Fundamental circuit of electrical Engineering circuit

1. Which of the following is also known as the dual of Thevenin’s theorem?

a) Norton’s theorem b) Superposition theorem
c) Maximum power transfer theorem d) Mill man’s theorem
2. Superposition theorem does not work for ________
a) Current b) Voltage c) Power
d) Works for all: current, voltage and power
3. A voltage source connected in series with a resistor can be converted to a?
a) Current source in series with a resistor
b) Current source in parallel with a resistor
c) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
d) .Cannot be modified
4. A source transformation is_________
a) unilateral b) bilateral c) Unique
d) cannot be determined
5. In source transformation________
a) Voltage source remains the same
b) Current sources remain the same
c) Both voltage and current source remain the same
d) Resistances remain the same
6. Thevenin resistance is found by ________
a) Shorting all voltage sources b) Opening all current sources
c) Shorting all voltage sources and opening all current sources
d) Opening all voltage sources and shorting all current source
7. In nodal analysis, the preferred reference node is a node that is connected to
A. Ground B. Many parts of the network C. The highest voltage source D .all
8. If the network has ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬__________ between two non- reference node the
concept of super node is used instead of nodal analysis.
A. voltage source B. current C. only dependent voltage source D resistor
9. If there are 8 nodes in network, we can get ____ number of equations in the nodal
analysis.
a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6
10. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. All electric circuits are electric networks
B. All electric networks are electric circuits
C. All electric circuits are electric networks and vice versa
D. All electric circuits are electric networks but the opposite of this is not True
11. For the circuit given below. Thevenin’s resistance across terminals
A and B is A. 2 ohm B. 0.2 ohm C. 4ohm D. 0.4 ohm

12. The symbol shown here is a

A. Voltage controlled current source B. Voltage controlled voltage source

C. Current controlled current source D. Current controlled Voltage source
13. If an electron beam in a TV picture tube carries 10^13 electrons/second and is
passing through plates maintained at a potential difference of 40 kV, calculate the
power in the beam
A. 64mW B. 46wW C. 36mW D. 48mw
14. What happens to the current in the series circuit if the resistance is doubled?
a) It becomes half its original value b) it becomes double its original value
c) It becomes zero d) It becomes infinity
15. A given conductor carrying of 1A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000J. If the
current though the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be.
A. 4000J B.1000J C.8000J D.500J
16. Which of the following is not true regarding passive electronic components?
 A. Passive components cannot control the flow of electric current through a circuit
but a
limit the flow of the electric current.
B. Passive components do not depend up on the external source of energy or
voltage to
perform a specific operation.
C. Passive components temporarily store the electrical energy in the form of static
electric
field or magnetic field
D. Passive components can amplify or increase the power of electrical signal
17. For RLC circuit a critically damped system, the type of closed loop poles are
A. purely imaginary B. Complex conjugates with negative real part
C. Real, equal and negative D. Real, unequal and negative
18. For RLC circuit based on neper-frequency and resonant frequency which one is not
Correct.
A. The response is over-damped when the roots of the circuit Characteristics
equation is
unequal and real.
B. The response is over-damped when the roots of the circuit Characteristics
equation is
negative and real.
C. The response is under-damped when the roots of the circuit Characteristics
equation is
complex.
D. The response is critical damped when the roots of the circuit Characteristics
equation is
complex.
19. Which one of the following is true for source free RC circuit?
A. The smaller time constant τ is t, the faster the rate of decay of the response.
B. The smaller time constant τ of a circuit, the slower the rate of decay of the
response.
C The larger time constant τ of a circuit, the faster the rate of decay of the response.
D. All
20. Which one of passive element are acts like a short circuit to DC circuit (di/dt =0)
A. Inductor B. Capacitor C. Resistors D. all
NETWORK ANALYIS AND SYNTHESIS

21. An RLC series circuit is under damped. To make it over damped, the value of R
A. has to be increased B. has to be decreased
C. has to be increased to infinity D. has to be reduced to zero
22. A two port network is said to be reciprocal if and only if
A. Z12 =Z21 B. Z12 =Z22
C. Z11 = Z12 D. Z11 = Z22
23. ABCD parameters are used in analysis of
A. Short circuit B. Electronic circuits
C. Open circuit D. Transmission line
24. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
A. the real part of all poles must be negative
B. the real parts of poles and zeros must be negative
C. the real parts of all poles and zeros must be negative or zero
D. the real parts of all zeros must be negative
25. For a voltage transfer function H(S), realizable by RLC network, the following
statements are made of this statments
1. 1.H(S) cannot have a pole at s=0
2. H(S) cannot have a pole at s =
3. H(S) cannot have a pole at s=
4. H(S) cannot have a pole at s=+2
A. 3 and 4 are correct B. 2 and 4 are correct
C. 1 and 2 are correct D. 1 and 3 are correct
26. For a series resonant circuit at low frequency impedance is __________ and at high
frequency circuit impedance is __________ .
A. capacitive, inductive B. Inductive, capacitive
C. resistive, inductive D. capacitive, resistive
27. In a Hurwitz polynomial
A. all coefficients are non-negative
B. both the odd and even parts have roots on jω axis
C. the continued fraction expansion is the ratio of odd to even parts of a Hurwitz
polynomial yields all positive quotient terms
D. all of the above
28. Which one of the following is positive real function?

A.

B.

C.

D.
29. An RL impedance function is to be synthesised in second Foster form. The proper
function to be expanded is
A. Z(s) B. sZ(s)
C. 1/Z(s) D. Z(s)/s
30. The relation AD - BC = 1 where A, B, C, D are transmission parameters of a network is
valid for A. every network B. passive but not reciprocal network
C. passive and reciprocal network D. both active and passive networks
31. What are the ABCD parameters of the single elements circuit given below?

A. B.

C. D.
2
32. The polynomial P (s) = (s - 1) (s + 1) (s + 2) (s + 3) is
A. Hurwitz but not strictly Hurwitz B. not Hurwitz
C. strictly Hurwitz D. anti/Hurwitz
33. The circuit shown in figure is a

A. low pass filter B. high pass filter

C. band pass filter D. band stop filter
34. The parameter A of a two port network is equal to
A. V2/V1 with I1 = 0 B. V1/I2 with V2 = 0
C. I1/I2 with V2 = 0 D. V1/V2 with I2 = 0
35. The series element for a prototype high pass filter is
A. Resistive B. inductive C. capacitive D. combination of L and C
36. If F(s) = , then f(t) =
 A. cos ω0t
B. sin ω0t
at
C. e cos ω0t
-at
D. e cos ω0t
37. Network transient are due to
A. Circuit resistance
B. circuit voltage
C. changes in energy stored in L and C
D. circuit admittance
38. For an RC driving point impedance function, the poles and zeros
A. Should alternate on real axis
B. should alternate only on negative real axis
C. should alternate on imaginary axis
D. none of the above
39. A filter which passes without attenuation all frequencies up to the cut-off frequency
fc and attenuations all other frequencies greater than fc is called?
a) high pass filter
b) low pass filter
c) band elimination filter
d) band pass filter
40. The terminal across the source are .........., if a current source is to be neglected
a) open-circuited
b) short-circuited
c) replacing by a capacitor
d) replacing by a source resistancE
APPLIED ELECTRONICS I
41. Without a dc source, a clipper acts like a
(a) rectifier
(b) clamper
(c) demodulator
(d) chopper
42. The primary function of a clamper circuit is to
(a) suppress variations in signal voltage
(b) raise positive half-cycle of the signal
(c) lower negative half-cycle of the signal
(d) introduce a dc level into an ac signal
43. Junction breakdown occurs
a. under high temperature condition
b. with forward bias
c. under reverse bias (
d. because of manufacturing defect.
44. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the phenomenon of
a. collision (b) doping (c) ionization (d) recombination.

45. Silicon is preferred for manufacturing Zener diodes because it

a. is relatively cheap
b. needs lower doping level
c. has higher temperature and current capacity
d. has lower break-down voltage.
46. A PIN diode is frequently used as a
a. peak clipper
b. voltage regulator
c. harmonic generator
d. switching diode for frequencies upto GHz range.
47. When the reverse bias voltage of a varactor diode increases, its
a. capacitance decreases
b. lealkage current decreases
c. negative resistance increases
d. (d) depletion zone decreases.
48. The diode which is often used for voltage regulation in electronic circuits is called ......
diode
(a) zener
(b) varactor
(c) silicon
(d) Germanium.
49. A negative-resistance microwave diode having a thin slice of a semiconductor
material sandwiched between two metal conductors is called ............... diode.
a. Schottky
b. PIN
c. Gunn
d. varactor.
50. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it
(a) has to dissipate maximum power
(b) has to supply the charge carriers
(c) is the first region of the transistor
(d) must possess low resistance.
51. For current working of an NPN bipolar junction transistor, the different electrodes
should have the following polarities with respect to emitter.
(a) collector +ve, base –ve
(b) collector – ve, base –ve
(c) collector + ve, base +ve
(d) collector –ve, base + ve
52. In a BJT, largest current flow occurs
(a) in the emitter
(b) in the base
(c) in the collector
(d) Through CB junction.
53. In a properly-connected BJT, an increase in base current causes increase in
(a) IC only
(b) both IC and IE
(c) IE only
(d) Leakage current.
54. When a BJT operates in cut-off
a. VCE = 0 (c) VCE has negative value
b. VCE =Vcc (d) IC is maximum.
55. When a BJT is in saturation
a. IC = 0
b. IB controls IC
c. VCE = 0
d. VCE has positive value.
56. CE amplifier is characterized by
a. low voltage gain
b. moderate power gain
c. signal phase reversal
d. Very high output impedance.
57. Class AB operation is often used in power (large signal) amplifiers in order to,
(a) get maximum efficiency
(b) remove even harmonics
(c) overcome cross-over distortion
(d) reduce collector dissipation
58. The main use of a class-C amplifier is
a. as an RF amplifier
b. as stereo amplifier
c. in communication sound equipment
d. as distortion generator.
59. The primary cause of linear distortion in amplifiers is
a. change of gain with frequency
b. unequal phase shift in component frequencies
c. reactance associated with the circuit and active amplifying element
 d. Inherent limitations of the active device.
60. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
a. channel
b. gate
c. P-N junctions
d. Substrate.
DIGITAL LOGIC DESIGN
61. Which gates in Digital Circuits are required to convert a NOR-based SR latch to an SR
flip-flop?
A. Two 2 input AND gates
B. Two 3 input AND gates
C. Two 2 input OR gates
D. Two 3 input OR gates

62. What must be used along with synchronous control inputs to trigger a change in the
flip flop?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Clock
D. Previous output

63. Which of the following majorly determines the number of emitters in a TTL digital
circuit?
A. Fan – in
B. Fan – out
C. Propagation delay
D. Noise immunity

64. What will be the output from a D flip – flop if the clock is low and D = 0?
A. 0
B. 1
C. No change
D. Toggle between 0 and 1

65. What are the basic gates in MOS logic family?

A. NAND and NOR
B. AND and OR
C. NAND and OR
D. AND and NOR

66. Which of the following gives the correct number of multiplexers required to build a
 32 x 1 multiplexer?
A. Two 16 x 1 mux
B. Three 8 x 1 mux
C. Two 8 x 1 mux
D. Three 16 x 1 mux

67. The result “X + XY = X” follows which of these laws?

A. Consensus law
B. Distributive law
C. Duality law
D. Absorption law

68. Which of the following options correctly represents the consensus law of Digital
Circuits?
A. AB + AC + BC = AB + AC
B. AB + AC + BC = AB + AC
C. AB + AC + BC = AB + AC
D. AB + AC + BC = AB + AC

69. Which of the following points is not correct regarding an Ex – NOR gate in Digital
Electronics?
A. It is a one – bit comparator
B. It is a buffer
C. It is a one – bit inverter
D. It is a universal gate

70. A priority encoder has four inputs I0, I1, I2, and I3 where I3 has the highest priority
and I0 has the least priority. If I2 = 1, what will be the output?
A. 00
B. 01
C. 10
D. 11

71. What determines the output from the combinational logic circuit in Digital
Electronics?
A. Input signals from the past condition
B. Input signals at the present moment
C. Input signals from both past and present
D. Input signals expected in future

72. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?

A. Simple parity check
B. Two-dimensional parity check
 C. CRC
D. Checksum

73. Decimal 43 in Hexadecimal and BCD number system is respectively

A. B2, 0100 0011
B. 2B, 0100 0011
C. 2B,100 011
D. B2, 0100 0100

74. Which of the following is a type of digital logic circuit?

A) Combinational logic circuits
B) Sequential logic circuits
C) Both Combinational & Sequential logic circuits
D) None of the mentioned

75. Which of the following options represent the synchronous control inputs in an S – R
flip flop?
a) S
b) R
c) Clock
d) Both S and R

76. What must be used along with synchronous control inputs to trigger a change in the
flip flop?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Clock
d) Previous output

77. What value is to be considered for a “don’t care condition”?

a) 0
b) 1
c) Either 0 or 1
d) Any number except 0 and 1

78. A combinational logic circuit which generates a particular binary word or number is
A. Decoder
B. Multiplexer
C. Encoder
D. Demultiplexer
79. _____________ can be determined the Instability condition.
A. table
B. logic diagram
 C. map
D. graph

80. Sum of two octal numbers “71” and “36” =__________________

A. 123
B. 127
C. 213
D. 345

INTRODUCTION TO COMPUTING
81. Which of the following is not a valid C++ data type?

a) int
b) char
c) string
d) float
82. What is the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
int z = x / y;
cout << z;
return 0;
}
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) Error
83. Which of the following is used to declare a constant variable in C++?
a) const
b) constexpr
c) constant
d) var
84. What is the correct syntax to define a class named "Rectangle" in C++?
a) class Rectangle {}
b) class Rectangle()
c) class Rectangle[]
d) class Rectangle {
85. What is the correct syntax to catch all types of exceptions in C++?
a) catch (...)
b) catch (Exception e)
c) catch (Exception& e)
d) catch (const Exception& e)
86. Which of the following is the correct way to include the header file "iostream" in a
C++ program?
a) #include <iostream.h>
b) #include "iostream.h"
c) #include <iostream>
d) #include "iostream"
87. What is the output of the following code snippet?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int x = 5;
int y = x++;
cout << y;
return o;
}
a) 5
b) 6
c) 4
d) Error
88. What is the result of the expression 10 % 3 in C++?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
89. Which of the following is used to terminate a switch case in C++?
a) break
b) continue
c) return
d) exit
90. What is the correct way to access the length of a string in C++?
a) str.size()
b) str.length()
c) str.capacity()
d) str.count()
91. What is the correct way to define a constant variable in C++?
 a) const int x;
b) constant int x;
c) int constant x;
d) int const x;
92. What is the output of the following code snippet?
int x = 5;
int y = 2;
cout << x % y;
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 2.5
93. What is the correct way to declare a two-dimensional array in C++?
a) int arr[2][2];
b) int arr[][];
c) int arr[2];
d) int[] arr[];
94. 32. The invention of the integrated circuit (IC) is associated with which generation of
computers?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
95. The development of microprocessors occurred during which generation of
computers?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
96. The development of microprocessors occurred during which generation of
computers?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
97. Which control structure is most suitable when the number of iterations is not known
beforehand?
a) if-else
b) switch
c) for loop
d) do-while loop
98. Which control structure is used to select one of many code blocks to be executed
based on a given value?
a) if-else
b) switch
c) for loop
d) do-while loop
99. What is the purpose of the control unit in the CPU?
a) Execution of arithmetic operations
b) Storage of program instructions
c) Control of input/output devices
d) Coordination and execution of instructions
100. Which of the following components is responsible for executing instructions in a
computer system?
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
B) Control Unit (CU)
C) Memory Unit
D) Input/Output (I/O) Unit