Pearl Program (Std IX)

Preparatory Program -Dr Homi Bhabha Bal

Vaidyanik Examination 2017

Year 2016 Test Paper Date – 25 Aug 2017

Max Marks – 100 Time:1.30 Mins

Q. 1. A book is kept vertically initially and then it

is kept horizontally in the sand. In this case, which
statement is false among the following?
1) The book will exert unequal force in both the
situations.
2) Different pressure will be created in both the
situations.
1) Negative charge will create at point 'X' and
3) The book will exert equal force in both the positive charge at point 'Y'.
situations.
2) Positive charge will create at point 'X' and
4) The pressure created in vertical position of the negative charge at point 'Y'.
book is greater than the pressure created in the
3) Positive charge will create at point 'X' and no
horizontal position.
charge at point 'Y'.
Q. 2. When an object is kept between two plane
4) No charge will create at points 'X' and 'Y'.
mirrors making certain angle, 5 images are formed.
What is the measure of the angle between the two Q. 7. Among the following, which physical quantity
plane mirrors? has no unit?

1) 72° 2) 90° 3) 120° 4) 60° 1) Upthrust 2) Gravitation

Q. 3. Which of the following physical quantities is 3) Specific gravity 4) Density

useful to determine the purity of an element? Q. 8. In the adjoining diagram, the pendulum is
1) Mass 2) Volume 3) Density 4) Weight in motion. What type of energy of pendulum at point
'A' is shown in the diagram?
Q. 4. The weight of an object on Mars is 348 N.
Then what will be the mass of the-object?
1) 100 kg 2) 100 gm 3) 3.48 kg 4) 348 kg
Q. 5. What will be the power of an engine from the
following, if it is working at the rate of 60 joule/min?
1) 60 watt 2) 10 watt 3) 0.1 watt 4) 1 watt
Q. 6.As shown in the diagram, the chargeless
object Q is brought near the charged object P.
Then determine which statement is correct from the 1) Only kinetic energy 2) Only potential energy
following about the charge at points X and Y on an
3) Both, kinetic and potential energy
object Q.
4) Zero energy

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Q. 9. The force of action and reaction do not nullify Q. 13. The construction of submarine is based on
the effect of each other. In this case which 1) law of gravitation 2) law of inertia
statement is false from the following?
3) Pascal's law 4) Archimedes' principle
1) Both the forces are applied on the same object.
Q. 14. Indentify the diagram showing the correct
2) Both the forces are applied in opposite direction. way of light ray passing through a orism?
3) Both the forces are applied at the same time.
4) These forces are applied on different objects.
Q. 10. In the adjoining diagram, a pot is rilled with
water. P, Q, R and S are the points as shown in the
diagram. About liquid pressure at P and Q which
statement is correct from the following?

Q. 15. The 'Velocity — Time' graph of an object in

motion is given below. Observe it carefully and
determine the acceleration of the object.

1) Liquid pressure at both points P and Q is equal.

2) Liquid pressure at points P and Q is different
3) Liquid pressure at points P and Q
is greater than the pressure at point R.
4) Liquid pressure at point S is less than the
pressure of liquid at points P and Q.
Q. 11.Which factor from the following remain
constant while propagation of sound wave through
the given medium?
1) Pressure of medium 2) Density of medium
3) Energy of particles of medium
Q. 16. Two substances having equal mass and
4) Mass of particles of medium
different velocities collide with each other.
Q. 12. Aquatic creatures in the poler region Determine the correct equation related to
remain alive under water during the extreme conservation of momentum.
weather conditions in the winter season. Which
1) u1 + v1 = u2 + v2 2) u1 – v1 = v2 - u2
mode of transmission of heat must be responsible
1
for this? 4) u1 — V = u2 — v2 4) mu1 — mu2 — mv1 + m v2
1) Conduction 2) Radiation Q. 17. In which range of age, human being can
hear sound upto 25,000 Hz from the following?
3) Convection 4) All of all above
1) 1 to 4 years 2) 10 to 50 years
2) 60 to 90 years 4) 90 to 100 years
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Q. 18. In which pair, units of given physical 3) From the point R, the source cannot be seen
quantities are different?
4) Full source can be seen from point S
1) speed, velocity 2) energy, work
Q. 24. Determine the correct group of magnetic
3) density, volume 4) weight, force substances from the following:
Q. 19. The object P is in circular motion. Choose 1) Cobalt 2) Steel 3) Manganese 4) Nickel
the correct diagram showing the direction of the
1) 1, 3, 4 2) 2, 3, 4 3) 1, 2, 3 4) 1, 2, 4
motion of an object P from given below.
Q. 25. A stone is released with acceleration 'a'
from an upwardy moving left. Find out the
acceleration and direction of the stone.
1) a in upward direction
2) (g — a) in downward direction

Q. 20. The frequency of the soundwave is 500 Hz 3) (g — a) in upward direction

and speed of sound is 125 m/s. Find the 4) g in downward direction
wavelength of the soundwave.
Q. 26. What does the moving charge create from
1) 0.25 m 2) 2.5 m 3) 4m 4) 25 m the following?
Q. 21. The mass of object X is M and that of 1) Only an electric field 2) Only the magnetic field
object Y is M2. Keeping their kinetic energy
constant, if the velocity of object Y is doubled the 3) Both 1) and 2) 4) An evacuated field
velocity of object X, what will be the relation Q. 27. A car covers 5,000 m in 3 minutes. What
between their masses? will be its speed in km/hr?
1) M1 = 2M2 2) 4M1 - M2 1) 120 2) 100 3) 15 4) 30
3) M1 = 4M2 4) 2M1 = M2 Q. 28. A person of weight 60 units goes at the
Q. 22. A boy standing at a distance of 172.5 m distance % times of the radius of the Earth towards
from the base of a tower shouted 'hello'. After what the center (of the Earth). Determine the person's
time the boy can hear the echo, if the speed of weight at that place from the following.
sound is 345 m/s. 1) 60 units 2) 45 units 3) 30 units 4) 15 units
1) 0.5 s. 2) 1 s 3) 1.5 s. 4) 2 s. Q. 29. If a bar magnet is divided into two equal
Q. 23. What will be your correct observation from parts, what will be the effect on their magnetism?
the following if you see towards the object from the 1) Magnetism of each bar magnet will be twice of
points P, Q, R and S shown in the given diagram? previous magnetism.
2) Magnetism will not change.
3) Magnetism will be half of the previous
magnetism.
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4) Magnetism will be 4 times of the previous
magnetism.
Q. 30. 5 cm x 3 cm x 2 cm. are the dimensions of a
cuboidal block and its mass is 50 gm. The density
of liquid in which it floats must of ________.
3 3
1) The full Source can be seen from point P 1) 1.5 gm/cm 2) 1.75 m/cm
3 3
2) The source cannot be seen from point Q 3) 1.3 gm/cm 4) 0.6 gm/cm
3
Q. 31. Which of the following are not paired 3) Blue litmus turns red and red litmus turns blue
correctly?
4) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains
1) Baking soda — Sodium Bicarbonate blue.
2) Calamine — Zinc Carbonate Q. 38. Which of the following metals does not
posses variable valency?
3) Slaked lime — Calcium oxide
1) Copper 2) Iron 3) Lead 4) Sodium
3) Blue vitriol — Copper sulphate
1
Q. 39. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
Q. 32. The elements with atomic numbers 3, 11,
19, 37 and 55 are all termed as ______. 1) Vinegar — Carbonic acid
1) Noble metals 2) Alkali metals 2) Tamarind — Tartaric acid
3) Noble gases 4) Alkaline Earth metals 3) Butter milk — Lactic acid
Q. 33. What changes will be observed if acetic 4) Lemon juice — Citric acid
acid is added to distilled water in a test tube and is
Q. 40. How many molecules of glucose are
shaken for a while?
present in 360 grn of glucose?
1) A clear transparent clourless solution will be 24 23
1) 1.2044 x 10 2) 6.022 x 10
seen.
23 24
3) 1.2044 x 10 4) 1.8066 x l0
2) A clear transparent pink solution will be seen.
Q. 41. A species 'X' contains 15 protons, 18
3) A precipitate setting at the bottom of the test
electrons and 16 neutrons. Identify the species 'X' .
tube.
1) A neutral atom 2) An anion
4) Two distinct layers are seen.
3) A cation 4) None of these
Q. 34. A sample of an element Y contains two
16 18
isotopes 8Y and 8Y. If the average atomic mass Q. 42. Which among the following has the
of the element is 16.40, the ratio of the atoms strongest intermolecular force?
would be how much? 1) Carbon dioxide 2) Sodium carbonate
1) 3:4 2) 1 : 4 3) 4:1 4) 4:3 3) Bromine 4) Sodium chloride
Q. 35. What is the molecular mass of Na2CO3? Q. 43. The correct order of increasing number of
1) 52 u 2) 106 u 3) 128 u 4) 112 u protons is _______

Q. 36. Which of the following elements are liquid 1) K, I, Cl, Br, Ar 2) K, Cl, Br, I, Ar
at room temperature? 3) Cl, Ar, K, Br, I 4) Ar, K, Cl, Br, I
1) Mercury 2) Bromine 3) Gallium 4) Q. 44. If liquid mixture of air containing Krypton,
Iodine Neon, Nitrogen and Oxygen is fractionally distilled.
1) 1, 2, 3 2) 1, 2 3) 1, 2, 4 4) All of The order of gases distilling out will be
these 1) Krypton, Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen
Q. 37. After burning magnesium ribbon in air, its 2) Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Krypton
residue is dissolved in water and blue and red
litmus paper dipped into the liquid. What change 3) Nitrogen, Neon, Oxygen, Krypton
will you observe? 4) Oxygen, Neon, Nitrogen, Krypton
1) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red
2) Blue litmus remains blue and red litmus remains
red

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Q. 45. What is the chemical name of Na2S2O3? 2) Change in temperature
1) Sodium sulphate 2) Sodium bisulphate 3) Change in volume 4) Change in humidity
3) Sodium sulphurous acid 4) Sodium Q. 53. Choose the correct option to match group
thiosulphate A and group B.
Q. 46. Which of the following gases are lighter
than air?
Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, Sulphur
dioxide
1) Hydrogen, Carbon dioxide
2) Ammonia, Hydrogen
1) (i, c), (ii, a), (iii, b) 2) (i, b), (ii, c), (iii, a)
3) Hydrogen, Sulphur dioxide
3) (i, b), (ii, a), (iii, c) 4) (i, a), (ii, c), (iii, b)
4) Ammonia, Carbon dioxide
Q. 54. Which of the following is Buckminster fuller
Q. 47. An element 'X' forms an oxide with formula
(Fullerence)?
X2O5 . What will be the formula of its chloride?
1) An isomer of Carbon 2) An isotope of Carbon
1) X,CL 2) X5Cl2 3) XCl1 4) XCl
3) An allotrope of Carbon
Q. 48. Electronic configurations of some elements
are given below. Which element is most reactive 4) A functional group of Carbon
among them?
Q. 55. Which of the following substance is used
1) (2, 8, 7) 2) (2, 8, 6) 3) (2, 7) 4) (2, 6) as antacid?
Q. 49. Which of the following is the conversion of 1) NaCl 2) Mg (OH)2 3) HC1 4) H2SO4
113 °F in the Kelvin scale?
Q. 56. On which factor the strength of any acid
1) 318 K 2) 386 K 3) 45 K 4) 273 K depends?
Q. 50. Gun powder is the mixture of which of the 1) Density of the acid.
following substances?
2) Number of Oxygen atoms present in it.
1) Sulphur, Potassium nitrate, Charcoal
3) Number of Hydrogen atoms present in it.
2) Posphorous, Potassium nitrate, Charcoal
4) Concentration of H+ ions furnished by the acid.
3) Ammonium chloride, Potassium nitrate, Sulphur
Q. 57. Identify 'P' in the following balanced
4) Sulphur, Sodium nitrate, Charcoal chemical reaction.
Q. 51. Which of the following substances make 2NaHC03 + H2S04 -> P + H2O + CO2
water hard?
1) Na2CO3 2) Na2SO4 3) NaHSO4 4) Na(SO4)2
i) Sodium chloride ii) Sodium sulphate
Q. 58. Observe the figure and identify at which
iii) Calcium chloride iv) Calcium sulphate place on the nail, the deposition of copper will take
place first.
v) Potassium chloride vi) Magnesium sulphate
1) i, ii, v 2) i, iii, v 3) iii, iv, vi 4) ii, iv, vi
Q. 52, On which factor, the rate of the
evaporation doesn't depend?
1) Change in surface area

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 Q. 64. Find the odd one out on the basis of their
solubility.
1) Vitamin C 2) Vitamin A
3) Vitamin E 4) Vitamin K
Q. 65. Which of the following has three
chambered heart?
1) Owl 2) Shark fish 3) Rat 4) Toad
Q. 66. Human Nervous System is divided into
1) At -point P 2) At point R
1) C.N.S., P.N.S., A.N.S. 2) C.N.S., P.N.S.
3) At point Q 4) Any where on the surface of nail
3) C.N.S, M.N.S., P.N.S. 4) C.N.S., A.N.S.
Q. 59. Why do we pucker our lips when we blow a
flame? Q. 67. Which chemical makes the walls of cells of
cork impermeable to gases and water?
1) To increase the amount of C02 in the air passing
out through mouth 1) Tanin 2) Auxins 3) Suberin 4) Gibberellin

2) To increase the pressure on air passing out Q. 68. Blood is an example of________ m
through mouth
1) epithelial tissue 2) merestematic tissue
3) To increase the temperature of air passing out
3) connective tissue 4) sclerenchyma tissue
through mouth
Q. 69. Identify the correct equation of
4) All of the above
photosynthesis reaction.
Q. 60. Identify the chemical component present in
chillies that makes them taste pungent?
1) Thiocynate 2) Lacrimator
3) Capsicin 4) Alkali amide
Q. 61. Identify the micro-nutrients from the
followings.
1) Molybdenum and Boron
2) Magnesium and Potassium
3) Sulphur and Phosphorus Q. 70. Cell of Mycoplasma galliseptium is an
example of _________
4) Potassium and Carbon
1) smallest cell 2) thinnest cell
Q. 62. pH of human blood is ________.
3) longest cell 4) largest cell
1) 7.3 to 7.4 2) 8.3 to 8.4
Q. 71. On the basis of blooming criteria, select
3) 7.0 4) 6.3 to 6.4 the odd one out.
Q. 63. Who is known as the father of 'White 1) Lotus 2) Hibiscus 3) Marigold 4) Tube-rose
Revolution?
1) Prof. Albert Kurien 2) Prof. William Kurien
3) Prof. Verghese Kurien 4) Prof. Robert Brown

6
Q. 72. Observe the figure of human brain and Q. 80. Who established 'Theory of Natural
identify the vision and thought area. Selection'?
1) Lamark 2) Darwin 3) Robert Hooke
4)Leeuwenhoek
Q. 81. Nephron is the structural and functional
unit of _______.
1) brain 2) kidney 3) liver 4) testis
Q. 82. Which pair of diseases is not caused by
fungus?
1) Rust and Ergot 2) Ergot and Leaf spot
3) Bunchy top and Wilt 4) Wilt and Rust
Q. 83. Wucheria belongs to Phylum ___;___.
1) P and Q 2) R and S 3) T and P 4) Q and R 1) Echinodermata 2) Nemathelmihthes
Q. 73. Which of the following is connecting link of 3) Coelenterata 4) Arthropoda
Phylum Annelida and Arthropoda?
Q. 84. Select the correct example of Division
1) Petromyzon 2) Balanoglossus Pteridophyta.
3) Peripatus 4)Ichthyophis 1) Funaria 2) Marsilea 3) Riccia 4) Marchantia
Q. 74. The shrinkage of cytoplasm in animal cell Q. 85. . Which of the following grass is not
can takes place if it is placed in________. cultivated as a fodder?
1) hypertonic solution 2) isotonic solution 1)Sudan 2) Rhodes 3) Barseem 4) Parthenium
3)hypotonic solution 4) neutral solution Q. 86. Filariasis is ________.
Q. 75. Who modified the classification of kingdom 1) an epidemic 2) a pandemic
plantae by adding two subkingdom cryptogams and
phanerogams? 3) an endemic disease 4) a chronic disease •

1) Etcher 2) Johannes Purkinje Q. 87. In which of the following pairs, the mode of
reproduction is 'Binary Fission'.
3) M. J. Schleinden 4) D. Fletcher
1) Euglena, Paramoecium 2) Hydra, Paramoecium
Q. 76. Nephridia is main excretory organ of
3) Planaria, Hydra 4) Spirogyra, Amoeba
1) prawn 2) earthworm 3) scorpion 4) round worm
Q. 88. Insects have ________ and ________.
Q. 77. Lipids are produced in _______.
1) 2 wings, 4 appandages
1) smooth endoplasmic reticulum 2) nucleus
2) 4 wings, 6 appandages
3) ribosomes 4) rough endoplasmic reticulum
3) 2 wings, 6 appandages
Q. 78. Identify the 'hermaphrodite' animal from
the given alternatives. 4) 4 wings, 4 appandages

1) Leech 2) Sea-Cucumber 3) Spider 4) Platypus Q. 89. Observe the figure and select the correct
label for P and Q
Q. 79. Human Immunodeficiency Virus attack the
_______ in the human blood.
1) R.B.Cs 2) W.B.Cs 3) Platelets 4) Plasma

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 Question numbers 96 to 100 are based on the
paragraph given below and related general
knowledge. Read the paragraph carefully and
answer the questions.
The 'SWAYAM' satellite designed and built by
students of the College of Engineering in Pune
(COEP) is lauched by ISRO from Sriharikota by
nd
1) P - Stolon, Q - Columella polar satellite launch vehicle on 22 June 2016
successfully. The cube shaped satellite has very
2) P - Rhizoid, Q - Stolon
low weight with height 10 centimeter. Building a
3) P — Apophysis, Q — Rhizoid picosatellite, assembling all the mechanism within 2
W power and to function these machineries with
4) P — Collarette, Q — Sporangiophore
least energy usage. All these challenges were
Q. 90. Who belongs to both the classes of living successfully tackled by the students. For this
things- plants and animals? purpose 6 solar pannels were used, which will help
1) Hydra 2) Chara 3) Amoeba 4) Euglenaa recharge the Lithium battery again and again. With
the help of a technique called Passive Magnetic
Q. 91. Which is the sixth state of matter, invented Control, the orientation of satellite is controlled
by scientists in Cambridge? and stabalised in the orbit without any power
1) Quassy particles 2) Majerena fermion consumption. Receiving messages, storing them
3) Quantum spin liquid 4) Gold particles and transmiting them from one corner of the

Q. 92. This group of plants is used as 'Pollution globe to the other is the main purpose of
Indicators' in cities and near industries, as they are 'SWAYAM'.
more sensitive to air pollution. Q. 96. By which vehicle the 'SWAYAM' satellite
1) Mango, Panagra (Indian Coral tree), Sunflower was launched?
2)Saptaparni (Indian devitree), Chikoo, Banyan 1) PSLV - C30 2) PSLV - C34 3) PSLV - C23 4) PSLV - C35
3)Rui (Calatropis), Pipal, Hibiscus
Q. 97. What is the approximate weight and
4) Money plant, Rubber plant, Casurina -' volume of 'SWAYAM' satellite?
Q. 93. INRSS-1 G '(an Indian satellite) is mainly 1) 1 kg, 100 cc 2) 2.5 kg, 100 cc
going to be used for _______ .
3) 1 kg, 1000 cc 4) 2.5 kg, 1000 cc
1) weather forecast 2) education
Q. 98. What is the main purpose of 'SWAYAM'
3) navigation 4) agriculture satellite?
Q. 94. For speedy transportation during organ 1) To receive messages 2) To store messages
transplantation, now-a-days, in "cities _______ is
3) To transmit messages from one ground station
used.
to other. 4) All of the above
1) helicopter 2) drone
Q. 99. Together with 'SWAYAM' how many other
nd
3) ambulance 4) green condor system satellites were launched by ISRO on 22 June?
Q. 95. GPRS is the abbreviation of _______ . 1) 20 2) 18 3) 2 4) 19
1) Global Positioning Radio System Q. 100. _______is the orientation of Geo stationary
satellite 1) In the plane of Earth's equator
2) General Packet Radio Service
2) In the plane of Earth's pole 3) None
3) Global Packet Radio Service
4) In the plane of Earth's equator and pole
4) General Positioning Radar System
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