PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION 2025

QP. Code 87/25/2

Roll No

* Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.

* QP. Code given on the right –hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer –book by the candidate.
* Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
CLASS X
CLASS X
SOCIAL-SCIENCE (087)
(Theory)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 80
General Instructions:
I. Question paper comprises five sections-A, B, C, D and D. There are 37 questions
in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
II. Section A- From question 1 to 20 are MCQ’s of 1 mark each.
III. Section B- Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions.
Carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
IV. Section C- Question no. 25 to Q29 are Short Answer Type Questions carrying 3
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed more than 60 words.
V. Section D- Question no. 30 to Q33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed more than 120 words.
VI. Section E- Question no. from 34 to q 36 are case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each.
VII. Section F- Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks each, with 2 parts
37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
VIII. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to
be attempted.
IX. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
 QP. Code 87/25/2
SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20 x 1= 20)
1. Assertion (A): The number of printed books in Europe increased significantly
during the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries.
Reason : Printing presses were established in most European countries, with
German printers playing a key role in spreading printing technology.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Gandhiji’s nationwide
satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act in 1919?
a) The Rowlatt Act was unanimously supported by the Indian members of the
Imperial Legislative Council.
b) The Act provided the government with powers to detain political prisoners
without trial for two years.
c) The nationwide satyagraha included violent protests against the British
government.
d) The hartal planned by Mahatma Gandhi was scheduled for 15 April 1919.
3. What was the primary reason Sardinia-Piedmont, under King Victor Emmanuel
II, took up the mantle of unifying the Italian states after 1848?
a) To fulfill Giuseppe Mazzini’s vision of a unitary Italian Republic
b) To establish Sardinia-Piedmont as the center of political and economic
dominance in Italy
c) To spread revolutionary ideals across Europe
d) To prevent foreign powers from controlling the Italian states
4. According to the chart, which region has the highest percentage of women in
national parliaments compared to the world average of 19.7%?

a) Americas b) Europe c) Nordic countries d) Asia

 QP. Code 87/25/2
5. Consider the following two statements.
a) In a federation, the powers of the federal and provincial
governments are clearly demarcated.
b) India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State
Governments are specified in the Constitution and they have
exclusive jurisdiction on their respective subjects.
c) Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into
provinces.
d) India is no longer a federation because some powers of the States
have been devolved to the local government bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) A, B and C b) A, C and D c) A and B only d) B and C only
6. What was the primary outcome of the Act of Union (1707) between England and
Scotland?
a) Formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain
b) Independence of Scotland from England
c) Establishment of a separate Scottish parliament
d) Revival of Gaelic culture in Scotland
7. When was the All-India Trinamool Congress (AITC) launched?
a) 1 January 1998 b) 15 August 1997 c)26 January 1999 d) 2 October 1996
8. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason ®. Read
both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Mahatma Gandhi started the Salt March in 1930, walking over 240
miles with 78 volunteers.
Reason: The Salt March was initiated as a response to the British refusal to
negotiate with Gandhi’s demands, leading to the launch of a civil disobedience
campaign.
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason is true.
9.The running water cuts through the clayey soil and makes deep channels as __
10 .Iron, the raw material used in the smelters is a very bulky, dark reddish coloured
rock. (True/ False)
 QP. Code 87/25/2
11. Who was the first person to start English printing in India, and what was the
name of his publication?
a) Rammohun Roy – Bengal Chronicle
b) James Augustus Hickey – Bengal Gazette
c) Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Indian Gazette
d) Warren Hastings – Calcutta Gazette
12. What criteria must a political party meet to be recognized as a state party in
India?
a) Secure at least 6% of the total votes in a Legislative Assembly of state
election and win at least two seats
b) Have a national presence with candidates in multiple states
c) Obtain at least 10% of the votes in the last state assembly election
d) Register with the Election Commission and have a unique symbol
13.Assertion: Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of Paddy.
Reason: Alluvial soil has capability to hold moisture.
a) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
c) Both (A) and (R)is wrong and (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
14.Total income of the country divided by its total population is known as,
a) Capital income b) National income c) Per capita income d) GDP
15.Which of the following is included in tertiary sector?
a) ATM booths b) Call center c) Internet café d) All of them
16. The modern forms of money include __ and __.
17.Which one of the following Indian industries has been hit hard by globalization?
a) Information technology (IT) b) Toy making c) Jute d) Cement
18.The year of all final goods and services produced within a country during a
particular year is called as____
a) Gross domestic product b) Net domestic product
c) National product d) Production of tertiary sector.
19.According to Crowther, “___can be defined as anything that is generally
accepted as a means of exchange and at the same time acts as a measure and as a
store of value

QP. Code 87/25/2

20.Investments made by MNC’s are termed as:
a) Indigenous investment. b) Foreign investment.
c) World Health Organization. d) World Trade Organization.
SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWERS 2×4=8
21. What steps were taken in India to strengthen federalism?
22. The silk routes are a good example of trade and cultural link between distant
parts of the world. Explain with examples.
23. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Mention its different
forms
24. “What may be development for one may not be development for the other.”
Explain with a suitable example.
SECTION-C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)
25. Why did James Augustus Hickey claim that the “Bengal Gazette was a
commercial paper open to all but influence by none”? Explain
26.(A) How can the workers in an unorganised sector be protected? Explain
OR
(B) How can more employment be generated in the agriculture sector? Explain any
three methods.
27. ‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large
extent in India since 1991.’ Justify the statement.
28 “Multipurpose projects have failed to achieve the purpose for which they were
built”. Justify by giving reasons.
29.Mention a few factors that determine the economic growth of a country.
SECTION- D
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS. 4×5=20
30.a) Explain the factors that contributed to the rise of nationalism in Europe in the
19th century.
30.b) Discuss the role of Napoleon Bonaparte in shaping nationalism in Europe.
31.a) "Money plays a crucial role in facilitating economic transactions." Evaluate
this statement.
31.b) Study the impact of demonetization on the Indian economy.
32a) Compare and contrast national and regional political parties.
32.b) Compare the organizational structure of different political parties.
33.a) To what extent do manufacturing industries contribute to economic
development?
QP. Code 87/25/2
b) How do manufacturing industries in developed and developing countries differ?
 SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4X3=12)
34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won
through non- violence. In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA)
was founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi. Amongst its leaders
were Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh. In a series of dramatic actions in
different parts of India, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power. In
April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar. Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative
Assembly. In the same year there was an attempt to blow up the train that Lord
Irwin was travelling in. Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed by the
colonial government. During his trial, Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to
glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution in society:
‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible
birthright of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society ... To the altar of this
revolution, we have brought our youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so
magnificent a cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution. Inquilab
Zindabad!’
34.1 How did HSRA deal with British tyranny in India? [1 mark]
34.2 Name any two leaders of HSRA. [1 mark]
34.3 How did Bhagat Singh interpret the term revolution? [2 mark]
35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided
political power. For a long time, it was believed that all power of a government must
reside in one person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the
power to decide is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to
enforce them. But these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.
One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power.
In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions of self-government. In a
good democratic government, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that
exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies. Therefore,
it follows that in a democracy political power should be distributed among as many
as possible.
35.1. How the idea of power sharing emerged? [1 mark]
35.2. What was the long-time belief about the powers of a government? [1 mark]
35.3. What benefit a government get if power is dispersed among people? [2 mark]
36. Read the source given below and answer the following questions:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer
from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram
and mustard. Though, these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the
north and northwestern parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu
and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of
wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to
the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops. However, the
success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and parts
of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the abovementioned
rabi crops.
36.1. Which crops are shown in winter season? [1 mark]
36.2What are the causes of precipitation in winter season in northwestern India? [1 ]
36.3. Give examples of rabi crops which are grown in large parts of India, states
from the north and northwest. [2 mark]
SECTION - F
MAP BASED QUESTIONS: 3+2 MARKS
37. Three places, b, and, c are marked on the outline political map of India. Identify
these places with the help of the following
Information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them.

a) The place where violence erupted during the Non- Cooperation movent leading
to its withdrawal.
b) Place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.
c) Place where Indian National Congress held its session in September, 1920.
d) Mark two states where laterite soil is found.