CEX–5615/22 Quantitative Ability – 03 BBA-HM

Answers and Explanations

1 d 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 b 7 c 8 c 9 d 10 c
11 c 12 d 13 c 14 c 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 c 19 c 20 a
21 b 22 d 23 a 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 c 28 d 29 d 30 b

1. d Principal = Rs P
16 × 100 × 2 100 1
Rates of interest = R% ⇒r= = = 11 % .
288 9 9
Number of years = R
P Alternative method:
SI = Rs
9 Let r be the rate of interest.
Simple Interest and compound Interest for first year
So, P = P × R × R
9 100 2880
will be same = = <1,440
2
R2 1 Difference between CI and SI = SI on SI of first year.
⇒ =
100 9
1440 × 1 × r
160 =
2 100 100
⇒ R =
9 160 × 100 100 1
∴r = = % = 11 % .
10 1 144 9 9
⇒ R= = 3 %.
3 3
4. b Amount after 2 years = <108
2. d <1,728 – <1,440 = <288 Amount after 3 years = <112
<288 is the simple interest on <1,440 for one year. In simple interest, interest remains the same for every
Then, year, therefore, interest for 1 year = <4
Hence, principal = 108 – 4 × 2 = <100
1440 × r × 1
288 = ⇒ r = 20%. 4
100 Rate of interest = × 100 = 4% .
100
3. c Let p be the principal value, r% be the rate of interest 5PR
and n = 2 = duration. 5. b Case (i), P = ⇒ R = 20%
100
Thus, according to the question
12 PR 100
Case (ii), 2P = ⇒R= = 16.66%.
  2  2r  100 6
 r 
P   1 +  – 1 –  = 160
  100   100 

6. b Amount = <8,820 and the principal = <8,000.
 r 2  n
⇒ P = 160 8820  5 
2
...(i) = 1+ 
 (100)  8000  100 

p×r×2 2880 × 100 2 n

Also 2880 = ⇒ Pr = ...(ii)  21   21 
100 2 ⇒   =   ; n = 2 years.
 20   20 
∴ Using (ii) in (i), we get
2880 × 100
r. = 160 × 100 × 100
2

QA – 03 Page 1
7. c Let r be the rate of interest
20
1200 × r × 3 1000 × r × 3 P = <800, T = 1 × 4 and R = %
− = 50 ⇒ r = 8.3%. 4
100 100
4 4
 5   21 
A = 800 1 +  ; A = 800  
8. c Let the two parts be <x and <(2600 – x) respectively.  100   20 
Then, A = 800 × 1.215 = <972.40
5 6 CI = 972 – 800 = <172.41
x × 10 × = (2600 – x) × 9 × Difference between the two compound interests
100 100
≈< 4.4.
⇒ 50x = (2600 – x) 54
⇒ 104x = 2600 × 54
⇒ x = 1,350.
500 × R1 × 2
12. d I1 = = 10 R1, R1 = Rate
100
9. d According to the question, we have
500 × R2 × 2
I2 = = 10 R2, R2 = Rate
P × r × 2 P × (r + 4) × 2 100
400 + =
100 100 I1– I2 = 10 R1 – 10 R2

8P 2.50
⇒ 400 = ⇒ = R1− R2 ⇒ 0.25% = R1 – R2.
100 10
⇒ P = <5,000.
13. c Suppose the principal is < x and it doubles in time t.
10. c Compound interest (CI) = Amount – Principle (P) We have
n 2t
 r   20 / 2 
= P 1 + –P 2x = x 1 +  ⇒ 2 = (1.1)2t
 100   100 
⇒ 2t < 8 or t < 4 years.
 r 
n 
Hence, the answer is 4 years.
= P  1 +  – 1 , where
 100  
14. c Let his total investment be <x
r is the rate of interest, n is the duration. Interest on 1/3 of x at 7%
 10 
2  x × 7 × 1 7x
Now CI = P  1 + I1 = =
 – 1 3 × 100 300
 100  
x × 8 × 1 2x
I2 = =
 11 2  4 × 100 100
 121 – 100  21P
420 = P   – 1 = P  =
 10    100  100 5x × 10 x
I3 = =
12 × 100 24
⇒ P = <2,000
But I1 + I2 + I3 = 561
P×r ×t 2000 × 10 × 2
∴ SI = =< = < 400. 7x 2x x
100 100 ⇒ + + = 561 ⇒ x = 6600
300 100 24
11. c Compound interest compounded half yearly, then Total investment is <6,600.

15. c For compounding half yearly

20
P = <800, T = 1 × 2 and R = % 16
2 R= = 8%
2
n 2
 r   10  T = 1×2 = 2 years
A = P 1 +  ; A = 800 1 +  Compound interest
 100   100 
A = <968  8 
2 
CI = 968 – 800 = <168 = 5000  1 +  − 1
 100  
Compound Interest compounded quarterly, then
Compound interest = <832.

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16. c To avoid fractions, let the number of eggs purchased
600 × 6
be ⇒x= =< 720
5
LCM of 10 and 11 = 110

110 × 1.80  1 
CP of 110 eggs = = <19.80 Final SP =<  720 + × 720  = < 840.
10  6 

110 × 2.00
SP of 110 eggs = = <20.00 22. d Suppose the cost price be x, so we have
11
⇒ 1.2x – 40 = 1.1x
0.20 × 100 ⇒ 0.1x = 40 ⇒ x = < 400.
Profit percentage = = 1.01% .
19.80
23. a Let C.P. be <x. Then,
x + x% of x = 144
17. a If C pays <1,050, then selling price of B = <1,050.

100 x2
Hence, cost price of B = 1050 × = <840 ⇒x+ = 144
125 100
Selling price of A = <840 ⇒ (x + 180) (x – 80) = 0

100 ⇒ x = <80 (Rejecting value x = –180).

Cost price of A = < 840 × = <800.
105
24. b Let the loss be <x.
Then, 75 = C.P. – x and 96 = C.P. + 2x
18. c Let the CP be <x
On subtracting, we get 3x = 21
∴ SP = <1.2 x
⇒ x = 7.
New CP = <0.8x
New SP = <(1.2x – 5) ∴ C.P.= 75 + x = <82
∴ 1.25 (0.8x) = 1.2x – 5
25. b Suppose he invests <150 in each of the lots, so total
⇒ x = 1.2x – 5 ⇒ x = <25.
investment = <300.
He will get 5 dozens of first lot and 3 dozens of second
19. c Cost price of 5 toffees = < 1
lot. In all he will have 8 dozens, selling price of which
5 will be 40 × 8 = <320
S.P. of 5 toffees = 1× 1.25 =<
4
320 − 300
∴ Profit percentage = × 100
300
5
For Rs. he sells 5 toffees.
4
20 2
= % = 6 %.
3 3
5×4
For < 1 he sells = 4 toffees.
5
26. a Let the marked price be <x.
20 × 10 Then, (7% of x) – 15 = (5% of x)
20. a Net discount given by X = – 20 – 10 +
100
7x 5x
⇒ − = 15 or, x = <750.
= – 28% 100 100
15 × 16
by Y = – 15 – 16 + 27. c Let the original price of the mangoes be <x per mango.
100
According to the given condition
= – 28.6%
by Z = – 29% 15 15
Hence, X stands to gain the most. – = 12
0.8x x
On solving the above equation, we get
21. b Let the CP be <x. Then,
x = Re. 0.3125
1 5 The price of the 16 mangoes before reduction in the
x− x = 600 ⇒ x = 600
6 6 price = <16 × 0.3125 = <5.

QA – 03 Page 3
28. d Let the selling price of 320 mangos = Cost price of 30. b Initial MP = <150.
400 mangos = <1 Reduced MP = <108.
% decrease in MP
1
Selling price of 1 mango = 150 − 108
320 = × 100 = 28% (decrease)
150
1 By successive percentage formula net change
Cost price of 1 mango =
400 ab
= a+b+
100
Sellingprice − Cost price
Profit % = × 100
Cost price 20b −100 − 5b + b
⇒ −28 = −20 − b + ⇒ −28 =
100 5
1 1 ⇒ – 140 = – 100 – 4b
− 80
= 320 400 × 100 = × 100 = 25%. ⇒ b = 10%. So, additional discount of 10% should be
1 320 given.
400
Alternate Method:
Let 2nd discount be x%.
 20  Initial MP = <150
29. d Piano is sold for < 325 – 325 ×  = < 260 after
 100 
 20 
giving 20% less for cash. SP after 1st discount =  1 −  × 150 = 120
After additional discount, it was sold for <234.  100 
SP after 2nd discount
260 – 234
So, second discount percentage = × 100
260  x 
= 1 −  × 120 = 180 ⇒ x = 10%.
 100 
26
= × 100 = 10% .
260

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