Document_Pdf_542
Document_Pdf_542
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
Important Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. This test paper consists of 90 questions. Each subject (MPC) has 30 questions. The
maximum marks are 300.
3. This question paper contains three parts. Part-A is Mathematics, Part-B is Physics and
Part-C is Chemistry. Each part has only two sections: Section-A and Section-B.
7. Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical based questions. The
answer to each question is rounded off to the nearest integer value. Each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Note: For the benefit of the students, specially the aspiring ones, the question of
JEE(Main), 2024 are also given in this booklet. Keeping the interest of students
studying in class XI, the questions based on topics from class XI have been
marked with ‘*’, which can be attempted as a test.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-2
PART – A (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2
2, 2 x 0
Q1. Let f(x) and h(x) = f(|x|) + |f(x)|. Then h(x) dx is equal to
x 2, 0 x 2 2
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 1 (D) 2
Ans. D
2 , 2 x 0
Sol. Here, f x
x 2 , 0x2
h x f | x | | f x |
x 2 , 2 x 0
f | x |
x 2 , 0x2
2 ; 2 x 0
| f x |
x 2 ; 0 x 2
x 2 2 ; 2 x 0
So, h x
x 2 x 2 ; 0x2
2 0 2
h x dx x dx 0.dx
2 2 0
x2 0
2
0
2
=2
Q2. Three urns A, B and C contain7 red, 5 black; 5 red, 7 black and 6 red, 6 black balls, respectively.
One of the urn is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If the ball drawn is black, then
the probability that it is drawn from urn A is :
5 5
(A) (B)
18 16
4 7
(C) (D)
17 18
Ans. A
Sol. Probability that ball drawn is black
1 5 1 7 1 6
3 12 3 12 3 12
Probability that ball drawn from bag A
1 5
is 3 12
1 5 1 7 1 6
3 12 3 12 3 12
5 5
5 7 6 18
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-3
Q3. If 2 and 6 are the roots of the equation ax 2 + bx + 1 = 0, then the quadratic equation, whose roots
1 1
are and , is :
2a b 6a b
(A) x2 + 10x + 16 = 0 (B) 2x 2 11x 12 0
(C) 4x 2 14x 12 0 (D) x 2 8x 12 0
Ans. D
Sol. ax 2 bx 1 0
Two roots : 2,6
Let 2, 6
b
So, 8
a
b 8a
1
12
a
1 2
So, b 8
12 3
Now, for new roots quadratic equation :
1 1 1 1
x2 0 x 2 6 x 2 6 0
2
x
2a b 6a b 2a b 6a b
So, x 2 8x 12 0
Q4. The vertices of a triangle are A(–1, 3), B(–2, 2) and C(3, –1). A new triangle is formed by shifting
the sides of the triangle by one unit inwards. Then the equation of the side of the new triangle
nearest to origin is :
(A) x y (2 2) 0 (B) x y (2 2) 0
(C) x y (2 2) 0 (D) x y (2 2) 0
Ans. A
Sol. Uliven, A (-1, 3)
B (-2, 2)
C (3, -1)
So, side AB y = x + 4
side CA y = -x + 2
side BC 5y = -3x + 4
origin lies outside of the triangle ABC
4
Now, Distance of AB from O(0,0) is 2 2
2
4
Distance of BC from O(0,0) is
34
2
Distance of CA from O(0,0) is 2
2
Each side of ABC shifted by one unit inwards distance of new side origin are
4
2 2 1,
34
1 and 2 1 respectively
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-4
Q5. Let f(x) = x 5 + 2ex/4 for all x R . Consider a function g(x) such that (gof) (x) = x for all x R .
Then the value of 8g'(2) is
(A) 16 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 2
Ans. A
Sol. g of x g f x x
So, g' f x f ' x 1
1
g' f x
f ' x
For g' (2)
put f (x) = 2
So, x5 + 2ex/4 =2
So, x = 0
1
Now, g' 2 2
f ' 0
Now, 8g' (2) = 16
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-5
Ans. B
15
Sol. 2 1/5
51/ 3
15 r r
Tr 1 15c r 2 5
53
15 r r
For rational numbers and should be integers
5 3
15 r
So, r = 0,5,10,15 if is integers
5
r
r = 0,3,6,9,12,15 If is Integers
3
So, common values are 0,15
3 5
Now, sum of rational terms =2 + 5 = 3133
th th th
Q8. Let the first three terms 2, p and q 2 , of a G.P. be respectively the 7 , 8 and 13 terms of an
A.P. If the 5th term of the G.P. is the nth terms of the A.P., then n is equal to
(A) 163 (B) 151
(C) 177 (D) 169
Ans. A
Sol. 2, p and q with q 2 in G.P
So, p2 = 2q ……(i)
Let first term = a
Common difference = d
So, t7 = a + 6d=2 …..(ii)
t8 = a+7d = p …..(iii)
t13 = a + 12d = q …..(iv)
From (ii) and (iii)
d = p-2
From (ii) and (iv)
6P = q + 10 ……(v)
From (i) and (v)
We have, p = 2 or p = 10
But if p = 2 then q = 2 :Rejected
When p = 10 we have q = 50
So, G.P is
2, 10, 50, ……
From (ii) and (iii)
D = 8, a = -48
th th
Now, 5 term of G.P = n term of A.P
2 5 46 n 1 8
4
So, n = 163
2x 2 3x 8 m
Q9. Let the sum of the maximum and the minimum values of the function f(x) = be ,
2x 2 3x 8 n
where gcd (m, n) = 1. Then m + n is equal to
(A) 195 (B) 217
(C) 201 (D) 182
Ans. C
2x 2 3x 8
Sol. Given, f x 2 ; x R
2x 3x 8
2 y 1 x 2 3 y 1 x 8 y 1 0 For xR
So, D 0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-6
2 2
9 y 1 64 y 1 0
5 11
y ,
11 5
146 m
Now, sum of maximum and minimum value of f (x) is
55 n
So, m + n = 201
Q10. There are 5 points P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 on the side AB, excluding A and B, of a triangle ABC.
Similarly there are 6 points P6, P7,…,P11 on the side BC and 7 points P12, P13, …, P18 on the side
CA of the triangle. The number of triangles, that can be formed using the points P1, P2,…..,P18 as
vertices, is
(A) 771 (B) 776
(C) 796 (D) 751
Ans. D
Sol.
Number of triangles 18C3 5C3 6C3 7C3
= 816 - 65
= 751
1 1
Q11. One of the points of intersection of the curves y = 1 + 3x – 2x2 and y is , 2 . Let the area
x 2
1
of the region enclosed by these curves be (l 5 m) n loge (1 5 ) , where l, m, n N . Then
24
l + m + n is equal to
(A) 32 (B) 31
(C) 30 (D) 29
Ans. C
Sol. Points of Intersection of curves y
1
y 1 3x 2x 2 and y is
x
1
1 3x 2x 2
x x
1 1 5
1 1 5 2
x ,x 2
2 2
Now, from graph,
1 5
2
2 1
So, Area 1 3x 2x
1
dx
x
2
1 5
3x 2 2x 3 2
x nx
2 3 1
2
1
24
14 5 15 n 5 1
So, 14, m 15, n 1
So, m n 30
Q12. A square is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 – 10x – 6y + 30 = 0. One side of this square is parallel to
y = x + 3. If (xi, yi) are the vertices of the square, then (xi2 yi2 ) is equal to
(A) 156 (B) 152
(C) 160 (D) 148
Ans. B
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-7
3x 22 3x 2 8x 5
Q14. If the domain of the function sin1 loge 2 is (, ] , then 3 10 is equal
2x 19 x 3x 10
to
(A) 95 (B) 100
(C) 97 (D) 98
Ans. C
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-8
3x 22
Sol. For sin1 Domain is
2x 19
3x 22 41
1 1 : x 3,
2x 19 5
2
3x 8x 5
For loge 2 Domain is
x 3x 10
3x 2 8x 5
0:
x 2 3x 10
5
x , 2 1, 5,
3
3x 22 3x 2 8x 5 41
So, Domain of sin1 loge 2 is intersection of x 3, and
2x 19 x 3x 10 5
5
x , 2 1, 5,
3
41
So, x 5,
5
So, 3 10 97
2x 2
2x 3
dy
x 4
2x 3 3x 2 2
dx
1 1
2 2
x 1 x 1 1
dx
y x tan1 x tan1 x 1 c
Now, y 1
4
So, 0c
4 4
c0
So, y x tan1 x tan1 x 1
Hence, y 0
4
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-9
Q16. Let a unit vector which makes an angle of 60° with 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ and an angle of 45° with ˆi kˆ be
1 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
C . Then C + ˆi j k is
2 3 2 3
1 1 1 1 ˆ 1 2ˆ 2ˆ 1 ˆ 1ˆ
(A) ˆi j k (B) i j k
3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2
2ˆ 2ˆ 1 2 2ˆ 2ˆ 1ˆ
(C) i j k (D) i k
3 3 2 3 3 2
Ans. D
Sol. Let, ĉ xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ
ĉ 1 x 2 y 2 z2 1 …...(i)
Given, angle between ĉ and 2iˆ 2ˆj kˆ is 60
2x 2y z
cos 60
3
So, 4x 4y 2z 3 …..(ii)
and angle between ĉ and ˆi kˆ is 45
xz
cos 45
2
So, x – z = 1 ……(iii)
From (ii) and (iii)
4y 2z 1 0
2z 1
y
4
Q17. Let the point, on the line passing through P(1, –2, 3) and Q(5, –4, 7), father from the origin and at
a distance of 9 units from the point P, be (, , ) . Then 2 2 2 is equal to
(A) 165 (B) 150
(C) 155 (D) 160
Ans. C
Sol. Equation of line passes through
P (1, -2,3) and Q (5,-4,7) is
x 1 y 2 z 3
4 2 4
point on it which are at unit distance from P are
1 6, 2 3, 3 6
R 7, 5, 9 or S 5,1, 3
So, OR = 49 25 81
OS = 25 1 9
R is farther from origin
Hence, Required point is (7,-5,9)
So, 2 2 y2 155
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-10
1 cos 2x 1 cos x
So, lim 2
lim
x 0
x x 0
x
2 2, 2 2
2
So, 2 2 12
Q19. Let and be the sum and the product of all the non-zero solutions of the equation (z)2 | z | 0 ,
z C . Then 4( 2 2 ) is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 2
Ans. A
2
Sol. z | z | 0 ……… (i)
z2 | z | 0 ………. (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
2
z z2 | z | | z |
So, z z or z z
Now, I z 0 or R(z) 0
If I(z) = 0 z x, x R 0
From (i) x2 + | x | = 0 x = 0 only
(Rejected)
If R z 0 z iy, y R 0
From (i) y 2 | y | 0
y as y 0
Hence, z = i
So, sum : i i 0
Project : i i 1 4 2 2 4
Q20. Let , R . Let the mean and the variance of 6 observation –3, 4, 7, –6, be 2 and 23,
respectively. The mean deviation about the mean of these 6 observations is
13 16
(A) (B)
3 3
14 11
(C) (D)
3 3
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-11
Ans. A
3 4 7 6
Sol. Mean 2
6
12 2
10 ……. (i)
Again variance
9 16 49 36 2 2
23 22
6
2 2 52 ……(ii)
from (i) and (ii)
6, 4 or 4, 6
Now, Mean deviation about mean.
3 2 4 2 | 7 2 | | 6 2 | | 6 2 | | 4 2 |
6
13
3
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-12
3
0
2 1 2 2
2
2 2
So, 2
So, 6 3 48
Q22. Let ABC be a triangle of area 15 2 and the vectors AB ˆi 2ˆj 7k, ˆ BC aiˆ bjˆ ckˆ and
AC 6iˆ djˆ 2k, ˆ d 0 . Then the square of the length of the largest side of the triangle ABC is
_____.
Ans. 54
Sol. AB BC AC
ˆi 2ˆj 7kˆ aiˆ bjˆ ckˆ 6iˆ djˆ 2kˆ
a 5 ˆi b d 2 ˆi c 5 kˆ 0
a 5, b d 2 0,c 5
1
Now, Area of ABC
2
AB AC
i j k
1
15 2 1 2 7
2
6 d 2
2 2
30 2 7d 4 1600 d 12
d=2
So, a = 5, b = 0 and c = 5
So, | AB | 54 (largest side)
| BC | 50 and | AC | = 44
So, | AB |2 54
2
C2 3 C2 4 C2
Q23. Let a 1 ...,
3! 4! 5!
1
C 1 C1 2 C0 2 C1 2 C2 3 C0 3 C1 3 C2 3 C3
b 1 0 ...
1! 2! 3!
2b
Then 2 is equal to_____.
a
Ans. 8
2 3 4
C C C2
Sol. a 1 2 2 ........
3! 4! 5!
nC2
1
n 2 n 1 !
1
n n 1 2 n 1 2
1
2
n2 n 1!
1 5
1 e 1 2 e 2 2 e
2 2
1
e
2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-13
Q24. In a survey of 220 students of a higher secondary school, it was found that at least 125 and at
most 130 students studied Mathematics; at least 85 and at most 95 studied Physics; at least 75
and at most 90 studied Chemistry; 30 studied both Physics and Chemistry; 50 studied both
Chemistry and Mathematics; 40 studied both Mathematics and Physics and 10 studied none of
these subjects. Let m and n respectively be the least and the most number of students who
studied all the three subjects. Then m + n is equal to_____.
Ans. 45
Sol. 125 n M 130 M P
85 n P 95 a d b
g
f e
75 n C 90
c 10
n(PC) = 30
c
n(CM) = 50
n(MP) = 40
d e f 3g 120
and a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 210
So, a + b + c = 90 + 2g
Now, 125 a + d + f + g 130
85 b + d + e + g 95
75 c + e + f + g 90
285 a b c 2 d e f 3g 315
285 90 2g 2 120 3g 3g 315
285 330 g 315
45 g 15
15 g 45
but n P C 30
d g 30
g 30
Hence, 15 g 30
So, M + n = 45
4
sin2 x 1 a
Q25. If 1 sin x cos x dx a log e , where a, b N, then a + b is equal to_____.
0 3 b 3
Ans. 8
/4
sin2 x
Sol. I
0
1 sin x cos x
dx
/ 4
1 cos 2x
2 sin 2x dx
0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-14
/ 4 /4
1 cos 2x
0
2 sin2x
dx
2 sin 2x dx
0
/ 4 2 / 4
sec x 1 2cos2x
0
2 2 tan2 x 2 tan x
dx
2 2 sin 2x dx
0
1 / 4
1 dt 1
n 2 sin 2x
2
2 0 t t 1 2 0
1 2
n
6 3 2 3
So, a = 2 and b = 6
So, a + b = 8
1 1
Q26. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix of non-negative real elements such that A 1 3 1 . Then the maximum
1 1
value of det(A) is_____.
Ans. 27
a b c
Sol. Let A p q r
x y z
a+b+c=3
p+q+r=3
x+y+z=3
Such that,
A, b, c, p, q, r, x y, z [0,3]
| A | aqz brx cpy cqx bpz ary
For maximum value of | A |,
cqx = 0, bpz = 0 and ary = 0
So that at least one of aqz or brx or cpyis non-zero
Let c = 0, p = 0, and y = 0
| A | aqz brx aqz 3 a 3 q3 z
= 27 – 9 (a + q + z) +3 (aq + az + qz) 27
for a + q + z = 0
So, maximum value is 27.
Q27. Let A be a square matrix of order 2 such that |A| = 2 and the sum of its diagonal elements is –3. If
the points (x, y) satisfying A2 + xA + y I = O lie on a hyperbola, whose transverse axis is parallel
to the x-axis, eccentricity is e and the length of the latus rectum is l, then e4 + l4 is equal to _____.
Ans. (DROP) Data Insufficient
a b
Sol. Let A
c d
a b
Then | A | ad bc 2
c d
And a d 3
2
a b a b 1 0 0 0
Now, x y
c d c d 0 1 0 0
* we can’t determine x and y
Without getting matrix [A]
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-15
dy
Q28. Let the solution y = y(x) of the differential equation y 1 4 sin x satisfy y() = 1. Then
dx
y 10 is equal to_____.
2
Ans. 7
dy
Sol. y 1 4 sin x
dx
I.F = e
dx
e x
So, ye x e x 1 4 sin x dx
y 1 2 sin x cos x cex
y 1
So, 1 1 2 0 1 ce
c=0
Hence, y 1 2 sin x cos x
y 10 1 2 1 0 10
2
=7
Sol. lim
5x 1 x 5
1/2 1/2
x 1
2x 3 x 4
0
form
0
5x 1 x 5 2x 3 x 4 . 2x 3 x 4
lim
x 1
5x 1 2/3
5x 1
1/3 1/3
x 5 x 5
2/ 3
5 5
4
6 2/ 3
62/3 62/3
8.51/3
2/3
3. 2.3
So, m = 8 and n = 3
Hence, 8m + 12n = 100
Q30. Let the length of the focal chord PQ of the parabola y2 = 12x be 15 units. If the distance of PQ
from the origin is p, then 10p2 is equal to_____.
Ans. 72
Sol. Let end points of focal chord are
3 6
are P 3t 2 ,6t and Q 2 ,
t t
3
Length of focal chord : 3t 2 3 2 3 15
t
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-16
2
1
t 5
t
1
So, t 5
t
1
Equation of PQ is y t 2x 6
t
6
Distance from origin 2
1
4 t
t
6 6
P So, 10P2 = 72
1 5
t t
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-17
PART – B (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q31. An effective power of a combination of 5 identical convex lenses which are kept in contact along
the principal axis is 25 D. Focal length of each of the convex lens is:
(A) 25 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 50 cm (D) 500 cm
Ans. B
Sol. Let power of each convex lense is ‘P’ and focal length is f.
The effective power of combination of 5 identical convex lenses will be
5
Peffective Pi 5P
i 1
5P 25D
P 5D
1
5m 1
f
1
f m 20 cm
5
Q32. To measure the internal resistance of a battery, potentiometer is used. For R 10 , the balance
point is observed at 500 cm and for R 1 the balance point is observed at 400 cm. The
internal resistance of the battery is approximately:
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.1
Ans. C
Sol.
P
A B
r
R S
Let potential grade in wire AB is ‘x’ v/cm
ForR 10 , the balance point is 500 cm
10 x 500 …………………….(I)
r 10
For R 1 , the balance point is 400 cm
1 x 400 …………………….(II)
r 1
From equation (I) & (II)
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-18
I II
10
r 10 500x
400x
1
r 1
r 0.3
Q34. In an experiment to measure focal length (f) of convex lens, the least counts of the measuring
scales for the position of object (u) and for the position of image (v) are u and v , respectively.
The error in the measurement of the focal length of the convex lens will be:
u v u v
(A) (B) f
u v u v
u v u v
(C) 2f (D) f 2 2 2
u v u v
Ans. D
1 1 1
Sol.
f v u
f v u
2 2
f2 v u
v u
f f 2 2 2
v u
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-19
Q35. P-T diagram of an ideal gas having three different densities 1, 2 , 3 (in 1
2
three different cases) is shown in the figure. Which of the following is
correct: P 3
(A) 1 2 (B) 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 (D) 2 3
T
Ans. C
Sol. P
1
2
3
T
PV nRT
m
PV RT
M
n RT
P
v M
m
v
R
P T
M
Slope
i.e 1 2 3
Q36. Which figure shows the correct variation of applied potential difference (V) with photoelectric
current (I) at two different intensities of light I1 I2 of same wavelengths:
i i
I2 I2
I1 I1
(A) (B)
-V0 V -V0 V
i i
I2
I2
I1
I1
(C) (D)
-V0 V -V0 V
Ans. D
Sol. Stopping potential depends on wavelength of incident light given, wavelength of incident light are
same so, stopping potential will be same.
Saturation current is directly proportional to the intensity of incident photons.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-20
Given, Intensity I2 I1
So, saturation current corresponding to intensity I2 will be greater than saturation current
corresponding to intensity I1
Q37. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis inside a current carrying long
solenoid. Then:
(A) the electron path will be circular about the axis.
(B) the electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(C) the electron will experience a force at 450 to the axis and execute a helical path.
(D) the electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
Ans. D
Sol.
B
v
Magnetic force
fB q v B
Given, v is parallel to B
FB 0
Acceleration = 0
So, the electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of solenoid.
Q38. In an ac circuit, the instantaneous current is zero, when the instantaneous voltage is maximum. In
this case, the source may be connected to:
(a) pure inductor
(b) pure capacitor
(c) pure resistor
(d) combination of an inductor and capacitor
(A) a and b only (B) a, b and d only
(C) a, b and c only (D) b, c and d only
Ans. B
Sol. The instantaneous current is zero, where the instantaneous voltage is maximum.
i.e phase diff b/w current and voltage should be z/2.
A. Pure inductor
VL
IL
B. Pure capacitor
IC
VC
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-21
VC
Q39. A wooden block initially at rest on the ground is pushed by a force which increases linearly with
time t. Which of the following curve best describes acceleration of the block with time?
a
a
(A) (B)
(0,0) t
(0,0) t
a a
(C) (D)
(0,0) t (0,0) t
Ans. B
Sol. F=kt
m
f kt
a
m m
k
a t
m
i.e straight line passing through origin
a
Q40. The co-ordinates of a particle moving in x-y plane are given by:
x 2 4t, y 3t 8t 2 .
The motion of the particle is:
(A) Uniformly accelerated having motion along a parabolic path.
(B) non-uniformly accelerated.
(C) uniformly accelerated having motion along a straight line.
(D) uniform motion along a straight line.
Ans. A
Sol. x 2 4t y 3t 8t 2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-22
dx dy
vx 4 vy 3 16t
dt dt
dv dv
ax x 0 a y y 16
dt dt
ˆ 2
a 16 j m / s uniformly accelerated motion.
Also,
x 2 4t ………………(I) & y 3t 8t 2 ……………….(II)
From equation (I) & (II)
2
x 2 x 2
y 3 8
4 4
Above equation is quadratic equation
So, path will be parabolic
The motion of the particle is uniformly accelerated and having motion along a parabolic path.
Q41. A body travels 102.5 m in nth second and 115.0 m in (n + 2)th second. The acceleration is:
(A) 6.25 m/s2 (B) 12.5 m/s2
2
(C) 9 m/s (D) 5 m/s2
Ans. A
Sol. Displacement for nth second is
a
Sn u 2n 1
2
a
102.5 u 2n 1 ………………..(I)
2
a
115.0 u 2 n 2 1
2
a
115.0 u 2n 3. …………….(II)
2
(II) (I)
a
12.5 4
2
a 6.25m / s2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-23
For statement 2
h
x
1 V1 2 V2
P2 , A 2
P1, A 1
P1 P0 gh ………………..(I)
P2 P0 gh …………………….(II)
p1 p2 g x y
P1 P2 gh ………………..(III)
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between points 1 & 2
1 1
P1 v12 gh1 P2 v 22 gh2
2 2
h1 h2 0 points are on reference
1
P1 P2
2
v 22 v12
1
gh
2
v 22 v12
v 22 v12 2gh
Statement ‘2’ is incorrect.
Q43. The resistances of the platinum wire of a platinum resistance thermometer at the ice point and
steam point are 8 and 10 respectively. After inserting in a hot bath of temperature 4000C, the
resistance of platinum wire is:
(A) 16 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 10
Ans. A
Sol. R R0 1 T
R100 R0 1 100 0
10 8 1 100
1
400
R 400 R0 1 400 0
1
R 400 8 1 400
400
R 400 16
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-24
Q44. Which of the following nuclear fragments corresponding to nuclear fission between neutron
n and uranium isotope
1
0
235
92
U is correct:
144 89 1 144 89
(A) 56 Ba 36 Kr 4 n
0 (B) 56 Ba 36 Kr 310 n
(C) 153 99 1
51 Sb 41Nb 3 0 n (D) 140 94 1
56 Xe 38 Sr 30 n
Ans. B
Sol. For a nuclear reaction sum of mass number and sum of atomic number should be
balanced.
235 144
92 U 10 n 56 Ba 36
89
Kr 310 n
235 140
92 U 10 n 56 Xe 38
94
Sr 210 n
Q45. The value of net resistance of the network as shown in the given 15
figure is:
(A) 15 / 4 (B) 6 10
Ans. B
Sol. 15
10 D1
6v 8v
5 D2
10
15 10
Re q 6
15 10
0
Q46. On celcius scale the temperature of body increases by 40 C. The increase in temperature on
Fahrenheit scale is:
(A) 750F (B) 720F
0
(C) 68 F (D) 700F
Ans. B
C0 F 32
Sol.
100 0 212 32
9
F C 32
5
9
F C
5
9
F 40 720 F
5
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-25
Q47. An infinitely long positively charged straight thread has a linear charge density Cm 1 . An
electron revolves along a circular path having axis along the length of the wire. The graph that
correctly represents the variation of the kinetic energy of electron as a function of radius of
circular path from the wire is:
KE KE
(A) (B)
O r O r
KE KE
(C) (D)
O r O r
Ans. B
Sol.
r
e,me
z
m v2
Fe e
r
2
2K me v
e
r r
1
KE me v 2 Ke constant kinetic energy is independent of r.
2
Q48. If a rubber ball falls from a height h and rebounds upto the height of h/2. The percentage loss of
total energy of the initial system as well as velocity ball before it strikes the ground, respectively,
are:
(A) 40%, 2gh (B) 50%, gh
gh
(C) 50%, (D) 50%, 2gh
2
Ans. D
Sol.
h/2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-26
z
Q49. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by E ˆi 40cos t NC1 . The magnetic
c
field induction of this wave is (in SI unit) :
40 z 40 z
(A) B kˆ cos t (B) B ˆi cos t
c c c c
40 z z
(C) B ˆj cos t (D) B ˆj 40cos t
c c c
Ans. C
z
Sol. E ˆi40 cos t Nc 1
c
i.e electric field is along +x direction and velocity of wave is along +z direction
v E
B 2
|v|
B
ckˆ ˆi40 cos t z / c
c2
40 z
B ˆj cos t
c c
Q50. A metal wire of uniform mass density having length L and mass M is bent to form a semicircular
arc and a particle of mass m is placed at the centre of the arc. The gravitational force on the
particle by the wire is:
2GmM
(A) (B) 0
L2
GmM2 GMm
(C) 2
(D)
L 2L2
Ans. A
Sol. M.L
m R
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-27
R
R
2G
Gravitation field intensity at centre of semi ring I
R
M
Where is linear mass density
L
Force on mass m due to semi ring
F mI
M
2G
Fm L
R
M
2Gm
F L
L/
2GmM
F
L2
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
Q51. A solid sphere and a hollow cylinder roll up without slipping on same inclined plane with same
initial speed v. The sphere and the cylinder reaches upto maximum heights h1 and
n
h2 respectively, above the initial level. The ratio h1 : h2 is . The value of n is………..
10
Ans. 7
Sol. V=0
=0
h
V
From concentration of energy theorem
1 1
mv 2 I2 mgh
2 2
1 1 v2
mv 2 mk 2 2 mgh
2 2 R
k2
h 1 2
R
k2 2
For solid sphere
R2 5
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-28
k2
For hollow cylinder 1
R2
hsolid sphere 1 2 / 5 7
hhollow cylinder 1 1 10
n7
Q52. An elastic spring under tension of 3 N has a length a. Its length is b under tension 2 N. For its
length 3a 2b , the value of tension will be………. N.
Ans. 5
Sol. Let natural length of spring is R
F k x
3 k a ………………..(I)
2 k b …………………..(II)
F k 3a 2b
F k 3 a 2 b
Form equation 1 & 2
3 2
F k 3. 2.
k k
F 5N
Q53. A soap bubble is blown to a diameter of 7 cm, 36960 erg of work is done in blowing it further. If
22
surface tension of soap solution is 40 dyne/cm then the new radius is…….. cm. Take .
7
Ans. 7
Sol. Work = change in surface energy
W T A
W T 8 R 2 r 2
Where T is surface tension
R is final radius
7
R is initial radius cm
2
2
7
36960 40 8 R2
2
R 7cm
Q54. Two forces F1 and F2 are acting on a body. One force has magnitude thrice that of the other force
and the resultant of the two forces is equal to the force of larger magnitude. The angle between
1
F1 and F2 is cos1 . The value of n is……..
n
Ans. 6
Sol. let | F1 | F
| F2 | 3F
And magnitude of resultant of two forces is equal to the force of larger magnitude.
| F1 F2 | 3F
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-29
2 2
F2 3F 2.F.3F cos 3F
1
cos
6
1
cos1
6
n 6
| n | 6
Q55. A alternating current at any instant is given by i 6 56 sin 100t / 3 A . The rms value of
the current is……….A.
Ans. 8
Sol. i 6 56 sin 100t
3
2
2
i dt
i2
irms
dt
2
irms 62 56 sin2 100t 2 6 56 sin 100 t
3 3
2 56
irms 36 64
2
irms 64 8A
Q56. A hydrogen atom changes its state from n = 3 to n = 2. Due to recoil, the percentage change in
the wave length of emitted light is approximately 1 10 n . The value of n is…….
[Given Rhc 13.6 eV, hc 1242 eV nm, h 6.6 1034 J s mass of the hydrogen atom
1.6 1027 kg
Ans. 7
Sol. n=3
1 1
E 13.6 2 2 ev
2 3
n=2
E 1.9 eV
Without considering recoil
hc
E
Considering recoil
'
m
From concentration of momentum
h
mv
'
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-30
h
v
m '
2
1 h hc
Also, E m
2 m '
2 h2
E ' hc '
2m
0
4Eh2
hc h2c 2
' 2m
2E
' can’t be negative
2E
hc hc 1
' mc 2
2E
1/2
2E
1 1 2
' mc
hc / E 2
E
1 1
' mc 2 E
mc
2
' E
1
2mc 2
' E
2mc 2
' 1.9 1.6 1019
2 1.67 10 27 9 1016
'
10 9
%ge change
'
100 107
Alternate
1 1
E 13.6 2 2
2 3
E 1.9eV
hc
& 1
E
Considering recoil of atom.
'
P=mv
h o
mv '
'
h
mv
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-31
h h E
v
m hc mc
m
E
1 hc
E mv 2
2 '
2
1 E hc
E m
2 mc '
E2 hc
E
2mc 2 '
hc E
E 1 2
' 2mc
hc hc E
1
' 2mc 2
1
' E E
1 2
1
2mc 2mc 2
' E
2mc 2
1.9 16. 1019
2 1.67 10 27 9 1016
'
109
%ge 107%
Q57. Two wavelengths 1 and 2 are used in Young’s double slit experiment. 1 450 nm and
2 650 nm . The minimum order of fringe produced by 2 which overlaps with the fringe
produced by 1 is n. The value of n is………
Ans. 9
Sol. n1 1 n2 2
n2 1 450 9
n1 2 650 13
The minimum order of fringe produced by 2 which overlaps with the fringe produced by 1 .
n2 9
Q58. Twelve wires each having resistance 2 are joined to form a cube. A 6V
battery of 6V emf is joined across point a and c. The voltage difference b c
between e and f is……….V.
a
d
e f
h g
Ans. 1
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (4th April-First Shift)-MPC-32
Sol. b
c
a d
e
f
h
g
b
a f c
h
From symmetry we can say that current in resistor b-e and d-g will be zero.
b
e
i1
a i2 f c
h
i1
g
6V
Equivalent resister between a & c is
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3R 3
2 1.5
4 4
6 6
i 4A
R eq 1.5
6
i2 1A
3R
i2 1
Current through resistance e-f will be A
2 2
1
Potential difference Vef 2 1V
2
current is placed in x-y plane with its edges parallel to the x-y
axes, as shown in figure. The magnitude of the net magnetic force
experienced by the loop is……mN.
(0,0) x
2m
Ans. 50
Sol. y
F2
F4 F3
2m
F1
x
2m
F1 F2 ( magnetic field is only function of x)
F4 iB 0.5 0.5 0.2 1 2 2
F4 0.25N
F3 iB
F3 0.5 0.5 0.2 1 2 2.5
F3 0.30N
Net force F3 F4 N
0.30 0.25 N
0.05N
50 mN
Q60. An infinite plane sheet of charge having uniform surface charge density s C / m2 is placed on x-y
plane. Another infinitely long line charge having uniform linear charge density e C / m is placed
at z = 4m plane and parallel to y-axis. If the magnitude values s 2 e then at point 0,0,2 ,
the ratio of magnitudes of electric field values due to sheet charge to that of line charge is
n : 1 . The value of n is……..
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Ans. 16
Sol. y
*s
e
r=2m x
Eline
(0, 0, 2)
E sheet
(0, 0, 4)
Ratio of magnitude of electric filed values due to sheet charge to that of line change is
E sheet / 2 0
s
ELine e / 20r
s r
e
2 e r
| s | 2 | e |
e
2r
2 2
4 16
n 16
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PART – C (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
HO HO
HO HO
(C) (D)
HO OH
HO OH
CH2OH CH2OH
Ans. A
Sol. Structure of L glucose is
CHO
HO
OH
HO
HO
CH2OH
Q62. What will be decreasing order of basic strength of the following conjugate bases?
OH.RO,CH3 COO,Cl
(A) Cl RO OH CH3 COO (B) RO OH CH3 COO Cl
(C) OH RO CH3 COO Cl (D) Cl OH RO CH3COO
Ans. B
Sol. conjugate base of strong acid are weak bases
Acidic strength
H Cl CH3COOH H2O R OH
Conjugate base strength
Cl CH3 COO OH R O
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Q63. Number of elements from the following that CANNOT form compounds with valencies which
match with their respective group valencies is__________________.
B, C, N, S, O, F, P, Al, Si
(A) 3 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 6
Ans. A
Sol. N,O and F cannot extend their valancies up to their group number due to non- availability of
vacant d orbital
Q64. The element which shows only one oxidation state other than its elemental form is:
(A) Nickel (B) Scandium
(C) Titanium (D) Cobalt
Ans. B
Sol. Sc atomic no 21 3d1 4s2 shows only +3 oxidation state
Ti, Co and Ni show +2, +3 & +4 oxidation state
3
Q65. Number of molecules / ions from the following in which the central atom is involved in sp
hybridzation is_____________.
NO3 ,BCl3 ,ClO 2 ,ClO3
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
Ans. D
Sol.
O Cl Cl Cl
O N B Cl O O
O Cl O O O
2 2 3 3
Sp Sp Sp Sp
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O O O O
N N
H
+
+ H + E effect
+ CN - E effect
CN
Q67. The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution containing 5.85 g of NaCl in 500 mL water is:
(Given: Molar Mass Na: 23 and Cl: 35.5 gmol1)
(A) 0.2 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 20
Ans. A
5.85
Sol. Moles of NaCl 0.1
58.5
500
Volume of solution 0.5litre
1000
Number of moles 0.1
Molarity 0.2
V(litre) 0.5
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H
Zn Hg
Product
HCl
(A) (B)
OH OH
(C) (D)
OH O
Ans. A
Sol. O
H
(Clemmensen reduction)
Zn Hg
HCl
Q70. One of the commonly used electrode is calomel electrode. Under which of the following
categories,
Calomel electrode comes?
(A) Gas Ion electrodes
(B) Metal ion Metal electrodes
(C) Oxidation Reduction electrodes
(D) Metal Insoluble Salt Anion electrodes
Ans. C
Sol. Calomel electrode is metal in soluble salt anion electrode
Q71. What pressure (bar) of H2 would be required to make emf of hydrogen electrode zero in pure
o
water at 25 C?
(A) 107 (B) 1
(C) 1014 (D) 0.5
Ans. D
Sol. 2H aq 2e H2 (g)
0.0591 PH2
E E0 log 2
n H
.0591 PH2
0 0 log 2
2
10 7
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PH2
log 0
7 2
10
PH2
1
10 14
PH2 1014 bar
Q73. In the precipitation of the group (III) in qualitative analysis. Ammonium chloride is added before
adding ammonium hydroxide to:
(A) Increase concentration of Cl ions (B) Decrease concentration of OH ions
(C) Increase concentration of NH4+ ions (D) Prevent interference by phosphate ion
Ans. B
Sol. NH4Cl NH4 Cl
NH4OH
NH4 OH
Due to common ion effect of NH4 dissociation of NH4OH is suppressed so concentration of OH
decreases so that group III cation can be precipitated.
Q74. Which of the following nitrogen containing compound does not give Lassaigne’s test?
(A) Phenyl hydrazine (B) Glycene
(C) Urea (D) Hydrazine
Ans. D
Sol. Hydragine NH2 NH2 have no carbon atom so it does not give lassaigne test.
Q75. Number of complexes from the following with even number of unpaired “d” electrons is__
[V(H2O)6]3+, [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Ni(H2O)6]3+, [Cu(H2O)6]2+
[Given atomic numbers: V= 23, Cr=24, Fe=26, Ni = 28 Cu=29]
(A) 1 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) 4
Ans. C
3
Sol. V H2O
6
V 23 Ar 3d3 4s2
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V 3 Ar 3d2 .sp3 d2
Number of unpaired electron = 2 (even)
2
Cr H2O
6
Cr 24 Ar 3d5 4s1
Cr 2 Ar 3d4 .Sp3 d2
Number of unpaired electron = 4 (even)
3
Fe H2O
6
Fe 26 Ar 3d6 4s2
Fe 3 Ar 3d5 .sp3 d2
Number of unpaired electron 5
3
Ni H2O
6
Ni 28 Ar 3d8 4s 2
Ni3 Ar 3d7 .sp3 d2
Number of unpaired electron =3
2
Cu H2O
6
Cu 29 Ar 3d10 4s1
Cu2 Ar 3d9 . sp3 d2
Number of unpaired electron 1
Q76. Which one of the following molecules has maximum dipole moment?
(A) PF5 (B) CH4
(C) NF3 (D) NH3
Ans. D
Sol. CH4 & PF5 molecule without lone pair so net dipole moment 0
N N
H H F F
H F
Vector addition of bond Vector subtraction of bond
moment and lone pair moment and lone pair
Q77.
CH2Br
NaOH(alc) HBr
B Ether C
Br
A
Identify B and (C) and how are A and C related ?
Br
; chain isomers
(A) Br Br
B C
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Br
Br
; Derivative
(B)
HO HO
B C
Br OH
; Functional group isomers
(C) HO HO
B C
Br
; Position isomers
(D)
Br Br
B C
Ans. D
Sol. (B)
CH2 Br
CH2 NaOH(alc)
E2
Br
(A)
HBr
Electrophilic
addition
Br
Br
(C)
A & C are position isomer
Q78. Identify the correct set of reagents or reaction conditions ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following set of
transformation.
'X' 'Y'
CH3 CH2 CH2 Br Product CH3 CH CH3
Br
(A) X = conc.alc. NaOH, 80oC, Y= HBr / acetic acid
(B) X = conc.alc. NaOH, 80oC, Y= Br2 / CHCl3
(C) X = dil.aq. NaOH, 20oC, Y= HBr / acetic acid
o
(D) X= dil.aq. NaOH, 20 C, Y= Br2 / CHCl3
Ans. A
Sol. x= Conc. alc NaOH
CH3 CH2 CH2 Br CH3 CH CH2
80 °C
Y= HBr / Acetic acid
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Q79. The correct sequence of ligands in the order of decreasing field strength is :
(A) OH F NH3 CN (B) NCS EDTA 4 CN CO
(C) CO H2O F S2 (D) S2 OH EDTA 4 CO
Ans. C
Sol. According to spectrochemical series correct ligand field strength is
CO H2O F S2
Q80. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy values of the following elements is:
(a) O
(b) N
(c) Be
(d) F
(e) B
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) c < e < a < b < d (B) e < c < a <b < d
(C) b < d < c < e < a (D) a < b < d < c<e
Ans. B
Sol. Correct order of 1st ionization energy
B < Be < O < N < F
e<c<a<b<d
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
(II) (VII)
(III) (VIII)
(IV)
(IX)
(V)
Q82. Consider the following transformation involving first order elementary reaction in each step at
constant temperature as shown below.
Step 1 Step 2
A+B C P
Step 3
Some details of the above reaction are listed below.
Step Rate constant (sec-1) Activation energy (kJ mol-1)
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1 k1 300
2 k2 200
3 k3 Ea3
k1 k 2
If the overall rate constant of the above transformation (k) is given as k and the overall
k3
-1
activation energy (Ea) is 400kJ mol , then the value of Ea3 is ____ kJ mol1 (nearest integer)
Ans. 100
K K
Sol. K 1 2
K3
Ea1 Ea2
Ea
A e RT A 2 e RT
Ae RT 1
A 3 e Ea3 /RT
Ea
Ea1 Ea2 Ea3
A A
Ae RT 1 2e RT
A3
Ea Ea E a2 Ea3
400 300 200 Ea3
Ea3 100
Q83. Number of molecules / species from the following having one unpaired electron is______.
O 2 ,O 2 1,NO,CN1,O 22 .
Ans. 2
Sol. According to molecular orbital theory
O2 have 2 unpaired electron
O 2 have 1 unpaired electron
NO have 1 unpaired electron
CN have 0 unpaired electron
O22 have 0 unpaired electron
Q85. X g of ethylamine is subjected to reaction with NaNO2 / HCl followed by water, evolvleld
dinitrogen gas which occupied 2.24 L volume at STP. X is __________ 101 g.
Ans. 45
NaNO2 / HCl
Sol. CH3 CH2NH2 CH3 CH2 OH N2
H2O
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VN2 2.24Litre
2.24
nN2 0.1mole
22.4
Moles of CH3 CH2 NH2 0.1
Mass of CH3 CH2 NH3 45 0.1
4.5 gm
45 101 gm
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Q86. The de-Broglie’s wavelength of an electron in the 4th orbit is__________ a0
( a0 = Bohr’s radius)
Ans. 8
Sol. Radius of 4th orbit = 16 a0
2rn n
2 16a0 4
2 16a0
4
8a0
Q87. The number of the correct reaction(s) among the following is__________.
O
C
Cl CH2
(A) + Anhyd. AlCl3
O
C
Cl COOH
(B) H2
Pd- BaSO4
CHO
CO,HCl
(C)
Anhyd.AlCl3 / CuCl
CONH2 NH2
H3O+
(D)
Ans. 1
Sol. Only reaction in (C) is correct
CHO
CO, HCl
Anhyd AlCl3/ CuCl
Gatterman-Koch reaction
o
Q88. 2.5g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte is dissolved in 100g of water at 25 C. The solution showed
o
a boiling point elevation by 2 C. Assuming the solute concentration is negligible with respect to
the solvent concentration, the vapour pressure of the resulting aqueous solution is______mm of
Hg(nearest integer)
[Given: Molal boiling point elevation constant of water (Kb) =0.52 Kg mol-11atm pressure =
760 mm of Hg, molar mass of water = 18 g mol-1]
Ans. 707
Sol. T K bm
2 0.52 m
2
m
52
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P n
0
X solute solute
P nsolvent
2 / 0.52
P 760
1000 / 18
760 2 18
P
0.52 1000
P 52.615 mm of Hg
Psolution 760 52.615
707.385
707
Q89. The enthalpy of formation of ethane (C2H6) from ethylene by addition of hydrogen where the
bond- energies of C-H,C-C,C=C,H-H are 414 kJ, 347kJ, 615kJ and 435kJ respectively is
________kJ
Given 1506
Ans. 125
Sol. CH2 CH2 H2 CH3 CH3
H BE C C BE H H BE C C BE 2 C H
615 435 347 2 414
615 435 347 828
1050 1175
125kJ
Q90. Only 2 ml of KMnO4 solution of unknown molarity is required to reach the end point of a titration
of 20 mL of oxalic acid (2M) in acidic medium. The molarity of KMnO4 solution should be
___________ M.
Ans. 8
7
Sol. K MnO4 Mn2 n5
C2O 42 2CO2 n2
n1v1M1 n2 v 2M2
M1 2 5 2 20 2
80
M1
10
M1 8
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