0% found this document useful (1 vote)
135 views9 pages

Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper Set 2

The Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper is a comprehensive study tool designed to help students prepare effectively for their board exams. It includes a range of questions such as multiple-choice, short-answer, and long-answer types, tailored to the latest CBSE syllabus and marking scheme. Covering key topics like organic chemistry, chemical kinetics, electrochemistry, and coordination compounds, this sample paper reinforces conceptual understanding and problem-solving skills.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (1 vote)
135 views9 pages

Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper Set 2

The Class 12 Chemistry Sample Paper is a comprehensive study tool designed to help students prepare effectively for their board exams. It includes a range of questions such as multiple-choice, short-answer, and long-answer types, tailored to the latest CBSE syllabus and marking scheme. Covering key topics like organic chemistry, chemical kinetics, electrochemistry, and coordination compounds, this sample paper reinforces conceptual understanding and problem-solving skills.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

Series ARSP/02 Set ~ 2

Roll No. Q.P Code 15/2/2


Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 06 printed pages.


 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 33questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

CHEMISTRY

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70


General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. There are 33 questions in this question paper with internal choice.


2. SECTION A consists of 16 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.

3. SECTION B consists of 5 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.

4. SECTION C consists of 7 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.

5. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.

6. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.


7. All questions are compulsory.

8. Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.

Section A
1. Vinylic halides contain: [1]

a) a sp3-hybridized carbon atom, next to an b) a halogen atom bonded to an sp2-hybridized


aromatic ring, to which halogen atom is carbon atom of a carbon-carbon double
bonded. bond.

c) a halogen atom bonded to an sp3-hybridized d) a sp2-hybridized carbon atom of an aromatic

carbon atom next to carbon-carbon double ring which is bonded to a halogen.


bond.
2. The most appropriate base pair in a double helix of DNA is [1]

a) A – T b) A – C

c) C – T d) T – G
3. For the conversion of propene into 1-propanol, which of the following reagents and conditions should be used? [1]

a) B2H6 ; H2O2/OH- b) H2O/H+

c) Dilute H2SO4 d) Conc. H2SO4 ; H2O and heat

4. The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is [1]

a) Benzophenone b) Acetophenone

c) Benzoic acid d) Benzyl alcohol


5. The rate constant for a first order reaction is equal to the initial rate of reaction when the initial concentration of [1]
the reactant is

a) 0.1 M b) 10 M

c) 1 M d) 1 × 10-2 M

6. Match the column and choose correct option [1]

Vant'Hoff factor Behaviour of compound

(a) i = 1 (i) Impossible

(b) i > 1 (ii) Association is the solution

(c) i < 1 (iii) Dissociation in the solution

(d) i = 0 (iv) No dissociation or association

a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) b) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

c) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
7. Isomers of the compound C4H9Br are: [1]

a) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane and 2-Bromo-2- b) 1 – Bromobutane and 2 – Bromobutane


methylbutane

c) 1 – Bromobutane, 2 – Bromobutane, 1 – d) 1 – Bromo - 2 – methylpropane and 2 –


bromo- 2 – methylpropane, and 2 – bromo-2 Bromo - 2 – methylpropane
– methylpropane
8. In the reaction, HgCl 2 + 4KI → A + 2KCl A is: [1]

a) HgI2 b) KHgI3

c) K2[HgI4] d) K2HgI3

[1]
[R]
9. The slope in the plot of log [R]
0
vs. time for a first order reaction is

a) -k b) −k

2.303

c) d) +k
+k

2.303

10. Compounds A and C in the following reaction are ________. [1]


H ydorboration
(i) C H3 MgBr H2 SO4 , Δ ox idation

C H3 C HO −−−−−−−−→ (A) −−−−−−→ (B) −−−−−−−−→ (C )


(ii) H2 O

a) optical isomers b) identical

c) functional isomers d) positional isomers


11. In the reaction [1]

a) Phenols are acidic in nature. b) They can donate a proton to a stronger base

c) Cleavage of O - H bond d) All of these


12. Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous medium is ________. [1]
a) (CH3)2NH b) NCCH2NH2

c) CH3NH2 d) C6H5NHCH3

13. Assertion (A): Glucose and fructose are reducing sugars. [1]
Reason (R): Glucose and fructose contain a free aldehydic and ketonic group adjacent to a >CHOH group
respectively.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


14. Assertion (A): Hydroxyketones are not directly used in the Grignard reaction. [1]
Reason (R): Grignard reagents react with the hydroxyl group.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


15. Assertion (A): Vinyl chloride is less reactive than alkyl chloride. [1]
Reason (R): Stability of alkyl halide decreases as the strength of C-X bond decreases.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


16. Assertion (A): Hydroxylation of ethylene with Baeyer's reagent gives ethylene glycol. [1]
Reason (R): Baeyer's reagent is H2O2 + FeSO4.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


Section B
17. Write the IUPAC name of the ionization isomer of [Ni(NH3)5NO3]Cl. [2]
18. Transition elements show high melting points. Why? [2]
19. Answer the following: [2]
(a) a. Write the mathematical relation between rate constant and half-life of a first order reaction. [1]
b. What is collision frequency?
(b) What is the unit of rate of reaction? [1]
20. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 0.520 g glucose (C6H12O6) dissolved in 80.20 g of water. [2]

(For water Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1)

OR
For a 5% solution of urea (Molar mass = 60 g/mol), calculate the osmotic pressure at 300 K. [R = 0·0821 L atm K-1
mol-1]
21. What happens when acetaldehyde is kept with a trace of sulphuric acid? Write the structure of product. [2]
Section C
22. How much charge is required for the following reductions: [3]
i. 1 mol of Al3+ to Al?
ii. 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu?
iii. 1 mol of M nO to Mn2+?

23. In a pseudo first order hydrolysis of ester in water, the following results were obtained: [3]

t/s 0 30 60 90

[Ester] molL-1 0.55 0.31 0.17 0.085

i. Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds.
ii. Calculate the pseudo first order rate constant for the hydrolysis of ester.
24. Write the reaction and the conditions involved in the conversion of: [3]
i. Propane to 1-propanol
ii. Phenol to salicylic acid
OR
How are the following conversions carried out?
i. Ethanol to 2-propanol
ii. Phenol to Acetophenone
25. An aliphatic compound 'A' with a molecular formula of C3H6O reacts with phenyl hydrazine to give compound [3]

'B'. Reaction of 'A' with I2 in alkaline medium on warming gives yellow precipitate 'C'. Identify the compounds
A, B and C.
26. a. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.0001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500Ω . What is the cell [3]
constant if the conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10 −3
S cm
−1

b. Predict the products of electrolysis in the following:


A solution of H2SO4 with platinum electrode.

27. How the following conversions can be carried out? [3]


i. 2-Methyl-1-propene to 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
ii. Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
iii. But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
28. When a steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells A and B containing electrolytes ZnSO4 [3]
and CuSO4 connected in series, 2g of Cu were deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current

flow? What mass of Zn was deposited at cathode of cell A?

[Atomic mass: Cu = 63.5 g mol-1, Zn = 65 g mol-1; 1F = 96500 C mol-1]


Section D
29. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The unique behaviour of Cu, having a positive E° accounts for its inability to liberate H2 from acids. Only

oxidising acids (nitric and hot concentrated sulphuric) react with Cu, the acids being reduced. The stability of the

half-filled d sub-shell in Mn2+ and the completely filled d10 configuration in Zn2+ are related to their E° values,
whereas E° for Ni is related to the highest negative Δ hyd H°. An examination of the E o
3+ 2+
values the low
(M /M )

value for Sc reflects the stability of Sc3+ which has a noble gas configuration. The comparatively high value for

Mn shows that Mn2+(d5) is particularly stable, whereas a comparatively low value for Fe shows the extra
stability of Fe3+ (d5). The comparatively low value for V is related to the stability of V2+ (half-filled t2g level).

i. Why Zn has high value for M3+/M2+ Standard Electrode Potentials? (1)
ii. Transition metals, despite high E° oxidation, are poor reducing agents. Justify. (1)
iii. Why is Cr2+ reducing and Mn3+ oxidising when both Cr and Mn have d4 configuration? (2)
OR
Why Cu2+ is more stable than Cu+? (2)
30. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Aariv Sharma is very fond of a special drink made by his grandmother using different fruits available in their
hometown. It has an outstanding taste and also provide great health benefits of natural fruits. He thought of
utilizing his grandmother recipe to create a new product in the beverage market that provide health benefits and
also contain fizziness of various soft drinks available in the market.
i. How he can add fizz to the special drink made by his grandmother? (1)
ii. What is the law stated in the chapter that can help Aariv to make his drink fizzy? (1)
iii. What precautions he should take while bottling so that his product does not lose fizz during storage and
handling across long distances? (2)
OR
The mole fraction of helium in a saturated solution at 20oC is 1.2 × 10-6. Find the pressure of helium above

the solution. Given Henry’s constant at 20oC is 144.97 kbar. (2)


Section E
31. Attempt any five of the following: [5]
(a) Deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy? [1]
(b) What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed? [1]
(c) Name the purines present in DNA. [1]
(d) What is anomeric carbon? [1]
(e) Which polymer is stored in the liver of animals? [1]
(f) Define the following as related to proteins: [1]
a. Primary Structure
b. Denaturation
(g) Write the full forms of DNA and RNA. [1]
32. Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds: [5]
i. [C o (N H 3) 6] C l3

ii. [C o(N H 3 )5 C l] C l2
iii. K 3 [F e(C N ) ]
6

iv. K 3 [F e( C2 O4 ) ]
3

v. K 2 [P dC l4 ]

vi. [P t(N H 3 )2 C l (N H2 C H3 )] C l

OR

a. A metal ion Mn+ having d4 valence electronic configuration combines with three bidentate ligands to form a
complex compound. Assuming Δ > P. o

i. Write the electronic configuration of d4 ion.


ii. What type of hybridization will Mn+ ion has?
iii. Name the type of isomerism exhibited by this complex.
b. Using IUPAC norms, write the formula for the following complexes:
i. Tetraaminediaquacobalt(III) chloride
ii. Dibromidobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)platinum(IV) nitrate
33. Identify A and B in the following reactions: [5]

i.

NaGN LiAJ Hi

ii. C H 3 C H2 C H2 Br −−−−→ A −−−−→ B

iii.

OR
i. Give reasons:
a. Although – NH2 group is o/p directing in electrophilic substitution reactions, yet aniline, on nitration gives
good yield of m-nitroaniline.
b. (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3 N in an aqueous solution.
c. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines.
ii. Distinguish between the following:
a. CH3CH2NH2 and (CH3CH2)2 NH

b. Aniline and CH3NH2

You might also like