – 7 x + 3 = 0
61. If ...... is then quadratic equation has no real roots.
(A) D = 0 (B) D > 0 (C) D < 0 (D) D > 0

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
62. If roots of the equation 6x2 – 13x + m = 0 one reciprocal of each other then value at m is ......
13 13
(A) (B) – (C) –6 (D) 6
6 6
63. Discriminant of the quadratic equation 3x2 – 4 x + 1 = 0 is ...... .
(A) 28 (B) 4 (C) 12 (D) 0
64. Price of one Pen is ` 15. In its price if ` x decrease then number of Pen obtained in ` 600 are ...... .
15 + x 600 15 -
Ðx 600
(A) (B) (C) (D)
600 15 Ð
-x 600 15 Ð
+x
65. Which of the following list of numbers form an A. P. ?
(A) 2, 4, 5, 8 (B) 3, 5, 7, 11 (C) 3.5, 5, 6.5, 8, ... (D) 1, 4, 9, 16, ...
66. Which of the following list of numbers does not form an AP ?
1 1 1 1 1
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, ... (B) 2, 5, 8, 11, ... (C) 1, , , , ... (D) 1, , 0, – , ...
2 3 4 2 2
67. If Sn = 2n2 + 3n then find d.
(A) 13 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) –2
(Hints : For d, do the product of coefficient of 2n2 and its power.)
68. If a3 = 8 and a7 = 24 then find a10.
(A) –4 (B) 28 (C) 32 (D) 36
69. If a = 2 and d = 4 then find S20 = ?
(A) 600 (B) 800 (C) 78 (D) 80
70. If 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + ... + up to n terms = 288 then find n.
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
71. Find the four numbers in AP whose sum is 72 and in which the greatest number is twice the least.
(A) 4, 8, 12, 16 (B) 12, 16, 20, 24 (C) 10, 12, 14, 16 (D) 2, 4, 6, 8
72. For an AP if a25 – a20 = 15 then d = ..........
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 20 (D) 25
73. For an AP value of a18 – a8 is .......... .
(A) d (B) 10 d (C) 26 d (D) 2 d
74. For an AP 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, sixth prime number is .......... .
(A) 13 (B) 19 (C) 23 (D) 25
75. (1) + (1 + 1) + (1 + 1 + 1) + ..... + (1 + 1 + 1 ... + (n – 1))
n(n - 1) n(n + 1)
(A) (B) (C) n (D) n2
2 2
76. ) 1 + 2 + 3 + ..... + (n – 1) (1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ... + (n – 1)) terms
n(n - 1) n(n + 1)
(A) (B) (C) n (D) n2
2 2
77. 2k + 1, 13, 5k –3 are consecutive terms of an AP then find k.
(A) 17 (B) 13 (C) 4 (D) 9
78. If a4 = 7, a7 = 4 then a10 = ...........
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) –11 (D) 1
79. For an AP the possible value of Sn – 2 Sn – 1 + Sn – 2 is .......... .
(A) 2 d (B) d (C) a (D) a + d
80. If S1 = 2 + 4 + ... + 2n and S2 = 1 + 3 + 5 ... + (2n – 1) then S1 : S2 = ..........
(n + 1) n
(A) (B) (n + 1) (C) n2 (D) n+1
n
81. The sum of three consecutive terms in AP is 48. The product of first and last term is 252. Find the common
difference d.
(A) 2 (B) 3 11 of 37 (C) 4 (D) 16
 Shree
The sum of three consecutive Swaminarayan
terms in AP is 48.Gurukul English of
The product Medium School
first and last term is 252. Find the common
difference d.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 16
82. If common difference of AP is 5 then a18 – a13 = ...........
(A) 5 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30
-5 5
83. For an AP –5, , 0, , ... 11th term is ......... .
2 2
(A) –20 (B) 20 (C) –30 (D) 30

84.
6
, a, and 4 are in AP then a = ...........
5
13 25
(A) 1 (B) 13 (C) (D)
5 6
85. For an AP 21, 42, 63, 84, ..., .......... term is 210.
(A) 9th term (B) 10th term (C) 11th term (D) 8th term
86. For an AP if a1 = 1, an = 20 and Sn = 399 then n = ..........
(A) 19 (B) 21 (C) 38 (D) 42
87. For an arithmetic sequence if a18 – a14 = 32 then d = ..........
(A) 8 (B) –8 (C) –4 (D) 4
88. A contractor takes ` 1000 to dig 1 metre of well. For second metre he takes ` 1040 and for third metre
he takes ` 1080 and so on. Then .......... amount he get to dig well at 50 metre.
(A) ` 90000 (B) ` 99000 (C) ` 1,00,000 (D) ` 9000
89. If nth term of AP is 6n – 4 then common difference is .......... .
(A) –6 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) –8
90. The sum of first 10 terms of AP –5, –2, –1, ... is ..........
(A) 85 (B) 82 (C) 79 (D) 76
2(1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n )
91. 3n - has value .......... .
n
(A) 2n – 1 (B) 3n (C) 2m – 1 (D) –3n

92. The 10th term of AP 5, 8, 11, 14, ... is .......... .

(A) 32 (B) 35 (C) 38 (D) 185
93. The sum of first 16 terms of an AP 10, 6, 2, ... is .......... .
(A) –320 (B) 320 (C) –352 (D) –400
94. For an AP it a = –7.2, d = 3.6 and an = 7.2 then n = ......... .
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
95. The nth term of an AP 8, 3, –2, ... is .......... .
(A) –2 + 3n (B) 5 – 13n (C) 13 – 5n (D) 8 + 3n
96. The numbers 2, 7 and k + 4 are in AP then k = .......... .
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 8
97. Sum of first three terms of AP is 51 and product of first and third term is 240. Then ......... of the following
is difference of AP.
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 4
98. If nth term of an AP is 3n + 1 then its 30th term is .......... .
(A) 31 (B) 91 (C) 90 (D) 94

99. Sum of first n terms of an AP 2, 8, 18, 32 .......... is

n(n + 1) n(n + 1) n +1
(A) (B) 2n(n + 1) (C) (D)
2 2 2
100. The ratio at sum of first n terms of an AP is 5n + 4 : 9n + 6. Then ratio of their 18th term is ..........
179 178 12 of 37 (C) 175 176
(A) (B) (D)
321 321 321 321
 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SSGV
Std 10 : Maths
MCQs
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [34]
1 1 - 29 1 - 49
1. Common difference , , , is ......... .
29 29 29
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 9 (D) 29

2. If nth term of an AP is 2n + 1 then its sum of n terms is .......... .

(A) n(n – 2) (B) n(n + 2) (C) n(n + 1) (D) n(n – 1)
3. If k + 2, 4k – 6, 3k – 2 are consecqutive terms of AP then k = .......... .
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 3 (D) 29

4. 10th term of an AP 2, 8, 18, ... is .......... .

(A) 162 (B) 200 (C) 242 (D) 288
5. Sum of first n terms of AP are a, 3a, 5a, ... their sum is .......... .
(A) na (B) (2n – 1)a (C) n2a (D) n2a2
6. The common difference of two AP is identical and difference of their ten lakhs term is 11222333. Then
difference of their 100th term is .......... .
(A) 11222333 (B) 333222111 (C) 222333111 (D) 333111222
7. For ¨ ABCD, which group is true ?

1 ¨ ABCD is a rhombus (a) AC and BD bisect

2 ¨ ABCD is a parallelogram (b) AC and BD bisect at right angle.
3 ¨ ABCD is a rectangle (c) AC and BD are congruent and bisect at right angle.
4 ¨ ABCD is a square (d) AC and BD are congruent and bisect at right angle.

(A) (1 – c), (2 – d) (3 – a) (4 - b) (B) (1 – b), (2 – a) (3 – d) (4 - c)

(C) (1 – b), (2 – c) (3 – d) (4 - a) (D) (1 – d), (2 – a) (3 – b) (4 - c)
8. If the coordinates of the midpoint P of the line segment joining x and y is (–2, 3) then which is true ?
(A) x(–4, 3), y(2, 2) (B) x(0, 2), y(–2, 2) (C) x(–6, 2), y(2, 4) (D) x(–4, –2), y(0, 4)
9. A(1, 2) B(2, 3) C(3, 4) are given points. Out of the following which is true ?
(A) AC + BC = AB (B) AB + BC = AC
(C) C is a midpoint of AB . (D) A, B, C are not collinear
10. Out of the following which measure depends on the value of all the observations.
(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) None of these
11. Out of the following, which is not the measure of central tendency ?
(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Range
12. Mean = 25 and mode = 25 then median = ........
(A) 25 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 75
13. 6, 7, x – 2, x, 17 and 20 are six observations in an increasing order with median 16 then x = ..........
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18
14. For a frequency distribution median is 13.2 and mean is 15.3. Then using inter-relation between mean,
mode, median we get mode ......... .
(A) 8.5 (B) 8.2 (C) 8.8 (D) 9

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
15. Modal class of the following frequency distribution is .......... .

Class 0–20 20–40 40–60 60–80 80–100

Frequency 8 15 22 25 10

(A) 0 – 20 (B) 20 – 40 (C) 40 – 60 (D) 60 – 80

16. ......... is the cumulative frequency of the class 40–50 in following frequency distribution.
Class 20–30 30–40 40–50 50–60 60–70
Frequency 10 15 15 20 10

(A) 15 (B) 25 (C) 40 (D) 70

17. For any frequency distribution Z – M = .......... X M - x ( )

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
18. For thr frequency distribution, mode is 12 more than the mean then mode is .......... more than the
median.
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 10
19. For any data, Z + x = 71 and Z - x = 3 then using interrelation between mean, mode and median value
of M = ........... .
(A) 31 (B) 38 (C) 35 (D) 34
20. ......... is the probability of an event that there are 53 Sundays in Non leap year.
1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7 7
21. Three balanced coins are tossed together. Then .......... is the probability that at most two head comes up.
1 3 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 8 8 8
22. One card is selected from the well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Then ......... is the probability of an
event that selected card is not of red colour and not of queen.
4 5 6 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 13
23. There are 8 blue, 7 white and 5 red marbles in bag. One marble is selected at random, from the bag.
There .......... is the probability that selected marble is at white colour.
8 7 5 12
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 20 20 20
24. Two balanced dice are tossed together. Then ......... is the probability that integers comes up are not equal.
5 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 0
6 6
25. .......... is the probability that student gets marks in question paper of 100 marks.
1 77 1 100
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 100 101 77
26. Two coins are tossed together. Then .......... is the probability of an event that head appears on both coins.
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 3 4
27. .......... is the probability of an event that 7 comes up during tossing dice.
1 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) (D)
6 7
28. Probability of complement of the impossible events is .......... .
2 1
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) (D)
7 7
29. .......... is the probability of an event that you get 61 marks in the question paper having total 60 marks.
(A) 0.3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 0.5

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
30. .......... is the probability of an event that in leap year 2008 there are 5 Sundays in February month.
1 2
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
7 7
31. ........... is the probability of an event that on first day of the month has Sunday.
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14 7 28 30
32. .......... is the probability of the event that there are 5 Wednesdays in the month of April.
1 2 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7 30
33. P(A') = 0.57 then P(A) ..........
27
(A) (B) 0.013 (C) 0.43 (D) 0
100
34. India reached in Semifinal match in world cup cricket match. Other than India three more team Australia,
Newzeland and England also plays the game then ......... is the probability of an event that India win the
world cup.
1 1
(A) (B) 4 (C) 8 (D)
4 8

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SSGV
Std 10 : Maths
Fill In The Blank
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [98]
1. p1 and p2 are two distinct prime numbers then their HCF is .......... (0, 1 and 0, 1)

2. HCF (17, 20) = ........... (0, 1 and 0, 1)

3. HCF of the smallest prime number and the smallest composite number is .......... (12, 4, 2)
4. HCF of 330 and 65 is .......... (10, 5, 15)
5. n = 23 ´ 34 ´ 54 ´ 7 then the number of zero of the end of n is ........... (3, 2, 1)
6. There are three types of plants in the garden. The number of first type of plants is 66. The number of
second type of plants is 110 and the number of third type is 242. All the plants are arranged in such
a way that each row has same kind of plants and the number of the plants in the rows are same. Find
the number of rows. (18, 19, 20)
7. The HCF of two numbers is 8 and their product is 384 then their LCM is ...........(8, 48, 384)
8. If p, q and r all three distant of prime numbers then their LCM is ........... (pq, rq, pqr)

9. a = pq2 and b = p3q where p and q are prime numbers HCF (a, b) = LCM (a, b) = ........... (p2q3, p3q2, p2q2)
10. HCF of two numbers is 33 and their LCM is 264 when the first number divides by 2 the quotient is 33.
Find the second number. (132, 33, 66)
11. If HCF (12, 40) = 40 + 4X, then X = .......... (–9, 9, 6)
12. The difference of HCF and LCM of prime numbers 5 and 7 is ........... (35,34, 36)
13. If the HCF of 65 and 117 be 65m – 117, then m = ........ (3, 2, 5)
14. The product of two positive integers is always divisible by ........... (1 and 3, 1 and 4,1 and 2)
15. HCF (a, b) = 1, then HCF (a – b, a + b) = .......... (2 or 3, 3 or 1, 2 or 1)
16. HCF (24, 20) = 3X + 1, then X = ..........
17. The largest number of 4 digit which is divisible by 65 is ........... (130, 325, 9945)

18. Dividing a2 by 6, the reminder will be .......... (a Î N) (0, 1, 3 or 4; 0, 1, 3, or 5; 5, 0, 1, 3)

19. The LCM of the least prime factorisation and composite factorisation is ..........
20. The x + y = .......... for the following factorisation tree. (30, 32, 34)
x

2 14

y 7
21. 22 = 3k + 1, then k = .......... (1, 7, 14)
22. The heap of a stone is distributed in a fixed number but after after distributing the stones in 18, 27, and
32 heap, after that 11 stones remains. Then, the least number of stones in the heap will be ............
(11, 846, 875)
23. The graph of the polynomial p(x) = ax – b, where a ¹ 0, a, b Î R intersects the X-axis at ........... point.
éæ b ö æ bö æb öù
êçè – a , 0÷ø , çè 0,– a ÷ø , çè , 0ø÷ ú
ë a û
24. The cubic polynomial whose coefficients a = 5, b = 7 and c = 2 is .......... .
(2x2 + 7x + 5, x2 + 7x + 2, 5x2 – 7x + 2)
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 Shree
The cubic polynomial whose Swaminarayan
coefficients a =Gurukul
5, b = English
7 and Medium
c = 2 isSchool
.......... .
(2x2 + 7x + 5, x2 + 7x + 2, 5x2 – 7x + 2)

25. The graph of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c, (e.g. x2 + 5x + 6), a > 0, b > 0, c > 0, a, b, c Î R
is ........... .(Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in two points, Parabola open downwards and
intersects X-axis in two points, Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in one point)

26. The graph of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c (e.g. x2 – 2x – 8), a > 0, b < 0, c < 0, a, b, c Î R is ....... .
(Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in one point, Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis
in two points, Parabola open downwards and intersects X-axis in one point)
27. The graph of p(x) = 3x + 5 is a ........... . (Ray, Line segment, Line)

28. The graph of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c (e.g. –x2 + x + 6), a < 0, b > 0, c > 0 a, b, c Î R is
............ .(Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in one point, Parabola open upwards and intersects
X-axis in two points, Parabola open downwards and intersects X-axis in one point)

29. The graph of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c (e.g. x2 – 6x + 9) a > 0, b < 0, c > 0, a, b, c Î R
is .......... .(Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in only one point, Parabola open downwards and
intersects X-axis in only one points, Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in two distinct points)

30. The graph of the quadratic polynomial ax2 + bx + c (e.g. –4x2 + 4x – 1) a < 0 , b > 0, c < 0, a, b, c Î
R is .......... .(Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in only one point, Parabola open downwards
and intersects X-axis in only one points, Parabola open upwards and intersects X-axis in two distinct
points)
1 1 1
31. a and b are zeroes at polynomial : x2 + x – then + = ..........(2, –2, 1)
2 a b
32. Product and sum of zeroes at polynomial : p(y) = y2 + (m + 3) y + (m – 5) are equal then m = ......(0, 1, 2)

æ 2 3 1ö
33. Zero of linear polynomial p(x) = 7x – 3 is ...... çè , , ø÷
7 7 7
34. – 5 and 5 are zeroes at polynomial with power two then p(x) = ..........(x2 + 5, x2 ± 5, x2 – 5)
35. If a > 0 then graph at polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is ...... .(Parabola open upwards, Parabola open
downwards, parabola closed upwards)

36. Value of p(1) + p(–1) of the polynomial : x3 + 2x2 – x – 2 is ...... .

37. Sum of roots at reciprocal of polynomial : p(x) = x3 + 7x2 – 36 is ...... . (0, 1, 2)

38. Sum of both the roots of polynomial is zero and one root is 3 then polynomial is ...... .(x2 – 9, x2 + 9,
x2 ± 9)

æ 2 1 3ö
39. a and b are roots of polynomial p(x) = x2 – 3x + 2m such that a + b = a · b then m = ...... çè , , ø÷
3 3 2
40. ...... is the remainder when quadratic polynomial : 3x3 – 4x2 + 12 is divided by x – 2. (24, 20, 26)
41. If one of the solution of x + 2y – 4 = 0 is (2, k) then find the value of k = ...........
42. If (5, 3) is the solution of the equation 2x + 3y + k = 0 and (m, 5) is also the solution of it then m
= ..........
43. If the solution of the pair of the linear equations ax + 2y = 7 and 2x + 3y = 8 is unique then
æ 3 4 2ö
a ¹ ............ çè , , ÷ø
4 3 3
44. If 2x + 3y = 13 and 5x – 4y = –2 then a1b2 – a2b1 = ........ (23, –23, 7)

45. If the graph of the linear equations 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 represents parallel lines then
æ 15 4 3 ö
k = .......... çè , , ÷
4 15 5 ø

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
46. If the equations 3x + y = 1 and (2k – 1) x + (k – 1) y = 2k + 1 are inconsistent then k = ......... (–2, 2, 1)
47. If the pair of linear equations a 1x + b1y + c 1 = 0 and a 2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has unique solution then

x = ........

é c1 , a 2 – c2a1 b1c1 – b2c1 a1 b2 – a 2b1 ù

ê a , b – a b , a b – a b , where a1b2 – a2b1 ¹ 0, where a, b2– a2b1 ¹ 0 úû
ë 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1
48. If the pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has unique solution then

y = ..........

é c1 , a 2 – c2a1 b1c1 – b2c1 a1 b2 – a 2b1 ù

ê a , b – a b , a b – a b , where a1b2 – a2b1 ¹ 0, where a, b2– a2b1 ¹ 0 úû
ë 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 1
x
49. If the pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has unique solution then = ..........
y
æ b1c1 – b2c1 c1a1 – c2a1 a1b2 – a 2b1 ö
çè b b – b b , a b – a b , 1 ÷ø
1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1
y
50. If the pair of linear equations a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 has unique solution then
x
æ a1b2 – a 2b1 b1c1 – b2c1 c1a1 – c2a1 ö
çè , ,
= .......... 1 a1b2 – a 2 b1 b1c2 – b2c1 ÷ø
51. If the solution of the equations 3(k – 1) x + 4y = 24 and 15x + 20y = 8(k + 13) is infinite then k = ...........
(2, –2, 1)
52. If 2x + 3y = 7 and 3x + 2y = 3 then x – y = ........ (Without finding x, y) (4, 2, –4)
53. If 5x + 3y = 24 and 3x + 5y = 8 then x – y = .......... (Without finding the vlues of x, y) (12, 8, 4)
54. 2 tube and 3 value to gather cost ` 350, where as 3 tube and 2 value together cost ` 500 The cost of
one tube and one value together is ........... (170, 180, 190)
55. 0.4x + 0.3y = 2.5 and 0.5x – 0.3y = 1.1 then x = ......... (8, 4, 2)
56. The sum of two numbers is 10 and their difference is 2. Then the larger number is .......... (6, 8, 10)
57. 51x + 49y = 150 and 49x + 51y = 50 then x – y = ........... (Without finding x, y) (100, 150, 50)
58. If the solution of the equations 3a + 2b = 13 and a + 3b = 9 is (3, k) then k = ........... (2, 4, 6)
59. If the graph of the equation 2x + 3y = p is passing through the origin then p = .......... (0, 1, 2)

60. x 8
= = 4 then x – y = ........... (8, 2, 6)
2 y
x y 1
61. = = then x + y = ........... (2, 1, 0)
6 6 6
5 3 3 5 1 1
+
y = ......... (x ¹ 0, y ¹ 0) (10, 15, 5)
62. = 24 and + = 16 then +
x y x y x
63. The present age of mother and her daughter is x years and y years respectively. The difference of their
æ xy x – y x + yö
reciprocal is ........... ç x – y , ,
xy ø÷
è xy
64. The sum of a two digit number and the number formed by interchanging its digit is always divisible
by ............ (10, 11, 101)
65. In a two digit number, the unit’s digit is (a – 1) and the ten’s digit is (a + 1) Then this number is ...........
(11a – 9, 9a + 11, 11a + 9)
66. The present age of father and his son is x years and y years respectively. After 8 years, father’s age will
5
be times the age of his son. It is represented by ..........
2
5 5 5
x + 8 = (y + 8), x – 8 = (y –8), x + 8 = (y – 8))
2 2 2
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 5
be times the age of his son.Swaminarayan
Shree It is represented byEnglish
Gurukul ..........Medium School
2
5 5 5
x + 8 = (y + 8), x – 8 = (y –8), x + 8 = (y – 8))
2 2 2
67. Point (8, –2) is of ........... quadrant. (First, Third, Fourth)
68. The general form of pair of linear equations in two is ...........
(ax – by – c = 0 where a ¹ 0, b ¹ 0, a2 + b2 ¹ 0; ax1 + by + c = 0 where a ¹ 0, b ¹ 0, a2 + b2 ¹ 0; ax –
by + c = 0 where a ¹ 0 b ¹ 0, a2 + b2 = 0)
69. If one of the solution of 8x + 5k = 18 is (1, 0) then k = ........... (2, –2, 6)
70. Two lines are intersecting in one point, then this type of pair is ........... (inconsistent, consistent, infinity)
71. Shilpa went to the stationary shop and purchased 3 pencils and 2 pens and pays ` 25, then pair of linear
equations in two variables is ......... (3x – 2y = 25, 3x + 2y = –25, 3x + 2y = 25)
a1 b1 c1
72. For pair of linear equations in two variables when = = , then we get ......... solutions.
a 2 b2 c 2

(infinite, consistent, inconsistent)

73. The sum of the present age of Shashin and Hitesh is 58 years. Then, the pair of linear equations in two
variables is ........... (x – y = 58, x + y = 58, 2x – y = 58)
x y
74. In standard form the equation – = 1 can be written as ..........
2 3
(3x + 2y + 6 = 0, –3x + 2y – 6 = 0, 3x – 2y – 6 = 0)
75. The graph of 2x + y = 3 and 4x + 2y = 6 is ......... (line, ray, line segment)
76. By which number have to multiply the equation x + 2y = 5 into equation (i) and 2x + 3y = 7 from
æ –3 2 3 ö
equation (ii) to eliminate y ? çè , , ø÷
3 3 2
77. The sum of 1 kg tea and 7 kg. sugar is ` 480, then from it the linear equation in two variables will
be ............ (x – 7y = 480, x + 7y = 480, 7x + y = 480)
78. The linear equations in two variables has infinite solutions if lines are ...........
(coincident, parallel, intersecting)
79. The sum of 5 chairs and 2 tables is ` 4850, then from it the linear equations in two variables will
be ........... (5x – 2y = 4850, 2x + 5y = 4850, 5x + 2y = 4850)
80. Normally, the condition that a and b both equally zero can be described by ...........
(a2 – b2 ¹ 0, a2 + b2 ¹ 0, –a2 + b2 ¹ 0)
81. By Changing one variable in to another variable in solving pair of linear equations is called method of
substitution. (Creamer rule, Elimination, Substitution)
82. In a quadratic polynomial the value of x for which the polynomial becomes zero is called .......... .

83. Comparing the equation x (2x – 1) –5 = 0 with ax2 + bx + c = 0, a = .......... .

84. Comparing the equation 5x2 + 3x – 8 = 2x with the standard form of the quadratic equation then
b = ..........
85. The value of x which satisfy the quadratic equation
ax2 + bx + c = 0
ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a ¹ 0) are called .......... .

æ 25 4 25 ö
86. If the equation x2 – 5x + k = 0 has equal roots then the value of k = ......... . çè , ,– ÷
4 25 4ø
87. If the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two real and equal roots then the sum of the roots is ......... .
æ +b –b aö
çè , ,– ÷
a a bø

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
88. If (a – 2)2 + (b + 5)2 = 0 then ba = ............ (–25, 10, 25)
1 1
89. If x + = 2 then x2019 + 2020 = ............ (2, –1, 1)
x x
90. If roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are reciprocal to each other then coefficient of
x2 and constant term are ...... . (unequal, equal, actuated)
91. Numbers at maximum zeros at quadratic equation are ...... (one, three, two)
92. For quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, b2 – 4ac is known as ......
(quadratic equation, Discriminate, area)
93. Find discriminant at 5 x 2 - 7 x + 2 5 = 0 . (49, 9, 7)
94. If roots of the equation x2 – kx + 4 = 0 are equal then k = ...... (4 –4, ±4)
95. Roots of the quadratic equation are equal then b2 – 4ac = .......... (1, 2, 0)
1
96. If one root of the quadratic equation 2x2 + 5x – 3 = 0 is then its other root is ...... .
2
(3, –3, ± 3)
97. The sum of 2n terms of an AP 2, 5, 8 ... is S1 and The sum of n terms is S2 If S1 = S2 then find n.
(101, 11, 21)
98. kth term of on AP 1, 5, 9, 13 is 45 then find the value of k. (21, 11, 12)

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SSGV
Std 10 : Maths
Fill In The Blank
Section A
//X
• Write the answer of the following questions. [Each carries 1 Mark] [94]
1. Two equilateral are ......... . (similar, congruency)
2. To squares are ......... . (similar, congruent)

3. Corresponding angle of two polygon are ....... (Same, not same)

4. Corresponding sides of two polygon are ....... (same, proportion)

5. All squares are .......... . (similar, congruency)
6. All circles are .......... . (congruency, similar)
7. In D ABC parallel line to BC intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively. If AD = 3.6, DB = 2.4, EC =
1.8 then AB = ........, AE = ........, AC = ......... (6.0, 2.7, 4.5; 7.2, 5.4, 6.0; 6.2, 7.0, 4.0)
8. In D ABC parallel line to BC intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively then AB = ......., DB = ....... and
AE = ....... . (5.64, 2.55, 1.55; 1.55, 4.65, 1.05; 22.5, 1.05, 5.64)
A

6.2 D E 4.2
3.1

?
5

B C
9. In D ABC parallel line to BC intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively then BD = 12, AE = 6.4, EC = 8.0
then AD = ......., AB = ......., AC = ........ . (9.6, 16.4, 21.6; 9.6, 21.6, 14.4; 6.21, 4.14, 6.9)
A
?
6.4
? D E

12 8.0

B C
10. In D ABC parallel line to BC intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively if AD = 7.2, AB = 18.4, AE = 5.4 then
DB = ....., EC = ..... and AC = ..... . (13.8, 21.2, 4.8; 11.2, 8.4, 13.8; 2.21, 8.4, 8.13)
A
5.4
7.2

?
.
.4
18

D E
? ?
B C
11. In D ABC parallel line to BC intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively if DB = 3.4, EC = 2.55, AC =
5.10 then AD = ......., AB = ......, AE = ....... . (3.4, 6.8, 2.55; 2.8, 6.8, 3.4; 2.6, 4.3, 8.6)
12. In D ABC, PQ || BC point P lies on AB and point Q lies on AC. If 4AP = AB and AQ = 4 then AC = ...... (16, 12, 8)
13. In D ABC and D PQR correspondence ABC ฀« RPQ angle corresponds to ÐB is ....... (ÐP, ÐQ, ÐR, ÐB)
14. D PQR and D XYZ for the correspondence PQR « YZX If ÐP = 2ÐQ and ÐX = 120° find ÐY = ..........
(80°, 40°, 60°)

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15. If D DEF ~ D ZXY and ÐD + ÐE = ÐF right angle of D XYZ .......... . (ÐX, ÐY, ÐZ)
D Z

F E Y X
16. In D ABC and D MNO, ÐM = ÐA, ÐO = ÐB then D MNO ~ ........... similar. (DABC, DACB, DBAC)
17. In D PQR and D DEF, ÐP = ÐD = 55°, ÐQ = 37°, ÐE = 88° then D PQR ~ D .......... . (DEF, DFE, EDE)
18. In D ABC and D PQR, ÐB = 48°, ÐC = 60°, ÐQ = 48°, ÐP = 72°. If AB = 8, BC = 6 and PQ = 7.2 then QR
= .......... . (6.4, 4.4, 5.4)
19. In D ABC, ÐB = 90°, BD is altitude then D BDA ~ ......... (DCDB, DBCD, DDCB)
20. In D ABC and D PQR, ÐA = ÐR, ÐB = ÐQ then D ABC ~ ......... . (DRQP, DQPR, DRPQ)
21. In D ABC, AM and CN Altitude AB = 12, BC = 15 and AM = 9.6 then CN = .......... . (9.6, 3.8, 12)
AB BC AC
22. In D ABC and D DEF, = = then prove that D ABC ~ ....... . (DEFD, DDEF, DFDE)
EF DF DE
AB BC æ BC AC AC ö
For D ABC ~ D QRP, = = .......... . çè , ,
PQ PQ QR ÷ø
23.
QR PR
24. In D XYZ ~ D PQR, XY = 12, YZ = 8, ZX = 16, PR = 8 then PQ + QR = .......... . (8, 10, 12)
25. D, E and F are midpoint of side AB, BC and CA respectively then D DEF ~ .......... . (DCAB, DABC, DBCA)
26. In D ABC, ÐB = 90°, BM ^ AC then D ABC ~ ......... (DCBM, DCMB, DBMC)
27. In D ABC, ÐB = 90°, BM ^ AC then D AMB ~ ........... (DBMC, DCBM, DMCB)
28. In D ABC, ÐB = 90°, BM ^ AC then D AMB ~ ........... (DBMC, DCBM, DMCB)

29. The length of the median in an equilateral triangle is 3 then the measure of its side is ....... . (3, 2, 4)
30. Length of diagonals of squares is 5 2 then its side = ......... . (5, 10, 2.5)
31. All .......... triangles are similar. (Isosceles triangle, Equilateral triangle, Equilateral)

32. Length of side of square is 4 2 unit then length of its diagonal is .......... . (4, 8, 6)
33. D ABC ~ D DEF 2AB = DE. If BC = 8 cm then EF = .......... cm. (16, 8, 32)
34. In DABC bisector of ÐA meets BC at point D. If AB = 6 cm AC = 5 cm and BD = 3 cm then BC = ...........
cm. (2.5, 5.5, 3.5)
A
5c
m
6c

B D C
3 cm
35. In D ABC, P and Q are points on AB and AC, and PQ || BC. If AP = 5 cm, PB = 12 cm and AQ = 8 cm
then AC = .......... cm. (17.2, 27.2, 27.5)
36. The foot of perpendicular drawn from P(–5, 2) X- axis is M. So the coordinates of M = .......... .
((–5, –5), (0, – 5), (–5, 0))
37. The foot of perpendicular drawn from P(–3, 2) to Y-axis is M so, the coordinates of M = .......... .
((0, 2), (2, 0), (2, 2))
38. The distance of the point (5, 3) to X-axis is .......... . (0, 3, 5)
39. The distance between the two point A(0, y1) and B(0, y2) on Y-axis is .......... . (|y2 – y1|, |y1 – y2|, |y1 + y2|)
40. The distance of the point (–2, –3) to Y-axis is ......... . (2, 3, 0)

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School
41. The distance between the two points P(x1, 0) and Q(x2, 0) on X-axis is ........... .
(|x2 – x1|, |x1 – x2|, |x1 + x2|)
42. The distance between the points (2, –3) and (5, a) is 5 units. Then a = .......... .
(–7 or 1, –9 or 2, –1 or 7)
43. From the given graph, OA2 = .......... . (a2 – b2, a2 + b2, b2 – a2)
44. A(3, 0), B(0, 4) and C(3, 4) are vertices of D ABC. CD is a median. The coordinates of D is ........ .
æ æ 3ö æ 3 ö æ 3 3öö
çè çè 2, ÷ø , çè , 2÷ø , çè , ø÷ ÷ø
2 2 2 2
C (3, 4)

A B
D (0, 4)
(3, 0)
45. The point which divides the line segment joining A(4, 7) and B(1, 7) from B’s in the ratio 1 : 2 is ..........
((2, 7), (7, 2), (7, 7))
B P A
(1, 7) (x, y) (4, 7)

46. The distance between the points (2, 3) and (5, 2) is .......... . ( 10, 100, 10)
47. The perpendicular distance of the point (–4, 9) from Y-axis is .......... . (9, 4, 13)

48. A (0, 0), B (0, 0) and C (5, 0) are given points. Then BC = .......... . (5, 25, 5)

49. The distance of the point P(–5, 7) from the origin is .......... (74, 49, 74 )

50. The distance between the points (–5, 8) and (–2, –6) is .......... . ( 205, 502, 42 )
51. The point which divides the line segment joining the points A (4, –1) and B (–2, –3) in the ratio 1 : 2
lies in .......... quadrant. (first, third, fourth)

æ æ 8ö æ 8ö æ 8ö ö
52. The centroid of the triangle with vertices (3, 2) (7, 5) and (2, 1) is .......... . ç çè 2, ÷ø , çè 3, ÷ø , çè 4, ø÷ ÷
è 3 3 3 ø
53. The perimeter of the triangle with vertices (0, 4) (0, 0) and (3, 0) is .......... units. (8, 12, 15)
54. If x = 6.45, Sfi = 100, Sfixi = ......... . (645, 5.45, 64.5)
55. xi = yi + 3, a = 15, x = 15 then y = x + ......... . (3, (–3), (–5))
56. Mean of following frequency distribution is 2.6 then y = ......... . (2, 4, 8)

x 1 2 3 4 5
f 4 5 y 1 2
4

57. For observations 1, 2, 3, 4, åx i

2
= ......... . (20, 30, 10)
i = 1

58. If x – median = 4 and x + median = 140 then find median. (72, 140, 68)
59. In usual notation if a = 47.5, Sfi = 30, Sfiui = 29 and h = 15 then x = .......... (95, 62, 68)

æ æ n + 1ö ö
60. Mean of first n even natural numbers is .......... . ç (n + 1), çè ÷ , (n(n + 1))÷
è 2 ø ø
61. If the mode of observaion 6 of 64, 40, 48, x, 43, 48, 43 and 34 is 43 then x + 3 = .......... (51, 45, 46)
62. In usual notation if l = 125, n = 68, cf = 22, f = 20 and h = 20 then median = .......... . (113, 127, 137)

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

æn ö
– cf æn ö
ç 2 ÷
63. In formula of median M = l + ç ÷ ´ h value cf = ......... . çè , f , cf ø÷
è f ø 2
64. Mean of n observation is x . If 1, 2, 3 ..... are adding in each observation respectively then mean of new
ææ n + 1ö n æ n + 1ö ö
observation is ........... . ç çè x + ÷ø , x + , x + çè ÷÷
è 2 2 4 øø
65. Point of intersection of two ogive curve is (23.7, 40.5) then median will be .......... . (40.5, 23.7, 32.1)

æ 1 4 1ö
66. If P(A) : P ( A ) = 4:1 then P ( A ) = .......... çè , , ÷ø
4 5 5
x 2
67. The probability of the correct answer in the paper is and the probability of incorrect answer is
12 3
then x = ........... (8, 4, 5)
68. A student select a number from 1 to 100. The probability that selected number is a prime number
æ 1 1 1 ö
is ........... çè , , ÷
25 4 100 ø
8
69. The probability that a person wins a lottery is . If 6000 tickets are sold, .......... tickets are purchased
100
by a person. (600, 480, 680)
70. ......... is the probability that student gets 100 marks in exam of mathematics paper containing total 100
æ 1 1 ö
marks. çè 0, , ÷
100 101 ø
æ4 1 ö
71. Find the probability that in one digit natural numbers, the number selected is an even. çè , , 0 ø÷
9 9
72. Probability of any event is either .......... OR greater than OR equal to and less than .......... OR equal to.
((0, 1), (0, –1), (0, 0)
73. .......... are total numbers of outcome while tossing two balanced dice togather. (12, 24, 36)
74. .......... is sum of all probabilities of the primary events of sample space. (0, –1, 1)
75. One card is selected at random from the deck at 52 playing cards. Then ......... is the probability that
æ 1 13 1 ö
selected card is a king of red colour. çè , , ÷
4 51 52 ø
76. ........ is the probability of an event out of 13 cards of red colour, one trump card of black colour is
æ 4 1 ö
selected. çè , , 0÷
13 52 ø
77. Three balanced coins are tossed together. Then ......... is the probability of an event that two successive
æ 3 2 1ö
heads are obtained on coins. çè , , ø÷
8 3 4
78. Two coins are tossed 1000 times. ......... is the probability of an event that we get 225 times two heads
on it. (0.25, 0.22, 0.225)

æ 3 4 5ö
79. .......... is the probability of an event that there are 5 Sundays in the month of March. çè , , ø÷
7 7 7
80. In a box there are 6 Green, 3 white and 11 blue colour balls. One ball is selected at random. Then ..........
æ 11 1 9 ö
is the probability of an event that selected ball is NOT of blue colour. çè , , ÷
20 20 20 ø
81. Two balanced dice are tossed together. Then ......... is the probability of an event that sum of integers
æ 5 7 ö
obtained on dice is less than 7. çè , , 1÷
12 12 ø
82. Two balanced coins are tossed together ......... is the probability of an event that sum of integer obtained
æ5 1 5 ö
on it is six. çè , , ÷
6 3 36 ø
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 Shreetogether
Two balanced coins are tossed Swaminarayan
......... Gurukul English Medium
is the probability School
of an event that sum of integer obtained
æ5 1 5 ö
on it is six. çè , , ÷
6 3 36 ø
æ 1 ö
83. Probability of an event that “Earth completely one rotation on its imaginary axis” is ........... çè 0, 1, ÷
365 ø
æ 7 1 6ö
84. ......... is the probability of an event that there does not have 53 Sundays in leap year. çè , , ø÷
53 7 7
85. The Probability of rain tomorrow is 0.657. Then .......... is the probability that there will be NO rain
tomorrow. (0, 0.343, 0.433)

æ 3 5ö
86. .......... is the probability of an event that one vowels is from the word TRIANGLE. çè 1, , ø÷
8 8
87. ......... is the probability of an event that two friends have same date of birth in the year 2006.
æ 1 2 1 ö
çè , , ÷
365 365 2006 ø
5 æ 5 6 ö
88. Probability of winning game is then ......... is the probability to loose the game. çè , , 0÷
11 11 11 ø
89. Product of the probability of certain event and impossible event is ........... (1, 0, 1)
90. ......... is the probability of an event which does not occur. (1, –1, 0)

91. IF P(E) = 0.05 then probability of E NOT [P( E )] is ...........(0.95, 0.01, 0.90)

æ5 3 ö
92. ......... is the probability of an event one vowel is selected from word PROBABILITY. çè , , 0ø÷
4 11
93. One digit is selected from Logarithmatic table. Then ......... is the probability of an event that selected digit
æ 1 9 1ö
is either 0 OR 9. çè , , ÷
10 10 5 ø
æ 1 1 1ö
94. ......... is the probability of an event that in any year, Sunday is on 15 August. çè , , ø÷
15 4 7

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

SUBJECT :- S.S

Note:-
 Use supplementary to write the answers.
 Write all the answers in point wise only.
 While writing answers, don’t forget to write heading of that particular “Section”.
 Students have to write question & answer both in their Supplementary.

 Answer the following questions in brief:-

1. Explain the meaning of natural heritage and state what it comprises of.
2. Write a brief note on Dravidians.
3. India’s culture became rich and prosperous due to the several tribes. Explain in brief.
4. Explain clay work of ancient Indian heritage.
5. Write a brief note on Patola.
6. Write a brief note on diamond work of India.
7. Give a brief idea about the metal work of ancient India.
8. Write a brief note on the rich painting art of India.
9. Write a brief note on Bhavai.
10. State & explain the various parts of a stupa.
11. Write a note on Sun Temple of Modhera.
12. Explain the four Vedas of Indian literature.
13. Gupta period was known as the golden period for the growth and development of Sanskrit
poems and dramas. Explain.
14. Write a brief note on the enrichment of Gujarati literature.
15. Write a note on Amir Khusro and his works.
16. Write a note on Takshashila Vidhyapeeth.
17. Write about the glory of Kashi as a learning centre.
18. How can you say that India has a wonderful metal heritage?
19. Write a note on the father of Mathematics.
20. How can you preserve wildlife? Discuss.
21. Write a brief note on organic farming.
22. Describe about the condiments and spices grown in India.
23. What is green revolution? Discuss its impact on Indian agriculture.
24. Write a brief note on irrigation & its sources in India.
25. What is watershed development? Explain.
26. Which points should one take into consideration for water management as well as conservation?
27. How can you classify the economic activities of a nation? Explain each classification briefly.
28. Explain the different factors of production.
29. There is a co-ordination of restrictions and motivations in mixed economy. Explain.
30. What is brain-drain? Stats its effects.
31. What is consumer awareness & consumer protection? Discuss.
32. State the important laws & acts made at world level for consumer protection.
33. Who can file a complaint for consumer protection? Where can a person file the complaint?
34. Give an idea about how can a consumer file a complaint?

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

 Answer the following questions in detail:-

1. Explain in detail how Indian culture and heritage has become so rich, varied and glorious.
2. Define natural heritage and discuss its various aspects with respect to India.
3. Explain briefly the main dance forms of India.
4. Describe the town planning of Mohen-jo-Daro.
5. Write a brief note on the medieval architecture of India.
6. Write a detail note on development of Indian languages during the Delhi sultanate.
7. Narrate the literary works of the Mughal era.
8. Write a detailed note on ancient India’s knowledge about mathematics and contribution to the world.
9. Write a detailed note on ancient India’s knowledge and contribution in astronomy and astrology.
10. Write a short note on the diverse wildlife found in India.
11. Write notes about the wild life on the verge of extinction.
12. Write a short note on cotton as a major cash crop of India.
13. Enlist the technical reforms that have taken place in Indian agriculture.
14. Write a brief note on multipurpose projects.
15. Discuss features of developing economy.
16. Discuss the problems faces by the world with respect to distribution of resources.
17. State and define the types of unemployment seen in Indian economy and give examples.
18. Write a detailed note on steps taken or should be taken by government to reduce unemployment.
19. Discuss in detail the reasons for price rise.
20. Discuss the steps that the government takes to control price rise.
21. Describe reasons of consumer exploitation.
22. Discuss the provisions made by the government for consumers under Consumer Protection Act.
23. Discuss in detail the duties of the consumers to save themselves from exploitation.
24. Discuss the four types of measures taken by the government to protect the consumers.
25. Write a brief note on the three-tier judicial system developed for consumer protection.

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 Shree Swaminarayan Gurukul English Medium School

Subject: English (FL)

‣ Read the following passage and select the appropriate answer from the options given below : (00)
One of the greatest advances in modern technology has been the invention of computers. They are widely
used in Industries and in Universities. Now there is hardly any sphere of human life where computers
have not been pressed in to service of man. We are heading fast on the close of this present century
towards a situation when a computer will be as much part of man’s daily life as a telephone or a calculator.
Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of learning. They can solve
the most complex mathematical problems or put thousands of unrelated facts in order. These machines
can be put to varied uses. For instance, they can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic, or
they can count the number of times the word “and” has been used in the Bible. Because they work
accurately and at high speed, they save the research workers hard work. This whole process by which
machines can be used to work for us had been called ‘automation’. In the future ‘automation’ may enable
human beings for more leisure than they do today. The coming of automation is bound to have important
social consequences.
Some years ago an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit, pointed out that it was a mistake to believe that
these machines could ‘think’. There no possibility that human beings will be “controlled by machines”.
Though computers are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their performance, they
need detailed instructions from human beings to operate. They can never, as it were, lead independent
lives or” rule the world” by making decision of their own.
01. What is automation?
02. What did Sir Leon believed with respect to automation in the past?
03. Point out few very complex tasks that computers can do.
04. Give a suitable title to the passage.
‣ Answer any Three of the following questions in five to six sentences each : (00)
05. There are two kinds of conflict in } the story between humans and nature and / between humans themselves.
How are these conflicts illustrated ?
06. Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him ? Why or why not ?
07. Describe the narrator’s experience as he flew the aeroplane into the storm.
08. Why does the narrator say, “I landed and was not sorry to walk away from the old Dakota……………..”?
09. Anne says teachers are most unpredictable. Is Mr Keesing unpredictable?
10. What does Anne write in her first essay?
11. What is the story about the Kodavu people’s descent ?
12. The baker and his family never starved. They always looked happy and prosperous, (matter-of-fact, hopeful,
sad) .
‣ Answer any Three of the following questions in five to six sentences each : (00)
13. What are the birds that are usually ‘named in poems? Do you think a crow is \ often mentioned in poems?
What images; come to your mind when you think of a crow?
14. What is a ‘dust of snow’? What does the poet say has changed his mood? How has thdi poet’s mood changed?
15. What deep meaning does the poem ‘Fire and Ice’ carry in it?
16. Why does the poet hold with those who favour fire?
17. What does the poet convey through the poem?
18. Describe some of the activities of the tiger as stated by the poet.
19. Why did the boy feel so sad at the loss of his ball?
20. What does the poet want to convey through this poem?
21. Why does Amanda seem moody most of the times?
22. Is Amanda an orphan? Why does she say that?
‣ Fill in the blanks using articles(s), conjunction(s), and preposition(s) at the correct places. (Write the
(00)
answers only)

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The climb to the Brahmagiri hills brings you ............... a panoramic view ............... the entire misty landscape of
Coorg. The monks, in red, ochre and yellow robes, are amongst ............... many surprises ............... wait to be
discovered by visitors.
24. (and, the, beneath, over)
He was near ............... sea now, flying straight ............... it, facing straight out over the ocean. He saw a vast
green sea ............... him, with little ridges moving over it and he turned his beak sideways ............... cawed
amusedly.
25. (the, a, without, and)
Very soon Mij would follow me ............... a lead ............... come to me when I called his name. He spent most of
his time in play. He spent hours shuffling. ............... rubber ball round ............... room like a four-footed soccer
player using all four feet to dribble the ball.
26. (and, as, but, the)
Trees came running towards them ............... then stopped ............... the bus reached them ............... simply stood
there helpless for a moment by the side of ............... road before rushing away in the other direction.
‣ Select the correct figures of speech from the options given : (00)
27. Has given my heart a change of mood.
A. Synecdoche B. Simile C. Alliteration D. Metaphor
28. I hold with those who favour fire.
A. Antithesis B. Alliteration C. Apostrophe D. Anastrophe
29. 'His strength behind bars'.
A. Euphemism B. Antithesis C. Alliteration D. Metonymy
30. He is learning, well behind his desperate eyes,
A. Litotes B. Anti-climax C. Pun D. Transferred Epithet

‣ Convert the following into indirect form of narration : (00)

31. Lomov : Shut up! My heart is bursting!
Natalya : I shan't shut up.
Chubukov : What's the matter now?
Natalya : Papa, tell us truly, which is the better dog, our Squeezer or his Guess..
32. "Listen, child," said the voice," you shouldn't stand like that. Sit down."
"There's nobody who's a child," she said.
"Just sit back and make yourself comfortable. Why should you stand when you've paid for a seat?"
33. Pranjol, who had been born and brought up on a plantation, didn't share Rajvir's excitement.
"Oh, this is tea country now," he said. “Assam has the largest concentration of plantations in the world.
You will see enough gardens to last you a lifetime!"
34. "Tea was first drunk in China,” Rajvir added, “as far back as 2700 B.C! In fact words such as tea, 'chai' and
'chini' are from Chinese. Tea came to Europe only in the sixteenth century and was drunk more as medicine
than as beverage.”
35. Lencho said, “Now we’re really going to get some water, woman.” (Change into indirect speech)
36. Natalya : There's no need to hang your silly Guess; he's half-dead already!
Lomov : (weeps) Shut up! My heart's bursting!
Natalya : What's the matter now?
37. Natalya : I've noticed that those hunters argue most who know least.
Lomov : Madam, please be silent. My heart is going to pieces (shouts) shut up!
38. LOMOV : No, I've come only to see you, honoured Stepan Stepanovitch.
CHUBUKOV : Then why are you in evening dress, my precious? As if you're paying a New Year's Eve visit!
39. Valli shot an angry glance at the conductor and said, “I am not a madam. Please remember that. And you've
not yet given me my ticket.”
“I'll remember," the conductor said, mimicking her tone.
40. The conductor, sticking his head out the door, said, “Hurry then! Tell whoever it is to come quickly."
"It's me," shouted Valli. “I'm the one who has to get on."
‣ Do as directed : (00)
41. Do you think it is a cruel way to treat Wanda? (Select the correct Assertive sentence.)
A. It is Indeed a cruel way to treat Wanda.
B. It is not cruel way to treat Wanda.
C. It was a cruel way to treat Wanda.
D. It was not a cruel way to treat Wanda.

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42. Natalya was more aggressive than Lomov. (Select the appropriate Positive Degree.)
A. Lomov is not so aggressive as Natalya.
B. Lomov was not so aggressive as Natalya
C. Lomov has not been so aggressive as Natalya.
D. Lomov was not been so aggressive as Natalya.
43. Lencho was too poor to sow his field again.(Select the correct sentence without 'too'.)
A. Lencho was so poor that he could not sow his field again.
B. Lencho was so poor that he cannot sow his field again.
C. Lencho was very poor to sow his field again.
D. Lencho is so poor to sow his field again.
44. Suddenly I came out of the clouds. (Select the correct Question Tag.)
A. Suddenly I came out of the clouds, wasn't I?
B. Suddenly I came out of the clouds, didn't I?
C. Suddenly I came out of the clouds, hadn't I?
D. Suddenly I came out of the clouds, isn't I?
45. He had made his first flight. (Select the correct Passive Voice.)
A. His first flight had been made by him.
B. His first flight was made by him.
C. His first flight has being made by him.
D. His first flight has been made by him.
46. The most fascinating thing of all was the bus. (Make it Exclamatory.)
A. What a fascinating thing of all the bus was!
B. How the bus was fascinating!
C. Wow! The bus was fascinating
D. Wow! The bus was fascinating of all things.
47. They crossed a cattle-bridge and entered Dhekiabari Tea Estate. (Make it Simple.)
A. They crossed a cattle-bridge entering Dhekiabari Tea Estate,
B. They crossed and entered Dhekiabari Tea Estate.
C. Crossing a cattle-bridge, they entered Dhekiabari Tea Estate.
D. They entered Dhekiabari Tea Estate after they crossed a catttle-bridge
48. The hundred dresses were beautiful. (Add a Question Tag.)
A. The hundred dresses were beautiful, were they?
B. The hundred dresses were beautiful, are they?
C. The hundred dresses were beautiful weren't they?
D. The hundred dresses were beautiful aren't they?
49. It doesn't matter. (Make it Affirmative.)
A. It does matter.
B. It hardly matters.
C. It is OK.
D. It matters.
50. I could not see it anywhere. (Change the Voice.)
A. It could not see anywhere by I.
B. It could not be seen anywhere by me.
C. It could be seen everywhere by me.
D. It could be see everywhere by I.
51. I really didn't know what to do for a few months. (Turn into Affirmative.)
A. I knew what to do for a few months.
B. I was ignorant what to do for a few months.
C. I was clueless about my doing for a few months.
D. I hardly know what to do for a few months.
52. It started before I was born. (Turn into Simple.)
A. I was born before it started.
B. It started before my birth.
C. It did not start after I was born.
D. It had not started before I was born.
53. Yours is one of the finest universities in the world. (Change the Degree.)
A. Yours is one of the finer universities in the world.
B. No other university in the world is so fine as your university.
C. Very few universities in the world are so fine as your university.
D. Yours is finer than any other university in the world.

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54. Let me put it more clearly. (Select the correct Positive Voice sentence.)
A. Let me be put it more clearly.
B. Let it be put more clearly by me.
C. Let it been put more clearly by me.
D. Let it should be put more clearly by me.
55. I still love her. (Select the correct use of Question tag.)
A. I still love her, isn't it?
B. I still love her, didn't I?
C. I still love her, aren't I?
D. I still love her, don't I?
56. The young seagull was alone on his ledge. (Select the correct use of 'nobody'.)
A. Nobody was alone on his ledge with the young seagull.
B. Nobody else the young seagull was alone on the ledge.
C. Nobody but the young seagull was alone on the ledge.
D. On the ledge nobody along with the young seagull was alone.
57. The oppressor and the oppressed alike are robbed of their humanity. (Select the correct sentence with the use
of 'not only but also'.)
A. Not only the oppressor but the oppressed also is robbed of his humanity.
B. Not only the oppressor but also the oppressed are robbed of their humanity.
C. Not only the oppressor but the oppressed also are robbed of their humanity.
D. Not only the oppressor but the oppressed also are rob of his humanity.
58. Mr Keesing was a very strict teacher. (Select the correct Exclamatory sentence.)
A. Wasn't Mr Keesing a very strict teacher!
B. What a strict teacher Mr Keesing was!
C. How strict teacher Mr Keesing was!
D. What was strict teacher was Keesing!
59. I am no more virtuous than the next man. (Select the correct Positive Degree sentence.)
A. I am as virtuous as the next man.
B. The next man is as virtuous as me.
C. The next man is not so virtuous as I.
D. The next man is as virtuous as I.
60. I wanted freedom for myself. (Select the correct Passive sentence.)
A. Myself was wanted freedom by me.
B. Freedom was wanted for myself by me.
C. I was wanted freedom for myself.
D. Freedom is wanted for myself by me.
‣ Write a report. (00)
61. A terrible train accident took place of Patna-Indore Express at Kanpur in the early morning hours. Two
sleeper coaches got derailed. Write a report on this accident.
‣ Write an essay in about 200 words on any one of the following : (00)
62. Indian Tourism
63. Can One Man Alone Change the Face of Politics?

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SUBJECT :- GUJARATI
Section-C (વ્માકયણ વલબાગ)
● ભાગ્મા પ્રભાણે ઉત્તય રખો. [16]
[1] નીચેનાભાાંથી ક્મો ળબ્દ ‘લન’ ળબ્દનો વભાનાથી છે ?
(અ) અયણ્મ (ફ) જાં ગર (ક) અ - ફ ફાંને વાચા
[2] નીચેનાભાાંથી વભાનાથી ળબ્દનુાં કમુું જોડકુાં ઉવચત નથી ?
(અ) ગુરતાન - ભળગૂર (ફ) લશેભ - ળાંકા (ક) શ્રÛi - અશ્રÛi
[3] ‘સ્ત્ભયણ’ ળબ્દનો વલરુÛiથી ળબ્દ ળોધીને રખો.
(અ) માદ (ફ) વલસ્ત્ભય (ક) વાંસ્ત્ભયણ
[4] નીચે વલરુÛiથી ળબ્દનાાં જોડકાાં આપમાાં છે , તેભાાં ક્મુાં જોડકુાં ઉવચત નથી ?
(અ) વભત્ર × દોસ્ત્ત (ફ) રામક × ગેયરામક (ક) બીતય × ફશાય
[5] નીચેનાભાાંથી કઈ જોડણી વાચી છે ?
(અ) રટરપન (ફ) ટીરપન (ક) રટપીન
[6] જે ભાણવ ઩ૂણા છે તે________ન જામ.
(અ) પેરાઈ (ફ) કરાઈ (ક) પોરાઈ
[7] નીચેનાભાાંથી ‘અન્લે઴ણ’ ળબ્દનીકઈવાંવધમોગ્મયીતેછોડેરીછે ?
(અ) અ + લૈ઴ણ (ફ) અન + લે઴ણ (ક) અનુ + એ઴ણ
[8] નીચેનાભાાંથી ક્મો વભાવ તત઩ુરુ઴ છે ?
(અ) સ્ત્લગાલાવ (ફ) ભારવભરકત (ક) તામ્ર઩ત્ર
[9] ‘કા઱જાાંને કોયી ખાલુાં’ રૂરઢપ્રમોગનો અથા આ઩ો.
[10] ‘ઘયડાાં ગાડા લા઱ે’ – કશેલત વભજાલો.
[11] જે ઠીભાએ લણાટ કાભનુાં કાયખાનુાં ઊબુાં કમુું.’ - કભાવણલાક્મ ફનાલો.
[12] ‘ભા઱ીએ ળીભ઱ાનુાં લૃક્ષ ક઩ાવ્મુાં’ - પ્રેયકલાક્મ ફનાલો.
[13] ‘અભથી ભાાં વયવ યોટરા ઘડે છે .’ - યેખાાંરકત વલળે઴ણનો પ્રકાય જણાલો.
[14] નીચેનાભાાંથી વલકાયી વલળે઴ણ ળોધીને રખો.
(અ) કુાંડલી (ફ) ળીતર (ક) વુાંદય
[15] કાનાબાઈ તુ તાયાાં જીલને ગતે કય - મોગ્મ વલયાભવચહ્નો ભૂકી લાક્મ પયીથી રખો.
[16] લાક્મભાાં પ્રશ્ન ઩ૂછલા કમુાં વલયાભવચહ્ન ભૂકી ળકામ ?
(અ) ઉદ્ગાયવચહ્ન (ફ) અલતયણવચહ્ન (ક) પ્રશ્નાથાવચહ્ન

Section -D (અથાગ્રશણ રેખન વલબાગ)

(અ) નીચે આ઩ેર ગદ્યખાંડનો આળયે ત્રીજા બાગભાાં વાંક્ષે઩ કયી તેને મોગ્મ ળી઴ાક આ઩ો. [4]
જીબને આ઩ણે ‘રૂરી’ નુાં અવબમાન આપમુાં છે . ઩ણ એ રૂરી શળે તોમે ઇશ્લય કૃ઩ા ઩ાભેરા યાંગુના જે લી શળે. આખો
વગરય ઓ઱ાંગી ળકે એલી જગતભાાં જે કાાંઇ થામ છે - વારુાં નયવુાં, આનાંદ - કાંકાવ, આતભશ્રાઘા, ખુળાભદ, વલલાશને
લયવી ભાાંદગીને તાંદુયસ્ત્તી તે વલા ભોટે બાગે જીબને રઇને જ થામ છે . વવÛi>ત તયીકે જીબ ઩ય અાંકુળ યાખલાની ળવક્ત
ભનુષ્મભાાં છે , ઩ણ ખયી યીતે જોતાાં જાભની વત્તા શેઠ઱ એ દફાઇ જામ છે . વભાજ ધભાને કામદાની રૂએ ઩ુરુ઴ સ્ત્ત્રીનો
સ્ત્લાભી છે , ઩ણ લસ્ત્તુતુઃ એ સ્ત્ત્રીનો ગુરાભ શોમ તેભ લતે છે . એ જ યીતે જીભનાાં એ તાફાભાાં યશે છે . એની તાંદુયસ્ત્તી, એની
નીવત, એનો વલલેક, એનો ધભા, એનુાં આખુાં જીલન એની જીબને આધાયે જ વલકયી છે કે લણવે છે ભનુષ્મ એટરે જીબ.

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(ફ) આ઩ેરા ભુદ્દાઓ ઩યથી લાતાા રખો અને તેભાાંથી ભ઱તો ફોધ રખી તેને ળી઴ાક આ઩ો. [4]
ભુદ્દા:- એક વાફય શતુાં – ત઱ાલના ઩ાણીભાાં ઩ોતાનો ઩ડછામો જોઈને રૂ઩ા઱ાાં ળીંગડાના લખાણ કયે છે – ઩ાત઱ા ઩ગ છે
તેનુાં દુુઃખ વ્મક્ત કયે છે – અચાનક લાઘની ગજા ના થામ છે – વાફય બાગે છે – લાઘ ઩ાછ઱ યશી જામ છે – વાફય
જાં ગરભાાં ઩શોંચે છે – ઝાડ વાથે ળીંગડા બેયલાઈ જામ છે – વાફયને અપવોવ થામ છે – જે ઩ગને શુ ાં લળાાલતુાં શતુાં તેણે
ફચાવ્મુાં ઩ણ ળીંગડાઓને રીધે ભયલાનો લાયો આલળે.

(ક) તભાયા ળશેયભાાં ઉના઱ાના લેકેળનભાાં ળરૂ થમેર વભય કેમ્઩ાનો અશેલાર આળયે 100 ળબ્દોભાાં રખો. [4]

(ડ) નીચે આ઩ેરી ઩ાંવક્તઓનો વલચાય-વલસ્ત્તાય કયો.

‘બ઱ીળ નવશ જનોથી, વભત્ર, સ્ત્ત્રી, ફા઱કોથી;
જીલીળ, ફની ળકે તો, એકરાાં ઩ુસ્ત્તકોથી.’
અથલા
“વલળા઱ે જગ વલસ્ત્તયે નથી એક જ ભાનલી,
઩ળુ છે , ઩ાંખી છે , ઩ુષ્઩ો, લનોની છે લનયાવજ !”

(ઈ) નીચેનાભાાંથી કોઈ઩ણ એક વલ઴મ ઩ય આળયે 200 ળબ્દોભાાં વનફાંધ રખો. [8]
ભાતૃપ્રેભ અથલા ભા તે ભા
ભુદ્દા :- પ્રસ્ત્તાલના – ભાતાનો પ્રેભ – ફા઱ક પ્રતમેનુાં લાતવલ્મ, ફા઱કનુાં ઘડતય – ઉ઩વાંશાય.
અથલા
નાયી તુ નાયામણી
ભુદ્દા:- પ્રસ્ત્તાલના – નાયીની આજની વસ્ત્થવત – પ્રાચીનકા઱ભાાં નાયીનુાં વભાજભાાં સ્ત્થાન – ઉ઩વાંશાય.
અથલા
પ્રાથાના – જીલનનુાં ફ઱. અથલા પ્રાથાના – આતભાનો ખોયાક
ભુદ્દા:- પ્રસ્ત્તાલના – ઈશ્લયની વલો઩રયતા – જુ દાાં જુ દાાં ધભોભાાં પ્રાથાનાનુાં ભશત્ત્લ – પ્રાથાનાની અવ૨ – પ્રાથાના દો઴ દૂય
કયનાયી – ઉ઩વાંશાય.

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SECTION:-C
ભાગ્મા પ્રભાણે પ્રશ્ન૊ના ઉત્તય રખ૊. [16]
23. નીચેનાભાાંથી કમ૊ ળબ્દ ‘નૈમા’ ળબ્દન૊ વભાનાથી નથી.
(A) તયણી (B) તયા઩૊ (C) ઩નાઈ
24. નીચે આ઩ેરા વભાનાથી જ૊ડકાભાાં કમુાં જ૊ડકુાં ઉસચત નથી ?
(A) ઝાં ઝટ - યકઝક (B) ઩ાણી-જ઱ (C) ઩ૃથ્લી-આકાળ
25. કમ૊ ળબ્દ ‘ગગન'ન૊ સલરૂદ્ધાથી નથી ?
(A) ધયતી (B) આકાળ (C) નબ
26. નીચે આ઩ેર સલય૊ધી ળબ્દના જ૊ડકાભાાંથી કમુાં જ૊ડકુાં ખ૊ટુાં છે ?
(A) વભી઩ × દૂય (B) તૃષ્ણા તયવ (C) પ્રાધાન્દ્મ × ગોણ
27. નીચેનાભાાંથી કઈ જ૊ડણી ખ૊ટી છે ?
(A) સલસલધ (B) ઘારીચ૊ (C) કેન્દ્દ્ર
28. _____ના યાંગાટ કાભના શુ ન્દ્નયભાાં કચ્છન૊ ભ૊ટ૊ પા઱૊ શત૊.
(A) બયત (B) બાયત (C) બયતી
29. ઩લન ળબ્દની વાચી યીતે કઈ વાંસધ જ૊ડેર છે તે જણાલ૊.
(A) ઩ + લન (B) ઩૊ + અન (C) ઩લ + અન
30. નીચેનાભાાંથી કમ૊ વભાવ દ્વદ્વગુ વભાવ છે ?
(A) સત્રર૊ક (B) ઩દભ્રિ (C) ળાકબાજી
31. ‘઩ામાન૊ ઩થ્થય શ૊લુ’ાં (રૂરઢપ્રમ૊ગન૊ અથણ આ઩૊.)
32. વસ્તી ભૂડીને સવદ્ધ઩ુયની જાત્રા’ (કશેલત વભજાલ૊.)
33. ‘આચામણએ સલદ્યાથીઓને પ્રલાવ અાંગે જણાવ્મુાં’ (કભણસણ લાક્મ જણાલ૊.)
34. ‘યભાએ નલા લસ્ત્ર૊ પયીદ્યા’ (લાક્મનુાં પ્રેયક લાક્મ ફનાલ૊.)
35. ‘ત્રણ બાયા ફાાંધ્મા દ૊યડે, તને વાાંબયે યે’ - યેખાાંરકત સલળે઴ણન૊ પ્રકાય જણાલ૊.
36. ફીડી ઩ીલાની ટેલ એટરે_______ અને શાસનકાયક ટેલ’ મ૊ગ્મ સલળે઴ણ લડે ખારીજગ્મા ઩ૂય૊.
(A) ગાંદી (B) ગાંદુ (C) ગાંદ૊
37. ‘રાલ૊ તભાય૊ શાથ ભે઱લીએ’ લાક્મભાાં મ૊ગ્મ સલયાભસચહ્નો ભૂકી લાક્મ પયીથી રખ૊.
38. અલતયણ સચહ્ન કેટરા પ્રકાયના શ૊મ છે ?
(A) ફે (B) એક (C) ત્રણ

SECTION:-D

39.નીચે આ઩ેરા ગદ્યખાંડન૊ આળયે ત્રીજા બાગભાાં વાંક્ષે઩ કયી તેને મ૊ગ્મ ળી઴ણક આ઩૊
. [4]
વભમની ભૂડી ત૊ દયેકની ઩ાવે વયખી જ શ૊મ છે ઩ણ તેને ખચણલાભાાં તપાલત શ૊મ છે .
એક વ્મસક્ત તેને કયકવ૨થી, મ૊જના ઩ૂલણક વ્મલસસ્થત યીતે ખચે છે . જ્માયે ફીજી વ્મસક્ત તેને આડેધડ અને અસલચાયી
઩ણે લેડપી નાખે છે . ઩રયણાભે એકને વાંત૊઴ ને વપ઱તા ભ઱ે છે , ફીજાને થાક અને સનષ્પ઱તા જે વ્મસક્તને ઩૊તાન૊
વભમ લા઩યતાાં આલડતુાં નથી, તેને કળુાં જ લા઩યતા આલડતુાં નથી. જ૊ તભાયી ઩ાવે ભમાણરદત પ્રભાણભાાં ભૂડી શ૊મ, ત૊
તેભાાં થતી ફચત એ જ તભાયી સભરકત ગણામ. વભમની ફાફત ઩ણ એલી જ છે . તેની ફચત એ જ કભાણી છે . નલ૊
વભમ ક૊ઈને ભ઱ી ળકત૊ નથી. એટરે જ જે ભાણવ ઩૊તાના વભમની લધુભાાં લધુ ફચત કયી ળકે. તેની ઩ાવે લધુભાાં લધુ
વભમ જભા થઈ ળકે. અને જે ની ઩ાવે વભમ જભા થામ તેની ઩ાવે ળસક્ત ઩ણ જભા થામ. વભમ અને ળસક્ત બેગાાં થામ
઩છી ળુાં કયી ળકે ? એ ધાયે તે કયી ળકે.
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40. આ઩ેરા ભુદ્દાઓ ઩યથી લાતાણ રખ૊ અને તેભાાંથી ભ઱ત૊ ફ૊ધ રખી તેને મ૊ગ્મ ળી઴ણક આ઩૊. [4]
ભુદ્દાઓ :-
એક ભુવાપયનુાં ચારતાાં ચારતાાં થાકી જલુાં - થાક દૂય કયલા આાંફાના ઝાડ નીચે આડા ઩ડલુાં - ભુવાપયે
સલચામુું ઈશ્લય ભૂખણ છે . લેર નાની ને એના ઉ઩ય ક૊઱ા જે લુાં ભ૊ટુાં પ઱ ! જ્માયે લૃક્ષ ભ૊ટુને એની ઉ઩ય કેયી જે લુાં નાનુાં
પ઱ ! આભ કયતાાં તે ઊંઘી ગમ૊. - એક કેયી ઩લનને રીધે તૂટીને ભાથા ઩ય ઩ડી. - ઊંઘ ઊડી ગઈ - ઈશ્લયી મ૊જનાનુાં
યશસ્મ વભજલુાં - ળી઴ણક - ફ૊ધ.
41. તભાયી ળા઱ાભાાં મ૊જામેર લૃક્ષાય૊઩ણ ભશ૊ત્વલ ઩ય આળયે 100 ( વ૊ ) ળબ્દ૊ભાાં અશેલાર રખ૊. [4]
42. નીચે આ઩ેરી ઩ાંસક્તઓન૊ આળયે ઩ાંદય લાક્મ૊ભાાં સલચાય -સલસ્તાય કય૊. [4]
ન યાખ આળા કદી ક૊ઈ ઩ાવ,
કયી ળકે ક૊ણ ઩છી સનયાળ ?
અથલા
આલ નશીં, આદય નશીં, નશી નમનભાાં નેશ,
તે ઘેય કદી નલ જઈએ, બરે કાંચન લયવે ભેશ.

43. ગભે તે એક સલ઴મ ઩ય આ઩ેર ભુદ્દાઓ ઩ય આધારયત આળયે 250 ળબ્દ૊ભાાં સનફાંધ રખ૊. [8]

આજન૊ સલદ્યાથી - સલદ્યાથી કે ઩યીક્ષાથી

આજના સલદ્યાથીન૊ દૃસિક૊ણ - લતણભાન ઩યીક્ષાઓ - ઩યીક્ષારક્ષી ગ૊ખણ ઩Í) જ્ઞાન - ઈત્તયજ્ઞાનન૊ અબાલ - ભાત્ર
઩યીક્ષારક્ષી તૈમાયી - દૃસિક૊ણ ફદરલ૊ જરૂયી - ઉ઩વાંશાય

કન્દ્મા કે઱લણીનુાં ભશત્ત્લ

ભુદ્દાઓઃ – પ્રસ્તાલના – કન્દ્મા કે઱લણી દ્લાયા વભાજની વુધાયણા – લતણભાન મુગભાાં સ્ત્રીની બૂસભકા – ઩ુરુ઴ વ૊રડી
નાયી – ઉ઩વાંશાય

જીલનભાાં સળસ્તનુાં ભશત્ત્લ

સળસ્તની જરૂરયમાત - સળસ્તના પ્રકાય, સ્લમાં સળસ્ત - ગેયસળસ્તનાાં ઩રયણાભ - કડલા સળસ્તની જરૂય - ઉ઩વાંશાય

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(vBig C {ÄyikrN (vBig}

¬mi³yi p\miN[ u_ir lKi[ [16]
{9} n)c[nimi>Y) kyi[ S¾d „d>D‟ S¾dni[ sminiY)< C[. [01]
{A} (Sxi {B} d>Di {C} dDi[
{10} n)c[nimi>Y) sminiY)< S¾dn&> Ô[Dk&> u(ct C[. [01]
{A} h&km - AmrN {B} ud(F - n[N {C} Æyim - a(st
{11} „rxk‟ S¾dni[ (vri[F) S¾d aipi[. [01]
{A} BxN {B} Bxk {C} BAm
{12} n)c[nimi>Y) (vri[F) S¾dn&> Ô[Dk&> u(ct nY) [01]
{A} k>j*s - uDiu {B} Si>(t - b[Si>(t {C} Fnvin - gr)b
{13} n)c[nimi>Y) ke Ô[DN) Ki[T) C[ ? [01]
{A} m&K {B} v&>divn {C} (g(rFr
{14} n)c[nimi>Y) ke Ô[DN) sic) C[ ? [01]
{A} f(ryid {B} v)diyg)t {C} v)smrN
{15} „(v + sm‟ s>(F y&kt S¾d kyi[ C[ ? [01]
{A} (vPm {B} (vsm {C} (vSm
{16} n)c[nimi>Y) kyi[ smis tRp&r&P C[ ? [01]
{A} kºyipx {B} si[ydi[ri[ {C} aiggiD)
{17} aCi[ aCi[ vini> krvi> - $(Qp\yi[gni[ aY< aipi[ [01]
{18} (vni shkir n(h uoir - kh[vt smÔvi[. [01]
{19} s&higNi[a[ (vdiyg)ti[ giyi> - km<(Nviky bnivi[. [01]
{20} m[> (nb>F l²yi[ - p\[rk viky bnivi[. [01]
{21} aBN rmz& Di[si pis[ S¾di[ n hti. - r[Ki>(kt (vS[PNni[ p\kir jNivi[ [01]
{22} n)c[nimi>Y) (vkir) (vS[PN Si[Fi[ ? [01]
{A} mnAv) {B} sf[d {C} nKriL&>
{23} mi>Dvi[ vFivie gyi[ - yi[³y (vrim(ch`ni[ m*k) viky fr)Y) lKi[. [01]
{24} vikyn[ a>t[ ky&> (vrim(ch`n n m*k) Skiy ? [01]
{A} aÃp(vrim {B} p*N<(vrim {C} ud`gir(ch`n

(vBig D {aY<g\hN / l[Kn (vBig}

{25} n)c[ aip[li gwK>Dni[ aiSr[ #i)Ô Bigmi> s>x[p kr) t[n[ yi[³y S)P<k aipi[. [04]
aij[ aipNin[ aipN) p\g(t p\Ry[ ahi[-ahi[ Ye rH&> C[. Ô[tÔ[timi> k[Tl&> (vXin K[Dy&> C[
an[ zpiTib>F K[Dit&> Ôy C[. p>dr (m(nTmi> sZ(OTmi> By>kr uÃkipit mciv) Skiy t[Tl[ s&F) (vXinni[ (vkis YS[ a[vi BNkiri
vig[ C[. p&riNi[a[ Bgvinni[ m(hmi giti kH&> C[, „t[n) B*k&(Tni (vlismi#iY) b\Mi>Dni[ p\ly Yiy C[.‟ ai (s(o ti[ aij[
miNsni hiYmi> aivvi lig) C[. c>o an[ m>gL an[ g&r& tYi S(n siY[ s>pk< siFvin) kLi v]Xi(nk Si[F) kiQS[ a[v) um[d
aiv) C[ Bi[g, (s(o an[ ri[gni elij Si[Fie rHi C[. (h>si krvini an[ t[n) sim[ bcvini pN nvi nvi migi[< Ki[Liy C[.
pN ri[g, Gsiri[ an[ (h>sin[ Jvnmi> AYin n mL[, n pi[tin[ lig[, n b)Ôn[ hi(n phi[>c[, a[v) Ôtni Jvnni (nymi[n[ Si[Fvi
an[ t[n[ an&k*L s>AkZ(tn[ K)lvvin) b&(o hj& Si[Fie nY).
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{26} aip[li m&Ñiai[ prY) viti< lKi[ an[ t[mi>Y) mLti[ bi[F lK) t[n[ S)P<k aipi[ [04]
a[k k>j*s - viDimi> $(pyi diTvi - drri[j rit[ $(pyi gNvi - ci[rn&> Ô[e jv&> - $(pyi kiQ) l[vi an[ ki>kri m*kvi - k>j*sn[ ÔN
- miY&> k*Tv&> - piDi[S)n&> mh[N&> “hv[ ki>kri gNj[” - bi[F

{27} tmir) SiLimi> ujviy[l p&Atk m[Lini[ ah[vil 100 S¾di[mi> lKi[. [04]

{28} n)c[ aip[l) p>Iktai[ni[ (vcir - (vAtir kri[. [04]

mn[ mL) (nOfLti an[k, t[Y) sfL k]>k h&&> (j>dg)mi>.
aYvi
aicir a[ j p\cirn&> ~[Oq mi¹ym C[.

{29} n)c[ni mi>Y) ki[epN a[k (vPy pr aiSr[ 200 S¾di[mi> (nb>F lKi[. [08]
vZxi[ vivi[, pyi<vrN bcivi[
p\Ativni - vZxi[ minv)ni prm (m#ii[ - pyi<vrNn) ÔNvN) - vZxi[ aipNn[ (v(vF r)t[ upyi[g) - .
vZxi[Y) Yti liB - pyi<vrNn[ bcivvini upiyi[ - ups>hir
aYvi
(m#itin) m)qiS
p\Ativni - biLpNn) (m#iti - (m#ini s>gn) asr - (m#ii[ siY[ th[viri[n) ujvN) - (m#ii[-s&K-
. d&:Kni siY) - ups>hir
aYvi
p&Atki[ - minv)ni sici (m#ii[
p\Ativni - p&Atki[ siri (m#ii[ - p&Atki[ni s>gn) asr - p&Atki[ni l)F[ Jvnmi> p(rvt<n - p&Atki[ sici mig<dS<ki[ -
Jvnn[ Ô[vin) u_im Ø(OT aip[ p&Atki[ - p&Atki[ j ~[Oq (m#ii[ - ups>hir

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