PADMAVANI ARTS AND SCIENCE COLLEGE FOR WOMEN

(AUTONOMOUS)
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND COMPUTER APPLICATIONS

CLASS: III-B.Sc. (CS) SUBJECT: NETWORK SECURITY

Unit-1
1. Which of the following is NOT a primary service defined by the OSI security
architecture?
a) Authentication
b) Access control
c) Data compression
d) Data integrity
2. In the OSI security architecture, confidentiality is achieved through which
mechanism?
a) Encryption
b) Digital signature
c) Access control
d) Non-repudiation
3. The OSI security architecture ensures data integrity through the use of which
method?
a) Password hashing
b) Message authentication codes (MACs)
c) User authentication
d) Digital certificates
4. Which OSI layer is primarily responsible for end-to-end encryption and decryption?
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Transport layer
d) Presentation layer
5. Which of the following best describes "non-repudiation" in the context of OSI
security services?
a) Protecting data from unauthorized access
b) Ensuring the sender cannot deny sending a message
c) Verifying user identity
d) Encrypting sensitive data
6. Which layer of the OSI model is most closely associated with user authentication?
a) Network layer
b) Application layer
c) Data link layer
d) Session layer
7. What role does the transport layer play in the OSI security architecture?
a) Managing encryption and decryption
b) Preventing unauthorized access
c) Ensuring secure end-to-end delivery of messages
d) Generating digital certificates
8. Access control in the OSI security architecture refers to what?
a) Encrypting all user data
b) Limiting user access based on predefined rules
c) Authenticating users at the network layer
d) None of the above
9. In which layer of the OSI model does network layer security primarily operate?
a) Physical layer
b) Data link layer
c) Network layer
d) Session layer
10. The OSI security architecture’s service that protects against unauthorized
modification of data is called:
a) Access control
b) Data confidentiality
c) Data integrity
d) Non-repudiation
11. Which of the following is a passive attack in network security?
a) Denial of Service (DoS)
b) Packet sniffing
c) IP spoofing
d) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
12. What type of attack involves overwhelming a network or server with excessive
traffic to make it unavailable?
a) Phishing
b) Denial of Service (DoS)
c) SQL injection
d) Brute force
13. Which attack is performed by intercepting communication between two parties to
steal or manipulate data?
a) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
b) Replay attack
c) Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
d) Trojan hors
14. What type of attack exploits vulnerabilities in DNS to redirect users to a malicious
website?
a) DNS spoofing
b) ARP poisoning
c) SQL injection
d) Buffer overflow
15. Which of the following attacks exploits buffer overflow vulnerabilities in
applications?
a) Eavesdropping
b) Social engineering
c) Code injection
d) Phishing
16. What is the primary goal of a phishing attack?
a) Encrypt user data for ransom
b) Steal user credentials or sensitive information
c) Overload a server with traffic
d) Execute malicious code on a system
17. Which type of attack involves an attacker resending intercepted communication to
gain unauthorized access?
a) Replay attack
b) Brute force
c) Keylogging
d) DDoS
18. What is the purpose of a Trojan horse in network security?
a) To encrypt data for ransom
b) To appear as legitimate software while performing malicious activities
c) To overload the server with traffic
d) To intercept network traffic
19. What is a common technique used in brute force attacks?
a) Trying all possible password combinations until the correct one is found
b) Exploiting vulnerabilities in the DNS protocol
c) Intercepting communication between two devices
d) Infecting a device with malware
20. Which type of attack involves flooding a target system with traffic from multiple
sources?
a) Trojan horse
b) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
c) Replay attack
d) DNS spoofing
21. Which of the following is NOT a security service defined by the OSI model?
a) Confidentiality
b) Authentication
c) Authorization
d) Availability
22. What does the security service of "confidentiality" ensure?
a) Only authorized users can access data
b) Data is not modified during transmission
c) The sender cannot deny sending the data
d) Communication parties are authenticated
23. Which security mechanism is used to provide data confidentiality?
a) Digital signatures
b) Encryption
c) Firewalls
d) Hashing
24. The security service of "non-repudiation" is provided by which mechanism?
a) Digital certificates
b) Firewalls
c) Digital signatures
d) VPNs
25. What is the role of a cryptographic hash function in network security?
a) Encrypt data for secure transmission
b) Authenticate users during login
c) Verify data integrity
d) Prevent unauthorized access
26. Which of the following mechanisms protects against replay attacks?
a) Time stamps
b) Firewalls
c) Digital certificates
d) Symmetric encryption
27. Access control is an example of which type of security mechanism?
a) Data integrity
b) Authentication
c) Preventative mechanism
d) Corrective mechanism
28. Which of the following security services uses Message Authentication Codes
(MACs)?
a) Confidentiality
b) Non-repudiation
c) Data integrity
d) Access control
29. Which mechanism is used to prevent unauthorized access to a private network?
a) Digital signature
b) Firewall
c) Hashing
d) Non-repudiation
30. What is the primary purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
a) Prevent unauthorized access
b) Detect and alert about potential threats
c) Encrypt sensitive data
d) Provide non-repudiation
31. What is the primary goal of a network security model?
a) To ensure network speed and performance
b) To protect data and resources in a network from unauthorized access
c) To minimize hardware costs in a network
d) To optimize data compression
32. Which component of the network security model ensures that only authorized
entities can access data?
a) Confidentiality
b) Authentication
c) Integrity
d) Non-repudiation
33. What role does the "cryptographic algorithm" play in the network security model?
a) To verify user credentials
b) To provide encryption and decryption of data
c) To monitor network traffic for malicious activity
d) To assign IP addresses to devices
34. In the network security model, which component verifies the identity of a user or
system?
a) Confidentiality
b) Authentication
c) Firewall
d) Data integrity
35. Which component of the network security model protects data from being altered
during transmission?
a) Integrity
b) Availability
c) Non-repudiation
d) Authentication
36. What is the role of the "security policy" in the network security model?
a) To define rules for accessing resources
b) To implement encryption algorithms
c) To identify hardware vulnerabilities
d) To enhance data compression
37. Which mechanism in the network security model is primarily responsible for
defending against external threats?
a) Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
b) Access control
c) Encryption
d) Digital signatures
38. Which term refers to ensuring that data is accessible to authorized users when
needed?
a) Confidentiality
b) Availability
c) Authentication
d) Integrity
39. In the network security model, firewalls are used for which purpose?
a) To encrypt data
b) To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
c) To verify user identity
d) To ensure data integrity
40. Which protocol is commonly used in the network security model for secure
communication over the internet?
a) HTTP
b) SSL/TLS
c) FTP
d) UDP
41. What is the main characteristic of classical encryption techniques?
a) They use asymmetric key encryption
b) They rely on complex algorithms
c) They use simple substitution and transposition methods
d) They require quantum computing
42. Which classical encryption technique shifts each letter by a fixed number of
positions in the alphabet?
a) Vigenère cipher
b) Caesar cipher
c) Playfair cipher
d) Hill cipher
43. In the Caesar cipher, how many possible keys are there in English alphabets?
a) 25
b) 26
c) 24
d) Infinite
44. Which cipher replaces each plaintext letter with a corresponding ciphertext letter
using a key?
a) Transposition cipher
b) Substitution cipher
c) Vernam cipher
d) Affine cipher
45. In a transposition cipher, encryption is performed by:
a) Rearranging the order of characters
b) Replacing characters with other characters
c) Adding numerical values to each character
d) Using XOR operations
46. The Vigenère cipher is an example of:
a) Monoalphabetic substitution
b) Polyalphabetic substitution
c) Transposition technique
d) One-time pad
47. Which classical cipher uses a matrix for encryption and decryption?
a) Hill cipher
b) Caesar cipher
c) Substitution cipher
d) Transposition cipher
48. The Playfair cipher encrypts:
a) Single letters
b) Digraphs (pairs of letters)
c) Words
d) Numbers
49. In which cipher does the key length equal the message length, making it theoretically
unbreakable?
a) Hill cipher
b) Caesar cipher
c) Vernam cipher (One-Time Pad)
d) Playfair cipher
50. Which of the following is NOT a substitution cipher?
a) Caesar cipher
b) Vigenère cipher
c) Rail Fence cipher
d) Playfair cipher
51. In the Rail Fence cipher, the plaintext is encrypted by:
a) Substitution of letters
b) Using a zigzag pattern across multiple rows
c) Shifting letters by a fixed amount
d) Multiplying plaintext values by a key matrix
52. Which classical cipher is based on modular arithmetic?
a) Hill cipher
b) Cipher text
c) Substitution ciphers
d) Playfair cipher
53. Which cipher is vulnerable to frequency analysis attacks?
a) Playfair
b) Substitution cipher
c) Hill Cipher
d) Vernam cipher
54. Which cipher uses two keys for encryption?
a) Affine cipher
b) Vigenère cipher
c) Vernam cipher
d) Double transposition cipher
55. The term "monoalphabetic cipher" refers to:
a) A cipher that uses only one substitution alphabet
b) A cipher that rearranges letters
c) A cipher that shifts letters by varying amounts
d) A cipher that uses multiple substitution alphabets
56. The weakness of the Playfair cipher is:
a) Its digraphs can be guessed
b) It is slow to implement
c) It requires a numeric key
d) It cannot encrypt plaintext longer than the key
57. In the Hill cipher, decryption requires:
a) The inverse of the key matrix
b) The transposition of the ciphertext
c) The addition of the key matrix
d) The original plaintext
58. The frequency of letters in English makes which ciphers easy to break?
a) Transposition ciphers
b) Polyalphabetic ciphers
c) Monoalphabetic ciphers
d) Hill ciphers
59. In classical encryption techniques, the term "cryptanalysis" refers to:
a) The process of securing data
b) The process of breaking a cipher
c) The process of encrypting plaintext
d) The process of generating keys
60. What is the primary reason for the insecurity of classical encryption techniques?
a) They use modern algorithms
b) They rely on simple mathematical operations
c) They are computationally intensive
d) They require long keys
61. What is the primary characteristic of symmetric key cryptography?
a) It uses different keys for encryption and decryption.
b) It uses the same key for both encryption and decryption.
c) It uses no keys but relies on hash functions.
d) It uses a public and private key pair.
62. In the symmetric cipher model, the security of the system depends on:
a) The strength of the encryption algorithm
b) The secrecy of the key
c) The length of the plaintext
d) The communication protocol
63. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
a) RSA
b) DES (Data Encryption Standard)
c) DSA
d) ECC
64. What is the key length used in the original DES algorithm?
a) 56 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 64 bits
d) 256 bits
65. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of symmetric ciphers?
a) Faster than asymmetric ciphers
b) Requires a secure method for key distribution
c) Uses two keys for encryption and decryption
d) Suitable for encrypting large amounts of data
66. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) uses block sizes of:
a) 64 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 256 bits
d) Variable depending on key length
67. Which of the following modes of operation is used to ensure that the same plaintext
block does not produce the same ciphertext block?
a) ECB (Electronic Codebook)
b) CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)
c) CFB (Cipher Feedback)
d) OFB (Output Feedback)
68. The symmetric cipher model can be used to achieve which security service?
a) Confidentiality
b) Digital signatures
c) Non-repudiation
d) Key exchange
69. In symmetric encryption, what is a major challenge?
a) Decrypting ciphertext
b) Securely sharing the secret key
c) Implementing the encryption algorithm
d) Generating public keys
70. Which symmetric cipher algorithm replaced DES as the encryption standard?
a) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
b) RSA
c) Triple DES
d) Blowfish
71. What is the primary concept of substitution techniques in cryptography?
a) Rearranging the order of characters in plaintext
b) Replacing plaintext characters with different characters or symbols
c) Dividing plaintext into fixed-size blocks
d) Using a key pair for encryption and decryption
72. Which of the following is an example of a substitution cipher?
a) Caesar cipher
b) Rail Fence cipher
c) Hill cipher
d) DES
73. In a monoalphabetic substitution cipher:
a) Each letter in the plaintext is mapped to a single ciphertext letter.
b) A plaintext letter is mapped to multiple ciphertext letters.
c) Plaintext is encrypted in blocks.
d) Encryption depends on matrix multiplication.
74. Which of the following substitution techniques shifts the alphabet by a fixed number
of positions?
a) Vigenère cipher
b) Affine cipher
c) Caesar cipher
d) Playfair cipher
75. In the Vigenère cipher, the key used for encryption is:
a) A fixed numeric value
b) A repeated sequence of characters
c) A random binary string
d) A matrix
76. The Playfair cipher encrypts plaintext by substituting:
a) Single characters
b) Digraphs (pairs of letters)
c) Blocks of text
d) Numbers
77. Which substitution cipher is considered unbreakable when the key is random and
used only once?
a) Vigenère cipher
b) Caesar cipher
c) One-Time Pad
d) Playfair cipher
78. A major weakness of monoalphabetic substitution ciphers is:
a) They require a large key size.
b) They are computationally expensive to implement.
c) They are vulnerable to frequency analysis attacks.
d) They cannot encrypt numeric data.
79. In an Affine cipher, the encryption formula is:
a) E(x)=(ax+b)mod mE(x) = (ax + b) \mod mE(x)=(ax+b)modm
b) E(x)=(x2+b)mod mE(x) = (x^2 + b) \mod mE(x)=(x2+b)modm
c) E(x)=(x+a)mod mE(x) = (x + a) \mod mE(x)=(x+a)modm
d) E(x)=(a⋅b)mod mE(x) = (a \cdot b) \mod mE(x)=(a⋅b)modm
80. In the Vigenère cipher, if the keyword length is equal to the plaintext length and the
key is random, it becomes equivalent to which cipher?
a) Playfair cipher
b) One-Time Pad
c) Hill cipher
d) Caesar cipher
81. What is the primary concept of transposition techniques in cryptography?
a) Rearranging the order of characters in plaintext
b) Replacing plaintext characters with other characters
c) Encrypting plaintext using a key pair
d) Using block ciphers for encryption
82. Which of the following is an example of a transposition cipher?
a) Caesar cipher
b) Rail Fence cipher
c) Vigenère cipher
d) Affine cipher
83. In a Rail Fence cipher, encryption involves:
a) Rearranging plaintext into a zigzag pattern across multiple rows
b) Shifting each character by a fixed number of positions
c) Substituting each character with its numeric equivalent
d) Dividing plaintext into blocks and rearranging blocks
84. Which transposition technique divides plaintext into fixed-sized blocks before
rearranging them?
a) Playfair cipher
b) Columnar Transposition cipher
c) Affine cipher
d) Vernam cipher
85. In a Columnar Transposition cipher, the key is typically:
a) A numeric sequence representing column order
b) A random string of characters
c) A matrix of letters
d) A repeated keyword
86. Which of the following ciphers combines both substitution and transposition
techniques?
a) DES
b) Caesar cipher
c) Hill cipher
d) Vigenère cipher
87. What happens to the plaintext in a simple transposition cipher?
a) The letters are rearranged according to a specific pattern.
b) The letters are replaced by other letters.
c) The plaintext is encrypted into blocks.
d) The plaintext is hashed into a fixed-length string.
88. The key challenge in transposition ciphers is:
a) Securely sharing the key
b) Ensuring the key length matches the plaintext length
c) Ensuring correct rearrangement during decryption
d) Encrypting special characters
89. In a Double Transposition cipher, encryption involves:
a) Substituting and rearranging the plaintext in one step
b) Applying two successive transpositions using different keys
c) Repeating the same transposition multiple times
d) Encrypting plaintext using a matrix
90. A key strength of transposition techniques is that they:
a) Preserve the frequency of letters in the plaintext
b) Completely hide the structure of the plaintext
c) Require no key for decryption
d) Prevent frequency analysis attacks
91. What is a rotor machine in cryptography?
a) A mechanical device used for substitution ciphers
b) A mechanical encryption device that uses rotating disks to encrypt text
c) A modern digital encryption algorithm
d) A method of secure key exchange
92. Which of the following is a well-known example of a rotor machine?
a) Enigma machine
b) DES
c) Vigenère cipher
d) RSA
93. The main components of a rotor machine include:
a) Gears, pulleys, and locks
b) Rotating disks, wiring, and stepping mechanisms
c) Block ciphers and shift registers
d) Public and private keys
94. How does a rotor machine achieve encryption?
a) By performing a series of transpositions on plaintext
b) By substituting characters based on the wiring inside the rotors
c) By generating random numbers for each character of plaintext
d) By combining plaintext and a public key
95. In a rotor machine, the stepping mechanism is used to:
a) Generate random keys for encryption
b) Rotate the rotors after each character is encrypted
c) Securely exchange keys with other machines
d) Encode blocks of plaintext simultaneously
96. The strength of a rotor machine depends primarily on:
a) The number of rotors and their wiring
b) The length of the plaintext message
c) The speed of the encryption process
d) The material used to construct the machine
97. What was the main weakness of the Enigma machine that led to its decryption
during World War II?
a) Limited rotor configurations
b) Repeated key settings and operator errors
c) Use of a fixed substitution table
d) Insufficient number of rotors
98. Which component of the Enigma machine helped reset the rotors to their initial
positions?
a) Reflector
b) Plugboard
c) Stepping mechanism
d) Cipher key
99. Modern cryptographic methods that mimic the functionality of rotor machines are
based on:
a) Substitution-permutation networks
b) Block ciphers and stream ciphers
c) Public key infrastructure
d) Frequency analysis
100. Which cryptographic principle can be observed in rotor machines?
a) Confusion and diffusion
b) Key exchange and authentication
c) Public-private key pair usage
d) Hashing and salting
101. Rotor machines were primarily used during which historical period?
a) Ancient Greece
b) The Industrial Revolution
c) World War I and World War II
d) The Cold War
102. In rotor machines, the substitution of characters changes dynamically due to:
a) A fixed substitution table
b) The stepping mechanism of rotors
c) The use of a public and private key pair
d) The addition of random noise
103. What feature of rotor machines increases the complexity of encryption?
a) Multiple encryption passes
b) Varying rotor positions after each letter
c) Use of large plaintext blocks
d) The addition of random keys during encryption
104. The Enigma machine's plugboard was used to:
a) Reset the rotors to a default position
b) Perform an additional layer of substitution before encryption
c) Synchronize rotor movement between machines
d) Generate random key sequences
105. What was a significant innovation of the rotor machine compared to earlier
ciphers?
a) Automatic key exchange
b) Mechanized and dynamic substitution
c) Use of hashing algorithms
d) Adoption of block ciphers
106. Which aspect of rotor machines made them difficult to break using simple
frequency analysis?
a) Use of multiple rotors
b) The randomness in rotor movements
c) Dynamic substitution after every character
d) Predefined rotor settings
107. How were rotor machines like the Enigma configured for use?
a) Using a fixed key shared in advance
b) By setting rotor positions and plugboard connections based on daily codes
c) Through public key distribution
d) By programming them with encryption algorithms
108. Which cryptographic weakness led to the Allied forces breaking the Enigma code?
a) Simple rotor wiring
b) Lack of complexity in encryption
c) Operator errors and repeated message patterns
d) Insufficient number of keys
109. How many rotors did the standard Enigma machine use during World War II?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
110. In the Enigma machine, the reflector component ensured that:
a) The ciphertext was randomized
b) The encryption process was reversible for decryption
c) Messages were automatically synchronized
d) Plaintext was grouped into blocks
111. What was the purpose of having multiple rotors in a rotor machine?
a) To speed up the encryption process
b) To increase the keyspace and complexity of the cipher
c) To facilitate easy decryption
d) To make the machine portable
112. The breaking of the Enigma cipher was largely aided by:
a) Advanced rotor designs
b) The Bombe machine and captured Enigma settings
c) Frequency analysis tools
d) Stronger encryption algorithms
113. The keyspace of a rotor machine depends on:
a) The number of characters in the plaintext
b) The number of rotors and their wiring permutations
c) The speed of the rotor’s stepping mechanism
d) The length of the plaintext message
114. What kind of cipher is implemented by a rotor machine?
a) Transposition cipher
b) Substitution cipher
c) Hybrid cipher
d) Stream cipher
 Unit-2
1. What is the primary purpose of the Euclidean algorithm in cryptography?
a) encryption
b) finding the greatest common divisor (gcd)
c) key generation
d) hashing
2. Which of the following algorithms uses the Euclidean algorithm as a key component?
a) aes
b) des
c) rsa
d) sha-256
3. How does the Euclidean algorithm find the gcd of two integers?
a) By repeatedly dividing the larger number by the smaller number and taking
remainders
b) By adding both numbers together until they are equal
c) By finding the prime factors of each number
d) By dividing the smaller number by the larger number
4. In the Euclidean algorithm, if a and 𝑏 are integers with a>b, what operation is
repeatedly applied?
a) a=a mod b
b) a=a+b
c) a=a−b
d) a=b/2
5.When does the Euclidean algorithm terminate?
a) when both numbers become equal
b) when the remainder becomes zero
c) when one number is prime
d) after a fixed number of steps
6.Which property of integers is crucial for the Euclidean algorithm to work?
a) they must be even
b) they must be odd
c) they must be non-zero
d) they must be equal
7.In cryptography, the Euclidean algorithm is particularly useful in finding which of the
following?
a) encryption keys
b) multiplicative inverses in modular arithmetic
c) digital signatures
d) hash values
8.If we start with two numbers, 48 and 18, what is the gcd obtained using the Euclidean
algorithm?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 48
9.Which variation of the Euclidean algorithm is often used in cryptographic
applications to find the modular inverse?
a) simple Euclidean algorithm
b) extended Euclidean algorithm
c) binary Euclidean algorithm
d) iterative Euclidean algorithm
10.The complexity of the Euclidean algorithm for two integers is:
a) linear
b) logarithmic
c) exponential
d) constant
11.The Euclidean algorithm can be applied to which of the following types of numbers?
a) only even numbers
b) only odd numbers
c) any pair of integers
d) only prime numbers
12.What is the output of the Euclidean algorithm when applied to two co-prime
numbers?
a) one of the original numbers
b) the larger number
c) 1
d) 0
13.What is the result of 7 mod 3?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 0
14.In modular arithmetic, the operation 8 mod 5 equals:
a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 0
15. What is the result of
(12+9) mod 7?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
16.Which property does modular arithmetic satisfy?
a) Commutative
b) Associative
c) Distributive
d) All of the above
17.If x≡4 mod 7, which of the following could be a value of x?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 11
d) 14
18.The inverse of 3 under modulo 7 is:
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
19.If 15 mod x=0, which of the following could be the value of x?
a) 4
b) 7
c) 5
d) 6
20.In cryptography, which modular operation is commonly used for encryption and
decryption?
a) Modular subtraction
b) Modular division
c) Modular exponentiation
d) Modular multiplication
21.What is (7×4) mod 5?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
22.In a modulo 10 system, what is the result of 19 mod 10?
a) 0
b) 10
c) 9
d) 1
23.Which of these is NOT true about modular arithmetic?
a) It is used in cryptography.
b) It is used in cyclic groups.
c) It has a finite number of outcomes.
d) It supports modular division directly.
24.The result of (25−17) mod 6 is:
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
25.Which of the following is a characteristic of a secure network?
a) Fast performance
b) Confidentiality
c) Low latency
d) High bandwidth
26.In network security, what is the purpose of encryption?
a) To speed up data transmission
b) To filter network traffic
c) To protect data from unauthorized access
d) To reduce bandwidth usage
27.A group in abstract algebra is a set with a binary operation that is:
a) Associative
b) Has an identity element
c) Has inverses for every element
d) All of the above
28.In group theory, which of the following is an Abelian group?
a) Group of all rotations in 3D
b) Group of all integers under addition
c) Group of all non-zero real numbers under multiplication
d) Set of natural numbers under addition
29.A ring is a set equipped with:
a) Only one binary operation
b) Two binary operations: addition and multiplication
c) Three binary operations
d) Only an identity element
30.Which of the following properties is NOT essential for a ring?
a) Associativity
b) Commutativity under multiplication
c) An additive identity
d) An additive inverse for each element
31.In network security, a firewall primarily:
a) Filters incoming and outgoing traffic
b) Encrypts data
c) Manages network addresses
d) Controls access to files
32.What does a field in algebraic structures require that a ring does not?
a) Additive identity
b) Multiplicative identity
c) Every non-zero element has a multiplicative inverse
d) Closure under addition
33.Which of the following is an example of a field?
a) Integers under addition and multiplication
b) Complex numbers under addition and multiplication
c) Rational numbers under addition and multiplication
d) Natural numbers under addition and multiplication
34.In group theory, the order of an element is defined as:
a) The smallest positive integer n such that a^n = e
b) The number of elements in the group
c) The number of subgroups in a group
d) None of the above
35.RSA encryption is based on which mathematical concept?
a) Prime factorization
b) Elliptic curves
c) Modular addition
d) Matrix inversion
36.A subgroup of a group is:
a) Any subset of a group
b) A subset that itself forms a group under the same operation
c) A set with no inverse
d) None of the above
37.In network security, which protocol is used for secure communication over a
network?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) HTTPS
d) Telnet
38.Which of the following is true about finite fields?
a) They have a prime or prime power number of elements
b) They have an infinite number of elements
c) They do not have a multiplicative inverse
d) They are closed under addition only
39.In a group, which of the following elements is called the identity element?
a) Element that has no inverse
b) Element that leaves every other element unchanged when combined
c) Element that has the highest order
d) None of the above
40.In a finite field GF(p), the value of p must be:
a) composite
b) a square number
c) prime
d) any integer
41.A field GF(p) contains how many elements?
a) p²
b) p
c) p−1
d) 2p
42.Which of the following best describes a finite field?
a) a field with infinitely many elements
b) a field with only complex numbers
c) a field with a finite number of elements
d) a field with irrational numbers
43.The finite field GF(7) has how many elements?
a) 7
b) 49
c) 14
d) 1
44.In GF(p), the additive identity is:
a) 0
b) 1
c) p−1
d) p+1
45.Which element acts as the multiplicative identity in GF(p)?
a) 0
b) 1
c) p−1
d) p+1
46.Which operation is not generally defined in GF(p)?
a) addition
b) multiplication
c) division by zero
d) inversion of non-zero elements
47.If p=5, which elements belong to GF(p)?
a) 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 0, 1, 2, 3, 5
d) 0, 2, 4, 6, 8
48.In GF(p), the subtraction of two elements a and b is:
a) (a−b) mod p
b) a+b
c) a×b
d) a/b mod p
49.What does the field GF(2) represent?
a) a field with 3 elements
b) a field with elements 0 and 1 only
c) a field of all integers
d) none of the above
50.Which of the following is not a field?
a) GF(3)
b) GF(5)
c) set of all integers under addition and multiplication
d) GF(7)
51.What is the output of the Euclidean algorithm when applied to two co-prime
numbers?
a) one of the original numbers
b) the larger number
c) 1
d) 0
52.The multiplicative inverse of an element a in GF(p) can be found using:
a) extended Euclidean algorithm
b) XOR operation
c) concatenation
d) polynomial factorization
53.Which property holds for every element
a≠ 0 in GF(p)?
a) it has a unique multiplicative inverse
b) it has no inverse
c) it is its own inverse
d) it has two multiplicative inverses
54.The finite field GF(p) is often used in:
a) calculus
b) cryptography
c) trigonometry
d) matrix analysis
55.In GF(p), the addition of elements is generally known as:
a) modular addition
b) modular multiplication
c) bitwise XOR
d) concatenation
56.What is the main purpose of encryption in network security?
a) To increase the speed of data transmission
b) To convert data into a readable format
c) To protect data from unauthorized access
d) To improve data compression
57.Which of the following is the most common encryption algorithm used in modern
secure communication?
a) RSA
b) AES
c) DES
d) RC4
58.In public key cryptography, what does the private key do?
a) Encrypts the message
b) Decrypts the message
c) Both encrypts and decrypts the message
d) Generates the public key
59.Which protocol is commonly used to secure communication over the Internet?
a) FTP
b) HTTPS
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
60.What is the purpose of a digital signature?
a) To provide data encryption
b) To verify the authenticity of a message
c) To secure communication channels
d) To compress data
61.What is a man-in-the-middle attack?
a) A type of denial-of-service attack
b) An attack where the attacker intercepts communication between two parties
c) An attack that spreads through email attachments
d) An attack on a single user's computer
62.What is the key feature of symmetric encryption?
a) Different keys are used for encryption and decryption
b) The same key is used for both encryption and decryption
c) It is slower than asymmetric encryption
d) It is used only for hashing
63.Which of the following is a disadvantage of using symmetric encryption?
a) It is very slow
b) The key distribution problem
c) It requires a public key
d) It cannot be used for large data sets
64.In a public key infrastructure (PKI), what is the role of a certificate authority (CA)?
a) To encrypt the data
b) To issue and manage digital certificates
c) To monitor network traffic
d) To store encrypted data
65.What does SSL/TLS provide in the context of network security?
a) Data compression
b) Secure communication over a network
c) Authentication of the server
d) All of the above
66.In polynomial arithmetic, what is the degree of the polynomial 3x^4 + 2x^3 + x^2 +
5?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
67.In polynomial division, what is the remainder when dividing x^3 + 4x^2 + 2 by x + 1?
a) x + 1
b) -3
c) 3
d) 0
68.What is the result of multiplying the polynomials (x + 2) and (x - 3)?
a) x^2 - x - 6
b) x^2 - x - 6
c) x^2 + 5x + 6
d) x^2 + 5x - 6
69.Which of the following is a valid operation in polynomial arithmetic?
a) Division of polynomials by numbers
b) Addition and subtraction of polynomials
c) Division of polynomials by polynomials
d) Both b and c
70.What is the result of evaluating the polynomial 2x^2 + 3x - 4 at x = 2?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
71.What is the root of the polynomial x^2 - 5x + 6?
a) 5
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 6
d) 1 and 5
72.Which of the following is a common use of prime numbers in network security?
a) For data compression
b) For encryption algorithms
c) For generating public and private keys
d) For hashing passwords
73.What is the largest prime number less than 100?
a) 97
b) 89
c) 73
d) 67
74.Which encryption algorithm is based on the difficulty of factoring large prime
numbers?
a) AES
b) RSA
c) DES
d) Elliptic curve cryptography
75.Which of the following is a property of prime numbers?
a) They are divisible by 1 and themselves only
b) They have exactly two distinct divisors
c) They are always odd
d) They can be divided by any integer
76.What is the product of two prime numbers?
a) Always a prime number
b) Always a composite number
c) It can be either prime or composite
d) Always even
77.Which of the following is NOT a prime number?
a) 17
b) 29
c) 21
d) 31
78.In RSA encryption, what role do prime numbers play?
a) They help to generate the key pair
b) They are used to generate the random seed
c) They are used to create a modulus for the encryption key
d) They are used to encrypt the message directly
79.Which of the following methods is used to find prime numbers efficiently?
a) Euclidean algorithm
b) Polynomial long division
c) Sieve of Eratosthenes
d) Extended Euclidean algorithm
80.What is the smallest prime number?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
81.What does the Euclidean algorithm find in network security?
a) The largest prime number
b) The greatest common divisor (GCD)
c) The smallest factor of a number
d) The modular inverse
82.Which of the following is true according to Euclid’s theorem?
a) Every number is divisible by a prime
b) There are infinitely many prime numbers
c) Prime numbers are only found in the Fibonacci sequence
d) The sum of two primes is always prime
83.In the Euclidean algorithm, which operation is repeatedly used to find the greatest
common divisor?
a) Addition
b) Division
c) Subtraction
d) Multiplication
84.What is the GCD of 56 and 98 using the Euclidean algorithm?
a) 14
b) 6
c) 14
d) 7
85.Euclid’s Lemma states that if a prime divides the product of two numbers, it must
divide at least one of them. What is this used for?
a) To find prime numbers
b) To prove divisibility
c) To generate encryption keys
d) To solve polynomial equations
86.What does the Extended Euclidean algorithm compute?
a) The sum of two prime numbers
b) The difference of two numbers
c) The modular inverse
d) The prime factorization of a number
87.Which theorem is essential for the RSA algorithm’s key generation?
a) Fundamental theorem of arithmetic
b) Chinese remainder theorem
c) Euclid’s theorem on primes
d) Fermat’s little theorem
88.Which of the following is the primary use of number theory in network security?
a) To create hash functions
b) To generate encryption keys
c) To perform modular arithmetic for encryption
d) To compress data
89.What is the smallest prime number greater than 10?
a) 13
b) 9
c) 11
d) 17
90.Which algorithm is based on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers?
a) AES
b) Blowfish
c) DES
d) RSA
91.Which of the following is a property of numbers in finite fields?
a) All numbers are prime
b) There is a finite number of elements
c) Addition and multiplication operations are closed
d) They have infinite divisors
92.In finite fields, how many elements does the field GF(2) have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4
93.What does the term “modular arithmetic” refer to in number theory?
a) Arithmetic performed under modulo 10
b) Arithmetic performed with a fixed modulus
c) Addition of prime numbers only
d) Division of numbers
94.In number theory, what is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of two numbers?
a) The sum of the numbers
b) The largest number that divides both
c) The smallest common factor
d) The product of the numbers
95.Which mathematical structure is used in elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)?
a) finite field
b) integers
c) Rational numbers
d) Complex numbers
96.What is the main reason why RSA encryption relies on number theory?
a) To convert plaintext to ciphertext
b) To ensure that the encryption keys are secure
c) To divide large numbers into smaller primes
d) To create polynomial functions
97.Which of the following is true for the multiplicative inverse in finite fields?
a) It always exists for even numbers
b) It does not exist for zero
c) It exists for all non-zero elements
d) It exists only for prime numbers
98.Which of the following is an example of a finite field?
a) Z (the set of integers)
b) GF(p) (where p is a prime number)
c) R (the set of real numbers)
d) C (the set of complex numbers)
99.What is the result of multiplying two numbers in the finite field GF(5)?
a) The result is always a prime number
b) The result is reduced modulo 5
c) The result is always a number greater than 5
d) The result is never zero
100.W100 is the process of finding the multiplicative inverse in finite fields used for in
RSA encryption?
a) To find the public key
b) To compute the decryption key
c) To generate random numbers
d) To create the encryption algorithm
101.What does the Chinese Remainder Theorem help with in number theory?
a) Solving polynomial equations
b) Finding prime factors
c) Solving simultaneous congruences
d) Calculating square roots
102.What is the significance of prime factorization in RSA encryption?
a) It simplifies modular exponentiation
b) It helps to generate the public key
c) It allows for efficient decryption
d) It eliminates the need for a private key
103.In finite field arithmetic, what does “GF” stand for?
a) Galois field
b) Group factor
c) Greatest factor
d) General factor
104.What is the relationship between a number and its modular inverse?
a) They are the same number
b) They multiply to 1 modulo the modulus
c) They have no relation
d) The result is the modulus itself
105.What is an application of finite fields in cryptography?
a) For encoding secret messages
b) In elliptic curve cryptography
c) To compress data
d) For error-correcting codes
106.Which of the following is a common method for implementing number theory in
network security?
a) RSA algorithm
b) Lattice-based cryptography
c) Neural networks
d) Image encryption
107. In modular arithmetic, what is the result of (7 + 9) mod 5?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 1
108.Which property of prime numbers makes them useful for encryption?
a) They are always odd
b) They have only two divisors: 1 and themselves
c) They are divisible by any number
d) They can be easily factorized
 Unit-3
1. What is the key size in the Data Encryption Standard (DES)?
a) 64 bits
b) 56 bits
c) 128 bits
d) 1280 bits
2. Which of the following is the main purpose of the Feistel structure in block ciphers?
a) To improve encryption speed
b) To ensure that the cipher is reversible
c) To increase key length
d) To increase the number of rounds
3. Which of the following block cipher modes of operation uses an initialization vector (IV)?
a) ECB
b) CBC
c) OFB
d) CFB
4. In DES, the number of rounds used for encryption is:
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
5. What does the term "block cipher" refer to?
a) A cipher that encrypts data one bit at a time
b) A cipher that encrypts fixed-size blocks of plaintext
c) A cipher that uses a variable key length
d) A cipher that operates in a stream mode
6. Which of the following is a weakness of DES?
a) Key size of 56 bits
b) Complex algorithm
c) Too many rounds
d) Fast encryption speed
7. Which of the following is used to generate the subkeys in DES?
a) Linear feedback shift register
b) Permutation and substitution operations
c) Key scheduling algorithm
d) Modular arithmetic
8. In the DES encryption process, what operation is performed on the plaintext and subkey
during each round?
a) Addition
b) XOR operation
c) Modulo multiplication
d) Left shift
9. Which of the following modes of operation allows for parallel encryption?
a) ECB
b) CBC
c) OFB
d) CTR
10. Which of the following is true about the DES algorithm?
a) It is a block cipher that encrypts data in 128-bit blocks
b) It uses a 56-bit key for encryption
c) It operates on the plaintext using only modular arithmetic
d) It was developed in the 1990s
11. Which of the following is the main advantage of the CBC mode over the ECB mode?
a) Faster encryption
b) Parallel encryption
c) Better diffusion and security
d) Simpler implementation
12. In the DES algorithm, what is the primary purpose of the S-boxes?
a) To generate the key schedule
b) To provide confusion by substituting input bits with output bits
c) To create a cyclic key pattern
d) To perform bitwise shifts
13. Which of the following is a feature of the AES algorithm compared to DES?
a) AES supports 56-bit keys
b) AES is based on a substitution-permutation network
c) AES uses the same number of rounds as DES
d) AES operates in 64-bit blocks
14. Which of the following best describes the ECB mode in block ciphers?
a) Each plaintext block is XORed with the key
b) The same plaintext block always encrypts to the same ciphertext
c) Each ciphertext block depends on the previous ciphertext block
d) Each plaintext block is encrypted using a different key
15. Which of the following is a limitation of DES in modern cryptographic applications?
a) Slow encryption speed
b) Key size is too small to resist brute-force attacks
c) High complexity in implementation
d) Inability to work with large datasets
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a block cipher?
a) Operates on a bit-by-bit basis
b) Operates on a fixed-size block of plaintext
c) Encrypts one character at a time
d) Uses variable-length keys
17. Which of the following is a mode of operation used with block ciphers?
a) Caesar Cipher
b) Electronic Codebook (ECb)
c) Vigenère Cipher
d) One-Time Pad
18. In a block cipher, what is the function of the key schedule?
a) To encrypt the plaintext
b) To expand the key into several round keys
c) To initialize the block cipher
d) To define the block size
19. What does the term "Avalanche Effect" in block cipher refer to?
a) Small changes in plaintext produce large changes in ciphertext
b) Large changes in ciphertext produce small changes in plaintext
c) The cipher key is rapidly changed in every round
d) The block size remains constant
20. Which of the following block cipher modes provides both confidentiality and integrity?
a) Cipher Block Chaining (CBc)
b) Electronic Codebook (ECb)
c) Counter Mode (CTR)
d) Output Feedback Mode (OFb)
21. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Electronic Codebook (ECb) mode?
a) It uses a block chaining mechanism
b) It encrypts identical plaintext blocks into identical ciphertext blocks
c) It provides better confidentiality than CBC
d) It requires more memory space
22. What is the primary purpose of the "Round Function" in a Feistel block cipher?
a) To mix the input data with the round key
b) To expand the key into smaller subkeys
c) To perform an XOR operation between ciphertext and plaintext
d) To encrypt the data
23. Which of the following is a key property that the DES (Data Encryption Standard) block
cipher must satisfy?
a) It must have a key size of 128 bits
b) It must operate on a 128-bit block of plaintext
c) It must use a 56-bit key for encryption
d) It must operate using only substitution
24. In the Cipher Block Chaining (CBc) mode, the encryption of the first block of plaintext is
done by:
a) XORing the plaintext with the previous ciphertext block
b) XORing the plaintext with an initialization vector (IV)
c) Repeating the process of ECB
d) XORing the plaintext with the key
25. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
a) RSA
b) AES
c) ECC
d) ElGamal
26. What does the term "ciphertext" refer to?
a) The original plaintext data
b) The encrypted data
c) The encryption key
d) The decryption key
27. Which of the following algorithms is used for asymmetric encryption?
a) DES
b) RSA
c) AES
d) RC4
28. What is the main purpose of a public key in asymmetric encryption?
a) To encrypt data only
b) To decrypt data only
c) To securely exchange the symmetric key
d) To sign digital signatures
29. Which encryption standard has a key length of 128, 192, or 256 bits?
a) DES
b) AES
c) RC4
d) Blowfish
30. In which mode does AES operate on entire blocks of data at once, with no feedback to
previous blocks?
a) CBC
b) ECB
c) CFB
d) OFB
31. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the ECB (Electronic Codebook) mode?
a) It is computationally expensive.
b) It encrypts identical plaintext blocks into identical ciphertext blocks.
c) It requires a key exchange mechanism.
d) It is slower than other modes.
32. What is the main function of a digital signature?
a) To encrypt data
b) To verify the integrity and authenticity of data
c) To store encryption keys
d) To generate random encryption keys
33. Which of the following is NOT a method of key management in symmetric encryption?
a) Key distribution
b) Key exchange
c) Public key infrastructure (PKI)
d) Secret key sharing
34. What does SSL/TLS use for encrypting data during transmission?
a) Symmetric encryption only
b) Asymmetric encryption only
c) A combination of asymmetric and symmetric encryption
d) Hashing only
35. What is one of the main strengths of the Data Encryption Standard (DES)?
a) It is resistant to modern cryptanalysis techniques
b) It is extremely fast and efficient for hardware implementation
c) It uses a very large key size to ensure security
d) It is completely secure against all types of attacks
36. The DES algorithm's use of a 56-bit key is mostbeneficial in:
a) Providing high security
b) Enhancing the speed of encryption and decryption processes
c) Maximizing the complexity of the algorithm
d) Reducing the memory footprint
37. A notable strength of DES is:
a) It has an extremely complex key schedule
b) It was widely adopted for secure communications
c) It uses very small block sizes for encryption
d) It supports dynamic key length adjustment
38. DES operates in a symmetric key mode. Which of the following is a strength of
symmetric key algorithms like DES?
a) They require long computational times to achieve encryption
b) The same key is used for both encryption and decryption
c) They are highly resistant to brute-force attacks
d) They are flexible and allow for changing encryption schemes easily
39. Which of the following is a significant advantage of DES in terms of implementation?
a) It allows for very high levels of security with minimal computational resources
b) It was extensively used in both hardware and software implementations
c) It supports a wide range of encryption modes
d) It is resistant to key-length-based attacks
40. Why is DES considered a good choice for environments with limited computational
resources?
a) It supports multi-key encryption
b) It is optimized for hardware acceleration
c) It uses large key sizes
d) It requires minimal processing power
41. DES was considered secure at the time of its creation because:
a) Its key length was extremely large
b) It was resistant to attacks by modern computing power
c) The design was kept secret to prevent reverse engineering
d) Its algorithm was well-vetted by cryptographers
42. One of the benefits of DES’s structure is:
a) It uses complex mathematical functions that are hard to reverse
b) It has a variable key length
c) It has an easily understandable design for cryptographic professionals
d) It uses modern techniques such as elliptic curve cryptography
43. DES is often praised for:
a) Its ability to resist quantum computing attacks
b) Its flexibility in choosing block sizes
c) Its strong resistance against brute-force attacks due to key length
d) Its implementation in hardware with high throughput
44. When compared to other encryption algorithms, DES has the advantage of:
a) Larger key sizes, making it more secure
b) Being well-understood and analyzed by the cryptography community
c) Supporting both public and private key encryption
d) Using elliptic curve cryptography for better security
45. Which of the following is a key principle in the design of block ciphers?
a) Diffusion
b) Polymorphism
c) Symmetry
d) Fuzziness
46. What is the primary goal of confusion in a block cipher?
a) To obscure the relationship between plaintext and cipher text
b) To enhance performance
c) To reduce computational complexity
d) To increase key size
47. In block cipher design, what does the term 'Avalanche Effect' refer to?
a) A slight change in the input should cause a large change in the output
b) It describes a cipher that can break when exposed to many inputs
c) A method of encryption that uses large prime numbers
d) The constant size of input and output blocks
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Feistel network used in many block
ciphers?
a) It uses substitution and permutation in multiple rounds
b) It is symmetric in nature and doesn’t require a secret key
c) It employs elliptic curve cryptography
d) It requires the key length to be even
49. What does the term 'block size' in a block cipher refer to?
a) The length of the secret key used
b) The size of the data chunks processed at one time
c) The number of rounds in the algorithm
d) The size of the input plaintext
50. Which of the following is NOT a typical mode of operation for block ciphers?
a) ECB (Electronic Codebook)
b) CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)
c) OFB (Output Feedback)
d) RSA (Rivest–Shamir–Adleman)
51. In block cipher design, what is the role of 'key schedule'?
a) To specify how many rounds the cipher performs
b) To provide a unique key for each encryption operation
c) To generate a series of subkeys from the original key
d) To change the block size during encryption
52. Which of the following best describes the operation of a substitution-permutation network
(SPN)?
a) It alternates between substitution and permutation steps in several rounds
b) It relies on a key exchange between the sender and receiver
c) It combines the plaintext with a unique key during encryption
d) It encrypts blocks independently
53. What type of attack is block cipher design primarily trying to prevent?
a) Brute force attacks
b) Differential and linear cryptanalysis
c) Ciphertext-only attacks
d) Time-based attacks
54. Which of the following is an example of a widely-used block cipher?
a) RSA
b) AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
c) ECC (Elliptic Curve Cryptography)
d) SHA-256
55. What is the key size for AES when using the 128-bit variant?
a) 128 bits
b) 192 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 512 bits
56. AES operates on blocks of data of which size?
a) 128 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 512 bits
57. What type of cipher is AES?
a) Stream cipher
b) Block cipher
c) Substitution cipher
d) Transposition cipher
58. Which of the following is a key feature of AES?
a) It is a symmetric key algorithm.
b) It uses a 128-bit key exclusively.
c) It is a public key algorithm.
d) It supports 512-bit blocks.
59. How many rounds does AES perform when using a 128-bit key?
a) 6 rounds
b) 8 rounds
c) 10 rounds
d) 12 rounds
60. In the AES algorithm, which operation is used in the round transformations?
a) AND
b) XOR
c) OR
d) NAND
61. What does the AES 'SubBytes' operation do?
a) Substitutes each byte in the block based on a fixed substitution table.
b) Swaps the positions of the bytes in the block.
c) Performs a bitwise AND on the input block.
d) Combines the block with the key using XOR.
62. AES was adopted as the encryption standard by which organization?
a) National Security Agency (NSa)
b) International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
c) National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
d) Federal Communications Commission (FCc)
63. What is the maximum key length supported by AES?
a) 128 bits
b) 256 bits
c) 512 bits
d) 1024 bits
64. Which step is performed in the final round of AES encryption?
a) AddRoundKey
b) SubBytes
c) ShiftRows
d) MixColumns
65. Which of the following is the block size used in AES encryption?
a) 128 bits
b) 192 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 128 bytes
66. AES uses how many rounds of encryption for a 128-bit key?
a) 10 rounds
b) 12 rounds
c) 14 rounds
d) 16 rounds
67. How many different key sizes are supported by AES?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
68. Which of the following operations is used to mix the columns of the state matrix in AES?
a) SubBytes
b) ShiftRows
c) MixColumns
d) AddRoundKey
69. The AES encryption process is based on which type of cipher?
a) Stream cipher
b) Block cipher
c) Public-key cipher
d) Hybrid cipher
70. In the AES structure, the state is represented as a matrix of how many rows and columns?
a) 2 rows, 2 columns
b) 3 rows, 3 columns
c) 4 rows, 4 columns
d) 8 rows, 8 columns
71. Which of the following is not an operation performed during the AES encryption process?
a) SubBytes
b) ShiftRows
c) MixColumns
d) Diffie-Hellman key exchange
72. Which step of AES involves replacing bytes with values from an S-box?
a) SubBytes
b) ShiftRows
c) MixColumns
d) AddRoundKey
73. What is the purpose of the AddRoundKey operation in AES?
a) To replace data bytes with random values
b) To mix columns to add diffusion
c) To XOR the current state with the round key
d) To shift rows of the state matrix
74. What is the number of rounds used for AES with a 256-bit key?
a) 8 rounds
b) 10 rounds
c) 12 rounds
d) 14 rounds
75. What is the main function of the "SubBytes" transformation in AES?
a) Substitution of bytes using an S-box
b) Shifting rows of the state
c) XORing state with a round key
d) Permutation of the state matrix
76.. What does the "ShiftRows" transformation do in AES?
a) Shifts rows of the state matrix by a fixed number of positions
b) Swaps rows of the state matrix
c) Adds the round key to the state
d) Applies the inverse of the S-box to the state
77. Which operation is used in the "MixColumns" step of AES?
a) XOR with the round key
b) Matrix multiplication in the finite field
c) Substitution using the S-box
d) Circular rotation of bytes
78. What is the purpose of the "AddRoundKey" operation in AES?
a) To mix the columns of the state matrix
b) To substitute bytes using the S-box
c) To XOR the state with the round key
d) To shift the rows of the state matrix
79. In AES, the S-box is based on which mathematical operation?
a) Modular addition
b) Affine transformation and multiplicative inverse in GF(2^8)
c) Exclusive OR (XOR)
d) Permutation of bits
80. Which of the following is true about the "Inverse MixColumns" transformation in AES?
a) It is the inverse of the MixColumns operation
b) It is used only in the final round of AES
c) It XORs the state with the round key
d) It substitutes bytes using an inverse S-box
81. Which of the following AES transformations is NOT applied in the final round?
a) SubBytes
b) ShiftRows
c) MixColumns
d) AddRoundKey
82. In the AES encryption algorithm, how many rounds are used for a 128-bit key?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 14
83. What is the size of the block of data processed in each round of AES?
a) 64 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 192 bits
d) 256 bits
84. Which operation is performed by the "SubBytes" step in AES to increase security?
a) Substituting each byte of the state with a corresponding byte from the S-box
b) Shifting the state rows
c) XORing the state with the round key
d) Mixing the columns of the state matrix
85.What is the primary purpose of key expansion in AES?
a) To generate a secret key
b) To convert the original key into a set of round keys
c) To reduce the key size
d) To encrypt the data
86. How many round keys are generated in AES for a 128-bit key?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
87. In AES, what is the size of the round key for a 256-bit key?
a) 128 bits
b) 192 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 32 bytes
88. What operation is used in the AES key expansion to generate each new round key from
the previous one?
a) SubBytes
b) Rotate
c) XOR with round constant
d) All of the above
89. In AES key expansion, which transformation is applied to each word in the key schedule?
a) ShiftRow
b) SubWord
c) AddRoundKey
d) MixColumns
90. Which of the following is used to generate the round constant (Rcon) in AES key
expansion?
a) A fixed value derived from the encryption key
b) A series of XOR operations
c) A predefined polynomial
d) A sequence of values based on powers of 2
91. What happens during the "Rotate" step in AES key expansion?
a) Each byte of the word is rotated 90 degrees
b) The word is shifted left by one byte
c) The word is shifted right by one byte
d) The bytes in the word are replaced with their inverse values
92. How many total words are there in the key schedule for a 128-bit AES key?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 44
d) 52
93. In AES key expansion, which of the following is true about the word generation?
a) Every 4th word is modified using the Rcon constant
b) The last word is used to create the round key for each round
c) Only the first word is used to expand the key schedule
d) Every word is XORed with the first word of the previous round key
94. Which of the following AES key sizes uses 14 rounds of encryption?
a) 128-bit key
b) 192-bit key
c) 256-bit key
d) 512-bit key
95. What is the primary purpose of the AES key expansion process?
a) To generate the round keys used in AES encryption and decryption
b) To increase the size of the key
c) To randomize the input data
d) To compress the key
96. How many rounds does the AES algorithm use for a 128-bit key?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
97. Which operation is applied to the word during key expansion in AES?
a) Substitution using the S-box
b) Shift of the word
c) XOR operation with the round constant
d) All of the above
98. How many words are generated in the key expansion process for a 256-bit AES key?
a) 44
b) 52
c) 60
d) 68
99. What is the size of the key in AES-128?
a) 128 bits
b) 192 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 1024 bits
100. In AES key expansion, what is the purpose of the round constant?
a) To prevent identical round keys in each round
b) To randomize the input key
c) To provide additional entropy
d) To invert the key for decryption
101. In AES key expansion, the word at index 0 is the original encryption key. Which word is
derived from this key?
a) The second word of the expanded key
b) The first word of the expanded key
c) The last word of the expanded key
d) The word at index 4
102. In AES key expansion, what is the length of each round key?
a) 4 words
b) 6 words
c) 8 words
d) 10 words
104. What does the "Rcon" stand for in AES key expansion?
a) Round cipher
b) Round constant
c) Random constant
d) Rotation constant
 UNIT-4
1. What is the main purpose of public key cryptography?
a) Encryption and decryption using the same key
b) Secure communication using a pair of keys
c) Generating random keys
d) Only encryption
2. What is the key advantage of public key cryptography over symmetric key cryptography?
a) Faster encryption and decryption
b) Using the same key for encryption and decryption
c) No need for a secure channel to exchange the key
d) It is more secure
3. In RSA encryption, what are the two keys used for encryption and decryption?
a) Public key and private key
b) Symmetric key and private key
c) Symmetric key and public key
d) None of the above
4. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for RSA key generation?
a) Generate a pair of prime numbers, compute modulus, find public and private keys
b) Generate a public key, compute private key, encrypt message
c) Compute modulus, find a random key, encrypt message
d) Generate a private key, compute public key, find the modulus
5. The RSA algorithm relies on the difficulty of which mathematical problem?
a) Prime factorization
b) Finding square roots
c) Matrix inversion
d) Solving linear equations
6. In RSA, what is the modulus used for?
a) Generating the private key
b) Generating the public key
c) Encrypting and decrypting messages
d) Both B and C
7. Which of the following represents a typical key length for RSA encryption?
a) 56 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 1024 bits
d) 2048 bits
8. Which of the following is true about the RSA private key?
a) It is shared with everyone
b) It is used for encryption
c) It is used for decryption
d) It is generated from the public key
9. What is the role of the public key in RSA encryption?
a) It is used for encryption only
b) It is used for decryption only
c) It is used for both encryption and decryption
d) It is used to verify the integrity of the message
10. What type of attack does RSA security depend on?
a) Brute-force attack
b) Birthday attack
c) Factorization attack
d) Side-channel attack
11. Which mathematical operation is used to generate RSA public and private keys?
a) Modular exponentiation
b) Matrix multiplication
c) Addition
d) XOR operation
12. In RSA encryption, what are the two large prime numbers used for?
a) To generate the modulus nnn
b) To calculate the public exponent
c) To create the private key
d) All of the above
13. The process of encrypting a message in RSA involves which of the following operations?
a) Using the public key to raise the plaintext to the power of eee modulo nnn
b) Using the private key to raise the plaintext to the power of ddd modulo nnn
c) Multiplying the plaintext by a random number
d) Shifting the plaintext by a fixed number of positions
14. What is the function of the RSA private key in decryption?
a) Raise the ciphertext to the power of eee modulo nnn
b) Raise the ciphertext to the power of ddd modulo nnn
c) Subtract the ciphertext from the modulus
d) Add a constant to the ciphertext
15. Which of the following is a challenge in using RSA for large amounts of data?
a) The need for large key sizes for security
b) The speed of encryption and decryption is faster than symmetric encryption
c) Multiplying the plaintext by a random number
d) Shifting the plaintext by a fixed number of positions
16. What is the result when the RSA public key is used to encrypt the message and the private
key is used to decrypt it?
a) The message is unreadable
b) The message is the same as the original plaintext
c) The message is compressed
d) The message is transformed into ciphertext
17. What is the main disadvantage of RSA encryption?
a) It is less secure than symmetric encryption
b) It requires too many resources for key management
c) It is computationally slower than symmetric encryption
d) It can be easily cracked using modern computing power
18. In the RSA algorithm, which two numbers must be kept secret to maintain security?
a) The modulus and public exponent
b) The private exponent and prime factors of modulus
c) The public exponent and private exponent
d) The private key and message
19. What is the purpose of padding in RSA encryption?
a) To make the plaintext fit the block size
b) To make the ciphertext more secure by adding randomness
c) To hide the length of the message
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following is the largest threat to RSA security?
a) Quantum computers
b) Brute-force attacks
c) Social engineering
d) Key reuse
21. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Public-key Cryptosystem?
a) Same key is used for both encryption and decryption
b) Two different keys are used, one for encryption and another for decryption
c) A secret key is used for both encryption and decryption
d) It does not involve keys at all
22. What is the main advantage of Public-key Cryptography over symmetric-key
cryptography?
a) Faster encryption
b) No need for key distribution
c) Simpler algorithms
d) Requires less computational power
23. Which algorithm is commonly used in Public-key Cryptography for secure key
exchange?
a) RSA
b) Diffie-Hellman
c) AES
d) DES
24. In RSA Public-key Cryptosystem, what is the relationship between the public key and the
private key?
a) They are identical keys
b) The private key is the inverse of the public key
c) The public key is derived from the private key
d) There is no relationship between the public and private key
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Public-key Cryptosystem?
a) The private key is shared with the public
b) The public key is used for both encryption and decryption
c) Only the private key holder can decrypt the message
d) The private key is used for encryption
26. What does the term 'asymmetric encryption' refer to in Public-key Cryptosystems?
a) The encryption process uses a single key
b)Keys are symmetric in length
c) The same key is used for encryption and decryption
d) Different keys are used for encryption and decryption
27. In the RSA algorithm, which of the following values is publicly shared?
a) The private key
b) The exponent d
c) The modulus n
d) The prime factors of n
28. Which is the main purpose of digital signatures in Public-key Cryptosystems?
a) To encrypt messages securely
b) To ensure data integrity and authentication
c) To generate the public key
d) To encrypt symmetric keys
29. In which scenario is Public-key Cryptography used?
a) When a large number of users need to communicate securely without a secure
channel
b) When both parties share a secret key
c) Only when transmitting large files
d) When only one party needs to send encrypted data
30. What is the primary function of a certificate authority (Ca) in a Public-key Infrastructure
(PKI)?
a) Encrypt messages
b) Perform the encryption and decryption operations
c)Issue and verify digital certificates
d) Generate the public and private keys
31. What does RSA stand for?
a) Randomized Secure Algorithm
b) Reduced Secure Algorithm
c) Reversible Secure Algorithm
d) Rivest-Shamir-Adleman
32. What is the primary purpose of the RSA algorithm?
a) Digital signatures and encryption
b) Data compression
c) Data hashing
d) Key exchange
33. Which type of encryption does RSA use?
a) Symmetric encryption
b) Asymmetric encryption
c) Hybrid encryption
d) Hash-based encryption
34. What are the two keys in the RSA algorithm?
a) Session key and private key
b) Secret key and encrypted key
c) Public key and private key
d) Transmission key and decoding key
35. What is the security of RSA based on?
a) Factoring large composite numbers
b) Integer multiplication
c) Polynomial interpolation
d) Elliptic curve cryptography
36. In RSA, what are the two prime numbers typically used to generate the key pair?
a) m and n
b) x and y
c) a and b
d) p and q
37. Which mathematical operation is used for encryption in RSA?
a) Linear transformation
b) Modular exponentiation
c) Matrix multiplication
d) Polynomial division
38. What is the length of the public and private keys in RSA typically measured in?
a) Bits
b) Bytes
c) Characters
d) Digits
39. In RSA, what is the purpose of the modulus (n) in the public and private keys?
a) To store the private key
b) To generate the public key
c) To define the encryption domain
d) To compute the inverse key
40. How are the private key and public key related in RSA?
a)They are multiplicative inverses
b) They are additive inverses
c) They are identical
d) They are random numbers
41. What is the first step in generating the RSA key pair?
a) Choose a public exponent (e)
b) Select the message
c) Compute the modular inverse
d) Generate two large prime numbers
42. What is the function used to compute the private key d in RSA?
a) Euler's Totient Function
b) Extended Euclidean Algorithm
c) Modular Inverse Function
d) Fast Exponentiation Algorithm
43. Which value is used as the public exponent in RSA?
a) 1
b) 2
c) A small prime, commonly 65537
d) Any random number
44. In RSA, what does the "decryption" process involve?
a) Encrypting the ciphertext again
b) Applying the private key to the ciphertext
c) Converting the ciphertext to binary
d) Performing a mathematical checksum
45. Which of the following is the main vulnerability of the RSA algorithm?
a) Short key length
b) Insecure key exchange
c) Factorization of the modulus
d) Hash collisions
46. What is the primary purpose of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm?
a) Encrypting messages
b) Decrypting messages
c) Hashing messages
d) Establishing a shared secret key
47. In Diffie-Hellman key exchange, which of the following is typically public?
a) The private keys of both parties
b) The secret shared key
c) The base (g) and modulus (p)
d) None of the above
48. The Diffie-Hellman key exchange is vulnerable to which of the following attacks?
a) Man-in-the-middle attack
b) Brute-force attack
c) RSA attack
d) Birthday attack
49. In the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, what do both parties exchange to establish a shared
secret?
a) Public key only
b) Private key only
c) Public values derived from private keys
d) Encrypted messages
50. Which of the following is true about the private key in Diffie-Hellman key exchange?
a) It is exchanged between the two parties.
b) It is kept secret by the user.
c) It is always the same as the shared secret key.
d) It is a publicly known value.
51. The security of Diffie-Hellman relies on the difficulty of which of the following?
a) Prime factorization
b) Elliptic curve problems
c) Discrete logarithm problem
d) Symmetric key cipher
52. In Diffie-Hellman, if the prime number ppp is very small, what is the potential risk?
a) Weaker security due to small prime factors
b) Easier computation of the shared secret
c)Faster key generation
d) The exchange will be slower
53. What is the role of the modulus ppp in the Diffie-Hellman key exchange?
a) It helps generate the private keys.
b) It ensures that the key exchange is symmetric.
c) It is used in modular exponentiation to secure the exchange.
d) It is a random number used for encryption.
54. In Diffie-Hellman, after the public values are exchanged, what do both parties compute?
a) The hash of the public values
b) The same shared secret key
c) The public key
d) A random number for each message
55. How does the Diffie-Hellman key exchange prevent eavesdropping?
a) By encrypting the shared key before sending it
b) By using public key encryption
c) The shared secret is never transmitted over the network
d) It uses symmetric key encryption to protect data
56. Which of the following is the main purpose of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange?
a) To authenticate the identity of a user.
b) To securely exchange cryptographic keys over a public channel.
c) To encrypt messages between two users.
d) To verify the integrity of a message.
57. In the Diffie-Hellman key exchange, which of the following is a public parameter?
a) The shared secret key.
b) The private key of Alice.
c) The prime number ppp.
d) The secret exponent of Bob.
58. Which mathematical concept does the Diffie-Hellman key exchange rely on for security?
a) Factorization of large numbers.
b) Integer factorization
c) Elliptic curve cryptography.
d) Discrete logarithm problem.
59. In the Diffie-Hellman protocol, which of the following is true about the private keys of
the participants?
a) They are exchanged openly.
b) They are kept secret and never transmitted.
c) They are derived from the public key.
d) They are shared after the exchange.
60. Which of the following is true about the key generated by Diffie-Hellman?
a) It is identical for both parties.
b) It is shared between all participants.
c) It can be derived from the public keys alone.
d) It is never the same for both parties.
61. In the Diffie-Hellman protocol, if ggg is the generator and ppp is the prime number, what
is exchanged between the participants?
a) The private keys.
b) The public keys.
c) The shared secret key
d) The ciphertext.
62. Which cryptographic operation does Diffie-Hellman rely on to secure key exchange?
a) Modular exponentiation.
b) RSA encryption.
c) AES encryption.
d) Hashing.
63. What is the primary risk of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange if not properly
authenticated?
a) Key compromise.
b) Man-in-the-middle attack.
c) Replay attack.
d) Ciphertext manipulation.
64. What is the formula for calculating the shared secret key in Diffie-Hellman?
a) K=(ga)bmod pK = (g^a)^b \mod pK=(ga)bmodp
b) K=(gb)amod pK = (g^b)^a \mod pK=(gb)amodp
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) K=gabmod pK = g^{ab} \mod pK=gabmodp
65. What is the size of the prime number ppp typically chosen for Diffie-Hellman?
a) 128 bits.
b) 512 bits.
c) 2048 bits or more.
d) 256 bits.
66. Which of the following is a common method to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks in
Diffie-Hellman?
a) Using public-key infrastructure (PKI) for authentication.
b) Using a symmetric key encryption algorithm.
c) Using Diffie-Hellman in a secure environment.
d) Encrypting the public keys.
67. What is the role of the generator ggg in the Diffie-Hellman key exchange?
a) It is used to encrypt the messages.
b) It helps in calculating the shared secret key.
c) It is the private key used by one participant.
d) It is the shared secret key.
68. How does Diffie-Hellman ensure the security of the exchanged key?
a) Through the difficulty of solving the discrete logarithm problem.
b) Through public-key encryption.
c) By using hashing algorithms.
d) Through the use of AES encryption.
69. Which of the following is required for the Diffie-Hellman key exchange?
a) Both parties must have identical private keys.
b) A shared public key must be generated before the exchange.
c) The parties must agree on a prime number and a generator.
d) The parties must use elliptic curve cryptography.
70. Which type of cryptography does Diffie-Hellman belong to?
a) Symmetric cryptography.
b) Asymmetric cryptography.
c) Hybrid cryptography.
d) Hashing-based cryptography.
71. What is the primary purpose of the Elgamal cryptosystem?
a) Encryption
b) Decryption
c) Digital signature generation
d) Hashing
72. Which mathematical concept does Elgamal rely on for its security?
a) Fibonacci sequence
b) Euclidean algorithm
c)Modular arithmetic
d) Prime factorization
73. In the Elgamal encryption algorithm, what is the public key made of?
a) A prime number and a base
b) A private key and a public exponent
c) A public key and a private exponent
d) A modulus and a base
74. The Elgamal system is based on the difficulty of solving which problem?
a) Integer factorization
b) Discrete logarithm problem
c) RSA problem
d) Knapsack problem
75. Which of the following is a key feature of Elgamal encryption?
a) It is a symmetric encryption scheme
b) It uses public and private keys
c) It uses a hash function for encryption
d) It is deterministic
76. In Elgamal encryption, what does the public key consist of?
a) g,p,yg, p, yg,p,y
b) p,q,dp, q, dp,q,d
c) p,q,gp, q, gp,q,g
d) x,y,gx, y, gx,y,g
77. What does the private key in the Elgamal cryptosystem represent?
a) A secret exponent used for encryption
b) A random number used for decryption
c) A prime number
d) A secret integer used to compute the private key components78. How is the ciphertext
in the Elgamal system structured?
a) A single number
b) Two numbers
c) Three numbers
d) A string of numbers
79. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Elgamal cryptosystem?
a) It is computationally very efficient
b) It is not as widely adopted as RSA
c) The ciphertext is larger than the plaintext
d) It is vulnerable to the birthday paradox
80. What is the main reason Elgamal encryption is considered probabilistic?
a) It involves a random value in the encryption process
b) It uses a probabilistic key exchange protocol
c) It relies on randomness in the decryption process
d) It randomly selects the key length
81. In Elgamal encryption, what does the value 'k' represent?
a) The private key
b) A random number used in the encryption process
c) A factor in the modular exponentiation
d) The public key
82. Which one of these steps is part of the Elgamal decryption process?
a) Computing c2c_2c2 using the private key
b) Generating a new random number kkk
c)Computing the modular inverse of rrr
d) Using the public key for modular exponentiation
83. What is the role of the parameter 'y' in the Elgamal system?
a) It is the public key, calculated as y=gxmod py = g^x \mod py=gxmodp
b) It is used to generate the random number kkk
c) It is the ciphertext
d) It is the secret key
84. Which of the following is required to generate the Elgamal public key?
a) A secure hash function
b) A generator ggg of a cyclic group
c) A symmetric key pair
d) A message mmm
85. In Elgamal, what is the computational complexity of the encryption and decryption steps?
a) O(1)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n)
d) O(n²)
86. In which cryptographic protocol is the Elgamal encryption scheme commonly used?
a) Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
b) Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
c) Diffie-Hellman key exchange
d) Data Encryption Standard (DES)
87. What is the role of the discrete logarithm problem in the security of Elgamal?
a) It makes it hard to compute the private key from the public key
b) It is used in the encryption of the message
c) It helps to ensure the security of the key exchange
d) It is irrelevant to the security of the system
88. Which of the following does not influence the security of Elgamal?
a) The choice of the prime number ppp
b) The size of the random number kkk
c) The choice of the generator ggg
d) The length of the ciphertext
89. What type of attack is Elgamal particularly resistant to?
a) Known plaintext attack
b) Chosen plaintext attack
c) Chosen ciphertext attack
d) Man-in-the-middle attack
90. Which of the following operations is applied to the 4-byte word during key expansion?
a) Substitution (S-box)
b) Rotate (circular shift)
c) XOR with round constant
d) All of the above
91. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?
a) RSA
b) AES
c) ECC
d) Diffie-Hellman
92. Which algorithm is primarily used for public-key cryptography?
a) DES
b) RSA
c) SHA-256
d) AES
93. What does the term "block cipher" refer to?
a) An encryption method that encrypts plaintext in fixed-size blocks
b) An encryption method that encrypts one bit of plaintext at a time
c) A method used for generating keys
d) A process of splitting ciphertext into blocks for analysis
94. Which of the following is a characteristic of asymmetric cryptography?
a) The same key is used for both encryption and decryption
b) It requires two different keys for encryption and decryption
c) The algorithm is faster than symmetric cryptography
d) It is not used in digital signatures
95. Which of the following hashing algorithms is widely used in blockchain technology?
a) MD5
b) SHA-256
c) SHA-1
d) DES
96. What is the main purpose of a cryptographic hash function?
a) To securely encrypt plaintext into ciphertext
b) To create a digital signature
c) To verify the integrity of data
d) To convert plaintext into ciphertext using symmetric encryption
97. Which of the following is not a type of attack on cryptographic systems?
a) Brute Force Attack
b) Side-Channel Attack
c) Collision Attack
d) Denial-of-Service Attack
98. What does the term "Diffie-Hellman" refer to in cryptography?
a) A hashing algorithm
b) A key exchange protocol
c) A block cipher algorithm
d) A digital signature algorithm
99. Which of the following algorithms uses elliptic curve cryptography?
a) RSA
b) AES
c) ECDSA
d) DES
100. Which is a major weakness of the DES (Data Encryption Standard) algorithm?
a) It uses a 128-bit key
b) It uses a 56-bit key, which is considered too short
c) It is a public-key algorithm
d) It operates in ECB mode only
101. Which cryptographic method is used to verify the authenticity of a message?
a) Symmetric encryption
b) Public-key encryption
c) Digital signatures
d) Key exchange protocols
102. What is the key length for AES-256 encryption?
a) 128 bits
b) 192 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 512 bits
113. Which of the following is an example of a substitution cipher?
a) Caesar Cipher
b) Vigenère Cipher
c) AES
d) RSA
114. In the context of public-key cryptography, what is a 'private key'?
a) The key used by the sender to encrypt messages
b) The key that is shared among all participants in a network
c) The key used to decrypt messages encrypted with the public key
d) The key that is used to generate hash values
115. Which of the following modes of operation for block ciphers provides confidentiality
and integrity?
a) ECB
b) CBC
c) GCM
d) OFB
 Unit-5
1. When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is
referred to as
a) Message Field
b) Message Digest
c) Message Score
d) Message Leap
2. Message authentication code is also known as
a) key code
b) hash code
c) keyed hash function
d) message key hash function
3. What is a one-way password file?
a) A scheme in which the password is jumbled and stored
b) A scheme in which the password is XOR with a key and stored
c) A scheme in which the hash of the password is stored
d) A scheme in which the password is passed through a PRF, which is then stored
4. Which one of the following is not an application hash functions?
a) One-way password file
b) Key wrapping
c) Virus Detection
d) Intrusion detection
5. Which scheme uses a randomization approach?
a) hashing by division
b) hashing by multiplication
c) universal hashing
d) open addressing

6. Which hash function satisfies the condition of simple uniform hashing?

a) h(k) = lowerbound(km)
b) h(k)= upperbound(mk)
c) h(k)= lowerbound(k)
d) h(k)= upperbound(k)
7. What is the hash function used in the division method?
a) h(k) = k/m
b) h(k) = k mod m
c) h(k) = m/k
d) h(k) = m mod k
8. What can be the value of m in the division method?
a) Any prime number
b) Any even number
c) 2p – 1
d) 2p
9. Which scheme provides good performance?
a) open addressing
b) universal hashing
c) hashing by division
d) hashing by multiplication
10. How many steps are involved in creating a hash function using a multiplication method?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2

11. What is the hash function used in multiplication method?

a) h(k) = floor( m(kA mod 1))
b) h(k) = ceil( m(kA mod 1))
c) h(k) = floor(kA mod m)
d) h(k) = ceil( kA mod m)
12. What is the advantage of the multiplication method?
a) only 2 steps are involved
b) using constant
c) value of m not critical
d) simple multiplication

13. What is the table size when the value of p is 7 in multiplication method of creating hash
functions?
a) 14
b) 128
c) 49
d) 127
14. What is the average retrieval time when n keys hash to the same slot?
a) Theta(n)
b) Theta(n2)
c) Theta(nlog n)
d) Big-Oh(n2)

15. Which of the following is a primary use of hash functions in digital certificates?
a) To encrypt the data
b) To generate a unique fingerprint of the certificate
c) To ensure the confidentiality of the certificate's contents
d) To sign the certificate with the issuer’s private key

16. What is the role of hash functions in SSL/TLS handshakes?

a) To establish symmetric encryption keys
b) To hash the data exchanged during the handshake
c) To authenticate the communicating parties
d) To create a digital signature for the session

17. In the context of HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code), what is the purpose
of the hash function?
a) To securely encrypt the message
b) To provide a hash-based signature for authentication
c) To ensure confidentiality of the message
d) To check the integrity of the encryption algorithm

18. Which of the following network protocols uses hash functions to verify the integrity of
transmitted data?
a) IPsec
b) HTTPS
c) DNSSEC
d) All of the above
19. Which type of attack do hash functions help prevent when used in digital signatures?
a) Replay attack
b) Denial-of-service attack
c) Man-in-the-middle attack
d) Tampering and forgery

20. In a blockchain, why are hash functions critical to the creation of blocks?
a) To encrypt the contents of the block
b) To link the current block to the previous one
c) To compute the transaction fees
d) To verify the legitimacy of the miners

21. How do hash functions contribute to the security of password storage?

a) By encrypting the password before storage
b) By storing the password in plaintext with a salt
c) By storing a hashed value of the password instead of the password itself
d) By hashing the password after encryption

22. In which of the following scenarios would a hash function be used for integrity checking?

a) When encrypting email messages

b) When verifying the authenticity of a sender's digital certificate
c) When generating session keys in a secure communication protocol
d) When verifying the integrity of downloaded files

23. What is the primary reason for using hash functions in software updates?
a) To protect the update process from malware
b) To encrypt the update files
c) To verify the integrity of the downloaded update
d) To ensure the confidentiality of the update file

24. Which of the following statements is true regarding hash functions used in digital
signatures?

a) The hash value of the document is signed, not the document itself
b) The document itself is encrypted and sent with the signature
c) The signature is directly linked to the original content without any hash value
d) The hash value is only used for encryption, not for signature verification25. Which of the
following is not a basic requirement for a good cryptographic hash function?

a) Deterministic
b) Fast computation
c) Irreversibility
d) Collision resistance

26. In which scenario is the MD5 hash function generally considered vulnerable?
a) Collision resistance
b) Speed of computation
c) Pre-image resistance
d) Length of the output hash

27. Which of the following is a key feature of the SHA-256 hash function?

a) It produces a 512-bit hash value

b) It is faster than MD5
c) It is more collision-resistant than MD5
d) It uses a 128-bit hash length

28. What is the main reason for using a hash function in digital signatures?

a) To encrypt the data

b) To verify the integrity of the data
c) To create a secure channel
d) To provide confidentiality of the data

29. Which of the following hash functions produces a 128-bit hash value?

a) SHA-1
b) SHA-256
c) MD5
d) SHA-512

30. What kind of attack is most associated with the SHA-1 algorithm?

a) Brute-force attack
b) Birthday attack
c) Man-in-the-middle attack
d) Side-channel attack

31. Which of the following is true regarding the HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication
Code)?

a) It uses symmetric encryption to create the hash

b) It relies on the key for creating a hash, thus ensuring both integrity and authenticity
c) It does not require any key for hashing
d) It is vulnerable to dictionary attacks

32. Which of the following hash functions is most commonly used in blockchain applications
for its security features?

a) MD5
b) SHA-1
c) SHA-256
d) RIPEMD-160

Answer: C) SHA-25633. What is the primary feature of a hash function based on Cipher
Block Chaining (CBC)?

a) It uses a secret key to hash the data

b) It processes the data in fixed-size blocks and uses chaining to link blocks together
c) It encrypts the data using a public key before hashing
d) It provides a reversible mapping from hash to original data

34. Which of the following block cipher modes is typically used to create a hash function
using Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)?

a) ECB (Electronic Codebook)

b) OFB (Output Feedback)
c) CTR (Counter)
d) CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)
35. What is the key difference between hash functions based on Cipher Block Chaining
(CBC) and simple hash functions like MD5 or SHA?
a) CBC-based hash functions are slower than MD5 or SHA
b) CBC-based hash functions are not deterministic
c) CBC-based hash functions involve the use of block ciphers in the process
d) CBC-based hash functions do not provide collision resistance

36. In the context of a CBC-based hash function, what is typically used as the initial input to
the first block of data?
a) The plaintext message
b) A random initialization vector (IV)
c) A hash value from a previous message
d) A secret key

37. Which security property does a CBC-based hash function provide when used in message
authentication?
a) Speed and efficiency
b) Collisions resistance and data integrity
c) Encryption and confidentiality
d) Reversibility for decryption

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of using CBC mode in hash functions?
a) It ensures that small changes in the input data result in large changes to the hash output.
b) It provides better security than simple hash functions like MD5 or SHA-1.
c) It allows for parallel processing of the input data.
d) It ensures that the same input always generates the same hash value.

39. What would happen if the initialization vector (IV) used in a CBC-based hash function is
repeated for different messages?
a) The hash of the messages would be identical.
b) The security of the hash function would be compromised.
c) The process would be much faster.
d) The hash values would remain unpredictable.
40. What is the main security issue associated with using CBC in cryptographic systems?
a) It is vulnerable to padding oracle attacks.
b) It does not provide data integrity.
c) It can be easily parallelized.
d) It is too slow for practical use.

41. What is typically used to prevent birthday attacks in CBC-based hash functions?
a) Using a longer initialization vector (IV)
b) Adding more rounds of encryption
c) Using a unique salt with each message
d) Encrypting the entire message before hashing

42. Which of the following is not an example of a cryptographic hash function based on
Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)?
a) HMAC-SHA-256
b) SHA-256 with CBC mode
c) AES in CBC mode as a hashing function
d) MD5

43. Which of the following is a characteristic of the SHA-2 family of cryptographic hash
functions?
a) It produces a fixed-length hash of 128 bits.
b) It is no longer considered secure due to vulnerabilities.
c) It includes multiple hash lengths, such as SHA-224, SHA-256, SHA-384, and SHA-
512.
d) It uses a 128-bit key for the hashing process.

44. What is the output size of the SHA-256 hash function?

a) 128 bits
b) 160 bits
c) 256 bits
d) 512 bits
45. Which of the following is a known vulnerability of the SHA-1 hash function?
a) Pre-image resistance
b) Collision resistance
c) Speed of computation
d) Padding attacks

46. Which of the following applications typically uses SHA-2 for secure data transmission?
a) Digital signatures
b) File encryption
c) SSL/TLS certificates
d) All of the above

47. What is the primary difference between SHA-1 and SHA-256?

a) SHA-1 is more secure than SHA-256.
b) SHA-256 produces a larger output hash (256 bits) compared to SHA-1 (160 bits).
c) SHA-1 is used for key generation, while SHA-256 is only for file hashing.
d) SHA-1 uses an asymmetric encryption approach, while SHA-256 uses symmetric
encryption.

48. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm)
family in network security?
a) To encrypt sensitive data
b) To ensure confidentiality of messages
c) To generate a fixed-size hash that represents data integrity
d) To provide asymmetric encryption for digital signatures

49. What type of attack is most effectively prevented by using SHA-based hash functions in
digital signatures?
a) Brute-force attack
b) Man-in-the-middle attack
c) Collision attack
d) Replay attack
50. Why is SHA-256 preferred over SHA-1 in modern cryptographic applications?
a) SHA-256 is faster to compute than SHA-1.
b) SHA-256 has stronger collision resistance and is more secure.
c) SHA-1 is deprecated due to its faster hash generation.
d) SHA-1 is more widely supported in software and hardware.

51. In a blockchain, what role does SHA-256 play?

a) Encrypts the data to keep it confidential
b) Verifies the integrity of transactions and links blocks
c) Generates public and private keys
d) Provides secure key exchange

51. Which of the following describes the security strength of SHA-256 compared to SHA-1?
a) SHA-256 is less secure due to its larger hash size.
b) SHA-256 is considered more secure because it has a larger hash size and better
resistance to attacks.
c) SHA-1 is more secure in terms of collision resistance than SHA-256.
d) Both SHA-1 and SHA-256 have the same security strength.

52. Which of the following hash functions is not part of the SHA family?
a) SHA-256
b) SHA-512
c) SHA-3
d) MD5

53. Which of the following best describes the "pre-image resistance" property of a
cryptographic hash function like SHA-256?
a) Given a hash value, it is computationally infeasible to find the original input.
b) Given two inputs, it is computationally infeasible to find a common hash value.
c) It ensures that no two different inputs can produce the same hash value.
d) It prevents attackers from reversing the hash process and recovering the original data.

54. SHA-1 produces a hash value of

a) 256 bits
b) 160 bits
c) 180 bits
d) 128 bits
55. What is the number of round computation steps in the SHA-256 algorithm?
a) 80
b) 76
c) 64
d) 70
56. In SHA-512, the message is divided into blocks of size ___ bits for the hash computation.
a) 1024
b) 512
c) 256
d) 1248
57. What is the maximum length of the message (in bits) that can be taken by SHA-512?
a) 2128
b) 2256
c) 264
d) 2192
58. The message in SHA-512 is padded so that it’s length is
a) 832 mod 1024
b) 768 mod 1024
c) 960 mod 1024
d) 896 mod 1024
59. The big-endian format is one in which
a) the least significant byte is stored in the low-address byte position
b) the least significant byte is stored in the high-address byte position
c) the most significant byte is stored in the high-address byte position
d) the most significant byte is stored in the low-address byte position
60. What is the size of W (in bits) in the SHA-512 processing of a single 1024- bit block?
a) 64
b) 128
c) 512
d) 256
61. The output of the N 1024-bit blocks from the Nth stage is
a) 512 bits
b) 1024 bits
c) N x 1024bits
d) N x 512 bits
62. Among the registers ‘a’ to ‘h’ how many involve permutation in each round?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3