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dbms mcq1

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29 views

dbms mcq1

Uploaded by

dhana lalitha
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.

A) Keys B) Translators C) Program D) Language Activity


2. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
A) Relations B) Domains C) Queries D) All of the above
3. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
A) Entity B) Attribute C) Relationship D) Notation
4. DFD stands for
A) Data Flow Document B) Data File Diagram C) Data Flow Diagram D) Non of the above
5. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
A) Hierarchical schema B) Network schema C) Relational Schema D) All of the above
6. ……………… table store information about database or about the system.
A) SQL B) Nested C) System D) None of these
7. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain
pairs. A) Instance B) Schema C) Program D) Super Key
8. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
A) Select B) Group-by C) Having D) Order by
9. A logical schema
A) is the entire database B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk. D) All of the above
10. ………………… is a full form of SQL. A) Standard query language
B) Sequential query language C) Structured query language D) Server side query language
11) A relational database developer refers to a record as
A. a criteria B. a relation C. a tuple D. an attribute
12) ………. keyword is used to find the number of values in a column.
A. TOTAL B. COUNT C. ADD D. SUM
13) An advantage of the database management approach is
A. data is dependent on programs B. data redundancy increases
C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs D. none of the above
14) The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is called as ……
A. schema B. instance of the database C. data domain D. independence
15) Data independence means
A. data is defined separately and not included in programs.
B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data D. both B and C
16) A ……… is used to define overall design of the database
A. schema B. application program C. data definition language D. code
17) Key to represent relationship between tables is called
A. primary key B. secondary key C. foreign key D. none of the above
18) Grant and revoke are ……. statements.
A. DDL B. TCL C. DCL D. DML
19) DBMS helps achieve
A. Data independence B. Centralized control of data C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B
20) ………. command can be used to modify a column in a table
A. alter B. update C. set D. create
Answers:
1. C) Program 2. B) Domains 3. A) Entity 4. C) Data Flow Diagram
5. A) Hierarchical schema 6. C) System 7. B) Schema
8. C) Having
9. B) is a standard .. accessible parts. 10. C) Structured query language 11) C. a tuple
12) B. COUNT 13) C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
14) B. instance of the database 15) D. both B and C 16) A. schema
17) C. foreign key 18) C. DCL 19) D. Both A and B 20) A. alter
1. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ……………..
A) Alternate Key B) Primary Key C) Foreign Key D) None of the above
2. …………….. is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows.
A) Unique predicate B) Like Predicate C) Null predicate D) In predicate
3. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
A) NODUPLICATE B) ELIMINATE C) DISTINCT D) None of these
4. State true or false
i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
A) i-true, ii-false B) i-false, ii-true C) i-true, ii-true D) i-false, ii-false
5. DCL stands for
A) Data Control Language B) Data Console Language C) Data Console Level
D) Data Control Level
6. …………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.
A) Normalization B) Generalization C) Specialization D) None of the above
7. A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are
dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
A) Weak entity B) Strong entity C) Non attributes entity D) Dependent entity
8. …………….. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.
A) Sub string B) Drop Table C) Predict D) Predicate
9. ………………… is preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints B) Stored Procedure C) Triggers D) Cursors
10. The number of tuples in a relation is called its …………. While the number of attributes in a
relation is called it’s ………………..
A) Degree, Cardinality B) Cardinality, Degree C) Rows, Columns D) Columns, Rows
11) The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying
exactly how to get it is A. Procedural DML B. Non-Procedural DML
C. Procedural DDL D. Non-Procedural DDL
12) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. Query languages and utilities B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log D. Data dictionary and query language
13) The database schema is written in
A. HLL B. DML C. DDL D. DCL
14) The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application
uses is a
A. module B. relational model C. schema D. sub schema
15) The relational model feature is that there
A. is no need for primary key data
B. is much more data independence than some other database models
C. are explicit relationships among records. D. are tables with many dimensions
16) Which one of the following statements is false?
A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator
B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
C. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
D. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.
17) Which of the following are the properties of entities?
A. Groups B. Table C. Attributes D. Switchboards
18) Which database level is closest to the users?
A. External B. Internal C. Physical D. Conceptual
19) Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
A. Passive and active B. Total and partial C. Simple and Complex D. All of the above
20) …….. data type can store unstructured data
A. RAW B. CHAR C. NUMERIC D. VARCHAR
Answers:
1. B. Primary Key 2. A. Unique predicate 3. C. DISTINCT
4. C. i-true, ii-true 5. A. Data Control Language 6. A. Normalization
7. A. Weak entity 8. D. Predicate 9. A. Constraints
10. B. Cardinality, Degree 11. B. Non-Procedural DML
12.C. Data dictionary and transaction log 13. C. DDL 14. D. sub schema
15. B. is much more data independence than some other database models
16. B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
17. C. Attributes 18. A. External 19. B. Total and partial 20. A. RAW
1. State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator.
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a relation.
A) i-True, ii-False B) i-True, ii-True C) i-False, ii-True D) i-False, ii-False
2. …………… database is used as template for all databases created.
A) Master B) Model C) Tempdb D) None of the above
3. One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity sub system is to ensure that only valid
values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred to as
A) Data Security B) Domain access C) Data Control D) Domain Integrity
4. ………………….. operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first
relation. A) Join B) Semi-Join C) Full Join D) Inner Join
5. Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?
A) Join B) Semi-Join C) Assignment D) Project
6. Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the DBMS ………….. Duplication and
ensures the consistency and validity of the database.
A) Increases B) Skips C) Does not reduce D) Reduces
7. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements?
A) Create B) Drop C) Alter D) All of the above
8. In snapshot, …………………. clause tells oracle how long to wait between refreshes.
A) Complete B) Force C) Next D) Refresh
9. ……………… defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard
mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
A) Column B) Constraint C) Index D) Trigger
10. For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters. ii) _ matches exactly one character.
A) i-only B) ii-only C) Both of them D) None of them
Answers:
1. C) i-False, ii-True 2. B) Model 3. D) Domain Integrity 4. B) Semi-Join
5. D) Project 6. D) Reduces 7. D) All of the above 8. D) Refresh 9. B) Constraint
10. C) Both of them
1. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and
GRANT statements in a single transaction? A) CREATE PACKAGE
B) CREATE SCHEMA C) CREATE CLUSTER D) All of the above
2. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used
A) to create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and
naming the data files to comprise the tablespace.
B) to create a database trigger. C) to add/rename data files, to change storage
D) All of the above
3. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character string?
A) INSTR B) SUBSTRING C) SUBSTR D) POS
4. Which of the following is TRUE for the System Variable $date$?
A) Can be assigned to a global variable.
B) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
C) Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.
D) Can be assigned to a local variable.
5. What are the different events in Triggers? A) Define, Create
B) Drop, Comment C) Insert, Update, Delete D) Select, Commit
6. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database Structures,
including tables?
A) Data Definition Language B) Data Manipulation Language
C) Data Described Language D) Data Retrieval Language
7. The SQL statement SELECT SUBSTR(‘123456789’, INSTR(‘abcabcabc’,’b’), 4) FROM
EMP; prints
A) 6789 B) 2345 C) 1234 D) 456789
8. Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a database
table?A) MODIFY B) UPDATE C) CHANGE D) NEW
9. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as ……….
A) nested query B) nested programming C) distinct query D) embedded SQL
10. ……………. provides option for entering SQL queries as execution time, rather than at the
development stage. A) PL/SQL B) SQL*Plus C) SQL D) Dynamic SQL
11) The RDBMS terminology for a row is
A. tuple B. relation C. attribute D. degree
12) To change column value in a table the ……… command can be used.
A. create B. insert C. alter D. update
13) The full form of DDL is A. Dynamic Data Language B. Detailed Data Language
C. Data Definition Language D. Data Derivation Language
14) To pass on granted privileges to other user the …… clause is used
A. create option B. grant option C. update option D. select option
15) A set of possible data values is called
A. attribute B. degree C. tuple D. domain
16) ……… is critical in formulating database design. A. row column order
B. number of tables C. functional dependency D. normalizing
17) A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates
A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them
B. Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them
C. Network model between the tables that connect them D. None of the above
18) A …………. represents the number of entities to which another entity can be associated
A. mapping cardinality B. table C. schema D. information
19) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS
A. Query languages and utilities B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log D. Data dictionary and query language
20) A ……….. is a set of column that identifies every row in a table.
A. composite key B. candidate key C. foreign key D. super key
Answers:
1. B) CREATE SCHEMA
2. A) to create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects……….
3. C) SUBSTR 4. B) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
5. C) Insert, Update, Delete 6. A) Data Definition Language 7. B) 2345
8. B) UPDATE 9. D) embedded SQL 10.D) Dynamic SQL
11) A. tuple 12) D. update 13) C. Data Definition Language 14) B. grant option
15) D. domain 16) C. functional dependency
17) A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them
18) A. mapping cardinality 19) C. Data dictionary and transaction log 20) D. super key
1. The relational model is based on the concept that data is organized and stored in two-
dimensional tables called ……………………….
A) Fields B) Records C) Relations D) Keys
2. ……………….. contains information that defines valid values that are stored in a column or
data type. A) View B) Rule C) Index D) Default
3. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement?
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values>
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of values>
A) i-only B) ii-only C) Both of them D) None of them
4. ………………. First proposed the process of normalization.
A) Edgar. W B) Edgar F. Codd C) Edward Stephen D) Edward Codd
5. For using a specific database …………… command is used.
A) use database B) database name use C) Both A &B D) None of them
6. Which of the following is not comparison operator?
A) <> B) < C) =< D) >=
7. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for automatic ………… to the target data.
A) programming B) functioning C) navigation D) notification
8. ………………… is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations & maintains
consistency across the relations.
A) Entity Integrity Constraints B) Referential Integrity Constraints
C) Domain Integrity Constraints D) Domain Constraints E) Key Constraints
9. ……………..specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate.
A) GROUP BY Clause B) HAVING Clause C) FROM Claus D) WHERE Clause
10. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a …………… constraint.
A) Local Key B) Primary Key C) Composite Key D) Foreign Key
Answers:
1. C) Relations 2. C) Index 3. C) Both of them 4. B) Edgar F. Codd
5. A) use database 6. C) =< 7. C) navigation 8. B) Referential…..Constraints
9. B) HAVING Clause 10. D) Foreign Key
1. Processed data is called ………………..
A) Raw data B) Information C) Useful data D) Source
2. …………….. is a utility to capture a continuous record of server activity and provide auditing
capability. A) SQL server Profile B) SQL server service manager
C) SQL server setup D) SQL server wizard.
3. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are called a
A) record B) title C) list D) string
4. …………. contains data assisting day to day activities of the organization.
A) Control database B) Operational database C) Strategic database
D) Sequential database
5. ………………… approach reduces time and effort required for design and lesser risk in
database management. A) Single global database B) Top-down approach
C) Multiple databases D) None of the above
6. HSAM stands for ……….
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method B) Hierarchic Standard Access Method
C) Hierarchic Sequential and Method D) Hierarchic Standard and Method
7. SQL server stores index information in the ………… system table
A) syst indexes B) system indexes C) sysind D) sys indexes
8. The one guideline to be followed while designing the database is
A) A database design may be ambiguous.
B) Unrelated data should be in the same table so that updating the data will be easy.
C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy D) An entity should not have attributes.
9. Which of the following is not a logical database structure?
A) Chain B) Network C) Tree D) Relational
10. ……………. is a preferred method for enforcing data integrity
A) Constraints B) Stored procedure C) Triggers D) Cursors
Answers:
1. B) Information 2. B) SQL server service manager
3. A) record 4. B) Operational database
5. C) Multiple databases 6. A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method
7. D) sys indexes 8. C) It should avoid/reduce the redundancy.
9. A) Chain 10. A) Constraints
1. Reflexivity property says that X – Y is true if Y is ………………….
A) Subset of X B) Null set of X C) Super set of Y D) Subset of Y
2. Anything that affects the database schema is a part of
A) DML
B) DCL
C) DDL
D) All of the above
3. An instance of a relation is a time varying set of ………………….
A) Tuples
B) Rows
C) Both of them
D) None of them
4. In the ………………… mode any record in the file can be accessed at random
A) Sequential access
B) Random access
C) Standard access
D) Source access
5. Which can be used to delete all the rows if a table?
A) Delete * from table_name
B) Delete from table_name
C) Delete table_name
D) all rows cannot be deleted at a time.
6. Which if the following is not the type of data integrity.
A) Key integrity
B) Domain integrity
C) Entity integrity
D) Referential integrity
7. 4NF stands for ..
A) Fourth Normal File
B) Fourth Normal Form
C) Fourth Normal Fraction
D) Fourth Negative File
8. A ……………… allows to make copies of the database periodically to help in the cases of
crashes & disasters.
A) Recovery utility
B) Backup Utility
C) Monitoring utility
D) Data loading utility
9. ………………. Allows definitions and query language statements to be entered; query
results are formatted and displayed.
A) Schema Processor
B) Query Processor
C) Terminal Interface
D) None of the above
10. The main task carried out in the …………… is to remove repeating attributes to separate
tables.
A) First Normal Form
B) Second Normal Form
C) Third Normal Form
D) Fourth Normal Form
Answers:
1. A) Subset of X
2. C) DDL
3. C) Both of them
4. B) Random access
5. A) Delete * from table_name
6. A) Key integrity
7. B) Fourth Normal Form
8. B) Backup Utility
9. C) Terminal Interface
10. D) Fourth Normal Form
1. ………………………. is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.
A) Embedded Programs
B) Dynamic Programs
C) Query Language
D) Static Language Programs
2. The file in DBMS is called as ……………… in RDBMS.
A) console
B) schema
C) table
D) object
3. In ………………… , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.
A) hierarchical databases.
B) network databases
C) object oriented databases
D) relational databases
4. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
A) 2 NF
B) 3 NF
C) 4 NF
D) BCNF
5. What operator tests column for the absence of data?
A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator
6. Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in
order to hide or protect information.
A) Schema
B) Sub-schema
C) Non-schema
D) Non-sub schema
7. Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file
records?
A) File blocks
B) File operators
C) File headers
D) None of these
8. A ……………….. DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and
network server.
A) Network
B) Relational
C) Client Server
D) Hierarchical
9. The ……………….. refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A) database hierarchy
B) data organization
C) data sharing
D) data model
10. …………….. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.
A) trigger
B) assertion
C) durability
D) integrity constraint
Answers:

1. ………………………. is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.


C) Query Language
2. The file in DBMS is called as ……………… in RDBMS.
C) table
3. In ………………… , we have a strict parent-child relationship only.
A) hierarchical databases.
4. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
B) 3 NF
5. What operator tests column for the absence of data?
A) IS NULL operator
6. Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in
order to hide or protect information.
B) Sub-schema
7. Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file
records?
C) File headers
8. A ……………….. DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and
network server.
C) Client Server
9. The ……………….. refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
D) data model
10. …………….. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.
A) trigger
) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?
A. Table
B. Tree like structure
C. Complex logical relationship
D. Records
2) Field is otherwise called as ……… of the record
A. data item
B. data type
C. value
D. variable
3) A table can have only one
A. Secondary key
B. Alternate key
C. Unique key
D. Primary key
4) A field can be called as ……….. in relation context.
A. random file
B. direct file
C. attribute
D. tuple
5) In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as
A. Number of tuples
B. Number of attributes
C. Number of tables
D. Number of constraints
6) The …….. is used for creating and destroying table, indexes and other forms of structures.
A. data manipulation language
B. data control language
C. transaction control language
D. data definition language
7) The view of total database content is
A. Conceptual view
B. Internal view
C. External view
D. Physical view
8) The ………… refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.
A. database hierarchy
B. data organization
C. data sharing
D. data model
9) Architecture of the database can be viewed as
A. two levels
B. four levels
C. three levels
D. one level
10) …….. introduced the relational database rules.
A. Atul kahate
B. James Gossling
C. EF Codd
D. Dennies Rithchie

11) In a relational model, relations are termed as


A. Tuples
B. Attributes
C. Tables
D. Rows
12) When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in
another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n) ……..
A. transitive dependency
B. insertion anomaly
C. referential integrity constraint
D. normal form
13) In the architecture of a database system external level is the
A. physical level
B. logical level
C. conceptual level
D. view level
14) A functional dependency is a relationship between or among …….
A. tables
B. rows
C. relations
D. attributes
15) Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
A. data file
B. data record
C. menu
D. bank
16) ………. is, a table have more than one set of attributes that could be chosen as the key
A. foreign key
B. integrity key
C. relationship
D. candidate key
17) The database environment has all of the following components except.
A. users
B. separate files
C. database
D. database administrator
18) The operation of eliminating columns in a table done by …….. operation.
A. Restrict
B. Project
C. Union
D. Divide
19) The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application
uses is a
A. module
B. relational model
C. schema
D. sub schema
20) ……. is a condition specified on a database schema and restricts the data that can be
stored in an instance of the database.
A. Key Constraint
B. Check Constraint
C. Foreign key constraint
D. integrity constraint
Answers:
1) B. Tree like structure
2) A. data item
3) D. Primary key
4) C. attribute
5) A. Number of tuples
6) D. data definition language
7) A. Conceptual view
8) D. data model
9) C. three levels
10) C. EF Codd
11) C. Tables
12) C. referential integrity constraint
13) D. view level
14) D. attributes
15) B. data record
16) D. candidate key
17) A. users
18) B. Project
19) D. sub schema
20) B. Check Constraint
1. A ………………… specifies the actions needed to remove the drawbacks in the current
design of database.
A) 1 NF
B) 2 NF
C) 3 NF
D) Normal form
2. A relation is in ……………………… if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an
attribute of other composite key.
A) 2NF
B) 3NF
C) BCNF
D) 1NF
3. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
A) Functional dependency
B) Multivalued dependency
C) Join dependency
D) Domain key
4. A table is in the ………………….. if only candidate keys are the determinants.
A) functional dependency
B) transitive dependency
C) 4 NF
D) BCNF
5. In 2NF
A) No functional dependencies exist.
B) No multivalued dependencies exist.
C) No partial functional dependencies exist
D) No partial multivalued dependencies exist.

6. The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is


A) 2NF
B) 3NF
C) BCNF
D) 4NF
7. The …………….. is related to the concept of multi-valued dependency.
A) fourth normal form
B) fifth normal form
C) boyce codd normal form
D) third normal form
8. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?
A) 2NF
B) 5NF
C) 4NF
D) 3NF
9. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in
A) BCNF
B) 3NF
C) 4NF
D) DKNF
10. A relation is ………………. if every field contains only atomic values that is, no lists or sets.
A) 1 NF
B) 2 NF
C) 3 NF
D) BCNF
Answers:
1. A ………………… specifies the actions needed to remove the drawbacks in the current
design of database.
D) Normal form
2. A relation is in ……………………… if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an
attribute of other composite key.
B) 3NF
3. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
C) Join dependency
4. A table is in the ………………….. if only candidate keys are the determinants.
D) BCNF
5. In 2NF
C) No partial functional dependencies exist
6. The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is
A) 2NF
7. The …………….. is related to the concept of multi-valued dependency.
A) fourth normal form
8. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?
D) 3NF
9. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in
A) BCNF
10. A relation is ………………. if every field contains only atomic values that is, no lists or sets.
A) 1 NF
1. Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating tables to
be union-compatible?
A. Union
B. Intersection
C. Difference
D. Join
2) Relational Algebra does not have
A. Selection operator
B. Projection operator
C. Aggregation operator
D. Division operator
3) Tree structures are used to store data in
A. Network model
B. Relational model
C. Hierarchical model
D. File based system
4) The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is
called a
A. Referential constraint
B. Index
C. Integrity constraint
D. Functional dependency
5) It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities.
A. Generalization
B. Specialization
C. Aggregation
D. Inheritance
6) The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is
A. Join
B. Selection
C. Union
D. Cross product
7) In SQL the statement select*from R,S is equivalent to
A. Select * from R natural join S
B. Select * from R cross join S
C. Select * from R union join S
D. Select * from R inner join S
8) When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the representation is redundant for
A. Weak entity sets
B. weak relationship sets
C. Strong entity sets
D. strong relationship sets
9) If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching ruples of both R and S are
ignored in
A. left outer join
B. right outer join
C. full outer join
D. inner join
10) Relational Algebra is
A. Data Definition Language
B. Meta Language
C. Procedural query Language
D. None of the above
11) If an entity can belong to only one lower level entity then the constraint is
A. disjoint
B. partial
C. overlapping
D. single
12) The common column is eliminated in
A. theta join
B. outer join
C. natural join
D. composed join
13) In E-R diagram total participation is represented by
A. double lines
B. Dashed lines
C. single line
D. Triangle
14) Relationships among relationships can be represented in an E-R model using
A. Aggregation
B. Association
C. Weak entity sets
D. Weak relationship sets
15) Which of the following constitutes a basic set of operations for manipulating relational
data?
A. Predicate calculus
B. Relational calculus
C. Relational algebra
D. SQL
16) Relational calculus is a
A. Procedural language
B. Non-Procedural language
C. Data definition language
D. High level language
17) Cartesian product in relational algebra is
A. a Unary operator
B. a Binary operator
C. a Ternary operator
D. not defined
18) In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
A. rectangle
B. square
C. ellipse
D. triangle
19) In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a
A. rectangle
B. ellipse
C. diamond box
D. circle
20) E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?
A. Dotted rectangle
B. Diamond
C. Doubly outlined rectangle
D. None of these
Answers:
1) D.Join
2) C. Aggregation operator
3) C. Hierarchical model
4) A. Referential constraint
5) C. Aggregation
6) A. Join
7) B. Select * from R cross join S
8) B. weak relationship sets
9) D. inner join
10) C. Procedural query Language
11) B. partial
12) C. natural join
13) A. double lines
14) A. Aggregation
15) C. Relational algebra
16) B. Non-Procedural language
17) B. a Binary operator
18) C. ellipse
19) A. rectangle
20) C. Doubly outlined rectangle
1) What is a data integrity?
A. It is the data contained in database that is non redundant.
B. It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.
C. It is the data contained in database that is secured.
D. It is the data contained in database that is shared.
2) As per equivalence rules for query transformation, selection operation distributes over
A. Union
B. Intersection
C. Set difference
D. All of the above
3) In SQL the word ‘natural’ can be used with
A. inner join
B. full outer join
C. right outer join
D. all of the above
4) Which of the following relational algebraic operations is not from set theory?
A. Union
B. Intersection
C. Cartesian Product
D. Select
5) An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
A. strong entity set
B. weak entity set
C. simple entity set
D. primary entity set
6) In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
A. not Null
B. Null
C. both Null and not Null
D. any value
7) A logical schema
A. is the entire database.
B. is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C. describes how data is actually stored on disk
D. both A and C
8) Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational
data?
A. Predicate calculus
B. Relational calculus
C. Relational algebra
D. None of the above
9) Which of the following is another name for weak entity?
A. Child
B. Owner
C. Dominant
D. All of the above
10) Which of the following is record based logical model?
A. Network Model
B. Object oriented model
C. E-R model
D. None of the above
11) A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called
A. SELECT
B. PROJECT
C. JOIN
D. PRODUCT
12) In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by
A. Ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
13) The natural join is equal to
A. Cartesian Product
B. Combination of Union and Cartesian product
C. Combination of selection and Cartesian product
D. Combination of projection and Cartesian product
14) In E-R diagram relationship type is represented by
A. Ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Rectangle
D. Diamond
15) In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
A. Ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
16) A table joined with itself is called
A. Join
B. Self Join
C. Outer Join
D. Equi Join
17) ……….. means multiple copies of the same data items.
A. Data reduction
B. Data integrity
C. Data consistency
D. Data redundancy
18) Different values for the same data item is referred to as …….
A. data consistency
B. data inconsistency
C. data integrity
D. data duplication
19) The ………. returns row after combining two tables based on common values.
A. difference
B. product
C. join
D. union
20) The ………. can be used to ensure database integrity.
A. entity integrity
B. database constraints
C. referential integrity
D. cardinality
Answers:
1) B. It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.
2) All of the above
3) A. inner join
4) D. Select
5) B. weak entity set
6) A. not Null
7) A. is the entire database.
8) C. Relational algebra
9) Child
10) A. Network Model
11) A. SELECT
12) B. Dashed ellipse
13) D. Combination of projection and Cartesian product
14) D. Diamond
15) D. Triangle
16) B. Self Join
17) D. Data redundancy
18) B. data inconsistency
19) C. join
20) B. database constraints
1. DML is provided for
A) Description of logical structure of database
B) Addition of new structure in the database system.
C) Manipulation & processing of database
D) Definition of physical structure of database system
2.’AS’ clause is used in SQL for
A) Selection operation
B) Rename Operation
C) Join operation
D) Projection Operation
3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) values
B) distinct values
C) groups
D) columns
4. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
A) Alter
B) Update
C) Cteate
D) Select
5. Which of the following is correct.
A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates
B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation
C) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
D) None of the above
6. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a
table?
A) PROJECTION
B) SELECTION
C) UNION
D) JOIN
7. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY=NULL;
D) None of the above
8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
A) CHARACTER
B) NUMERIC
C) FLOAT
D) All of the above
9. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)?
A) SELECT ALL FROM BOOK
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
C) SELECT SUB FROM BOOK
D) All of the above
10. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands?
A) RENAME
B) REVOKE
C) GRANT
D) UPDATE
Answers:
1. DML is provided for
C) Manipulation & processing of database
2.’AS’ clause is used in SQL for
B) Rename Operation
3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) values

4. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is


A) Alter
5. Which of the following is correct.
D) None of the above
6. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a
table?
A) PROJECTION
7. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
D) All of the above
9. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)?
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
10. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands?
D) UPDATE
1. Which of the following query is correct for using comparison operators in SQL?
A) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and <80;
B) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and age <80;
C) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and WHERE age<80;
D) None of the above
2.How to select all data from studentinfo table starting the name from letter ‘r’?
A) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘r%’;
B) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘%r%’;
C) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘%r’;
D) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘_r%’;
3. Which of the following SQL query is correct for selecting the name of staffs from ‘tblstaff’
table where salary is 15,000 or 25,000?
A) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary IN (15000, 25000);
B) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary BETWEEN 15000 AND 25000;
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
4. The SELECT statement, that retrieves all the columns from empinfo table name starting
with d to p is ……………………..
A) SELECT ALL FROM empinfo WHERE ename like ‘[d-p]%’;
B) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename is ‘[d-p]%’;
C) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like ‘[p-d]%’;
D) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like ‘[d-p]%’;
5. Select a query that retrieves all of the unique countries from the student table?
A) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM studentinfo;
B) SELECT UNIQUE coursename FROM studentinfo;
C) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM TABLE studentinfo;
D) SELECT INDIVIDUAL coursename FROM studentinfo;
6. Which query is used for sorting data that retrieves the all the fields from empinfo table and
listed them in the ascending order?
A) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER BY age;
B) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER age;
C) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER BY COLUMN age;
D) SELECT * FROM empinfo SORT BY age;
7. Select the right statement to insert values to the stdinfo table.
A) INSERT VALUES (“15”, “Hari Thapa”, 45, 5000) INTO stdinfo;
B) INSERT VALUES INTO stdinfo (“15”, “Hari Thapa”, 45, 5000);
C) INSERT stdinfo VALUES (“15”, “Hari Thapa”, 45, 5000);
D) INSERT INTO stdinfo VALUES (“15”, “Hari Thapa”, 45, 5000);
8. How to Delete records from studentinfo table with name of student ‘Hari Prasad’?
A) DELETE FROM TABLE studentinfo WHERE sname=’Hari Prasad’;
B) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname=’Hari Prasad’;
C) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE COLUMN sname=’Hari Prasad’;
D) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘Hari Prasad’;
9. Constraint checking can be disabled in existing …………. and ………….. constraints so that
any data you modify or add to the table is not checked against the constraint.
A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY
C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY
D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY
10. ………………… joins two or more tables based on a specified column value not equaling a
specified column value in another table.
A) OUTER JOIN
B) NATURAL JOIN
C) NON-EQUIJOIN
D) EQUIJOIN
Answers:
1. B) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and age <80;
2. A) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE ‘r%’;
3. A) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary IN (15000, 25000);
4. D) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like ‘[d-p]%’;
5. A) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM studentinfo;
6. A) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER BY age;
7. D) INSERT INTO stdinfo VALUES (“15”, “Hari Thapa”, 45, 5000);
8. B) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname=’Hari Prasad’;
9. A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY
10.C) NON-EQUIJOIN
1. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database?
A) REMOVE FUNCTION
B) DELETE FUNCTION
C) DROP FUNCTION
D) ERASE FUNCTION
2. In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicate rows
A) SELECT DISTINCT
B) SELECT UNIQUE
C) SELECT DIFFERENT
D) All of the above
3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) Values
B) Distinct values
C) Groups
D) Columns
4. Composite key is made up of …………….
A) One column
B) One super key
C) One foreign key
D) Two or more columns
5. What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?
A) Grant
B) Revoke
C) Execute
D) Run

6. Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes it?
A) CMD
B) OPEN
C) EXECUTE
D) RUN
7. What is a DATABLOCK?
A) Set of Extents
B) Set of Segments
C) Smallest Database storage unit
D) Set of blocks
8. If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the hierarchy between them?
A) There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups.
B) The group that is right ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.
C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.
D) The group that is left ranks higher than the group that is to the right.
9. Which of the following types of triggers can be fired on DDL operations?
A) Instead of Trigger
B) DML Trigger
C) System Trigger
D) DDL Trigger
10. What operator performs pattern matching?
A) IS NULL operator
B) ASSIGNMENT operator
C) LIKE operator
D) NOT operator
Answers:
1. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database?
C) DROP FUNCTION
2. In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicate rows
A) SELECT DISTINCT
3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) Values
4. Composite key is made up of …………….
D) Two or more columns
5. What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?
B) Revoke
6. Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes it?
D) RUN
7. What is a DATABLOCK?
C) Smallest Database storage unit
8. If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the hierarchy between them?
C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.
9. Which of the following types of triggers can be fired on DDL operations?
C) System Trigger
10. What operator performs pattern matching?
C) LIKE operator
1) DROP is a ……………. statement in SQL.A. Query
B. Embedded SQL
C. DDL
D. DCL
2) The keyword to eliminate duplicate rows from the query result in SQL is.
A. DISTINCT
B. NO DUPLICATE
C. UNIQUE
D. None of the above
3) Which of the following aggregate function does not ignore nulls in its results?
A. COUNT
B. COUNT(*)
C. MAX
D. MIN
4) In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done using
A. DISTINCT
B. UNIQUE
C. NULL
D. EXISTS
5) ……………. operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been
specified.
A. Like
B. Compare
C. Between
D. In
6) The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as
the
A. DML
B. DDL
C. VDL
D. SDL
7) The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
A. The data definition language(DDL)
B. The data manipulation language(DML)
C. The database administrator(DBA)
D. A query language
8) A DBMS query language is designed to
A. Support end users who use English-like commands.
B. Support in the development of complex applications software.
C. Specify the structure of a database.
D. All of the above
9) It is possible to define a schema completely using.
A. VDL and DDL
B. DDL and DML
C. SDL and DDL
D. VDL and DML
10) Which of the following is correct.
A. a SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
B. SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
C. a SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations.
D. None of these.

11) Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?


A. =
B. LIKE
C. BETWEEN
D. All of the above
12) To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is.
A. UPDATE
B. DROP
C. ALTER
D. DELETE
13) The ………… operator is used to compare the value to a list of literals values that that
have been specified.
A. BETWEEN
B. ANY
C) IN
D) ALL
14) ………… function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.
A. POWER
B. MOD
C. ROUND
D. REMAINDER
15) A data manipulation command the combines the record from one or more tables is called.
A) SELECT
B. PROJECT
C. JOIN
D. PRODUCT
16) DDL stands for
A. Data definition language
B. Data description language
C. Data design languages
D. Database dictionary languages.
17) The DDL is used to specify the ……..
A. Conceptual schema
B. Internal schema
C. Both
D. None
18) Which is used for data retrieval from the database?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. SDL
D. VDL
19) Which is used to specify the user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. SDL
D. VDL
20) Which command are included in a general purpose programming languages?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. DSL
D. VDL
Answers:
1) C. DDL
2) C. UNIQUE
3) B. COUNT(*)
4) D. EXISTS
5) A. Like
6) A. DML
7) B. The data manipulation language(DML)
8) D. All of the above
9) B. DDL and DML
10) D. None of these.
11) D. All of the above
12) C. ALTER
13) A. BETWEEN
14) B. MOD
15) C. JOIN
16) A. Data definition language
17) A.Conceptual schema
18) B.DML
19) D.VDL
20) B.DML
1) Which of the following is not a recovery technique?
A. Deferred update
B. Immediate update
C. Two-phase commit
D. Recovery management
2)Checkpoints are a part of
A. Recovery measures
B. Security measures
C. Concurrency measures
D. Authorization measures
3) ……. deals with soft errors, such as power failures.
A. system recovery
B. media recovery
C. database recovery
D. failure recovery
4) ……….. is an essential part of any backup system.
A. Filter
B. Recovery
C. Security
D. Scalability
5) Media recovery deals with ………..
A. disk errors
B. hard errors
C. system errors
D. power failures
6) For a backup/restore system, …………. is a prerequisite for service in a enterprise.
A. Filter
B. Recovery
C. Security
D. Scalability
7) Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ……..
A. transaction recovery
B. database recovery
C. system recovery
D. value recovery
8) The ………. consists of the various applications and database that play a role in a backup
and recovery strategy.
A. Recovery Manager environment
B. Recovery Manager suit
C. Recovery Manager file
D. Recovery Manager database
9) In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system
failure?
A. Backup
B. Recovery
C. Both
D. None
10) A ……….. is a block of Recovery Manager(RMAN)job commands that is stored in the
recovery catalogue.
A. recovery procedure
B. recovery block
C. stored block
D. stored script

11) In log based recovery, the log is sequence of ………


A. filter
B. records
C. blocks
D. numbers
12) The enrolling of a database in a recovery catalogue is called ………
A. set up
B. registration
C. start up
D. enrolment
13) ………. is an alternative of log based recovery.
A. Disk recovery
B. Shadow paging
C. Dish shadowing
D. Crash recovery
14) Most backup and recovery commands in ……….. are executed by server sessions.
A. Backup Manager
B. Recovery Manager
C. Backup and Recovery Manager
D. Database Manager
15) …….. systems typically allows to replace failed disks without stopping access to the
system.
A. RAM
B. RMAN
C. RAD
D. RAID
16) An ……… is an exact copy of a single datafile, archived redo log file, or control file.
A. image copy
B. datafile copy
C. copy log
D. control copy
17) ………. known as memory-style error correcting-code(ECC) organization, employs parity
bits.
A. RAID level 1
B. RAID level 2
C. RAID level 3
D. RAID level 4
18) The remote backup site is sometimes called the ………. site.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. ternary
D. None of the above
19) EXP command is used ………..
A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database
B. to import data from the exported dump file
C. to create Rollback segments
D. to create Schedule.
20) The simplest approach to introducing redundancy is to duplicate every disk is called …..
A. mirroring
B. imaging
C. copying
D. All of the above
Answers:
1) C. Two-phase commit
2) A. Recovery measures
3) D. failure recovery
4) C. Security
5) A. disk errors
6) D. Scalability
7) C. system recovery
8) A. Recovery Manager environment
9) B. Recovery
10) D. stored script
11) B. records
12) B. registration
13) B. Shadow paging
14) B. Recovery Manager
15) D. RAID
16) A. image copy
17) B. RAID level 2
18) B. secondary
19) A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database
20) A. mirroring
1) Commit and rollback are related to ……….
A. data integrity
B. data consistency
C. data sharing
D. data security
2) The transaction wants to edit the data item is called as …….
A. Exclusive Mode
B. Shared Mode
C. Inclusive Mode
D. Unshared Mode
3) For committing a transaction, the DBMS might discard all the records.
A. after image
B. before image
C. log
D. redo log
4) A sophisticated locking mechanism known as 2-phase locking which includes Growing
phase and …….
A. Shrinking Phase
B. Release phase
C. Commit phase
D. Acquire Phase
5) A Transaction ends
A. only when it is Committed.
B. only when it is Rolled-back
C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back
D. only when it is initialized
6) In ………., each transactions there is a first phase during which new lock are acquired.
A. Shrinking Phase
B. Release phase
C. Commit phase
D. Growing Phase
7) A transaction processing system is also called as …….
A. processing monitor
B. transaction monitor
C. TP monitor
D. monitor
8) The transactions are always ……… if it always locks a data item in shared mode before
reading it.
A. well formed
B. well distributed
C. well locked
D. well shared
9) ………. servers which is widely used in relational database systems.
A. Data servers
B. Transaction servers
C. Query servers
D. Client servers
10) If a distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phasedlocked, then ……………. is the
correct locking mechanism in distributed transaction as well as in centralized databases.
A. two phase locking
B. three phase locking
C. transaction locking
D. well-formed locking

11) ……… property will check whether all the operation of a transaction completed or none.
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
12) The total ordering of operations across groups ensures ………..of transactions.
A. serializability
B. synchronizability
C. atomicity
D. durability
13) In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?
A. Active
B. Failed
C. Aborted
D. partially committed
14) The ORDER concurrency control technique is based on the property.
A. ordering mechanism
B. inherent ordering
C. total ordering
D. partial ordering
15) Transactions per rollback segment is derived from …..
A. Db_Block_Buffers
B. Processes
C. shared_Pool_size
D. buffers
16) The …………is responsible for ensuring correct execution in the presence of failures.
A. Database Manager
B. Transaction Manager
C. Recovery Manager
D. Executive Manager
17) A distributed transaction can be …………. if queries are issued at one or more nodes.
A. fully read-only
B. partially read-only
C. fully read-write
D. partially read-write
18) The distributed transaction can be completely read-only and the transaction is started with
a ………. READ ONLY statement.
A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
B. TRANSACTION
C. SET TRANSACTION
D. READ TRANSACTION
19) The initialization parameter …………….. controls the number of possible distributed
transactions in which a given instance can concurrently participate, both as a client and a
server.
A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
B. TRANSACTION
C. SET TRANSACTION
D. CONTROL TRANSACTION
20) A database administrator can manually force the COMMIT or ROLLBACK of a local
………… distributed transaction.
A. in-force
B. in-doubt
C. in-local
D. in-manual
Answers:
1) B. data consistency
2) A. Exclusive Mode
3) B. before image
4) A. Shrinking Phase
5) C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back
6) D. Growing Phase
7) C. TP monitor
8) A. well formed
9) B. Transaction servers
10) A. two phase locking
11) A. Atomicity
12) A. serializability
13) D. partially committed
14) C. total ordering
15) B. Processes
16) A. Database Manager
17) B. partially read-only
18) C. SET TRANSACTION
19) A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
20) B. in-doubt

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