Chart

Pie chart with 4 slices.

End of interactive chart.
Attempt 1
All knowledge areas
All questions
Question 1:
Skipped
A vaccination rollout program is being managed using agile methodology.
What is the core goal for the delivery of a project managed through Agile
Methodology?

 Speed of execution
 Manage cost
 Correctness of solution
 Customer value via frequent deliveries and feedback

(Correct)

Explanation
The correct answer to the question is option D: "Customer value via frequent
deliveries and feedback."

Explanation:

Option A (Speed of execution): While speed is often a benefit of agile

methodologies, it is not the core goal. Agile methodologies prioritize
delivering customer value and adapting to change over simply executing
quickly. The Agile Manifesto values "working solutions over comprehensive
documentation," emphasizing the importance of delivering value to the
customer.

Option B (Manage cost): Cost management is an important aspect of project

management, but in agile methodologies, the primary focus is on delivering
customer value. Agile projects are more flexible and adaptive to changes in
requirements, and cost management is seen as part of the overall project
management process, not the core goal.

Option C (Correctness of solution): While correctness is important, agile

methodologies recognize that requirements can evolve, and the focus is on
delivering a solution that meets the customer's needs. Continuous feedback
and iterative development are key components of agile, allowing for
adjustments to ensure the final solution is correct and valuable to the
customer.

Option D (Customer value via frequent deliveries and feedback): This

is the correct answer. Agile methodologies, as outlined in the Agile Manifesto
and Agile Practice Guide, prioritize delivering customer value through
frequent deliveries and obtaining feedback from the customer. Agile
emphasizes iterative development, collaboration with customers, and
responding to change over following a rigid plan.

In summary, the Agile Methodology core goal is to deliver customer value

through frequent deliveries and feedback, making option D the correct
answer. The other options (A, B, and C) do not fully capture the central
principles of agile project management.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 2.2 - Agile Manifesto
Question 2:
Skipped
A project is developing an application to assess the probability of cancer by
studying radiology scans. The intent is to provide an accurate assessment
rather than frequent reports. What is the ideal type of project management
methodology in such a situation where the degree of change is very high but
the frequency of delivery is low?

 Agile
 Iterative

(Correct)

 Predictive
 Incremental

Explanation
Option B (Iterative): In situations where the degree of change is high, and
the frequency of delivery is low, an iterative approach can be more suitable.
Iterative development involves repeating cycles of development, allowing for
continuous refinement and improvement. It enables the project team to
make adjustments based on feedback and changes in requirements to
deliver a final product with accuracy.

Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect:

Option A (Agile): Agile methodologies, as outlined in the Agile Manifesto and

Agile Practice Guide, emphasize frequent deliveries and adaptability to
change. In the scenario described, where the intent is to provide an accurate
assessment with a low frequency of delivery, Agile may not be the most
suitable choice.

Option C (Predictive): Predictive (or traditional) project management

approaches involve planning the entire project upfront and adhering to the
plan. In a situation with a high degree of change, predictive methods may
struggle to accommodate evolving requirements effectively.

Option D (Incremental): Incremental development involves delivering the

project in parts, with each increment adding a portion of the final product's
features. While this approach allows for some flexibility, it may not be as
conducive to continuous refinement and adjustment as the iterative
approach.

In summary, Option B (Iterative) is the most suitable in a scenario with a

high degree of change and a low frequency of delivery, as it allows for
continuous refinement and improvement based on feedback and changing
requirements.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 2.3 - Development approach and
life cycle
Question 3:
Skipped
High-level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints are
normally identified in the business case before the project is initiated and are
documented in the 'Assumptions Log'. During which process the assumptions
log for a project is created first?

 Develop project charter

(Correct)

 Develop risk management plan

 Develop project resilience
 Collect Requirements

Explanation
Option 1: The assumption log is first created during the 'develop
project charter' process. Check the ITTO Chart for Develop Project Charter
- Figure 4.2 - Process Group Practice Guide.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task-9: Integrate project planning activities

An assumption log in project management is a document that records the

assumptions made by the project team during the development of the
project charter. Assumptions are factors that are considered to be true, real,
or certain for planning purposes, even though they may not be proven or
guaranteed. The purpose of the assumption log is to document these
assumptions explicitly, making them visible and transparent to all
stakeholders.

During the Develop Project Charter process, the assumption log is typically
created as part of the project initiation phase. Assumptions play a crucial
role in project planning because they can significantly impact the project's
success if they turn out to be incorrect. By documenting assumptions, the
project team and stakeholders can be aware of the potential risks associated
with these assumptions.

Key components of an assumption log include:

1. Assumption Description: A clear and concise statement that identifies the

assumption. This could relate to various aspects of the project, such as
scope, schedule, resources, or external factors.
2. Basis for the Assumption: The information or rationale that supports the
assumption. This helps stakeholders understand why the assumption was
made and what factors influenced it.

3. Impact of the Assumption: An assessment of the potential consequences if

the assumption proves to be incorrect. Understanding the impact helps the
project team plan for contingencies or alternative approaches.

4. Owner: The person or group responsible for monitoring the assumption

throughout the project lifecycle. This ensures accountability for tracking and
validating assumptions.

5. Status: The current status of the assumption (e.g., open, closed,

validated). Regular updates may be necessary as more information becomes
available or as the project progresses.

By maintaining an assumption log, the project team can manage risks more
effectively, identify areas of uncertainty, and communicate openly with
stakeholders about the project's underlying assumptions. This contributes to
better decision-making and helps prevent surprises or challenges that may
arise due to invalidated assumptions.

Question 4:
Skipped
During a backlog refinement meeting, one of the client's employees asks the
product owner for a new feature. The product owner is unsure of who has the
authority to approve this request. To what document should the product
owner refer first?

 RACI matrix
 Resource Assignment Matrix
 Change Management Plan

(Correct)

 Scope document

Explanation
Option 3: Change management plan. It documents the process of
evaluating, submitting and approving/rejecting a change during a project. It
also lays down the authorities of approvals for a change (Sponsor/CCB etc.).

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 10 - Manage project changes.

Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 6.1 - Change management in Agile

It's a very common misconception/myth that Agile projects do not have a

Change Management Plan. Remember, even if changes in scope are
welcome in Agile projects, you have to follow a process right? You just
cannot keep doing changes out of 'corridor requests'...that is not what is
expected of a good project manager, be it Agile, Hybrid or Predictive. The
only point of difference between handling changes in Agile projects vs.
Predictive is, in Agile projects, the length of the CCB cycle is very very short
compared to predictive cycles. Hence, Agile projects do have a scope
management plan as well as a change management plan.

Further
reading: https://agilechangemanagement.co.uk/wp-content/uploads/2018/10/
Introduction-to-Agile-Change-Management-v1.0-1.pdf

Question 5:
Skipped
You are a quality manager for a continuous improvement project. You would
want to identify a sampling strategy for a population on basis of 3 categories
of the standard of living (high, medium, low). Which type of sampling
strategy would you be using here?

 Attribute sampling

(Correct)

 Variable sampling
 Control sampling
 Category sampling

Explanation
Let's analyze each option and identify the correct one based on project
management principles, specifically referring to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) and associated concepts.
The question is about identifying a sampling strategy for a population based
on three categories of the standard of living (high, medium, low) for a
continuous improvement project. Here are the explanations for each option:

A. Attribute Sampling (Correct Answer):

- Attribute sampling is used when dealing with discrete data and focuses
on the presence or absence of a certain characteristic within a given sample.

- In this case, the three categories of standard of living (high, medium, low)
are discrete attributes. Attribute sampling is suitable for this situation as it
helps in categorizing items into different attributes.

B. Variable Sampling (Incorrect):

- Variable sampling is used when the data being measured is on a

continuous scale.

- The question mentions three categories of the standard of living, which

implies discrete categories, not continuous variables. Therefore, variable
sampling is not the appropriate choice.

C. Control Sampling (Incorrect):

- Control sampling is not a recognized sampling strategy in the context of

the PMBOK or project management methodologies.

- The question is focused on identifying a sampling strategy based on

categories of the standard of living, and control sampling does not align with
this context.

D. Category Sampling (Incorrect):

- While the term "Category Sampling" might sound relevant, it is not a

recognized or standard term within the PMBOK or project management
methodologies.
 - The correct term for dealing with categories in sampling is usually
"Attribute Sampling."

In summary, the correct answer is Option A (Attribute Sampling) because it

aligns with the nature of the data (categories of standard of living) and is a
recognized sampling strategy in the context of project management, as per
PMBOK guidelines.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task - 7: Plan and manage quality of

product/deliverable
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg. 302, Statistical Sampling
Question 6:
Skipped
A project manager is currently in the planning stage of her project. She has
finalized the team charter of the project and now she wishes to illustrate
visually the project team members, their roles, along with the work package
that has been assigned to them. Which tool or technique should she be using
for this task?

 Organizational breakdown structure

 Risk Breakdown Structure
 Responsibility Assignment Matrix

(Correct)

 Resource Planning Chart

Explanation
Let's analyze each option and identify the correct one based on project
management principles, specifically referring to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) and associated concepts.

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (Incorrect):

- The Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is primarily used to

illustrate the hierarchical structure of the organization and the relationships
between different organizational units.
 - It does not specifically focus on illustrating project team members, their
roles, and the work packages assigned to them. Therefore, it is not the most
appropriate tool for the given task.

B. Risk Breakdown Structure (Incorrect):

- The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a tool used for organizing and
representing project risks.

- It does not address the visualization of project team members, their roles,
and assigned work packages. Hence, it is not suitable for the planning stage
task described in the question.

C. Responsibility Assignment Matrix (Correct Answer):

- The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) is a tool that visually

illustrates the project team members, their roles, and the work packages or
activities assigned to them.

- It is commonly used in the planning stage to clarify and communicate

roles and responsibilities within the project team. The RAM helps ensure that
each project activity or work package has a clear owner.

D. Resource Planning Chart (Incorrect):

- The Resource Planning Chart is not a standard term or tool recognized in

the PMBOK or project management methodologies.

- The description of the question, focusing on team members, their roles,

and assigned work packages, aligns more closely with the concept of a
Responsibility Assignment Matrix.

In summary, the correct answer is Option C (Responsibility Assignment

Matrix). The Responsibility Assignment Matrix is a widely used tool in project
management to visually depict the roles and responsibilities of project team
members, making it an appropriate choice for the task described in the
question during the planning stage of the project.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Responsibility Assignment Matrix
(RAM) - Pg. 293
Question 7:
Skipped
The sponsor for an agile-led project wants an estimate for the completion
date. What is the best way to estimate the duration of an agile project?

 Calculate basis average story points completed/iteration vs.

the total story points in scope

(Correct)

 Calculate basis average duration of completion of each

timebox
 Calculate basis critical path method
 Calculate basis the PERT technique

Explanation
Let's analyze each option and identify the correct one based on project
management principles, specifically referring to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

A. Calculate based on average story points completed/iteration vs.

the total story points in scope (Correct Answer):

- Agile projects often use story points to estimate the effort required for
user stories. Calculating the average story points completed per iteration
compared to the total story points in scope provides a basis for estimating
the completion date.

- Agile projects typically work in iterations, and this approach aligns with
Agile principles by using historical data (average story points completed per
iteration) to forecast project completion.

B. Calculate based on average duration of completion of each timebox

(Incorrect):
 - Timeboxing is an Agile practice where a fixed time period (timebox) is
allocated for a specific activity. However, calculating the average duration of
completion for each timebox is not necessarily the best way to estimate the
overall project completion date.

C. Calculate based on critical path method (Incorrect):

- The Critical Path Method (CPM) is a scheduling technique used in

traditional project management to determine the sequence of activities that
must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. However, in
Agile projects, the focus is more on iterative and incremental development,
making the critical path less relevant in this context.

D. Calculate based on the PERT technique (Incorrect):

- Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) is a technique used for

estimating the duration of a project by considering three estimates for each
activity (optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic). While PERT can be useful, it
may be more detailed than necessary for Agile projects, which emphasize
adaptability and responsiveness over detailed upfront planning.

In summary, the correct answer is Option A (Calculate based on average

story points completed/iteration vs. the total story points in scope). This
approach aligns with Agile principles, focusing on iteration-based estimation
and using historical data to project the completion date. It is a more suitable
and relevant method for estimating the duration of an agile project
compared to the other options.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 6: Plan and manage schedule

 Link to Agile Practice Guide - Common Agile Practices - Section 5.2
Question 8:
Skipped
In the final stages of an iteration-based agile project, the sponsor is unhappy
with the execution as the project duration is trending at 48 weeks compared
to the initial commitment of 40 weeks. The primary reason for the delay is
scope creep, with the customer continuously adding new features. Despite
about 3-4 weeks' worth of story points remaining, the project's scope has
increased from the baseline of 542 story points to 679 story points.
Which is the best data representation to show to the sponsor in the context
of this situation?

 Feature chart

(Correct)

 Iteration burndown chart

 Iteration burnup chart
 Gantt chart

Explanation
Let's analyze each option and identify the correct one based on project
management principles, specifically referring to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

A. Feature Chart (Correct Answer):

- A feature chart, also known as a scope chart, provides a visual

representation of the project's scope, including the addition of new features
over time. Given that the primary issue is scope creep due to continuous
addition of new features, a feature chart would effectively illustrate this to
the sponsor.

B. Iteration Burndown Chart (Incorrect):

- An iteration burndown chart typically tracks the completion of work within

a specific iteration against time. It may not be the best representation for
illustrating the overall project scope and the impact of scope changes.

C. Iteration Burnup Chart (Incorrect):

- While an iteration burnup chart shows work completed against the

original scope, it might not be the most effective way to highlight the
continuous increase in scope throughout the project. It is more focused on
depicting completed work within iterations.

D. Gantt Chart (Incorrect):

 - Gantt charts are useful for displaying tasks and their dependencies over
time, providing a visual representation of the project schedule. However,
they may not be as effective in illustrating changes in project scope and the
impact on project duration, especially in an agile context.

In summary, the correct answer is Option A (Feature Chart). A feature chart

is the most suitable data representation for showing the sponsor the
continuous increase in project scope, specifically due to scope creep with the
addition of new features. It provides a clear visual representation of the
scope changes over time, addressing the sponsor's concern about project
execution and duration.

 Check Pg. 67 of Agile Practice Guide for more details on Feature Chart
 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 6: Plan and manage schedule
Question 9:
Skipped
In a matrix-type organization, the project manager finds that she requires
additional resources for quality sampling in the execution team. Whom
should the project manager approach first to ask for resources?

 Functional managers

(Correct)

 Sponsor
 PMO
 Product Owner
Explanation
Let's analyze each option and identify the correct one based on project
management principles, specifically referring to the Project Management
Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

A. Functional Managers (Correct Answer):

- In a matrix-type organization, functional managers are responsible for

providing resources to the project. The project manager should approach
functional managers when additional resources are needed for a specific
project task or activity.
 - This aligns with the concept of the matrix organizational structure, where
project managers work with functional managers to obtain the necessary
resources for project execution.

B. Sponsor (Incorrect):

- The sponsor is typically responsible for providing overall support and

strategic direction for the project but may not be directly involved in day-to-
day resource allocation decisions. Approaching the sponsor for specific
resource needs is not the most appropriate first step in a matrix
organization.

C. PMO (Incorrect):

- The Project Management Office (PMO) is responsible for providing support

and governance for project management practices across the organization.
While the PMO may play a role in resource management, in a matrix
organization, direct resource allocation often involves collaboration with
functional managers.

D. Product Owner (Incorrect):

- The Product Owner is a role in Agile methodologies, responsible for

representing the customer and ensuring that the product meets their needs.
However, the Product Owner is not typically responsible for resource
allocation within the execution team. Resource requests for quality sampling
should be directed to functional managers.

In summary, the correct answer is Option A (Functional Managers). In a

matrix-type organization, functional managers are the primary source for
allocating resources to project managers. The project manager should
approach functional managers first when additional resources are needed for
quality sampling in the execution team.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-4: Support organizational changes

  Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Table 2.1 - Organizational
Structures
Question 10:
Skipped
You are in the execution stage of a project and the client comes to you with
a new change request which has come in due to a new regulation being
ruled out by the government authorities. Both of you believe that this change
is legitimate and should be incorporated into the project as soon as possible.
What is your next step?

 Tell your team to identify the impact of this change to budget

& schedule
 Take the change request to your sponsor and ask for his
approval
 Document the change request

(Correct)

 Approve the request by yourself since you know that this will
not impact budget or schedule

Explanation
Option 3. Documenting the change request is the first course of action
when any change comes up.

Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-3: Evaluate and address external business
environment changes for impact on scope.

Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Section 7.2 - Perform Integrated

Change Control

I hope none of you selected option A, B or D. If you have, please review the
answer explanations of Set-2,3 & 4 again since this topic has been covered
in depth over those sets across multiple questions.

I would recommend that you watch the following tutorial videos on Change
Management from my YouTube channel:

1. Change Management (PICC) Process Flow

Chart: https://youtu.be/Dawt8dRlutI

2. Situational Questions of Change

Management/PICC: https://youtu.be/i0PE2j-n7MI

Question 11:
Skipped
You are leading an agile-based project and you are studying the latest
earned value report. The CPI for the project is 1.2 and the SPI for the project
is 0.8. 580 story points have been completed till now in your project. The PV
for that 580 story points is $600,000. The SV for the story points till now is (-)
$120,000. What is the CV for your project?

 75000
 80000

(Correct)

 85000
 90000

Explanation
EV/PV = 0.8, PV=600,000. Hence, EV = 480,000 | EV/AC = 1.2, AC =
(480,000/1.2) = 400,000 | CV = EV-AC = 480,000-400,000 = 80,000. Link to
new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget & resources.

All values in $.

Please watch my tutorial video on EVM from my YouTube channel as

well: https://youtu.be/FgirfE5TAm8

Also note that even if you may not get a mathematical problem like this in
your PMP Exam on the EVM topic, learning the basic concepts of EVM (via
such mathematical questions) is quite important because the type of
questions in your PMP Exam would be inference based and if you don't know
the basics of topic, you will not be able to answer the questions correctly.

Question 12:
Skipped
You are a project manager for an automation project and you are
currently developing the scope baseline for the project. You have
already done a thorough and timely job of identifying all the
stakeholders and collecting their requirements. Whom should you
involve now while developing the scope baseline?

 Functional managers
 Sponsor
 Project team

(Correct)

 Project stakeholders
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Project team

Explanation:

Developing the scope baseline involves creating a detailed scope statement,

WBS (Work Breakdown Structure), and WBS dictionary. This process requires
the input and collaboration of the project team members who possess the
technical expertise and knowledge needed to define the project scope
accurately.

According to the PMBOK Guide, the project team is an essential element in

the development of the scope baseline. The collective input of the project
team is crucial for breaking down the project scope into manageable
components and detailing the scope statement. The project team members
are the ones who will be directly involved in executing the project work, and
their insights are valuable during scope baseline development.

Incorrect Options:

A. Functional managers:

While functional managers may have valuable input, their primary focus is
usually on managing resources within their functional areas. They may not
have the detailed technical knowledge required for developing the scope
baseline for the entire project. In the context of scope baseline development,
the project team is a more appropriate group.

B. Sponsor:

The sponsor is typically involved in providing high-level guidance and

support for the project. However, when it comes to the detailed development
of the scope baseline, the project team members who are responsible for
executing the project tasks are more directly relevant. The sponsor's input is
crucial at the strategic level, but detailed technical aspects are better
addressed by the project team.

D. Project stakeholders:
While stakeholders are important throughout the project, the term is broad
and includes various individuals or groups with an interest in the project. In
the context of scope baseline development, it is more specific and effective
to involve the project team directly, as they are responsible for the detailed
execution of the project work.

In summary, the correct answer (C) focuses on involving the project team, as
they possess the technical expertise required for developing a detailed scope
baseline. The incorrect options (A, B, D) are less appropriate in this context,
given the specific requirements of scope baseline development as outlined in
the PMBOK Guide and related project management concepts.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 2: Lead a Team.

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 5.4, Define Scope
Question 13:
Skipped
You have recently joined as a project manager in a coffee
manufacturing plant. One of your first projects is to install an
instant coffee powder packing machine. You are developing a
project charter during the initiation stage of the project. Which of
the following should be documented before developing the charter?

 Business case

(Correct)

 Scope baseline
 Cost baseline
 Requirements management plan

Explanation
Correct Answer: A. Business case

Explanation:

In project management, the development of a project charter is a part of the

initiation phase. The project charter formally authorizes the existence of a
project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities.
Before developing the project charter, it is essential to document the
business case. The business case justifies the project by demonstrating its
alignment with business objectives and the value it will bring to the
organization. It includes information about the problem or opportunity the
project addresses, the benefits, costs, and risks associated with the project,
and the alignment with the organization's strategic goals.

According to the PMBOK Guide, the business case is a key input to the
development of the project charter. It helps in understanding the project's
context and provides the necessary information for senior management to
authorize the project. Without a well-documented business case, it would be
challenging to create a project charter that clearly communicates the
purpose and value of the project.

Incorrect Options:

B. Scope baseline:

The scope baseline, which includes the project scope statement, WBS (Work
Breakdown Structure), and WBS dictionary, is developed during the planning
phase of the project, not the initiation phase. It provides a detailed
description of the project scope and is used as a basis for future project
planning and execution.

C. Cost baseline:

Similar to the scope baseline, the cost baseline is developed during the
planning phase. It includes the project budget and is used as a guide for
project cost control during project execution. Developing the cost baseline is
not a prerequisite for creating the project charter.

D. Requirements management plan:

The requirements management plan is a part of the project management

plan and is typically developed during the planning phase. It outlines how
project requirements will be documented, analyzed, and managed
throughout the project. While requirements are important for the project
charter, the plan itself is not a prerequisite for developing the charter.

In summary, the correct answer (A) emphasizes the importance of

documenting the business case before developing the project charter, as the
business case provides the necessary justification and context for the
project. The incorrect options (B, C, D) are associated with project planning
activities that typically occur after the project charter is developed during
the initiation phase.

Check the ITTO Flowchart for the process 'DEVELOP PROJECT CHARTER' from
Process Group Practice Guide - Section 4.1.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task-9: Integrate project planning activities

Question 14:
Skipped
There are concerns within an agile project team about a new member who
has recently joined the team. The opinion is that the new team member is
incompetent and does not understand the way of working for most of the
project tasks.

How should the project manager deal with this situation?

 Check with the functional managers whether the new member

could be reassigned to another project
 Schedule a connect with the team to understand the concerns
and then meet with the new team member to validate the
same

(Correct)

 Ask the team members to add this as an impediment on the

task board
 Arrange a training for the new team member to enable
seamless integration with the team
Explanation
Correct Answer: B. Schedule a connect with the team to understand
the concerns and then meet with the new team member to validate
the same
Explanation:

Option B is the most appropriate approach when dealing with concerns about
a team member's competence or understanding of project tasks. This aligns
with the principles of effective communication and collaboration in project
management, as emphasized in the Agile Practice Guide.

In Agile and Scrum methodologies, regular communication and collaboration

within the team are crucial. Scheduling a meeting with the team to
understand their concerns allows the project manager to gather specific
feedback and insights from team members. Following this, meeting with the
new team member provides an opportunity to validate these concerns and
address any issues directly.

Incorrect Options:

A. Check with the functional managers whether the new member could be
reassigned to another project:

This option involves considering reassignment without direct communication

with the team or the new member. In effective project management, it's
crucial to address concerns through open communication and collaboration
within the team. Checking with functional managers without understanding
the specifics of the concerns may not lead to a resolution.

C. Ask the team members to add this as an impediment on the task board:

While Agile methodologies often use task boards to visualize work and
impediments, this option does not directly address the interpersonal and
competency concerns raised by the team. Adding it as an impediment may
not provide a constructive way to address the specific issues with the new
team member.

D. Arrange training for the new team member to enable seamless

integration with the team:
While training may be beneficial, it is premature to arrange training without
first understanding the specific concerns raised by the team. Training may
not address the root cause of the perceived incompetence, and it might not
be the most efficient or effective solution without a clear understanding of
the issues.

In summary, option B is the correct answer as it emphasizes communication

and collaboration to understand and validate concerns within the team. This
aligns with Agile principles and effective project management practices. The
incorrect options (A, C, D) either skip direct communication with the team or
propose solutions without a clear understanding of the specific concerns
raised by the team.

 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 2.2.1.2 - Distributed management

and leadership
 Link to PMP ECO: Domain 1, Task 3 - Build a Team
Question 15:
Skipped
This person is responsible for guiding the direction of the product and ranks
the work based on its business value. This person works with the teams daily
by providing product feedback and setting direction on the next piece of
functionality to be delivered. Which role of Agile is being talked about here?

 Process owner
 Team facilitator
 Product owner

(Correct)

 Team member

Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Product owner

Explanation:

The role described in the question aligns with the responsibilities of a Product
Owner in Agile methodologies. The Product Owner is a key member of the
Agile team and is responsible for guiding the direction of the product. The
key characteristics mentioned in the question, such as ranking work based
on business value, providing product feedback, and setting direction for the
next functionality, are core responsibilities of the Product Owner.
References from the Agile Practice Guide and Agile concepts highlight the
central role of the Product Owner in Agile teams. According to the Scrum
framework, the Product Owner is responsible for maximizing the value of the
product by prioritizing and managing the product backlog, collaborating with
the team, and providing clear direction.

Incorrect Options:

A. Process owner:

The term "process owner" is not a standard Agile role, and it does not align
with the described responsibilities of guiding the product direction, ranking
work based on business value, and working with teams daily. In Agile, the
focus is more on product ownership and collaboration rather than process
ownership.

B. Team facilitator:

While a Team Facilitator or Scrum Master plays a crucial role in facilitating

team interactions and removing impediments, the responsibilities described
in the question are more aligned with product-related decision-making,
which is the responsibility of the Product Owner.

D. Team member:

The role described in the question goes beyond that of a regular team
member. The responsibilities of guiding the product direction, ranking work
based on business value, and providing feedback on functionality are
typically associated with the Product Owner, not a general team member.

In summary, option C is the correct answer as it corresponds to the role of a

Product Owner in Agile methodologies. The Product Owner is crucial in
setting the product direction, prioritizing work based on business value, and
collaborating with the team to ensure the delivery of valuable functionality.
The other options (A, B, D) do not accurately reflect the described
responsibilities and characteristics of the role in question.

See Pg. 41 of PMBOK Agile Practice Guide for more details of the role of a
product owner.

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 6: Build a team

Question 16:
Skipped
A project for installation of a telecommunication tower is in the execution
stage. During a project status meeting, the delivery manager alerts the
project manager on potential delay of at least 2 weeks in the arrival of tele-
antennas, a critical path item, due to a transport strike by the truck union,
posing a significant risk to the project timeline.

What could be a recommended action for the project manager?

 Crashing & Resource Smoothing

 Crashing & Resource Levelling
 Crashing & Fast Tracking

(Correct)

 Fast Tracking & Resource Smoothing

Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Crashing & Fast Tracking

Explanation:

In project management, crashing and fast tracking are schedule compression

techniques used to address project delays. Crashing involves allocating
additional resources to critical path tasks to reduce their duration, while fast
tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned
to be done sequentially.

In this scenario, the project manager is faced with a significant risk to the
project timeline due to the delayed arrival of critical tele-antennas. Crashing
is an appropriate strategy because it involves expediting the project
schedule by adding resources or increasing resource efficiency to complete
the critical path activities more quickly.
Incorrect Options:

A. Crashing & Resource Smoothing:

Resource smoothing aims to adjust resource allocation to ensure a steady

and even utilization of resources over time. In this context, the immediate
concern is the delay in the arrival of tele-antennas, and resource smoothing
may not directly address the critical path delay caused by the transport
strike.

B. Crashing & Resource Levelling:

Resource levelling is about adjusting the project schedule to manage

resource constraints without changing the project's critical path. While
crashing can be a suitable strategy to address delays, combining it with
resource levelling may not be as effective in this specific scenario, where
time is of the essence.

D. Fast Tracking & Resource Smoothing:

Fast tracking is the correct schedule compression technique in this context,

but combining it with resource smoothing may not be the most effective
response to the urgent situation presented. Resource smoothing focuses on
even resource utilization, which might not align with the need for rapid
completion of the critical path tasks.

In summary, option C is the correct answer as it recommends both crashing

and fast tracking, which are appropriate schedule compression techniques to
address the potential delay in the arrival of critical tele-antennas and
mitigate the risk to the project timeline. The incorrect options (A, B, D) either
include inappropriate schedule compression techniques or do not directly
address the urgent need to expedite critical path activities.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-3: Evaluate and address external
business environment changes for impact on scope (recommended
options for scope/backlog changes).
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg. 295 - Schedule compression
techniques

Check my tutorial video on YouTube to understand the details of the Critical

Path Method: https://youtu.be/RM7R_lNocT0

Question 17:
Skipped
Several tasks remain on the impediment task board despite multiple
attempts by the team to resolve them. As an outcome of the sprint
retrospective, it emerges that the source of these impediments could be
linked to the quality control manager. Previously the project manager had
multiple meetings with this person to onboard him onto the project.
However, the stakeholder still shows resistance.

What should the project manager do to tackle this situation?

 Ask the quality control manager to arrange for liquidated

damages caused due to delays for which the person is
responsible
 Review the risk register to ascertain ways in which the quality
control manager could be influenced
 Encourage the team to find out another stakeholder who can
resolve the impediments in place of the quality control
manager
 Perform an analysis of the stakeholder engagement
assessment matrix and define next steps to bring the
stakeholder to the required engagement level

(Correct)

Explanation
Correct Answer: D. Perform an analysis of the stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix and define next steps to bring the
stakeholder to the required engagement level

Explanation:

Option D is the correct answer because it involves analyzing the stakeholder

engagement assessment matrix. This matrix helps in assessing the current
level of engagement and understanding the areas where improvement is
needed. The project manager can use this analysis to define specific actions
to increase the engagement level of the quality control manager.

References from the PMBOK Guide and Agile Practice Guide emphasize the
importance of stakeholder engagement and the use of tools like stakeholder
engagement assessment matrices to assess and manage stakeholder
involvement throughout the project.

Incorrect Options:

A. Ask the quality control manager to arrange for liquidated damages:

This option focuses on imposing penalties rather than addressing the root
cause of the stakeholder's resistance. It is not aligned with the principles of
stakeholder engagement and relationship management.

B. Review the risk register to ascertain ways to influence the quality control
manager:

While reviewing the risk register is a good practice, influencing stakeholders,

especially when there is resistance, requires a more targeted approach. The
stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a more appropriate tool for
assessing and addressing engagement levels.

C. Encourage the team to find another stakeholder:

This option does not address the issue of improving engagement with the
existing quality control manager. It may lead to complications and
misunderstandings in the project, as stakeholders are chosen based on their
relevance and expertise.

In summary, option D is the correct answer as it involves a systematic

analysis of the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix to understand
the current level of engagement and define specific actions to improve the
stakeholder's involvement. The incorrect options (A, B, C) either focus on
punitive measures, are not targeted towards improving engagement, or
suggest replacing the stakeholder without addressing the root cause of the
resistance.

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg. 300, Stakeholder

Engagement Matrix
 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 10: Build shared understanding
Question 18:
Skipped
You are a project manager for a project that has team members all
across the globe. What is the correct order of Tuckman's ladder for
stages of formation of a team?

 Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming, Adjourning

 Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

(Correct)

 Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning, Forming

 Forming, Performing, Adjourning, Storming, Norming

Explanation
Option 2: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning.

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 2: Lead a team

Link to PMBOK 7th Ed: Section 4.2.6.1 - Tuckman's Ladder

Tuckman's stages of group development, commonly known as Tuckman's

ladder or Tuckman's model, describe the stages that teams go through to
achieve effective teamwork. The model consists of five stages:

1. Forming:

- Characteristics: In this initial stage, team members are often polite and
may be somewhat reserved. They are getting to know each other and
figuring out their roles and responsibilities within the team.

- Team Behavior: Members tend to seek guidance and clarification from the
team leader. There may be a lack of clarity about the team's goals and
objectives.
2. Storming:

- Characteristics: Conflict and disagreement emerge as team members

express their individual opinions and perspectives. This stage can be marked
by competition for influence and a struggle for leadership.

- Team Behavior: Differences in work styles, approaches, and opinions

become more apparent. The team may experience some tension and power
struggles.

3. Norming:

- Characteristics: The team begins to establish norms and rules for working
together. Members start to resolve conflicts, and a sense of unity and
cohesion emerges.

- Team Behavior: Collaboration increases, and members start to appreciate

each other's strengths. They find ways to work together more effectively and
develop a sense of camaraderie.

4. Performing:

- Characteristics: The team reaches a high level of performance. Members

understand their roles, work together smoothly, and make significant
progress towards their goals.

- Team Behavior: There is a high level of trust and open communication.

Creativity and innovation thrive, and the team achieves a state of optimal
productivity.

5. Adjourning (or Mourning):

- Characteristics: This stage involves the completion of the team's tasks or

project. Team members may experience a sense of loss as the group
disbands.
 - Team Behavior: Acknowledging the accomplishments and celebrating the
team's successes is important during this stage. It's an opportunity for
reflection and recognition of individual and collective contributions.

These stages are not necessarily linear, and teams may revisit earlier stages,
especially if there are changes in team membership or project requirements.
Tuckman's model provides a framework for understanding the natural
evolution of teams and helps team leaders navigate the challenges and
dynamics that arise during the team-building process.

Question 19:
Skipped
During the direct and manage project work process for a project, the project
sponsor suddenly replaces a key resource of the project with a newly hired
person. This was done without the consultation of the project manager and
now this has totally caught the team off-guard. What should the project
manager do?
 Stop all project work and setup a meeting with the sponsor to
know why this change was done without consent
 Arrange the onboarding training for this person as fast as
possible and provide him a work-plan
 Check the resource management plan to identify the next
course of action
 Review the risks this new change will bring to the project in
terms of scope, schedule or budget

(Correct)

Explanation
Correct Answer: D. Review the risks this new change will bring to
the project in terms of scope, schedule, or budget

Explanation:

Option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the principles of risk

management in project management. When a significant change occurs,
such as the replacement of a key resource, the project manager should
conduct a risk assessment to evaluate the potential impact on scope,
schedule, and budget.
References from the PMBOK Guide emphasize the importance of risk
management in project execution. Risk identification, analysis, and response
planning are crucial aspects of effective project risk management. The
project manager should assess how this unexpected change might affect the
project objectives and take appropriate actions to mitigate or respond to the
identified risks.

Incorrect Options:

A. Stop all project work and set up a meeting with the sponsor:

Stopping all project work may not be the most productive immediate
response. Instead, the project manager should focus on assessing the impact
of the change and planning appropriate actions. A sudden halt to the project
could create additional issues.

B. Arrange the onboarding training for this person:

While onboarding the new resource is an important step, it may not be the
immediate priority. The project manager should first assess the risks
associated with the change before proceeding with onboarding activities.

C. Check the resource management plan:

While the resource management plan is a valuable reference, the immediate

concern is the unexpected replacement and its potential impact on the
project's overall success. A broader risk assessment, as suggested in option
D, is more appropriate in this situation.

In summary, option D is the correct answer as it focuses on reviewing the

risks associated with the sudden change, aligning with best practices in
project risk management. The incorrect options either suggest actions that
may not be the immediate priority or overlook the importance of risk
assessment in responding to unexpected changes during project execution.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-4: Support organizational changes
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Risk Reviews - Pg. 249, 341
Question 20:
Skipped
As mentioned in the Agile Practice Guide, the Agile Manifesto values
customer collaboration over contract negotiation. So, a collaborative
approach with the supplier is one that pursues a shared risk-reward
ownership, where all sides win. Which of the following contracting techniques
is NOT a preferred way for agile-managed projects?

 Dynamic scope option

 Cost reimbursable
 Firm fixed price

(Correct)

 Early cancellation option

Explanation
Option 3: FFP (Firm Fixed Price) contract is a type of contract which is highly
biased towards the customer risk mitigation rather than creating a win-win
situation both for the customer and the supplier. Such type of contract is not
recommended for an agile-led project.

A Firm Fixed Price (FFP) contract is a type of contract in which the buyer
pays a fixed price for the product or service, regardless of the actual costs
incurred by the seller. While FFP contracts are commonly used in traditional
project management, they may not be suitable for Agile projects due to the
inherent characteristics and principles of Agile methodologies. Here are
some reasons why a Firm Fixed Price contract may not be the best fit for an
Agile project:

1. Uncertainty and Change:

- Agile Embraces Change: Agile projects thrive on embracing change and

responding to customer feedback to deliver a valuable product. FFP
contracts are more rigid and may not accommodate the frequent changes
that can occur in Agile projects as requirements evolve.

2. Iterative and Incremental Development:

 - Agile's Iterative Nature: Agile projects follow iterative and incremental
development approaches, delivering a product in small, functional
increments. FFP contracts, which typically require a well-defined scope
upfront, may not align well with the iterative nature of Agile projects where
requirements evolve over time.

3. Customer Collaboration:

- Close Customer Collaboration in Agile: Agile emphasizes continuous

collaboration with the customer to ensure that the product meets their
evolving needs. FFP contracts often have less room for this ongoing
collaboration and may not support the flexibility needed to adjust
deliverables based on customer feedback.

4. Adaptability to Change:

- Limited Adaptability in FFP Contracts: FFP contracts are less adaptable to

changes in requirements, priorities, or project conditions. Agile projects, on
the other hand, require flexibility to adapt to emerging requirements and
market dynamics.

5. Incomplete Requirements Upfront:

- Dynamic Requirements in Agile: Agile projects typically start with high-

level or evolving requirements, and detailed requirements are discovered
and refined throughout the project. FFP contracts usually assume well-
defined requirements upfront, which may not align with the dynamic nature
of Agile projects.

6. Focus on Value Delivery:

- Value-Driven Approach in Agile: Agile prioritizes delivering maximum

value to the customer, and the scope of work may evolve based on changing
priorities. FFP contracts, which fix the scope and price, may not align well
with the Agile principle of adapting to deliver the highest value features.
7. Risk Allocation:

- Risk Distribution in FFP Contracts: FFP contracts often place more risk on
the contractor, which may lead to challenges if requirements change
significantly. Agile projects thrive on shared responsibility and collaboration
between the customer and the development team.

In summary, while Firm Fixed Price contracts are suitable for projects with
well-defined and stable requirements, they may not be the best fit for Agile
projects due to their inherent flexibility, adaptability, and customer-centric
approach, which are essential characteristics of Agile methodologies.
Instead, Agile projects often use contracts that allow for flexibility, such as
Time and Materials (T&M) or Cost-Reimbursable contracts with appropriate
controls and collaboration mechanisms.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11: Plan and manage procurement. I would
recommend that you watch my tutorial video on TYPES OF CONTRACT from
my YouTube channel as well: https://youtu.be/AIXiMzAXtdw

Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 4.6.8 - Agreements and Contracts

Question 21:
Skipped
A financial institution is planning to use artificial intelligence to recommend
debt instruments suited to the customer's risk profile. The founder of the
organization foresees this as a strong opportunity and charters a project
team to develop a proposal.

What should be the first step for the product owner?

 Ask the team to complete a PESTLE analysis to validate the

project landscape
 Add this as an impediment for the team information radiator
 Work with the team to develop a business case

(Correct)

 Challenge the suitability of using artificial intelligence to

recommend debt instruments
Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of project management principles,
the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide,
and associated concepts.

A. Ask the team to complete a PESTLE analysis to validate the project

landscape:

- PESTLE analysis is a tool used to understand and evaluate the external

macro-environmental factors affecting a project. However, it is typically done
during the project pre-initiation phase, primarily the responsibility of
business development team, and it might not be the first step for the product
owner. The initial focus should be on defining the project's purpose and
justification.

- PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance of developing a project charter

as the initial step, which includes defining the project purpose and high-level
requirements.

B. Add this as an impediment for the team information radiator:

- Agile practices, including the use of information radiators, are more

concerned with team collaboration and transparency. However, in the
context of the question, addressing impediments for the team should come
after establishing the project's business justification.

- This option is not aligned with the typical project initiation steps
recommended by PMBOK.

C. Work with the team to develop a business case:

- This is the correct answer. Developing a business case is a crucial step in

project initiation. The business case outlines the reasons for starting the
project, the benefits to be gained, and the overall feasibility of the project. It
helps in ensuring that the project is aligned with the organization's objectives
and is a key element in the initiation phase.

- PMBOK Guide stresses the importance of a business case in project

initiation and planning.
D. Challenge the suitability of using artificial intelligence to recommend debt
instruments:

- While it's essential to consider the suitability of using artificial intelligence

for the project, challenging it should not be the first step. The initial focus
should be on understanding the potential benefits and justifying the project's
existence through the development of a business case.

- PMBOK Guide recommends assessing project feasibility during initiation,

but it is part of the broader business case development rather than a
separate step.

In summary, option C is the correct answer because it aligns with standard

project initiation practices, emphasizing the importance of developing a
business case to justify the project. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they
either focus on tasks that come later in the project lifecycle or are not
aligned with the typical project initiation process outlined in the PMBOK
Guide.

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 1.10 - Business Case and
Benefits Management Plan
 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 1 - Business Value
Question 22:
Skipped
A project manager is practicing to lead his team by focusing, understanding,
and addressing the needs and development of team members, thereby
trying to keep the team energized to deliver their highest possible
performance. He is keen on building the right condition & atmosphere for his
team members to succeed. Which leadership style is being demonstrating
here?

 Servant leader

(Correct)

 Dictatorial
 Laissez-faire
 Transformational

Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of leadership styles in project
management, drawing references from the Project Management Body of
Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

A. Servant leader:

- This is the correct answer. A servant leader focuses on serving and

supporting the needs of the team members, emphasizing their development
and success. The servant leader creates a positive and empowering
environment to enable the team to achieve its best performance.

- PMBOK Guide acknowledges the importance of leadership styles that

emphasize collaboration and support for team members.

B. Dictatorial:

- This leadership style is characterized by a leader who makes decisions

without the input of the team, giving orders and expecting compliance. It
does not align with the description in the question, which emphasizes
understanding and addressing the needs of team members and creating the
right conditions for success.

- PMBOK Guide promotes collaborative leadership styles that involve team

members in decision-making.

C. Laissez-faire:

- Laissez-faire leadership is characterized by a hands-off approach, where

the leader provides little guidance or direction. This style is not aligned with
the description in the question, which emphasizes the project manager's
focus on understanding and addressing the needs of team members.

- PMBOK Guide suggests that while some autonomy is beneficial, effective

project managers are actively involved in guiding and supporting the team.

D. Transformational:
 - Transformational leadership involves inspiring and motivating the team to
achieve extraordinary outcomes. While this leadership style is positive and
often involves creating a positive atmosphere, the emphasis in the question
is more on understanding and addressing the individual needs of team
members.

- PMBOK Guide recognizes transformational leadership as a valuable style,

but it's not the primary focus in the given scenario.

In summary, option A (Servant leader) is the correct answer because it aligns

with the description in the question, emphasizing the project manager's
focus on understanding and addressing the needs of team members and
creating the right conditions for success. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as
they describe leadership styles that do not match the characteristics
presented in the question.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Servant Leadership

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 3.3.1 - Leadership Styles
Question 23:
Skipped
A new project manager has joined a team which is experienced and matured.
Most of the team members are quite experienced and have been in the role
for more than ten years now. The role of the project manager is to help the
team make their own decisions and establish their own goals to drive value.
The project manager is instrumental in breaking any barriers for the team
and provide direction when needed. What is the type of leadership style
would be most suitable in this situation?

 Laissez-faire

(Correct)

 Transactional
 Transformational
 Charismatic

Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of leadership styles in project
management, considering the characteristics of the team and the project
manager's role. We'll draw references from the Project Management Body of
Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.
A. Laissez-faire:

- This is the correct answer. In a situation where the team is experienced

and matured, and the project manager's role is to help the team make their
own decisions and establish their own goals, a laissez-faire leadership style is
most suitable. Laissez-faire leaders empower team members to take
ownership of their work and decisions while providing support when needed.

- PMBOK Guide acknowledges the importance of adapting leadership styles

to the characteristics of the team and the project.

B. Transactional:

- Transactional leadership involves a more structured approach, where

leaders provide rewards or punishments based on performance. This style
may not be the most suitable in a scenario where the team is experienced
and matured, and the project manager's role is to empower the team to
make their own decisions.

- PMBOK Guide suggests that transactional leadership may be more

applicable in situations where tasks are routine or well-defined.

C. Transformational:

- Transformational leadership focuses on inspiring and motivating team

members to achieve extraordinary outcomes. While this leadership style is
positive, in a situation where the team is already experienced and matured,
a more hands-off approach like laissez-faire may be more appropriate.

- PMBOK Guide recognizes transformational leadership as valuable but

emphasizes that the choice of leadership style depends on the context.

D. Charismatic:

- Charismatic leadership involves a leader who uses their charm and

personality to inspire and motivate the team. While charisma can be
beneficial, the description in the question emphasizes the project manager's
role in helping the team make their own decisions, which aligns more with a
laissez-faire style.

- PMBOK Guide does not specifically highlight charismatic leadership but

emphasizes the importance of adapting leadership style to the needs of the
team.

In summary, option A (Laissez-faire) is the correct answer because it aligns

with the scenario of an experienced and matured team where the project
manager's role is to empower the team to make their own decisions. Options
B, C, and D are less suitable in this context based on the characteristics
described in the question.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Servant Leadership

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 3.3.1 - Leadership Styles
Question 24:
Skipped
The project manager learns about a new regulatory requirement from a legal
entity that may impact the business case and benefits management plan for
a project. The project charter has already been aligned and signed by the
sponsor.

What should be the next best step for the project manager?

 Assess the impact of this requirement to project deliverables

and provide a recommendation to the sponsor

(Correct)

 Add this as a risk in the project risk register and assign a

suitable stakeholder as the owner
 Move to the planning stage since the project charter is now
approved
 Address the requirement by creating a procurement
management plan
Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of project management principles,
drawing references from the Project Management Body of Knowledge
(PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

A. Assess the impact of this requirement to project deliverables and

provide a recommendation to the sponsor:
 - This is the correct answer. When a new regulatory requirement arises
that may impact the business case and benefits management plan, the
project manager should assess its impact on project deliverables. This aligns
with the PMBOK Guide, which emphasizes the importance of addressing
changes and impacts to project objectives promptly. The project manager
should provide a recommendation to the sponsor for potential adjustments
to the project scope or other components.

B. Add this as a risk in the project risk register and assign a suitable
stakeholder as the owner:

- While identifying this as a risk is a good practice, the immediate response

should be to assess the impact and provide a recommendation to the
sponsor. Adding it to the risk register is a secondary step that may follow the
impact assessment. Also, note that the project has not moved onto the
'planning' phase yet, and risk register does not exist at this point.

- PMBOK Guide suggests that risk management involves both proactive and
reactive strategies. In this case, the immediate impact assessment is a
reactive strategy, and updating the risk register is a proactive strategy for
future risk management.

C. Move to the planning stage since the project charter is now approved:

- This option is not the most appropriate response in this situation. While
the project charter has been approved, a new regulatory requirement that
may impact the project's business case requires immediate attention. Project
planning can proceed, but the impact assessment and recommendation to
the sponsor should be the immediate next step.

- PMBOK Guide highlights the iterative nature of project management,

allowing for revisiting and updating plans as needed.

D. Address the requirement by creating a procurement management plan:

- Creating a procurement management plan is not the immediate next step

in response to a new regulatory requirement. The focus should be on
assessing the impact on project deliverables and informing the sponsor.
Procurement management is part of project planning and should follow the
initial impact assessment.
 - PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance of addressing changes
promptly to prevent negative impacts on project objectives.

In summary, option A is the correct answer as it aligns with the principles of

assessing and addressing changes promptly when a new regulatory
requirement arises. Options B, C, and D are less suitable as they either delay
the impact assessment or focus on secondary steps before addressing the
immediate impact on project deliverables.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 1 - Deliver business value

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 1.10 - Business Case and
Benefits Management Plan
Question 25:
Skipped
Your project is in the execution phase currently, and as a project manager,
you have two of your stakeholders Mr. Jordan and Mrs. Shelly raising
concerns with you that the information they are receiving through your
status reports is incomplete. Even the project meetings are not able to
resolve their concerns. You sense that if you delay this further, it may get
escalated to your sponsor. What should you do as a project manager here?
 Update your sponsor about this issue even before Mr. Jordan
and Mrs. Shelly escalates it
 Create a special communications management plan for Mr.
Jordan and Mrs. Shelly
 Follow the stakeholder engagement plan
 Call a meeting with Mr. Jordan and Mrs. Shelly and try to
understand where exactly they are finding issues in the project
communications

(Correct)

Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of project management principles,
drawing references from the Project Management Body of Knowledge
(PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and associated concepts.

D. Call a meeting with Mr. Jordan and Mrs. Shelly and try to
understand where exactly they are finding issues in the project
communications:
 - This is the correct answer. In a situation where stakeholders are
expressing concerns about incomplete information and the inability of
project meetings to resolve their issues, the project manager should
proactively address the concerns. Calling a meeting with the stakeholders to
understand their specific issues allows for direct communication and
provides an opportunity to identify and address their concerns promptly thus
demonstrating servant leadership.

- PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance of effective communication and

stakeholder engagement in project management.

A. Update your sponsor about this issue even before Mr. Jordan and Mrs.
Shelly escalates it:

- While keeping the sponsor informed is important, the immediate step

should be to address the concerns directly with the stakeholders. Direct
communication with Mr. Jordan and Mrs. Shelly allows for a more proactive
approach to resolving the issue before it escalates.

- PMBOK Guide highlights the need for effective communication and

stakeholder management throughout the project life cycle.

B. Create a special communications management plan for Mr. Jordan and

Mrs. Shelly:

- Creating a special communications management plan for specific

stakeholders may not be the most efficient or effective solution in this
context. The issue seems to be related to the existing communication
process, and a targeted approach to understand and address the specific
concerns of Mr. Jordan and Mrs. Shelly is more appropriate.

- PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance of tailoring communication

approaches to the needs of different stakeholders.

C. Follow the stakeholder engagement plan:

- While the stakeholder engagement plan provides guidance on how to

engage with stakeholders, in this specific situation, where concerns have
been raised about communication, it is important to take immediate action
to address those concerns. The stakeholder engagement plan can be a
reference, but the project manager should be proactive in resolving the
issue.

- PMBOK Guide encourages adaptability and responsiveness to stakeholder

needs.

In summary, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the principles of

effective communication, stakeholder engagement, and proactive issue
resolution. Options A, B, and C are less suitable in this context, either due to
a delay in addressing the stakeholders' concerns or an approach that may
not directly resolve the communication issues raised by Mr. Jordan and Mrs.
Shelly.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Lead Team

 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 2.2.1.2 - Distributed management
and leadership
Question 26:
Skipped
Which among the following is NOT a part of the 3 common roles
used in an Agile environment of project management?

 Cross-functional team members

 Product owner
 Process owner

(Correct)

 Team facilitator

Explanation
Option 3: Process owner is NOT a part of the Agile way of project
management.

In the context of an Agile project, the roles of the Product Owner, Team
Facilitator, and Cross-Functional Team Members play critical parts in
delivering value through collaboration, adaptability, and customer
satisfaction. Here's an explanation of each role:

Product Owner:
 - The Product Owner is a key stakeholder representing the customer and is
responsible for maximizing the value of the product or project. Their primary
role is to define the product backlog, prioritize features, and make decisions
about what needs to be built based on customer and business priorities.

- The Product Owner collaborates closely with the development team,

stakeholders, and other relevant parties to ensure that the product backlog
items are well-defined, prioritized, and deliver business value. They provide
clarity on requirements, answer questions, and make timely decisions to
guide the development team.

Team Facilitator (Scrum Master):

- In Agile frameworks like Scrum, the Team Facilitator is often referred to

as the Scrum Master. Their primary responsibility is to facilitate the Scrum
process and remove impediments that the team might face. The Team
Facilitator is not a traditional project manager but serves as a servant-leader
for the team.

- The Scrum Master helps the team understand and adopt Agile principles,
facilitates Scrum events (such as Sprint Planning, Daily Standups, Sprint
Review, and Sprint Retrospective), and ensures that the team is working
efficiently and continuously improving.

Cross-Functional Team Members:

- Cross-functional team members are individuals with diverse skills and

expertise who work collaboratively to deliver a potentially shippable product
at the end of each iteration (Sprint in Scrum). These teams are composed of
members with different roles, such as developers, testers, designers, etc.

- The idea of a cross-functional team is to have all the skills needed to

complete the work within the team. This minimizes dependencies on
external resources and allows the team to be self-sufficient and adaptable to
changes.

In summary, the Product Owner, Team Facilitator (Scrum Master), and Cross-
Functional Team Members each play a crucial role in Agile project delivery.
The Product Owner ensures alignment with customer needs, the Team
Facilitator fosters a productive and collaborative team environment, and
Cross-Functional Team Members bring diverse skills to deliver valuable
increments of the product.

 See page 40 of PMBOK Agile Practice Guide to know more about these
3 roles.
 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 : Lead a Team
Question 27:
Skipped
_____________ way of project management plans to improve the product or
result via successive prototypes or applying proof-of-concept. Each new
design of the prototype yields new stakeholder feedback and team insights.
Fill in the blank:

 Agile
 Iterative

(Correct)

 Predictive
 Incremental

Explanation
1. Agile:

- Agile is an iterative and incremental project management methodology

that prioritizes flexibility, collaboration, and customer satisfaction. It
emphasizes delivering small, functional pieces of a project in short iterations,
typically in 2 to 4 weeks known as sprints. Agile methodologies, such as
Scrum and Kanban, promote adaptive planning, continuous improvement,
and close collaboration between cross-functional teams and stakeholders.

2. Iterative (CORRECT):

- Iterative project management is a methodology where the project is

developed via prototypes, refined, and delivered in multiple cycles or
iterations. Each iteration represents a portion of the final project, and
improvements are made based on feedback from each iteration. This
approach allows for flexibility and adjustments throughout the project life
cycle, fostering continuous refinement and adaptation to changing
requirements.
3. Predictive (Waterfall):

- Predictive, or waterfall, project management is a traditional and linear

approach where the project is planned and executed in a sequence of well-
defined phases. Each phase must be completed before moving on to the
next, making it more rigid and less adaptable to changes. The entire project
is planned and documented upfront, with a focus on predictability and
control.

4. Incremental:

- Incremental project management involves breaking the project into

smaller, manageable parts called increments. Each increment represents a
portion of the project's functionality, and these increments are developed
and delivered sequentially. The project evolves with each increment,
allowing for partial delivery of the project's benefits at different stages.
Incremental approaches are often used in combination with other
methodologies like Agile.

In summary:

- Agile is characterized by flexibility, iterative development, and close

collaboration with stakeholders.

- Iterative involves cycles of development and refinement, with

improvements made based on feedback from each iteration.

- Predictive (Waterfall) follows a linear sequence of well-defined phases with

upfront planning and documentation.

- Incremental involves breaking the project into smaller parts, with each
increment delivering a portion of the project's functionality.

 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed. - Section 2.3 - Development approaches

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project
methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
Question 28:
Skipped
A new project manager has been onboarded in a project with a history of
changing leadership and handovers. The project is currently running on a
tight schedule and budget. Within a week of joining, the project manager has
identified a schedule risk that demands an additional $40,000 to mitigate, or
the project could face a 3-4 week delay. The client is pressing for an early
project closure.

What should the project manager do now?

 Ask the sponsor to approve the $40,000 at this stage

 Setup a meeting with all the stakeholders and identify
schedule compression opportunities
 Raise a change request & evaluate the impact of this risk on
scope, resources, quality etc.

(Correct)

 Ignore the risk and carry on as per baseline plan

Explanation
Option C is the correct answer for several reasons aligned with project
management best practices. Here's an explanation of why options A, B, and
D are incorrect:

Option A: Asking the sponsor to approve the $40,000 at this stage may seem
like a quick solution, but it overlooks the proper change control process. In
project management, changes to scope, budget, or schedule should go
through a formal change management process. This process involves
documenting and evaluating the impact of the change on various project
aspects. The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) emphasizes
the importance of change control to maintain project integrity.

Option B: Setting up a meeting with stakeholders to identify schedule

compression opportunities is a good practice, but it doesn't address the
immediate risk at hand. While schedule compression might be part of the
solution, it doesn't explicitly follow the established change management
process for addressing identified risks. The Agile Practice Guide emphasizes
collaboration and communication, but in this context, a formal change
request is needed to manage the risk appropriately.

Option D: Ignoring the risk and carrying on with the baseline plan is not a
recommended approach. The PMBOK stresses the importance of proactive
risk management to identify, assess, and respond to risks. Ignoring a
significant schedule risk without proper evaluation and mitigation could lead
to severe project delays, negatively impacting the project's success.
Option C: Raising a change request and evaluating the impact of the risk on
scope, resources, quality, etc., aligns with best project management
practices. The PMBOK framework emphasizes the importance of formal
change requests to assess the impact of changes on project constraints. This
approach allows for a thorough evaluation of the risk, considering its
potential effects on various project elements, and enables informed decision-
making by project stakeholders.

In summary, option C is the correct choice as it aligns with the established

change management process, ensuring that the project manager follows a
structured approach to address the identified schedule risk in a way that
considers its broader impact on the project.

I would recommend that you watch the following tutorial videos on Change
Management from my YouTube channel:

1. Change Management (PICC) Process Flow

Chart: https://youtu.be/Dawt8dRlutI

2. Situational Questions of Change

Management/PICC: https://youtu.be/i0PE2j-n7MI

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 10 - Manage project changes

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 7.2 - PICC
Question 29:
Skipped
This practice of Agile Methodology helps the team to learn from its
previous work on the product and its processes. During this process,
at regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more
effective and then tunes and adjusts the behavior accordingly.
Which practice is being talked about here?

 Retrospectives

(Correct)

 Backlog operation
 Backlog refinement
 Daily standups
Explanation
Option 1: Retrospectives help the team to learn from its previous work on
the product and its processes. During this process, at regular intervals, the
team reflects on how to become more effective and then tunes and adjusts
the behavior accordingly.

An agile retrospective is a structured meeting held at the end of a specific

time period (often at the end of an iteration or sprint) in Agile project
management. The purpose of the retrospective is for the team to reflect on
the recent work, identify what went well, what could be improved, and to
make decisions on how to implement those improvements.

Key elements of an agile retrospective include:

1. Reflection: The team reflects on the recent iteration, considering both

positive and negative aspects of the work.

2. Identification of Improvements: Team members identify specific actions or

changes that could improve their processes, collaboration, or product
delivery.

3. Action Items: The team decides on concrete action items or experiments

to implement in the next iteration. These are changes aimed at addressing
the identified areas for improvement.

4. Continuous Improvement: The retrospective is a mechanism for

continuous improvement, promoting a culture of learning and adaptation
within the team.

5. Facilitation: The retrospective is often facilitated by a Scrum Master or

another team member. The goal is to ensure that the meeting remains
focused, constructive, and leads to actionable outcomes.
The retrospective is a fundamental practice in Agile methodologies, such as
Scrum and Kanban, fostering a culture of openness, collaboration, and
adaptability. It allows teams to inspect and adapt their processes
continuously, ultimately enhancing their effectiveness and delivering more
value to the customer.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 4: Empower team members and

stakeholders
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.1 - Retrospectives

Check out this video on my YouTube channel that talks about the
various Agile Ceremonies: https://youtu.be/EGl7CI-Z7GI?feature=shared

Question 30:
Skipped
One of your software suppliers is late for a critical project deliverable. On
investigation, you find that this is primarily due to some severe resource
crunch at the supplier's end. Your CPI for the project currently is 1.42. What
should you do as a project manager to mitigate this issue?
 Plan hiring resources internally or externally and expedite the
pending deliverables

(Correct)

 Blacklist the current supplier and search for alternate vendors

 Send the supplier a legal notice for causing delay in your
project
 Work with the supplier to develop his team so that he does not
faces any issues like this in future for projects
Explanation
Option A is the correct answer for several reasons aligned with project
management best practices. Here's an explanation of why options B, C, and
D are incorrect:

Option A: Plan hiring resources internally or externally and expedite

the pending deliverables.

- Correct Reasoning: This option aligns with the concept of resource

management and corrective actions in project management. The Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) emphasizes the importance of
addressing resource constraints promptly to maintain project schedule and
performance. Planning to hire additional resources internally or externally is
a proactive measure to mitigate the impact of the supplier's resource crunch.
This even makes more sense since the CPI of the project is >1 which means
that the project is still within budget and additional funding to hire
internal/external resources should not be an issue.

Option B: Blacklist the current supplier and search for alternate vendors.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While finding alternate vendors may be necessary in

certain situations, blacklisting the current supplier without attempting to
address the root cause of the issue is a hasty decision. The PMBOK
framework encourages project managers to collaborate with stakeholders
and resolve issues rather than taking punitive measures without a
comprehensive evaluation of the situation.

Option C: Send the supplier a legal notice for causing delay in your project.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Legal actions should be considered as a last resort

after all other avenues have been explored. Sending a legal notice may
strain the relationship and hinder collaboration, which is counterproductive.
The PMBOK framework emphasizes the importance of communication,
negotiation, and conflict resolution before resorting to legal actions.

Option D: Work with the supplier to develop his team so that he does not
face any issues like this in the future for projects.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While investing in the development of the supplier's

team is a positive approach, it might not provide an immediate solution to
the current resource crunch. The PMBOK framework emphasizes timely
corrective actions to address ongoing issues. Collaborating with the supplier
to enhance their team's capabilities is a long-term strategy and may not
directly address the urgency of the current project deliverable.

In summary, option A is the correct choice as it aligns with the PMBOK

framework's emphasis on proactive resource management and taking
corrective actions to address project issues promptly. Options B, C, and D are
less appropriate in this context as they either neglect immediate problem-
solving, resort to punitive measures prematurely, or focus on long-term
strategies that may not address the urgent project deliverable.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget &
resources.
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Table 10.1 - Earned Value
Calculations Summary Table

Please watch my tutorial video on EVM (CPI, SPI, CV, EV) from my YouTube
channel as well: https://youtu.be/FgirfE5TAm8

Question 31:
Skipped
During the execution of a construction project, the project manager notices
that the actual project costs are exceeding the planned budget. What should
the project manager do FIRST to address this cost overrun?
 Implement cost-cutting measures to reduce expenses
immediately.
 Review the project scope and identify any potential scope
creep.
 Perform reserve analysis for the variances between the
planned and actual costs

(Correct)

 Consult with the project sponsor for additional funding.

Explanation
Option C is the correct answer for several reasons aligned with project
management best practices. Here's an explanation of why options A, B, and
D are incorrect:

Option C: Perform reserve analysis for the variances between the

planned and actual costs.

- Correct Reasoning: The PMBOK framework emphasizes the importance of

monitoring and controlling project costs. Performing a reserve analysis
involves assessing the variances between planned and actual costs and
determining whether contingency reserves should be utilized. It helps the
project manager understand the nature and magnitude of the cost overrun
and decide on an appropriate course of action.

Option A: Implement cost-cutting measures to reduce expenses

immediately.
- Incorrect Reasoning: While cost-cutting measures may be necessary,
implementing them immediately without a thorough analysis of the cost
variances and the potential impact on the project scope and quality can be
counterproductive. The PMBOK framework recommends a systematic
approach to cost management, including the analysis of cost variances
before deciding on corrective actions.

Option B: Review the project scope and identify any potential scope creep.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While scope creep can contribute to cost overruns,

jumping to conclusions about scope creep as the first step may be
premature. The PMBOK framework recommends a structured approach to
scope management, including scope verification and control processes. A
comprehensive analysis of cost variances and their root causes is necessary
before attributing the cost overrun solely to scope issues.

Option D: Consult with the project sponsor for additional funding.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While consulting with the project sponsor for

additional funding may eventually be necessary, it should not be the first
step. The PMBOK framework encourages project managers to analyze the
situation, understand the reasons for cost overruns, and explore internal
project reserves before seeking external funding. The reserve analysis in
Option C is a more detailed and structured approach to understanding the
cost variances.

In summary, Option C is the correct choice as it aligns with the PMBOK

framework's emphasis on analyzing variances before taking corrective
actions and considering the use of contingency reserves. Options A, B, and D
are less appropriate as they involve immediate actions without a
comprehensive analysis of the cost overruns and their root causes.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 5 - Plan and manage budget
 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed- Reserve Analysis - Pg. 177
Question 32:
Skipped
A project manager for an automation project in his organization is developing
RFI, RFQ, and RFPs for procuring a collaborative robot from Universal Robots
to automate a sorting process in a manufacturing line. Request for
information (RFI), Request for Quote (RFQ), Request for proposal (RFP) are
examples of:

 Procurement plans
 Bid documents

(Correct)

 Procurement management plan

 Procurement audit reports
Explanation
RFI, RFP, and RFQ are different types of project procurement bid documents
used in the project management and procurement processes. Each
document serves a specific purpose in the procurement lifecycle:

1. RFI (Request for Information):

- Purpose: RFI is used to gather information from potential vendors or

suppliers about their products, services, capabilities, and expertise. It is
often used in the early stages of the procurement process when the project
team needs more details to make informed decisions.

- Content: An RFI typically includes questions seeking clarification on

various aspects, such as the vendor's experience, qualifications, technical
capabilities, and potential solutions.

2. RFP (Request for Proposal):

- Purpose: RFP is a more formal document used to solicit proposals from

potential vendors or suppliers. It provides detailed information about the
project requirements, objectives, and criteria for vendor selection. The goal
is to receive comprehensive proposals that outline how the vendor will meet
the project's needs.

- Content: An RFP includes a clear description of the project, specifications,

evaluation criteria, and any specific requirements or expectations. Vendors
respond with detailed proposals that demonstrate how they will address the
project's requirements.
3. RFQ (Request for Quotation):

- Purpose: RFQ is used when the project team has already defined its
requirements and is seeking price quotations from vendors for specific
products or services. RFQs are often used for straightforward procurement
needs where the primary consideration is pricing.

- Content: An RFQ includes a detailed list of the products or services

required, along with any relevant specifications. Vendors respond with price
quotations for supplying the specified goods or services.

In summary:

- RFI is for gathering information.

- RFP is for soliciting comprehensive proposals.

- RFQ is for obtaining price quotations for predefined goods or services.

These bid documents play a crucial role in the procurement process by

facilitating clear communication between the project team and potential
vendors, ensuring that the selected vendor aligns with the project's
objectives and requirements.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11: Plan and manage procurement.
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Bid Documents - Pg. 204

I would recommend that you watch my tutorial video on TYPES OF

CONTRACT from my YouTube channel as well: https://youtu.be/AIXiMzAXtdw

Question 33:
Skipped
This is the ordered list of all the work for a team, presented in story form in
an Agile environment. This is to understand the first release in broad
brushstrokes and the sufficient items for the next iteration. What is being
referred to here?

 Daily standups
 Backlogs
 (Correct)

 Demonstrations
 Retrospectives

Explanation
Option 2: Backlogs are the ordered list of all the work for a team, presented
in story form in an Agile environment. This is to understand the first release
in broad brushstrokes and the sufficient items for the next iteration.

In the context of Agile project management, a backlog refers to a prioritized

list of work items that need to be addressed or completed in a project.
Backlogs are commonly used in Agile frameworks such as Scrum and Kanban
to manage and plan the work to be done. There are two main types of
backlogs: Product Backlog and Sprint Backlog.

1. Product Backlog:

- Definition: The Product Backlog is a dynamic and prioritized list of features,

user stories, enhancements, and other deliverables that make up the overall
scope of the project.

- Ownership: The Product Backlog is owned and maintained by the Product

Owner, who is responsible for ensuring that the items in the backlog are well-
defined, prioritized, and aligned with the project goals.

- Prioritization: Items in the Product Backlog are prioritized based on their

value to the product and the project. Higher-priority items are usually more
detailed and well-understood, while lower-priority items may be less defined.

2. Sprint Backlog:

- Definition: The Sprint Backlog is a subset of the Product Backlog that

contains the work items selected for a specific iteration or sprint. It
represents the commitment of the development team for that particular
sprint.

- Ownership: The Sprint Backlog is owned by the development team. During

the Sprint Planning meeting, the team selects items from the Product
Backlog and commits to delivering them during the sprint.
- Dynamic Nature: The Sprint Backlog can evolve throughout the sprint. As
the team gains a better understanding of the work, new tasks may be added,
or priorities may be adjusted.

Key Characteristics of Backlogs in Agile:

- Dynamic and Prioritized: Agile backlogs are dynamic and subject to change.
They are continuously refined and reprioritized based on feedback, changing
requirements, and evolving project needs.

- Transparency: Backlogs provide transparency into the upcoming work,

making it clear what needs to be done and in what order.

- Collaborative: Backlogs are often collaboratively managed. Product Owners,

development teams, and other stakeholders work together to ensure that
the backlog reflects the project's goals and priorities.

In summary, backlogs in Agile project management are essential tools for

planning, organizing, and prioritizing the work to be done. They help Agile
teams stay flexible, respond to change, and deliver value incrementally.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Backlogs - 5.2.2, 5.2.3
Question 34:
Skipped
A product owner is uncertain about the time needed to develop a feature
based on the story points collected. This has been handed over to the agile
team for estimation. The developers think that the feature will need 32 days
to develop. The testing engineers advise that the feature will need 14 days.
However, the scrum master is quite certain that this feature could be
delivered within 8 days.

What is the estimated duration which the product owner should assume
using Beta Estimation Technique?

 16 days

(Correct)
  18 days
 24 days
 32 days
Explanation
Option 1: 16 days : (P+4M+O)/6 = (32+4*14+8)/6 = 16 days

PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is a project management

technique which uses Beta Estimation for estimating the time required to
complete a project task. PERT is particularly useful when the task is complex
and there is a high degree of uncertainty involved. The technique was
developed to manage the complexity of large projects, especially those
related to research and development.

Key components of PERT estimation include:

1. Optimistic Time (O): The best-case scenario for completing a task. This
time estimate is based on the assumption that everything goes as smoothly
as possible.

2. Pessimistic Time (P): The worst-case scenario for completing a task. This
estimate considers potential delays, challenges, or obstacles that could
extend the task duration.

3. Most Likely Time (M): The best estimate of the time required under normal
working conditions and with a normal level of resources.

Using these three estimates (O, P, and M), PERT calculates the Expected
Time (TE) for each task using the formula:

Beta Estimate for Mean = (O + 4M + P) / 6

Additionally, PERT provides a measure of the variability or uncertainty in the

task estimates, known as the Standard Deviation (SD):
Beta Estimate for Standard Deviation = (P - O) / 6

The PERT estimates help project managers create a more realistic and
probabilistic project schedule. It considers the range of possible outcomes
and provides a weighted average, which is particularly useful when dealing
with uncertain or complex tasks.

It's important to note that PERT is just one of many estimation techniques
used in project management. It is often used in conjunction with other
methods to create a more comprehensive understanding of project timelines
and potential risks.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task-9: Manage project planning activities

 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed - Multi point estimating - Section 4.4.2
Question 35:
Skipped
A project manager is managing a portfolio driven equipment installation
program across various geographies for a consumer goods company. The
goal of the project ensures the same equipment standard and performance
independent of the location of installation. This project calls for an
immaculate level of cross-cultural collaboration across stakeholders & team
members of various geographies.

What should the project manager do to address correct communication

channels with correct stakeholders when the project involves teams across
various geographic locations?

 Update communications management plan

(Correct)

 Update risk register

 Update stakeholder register
 Update stakeholder engagement plan

Explanation
Option A is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options B, C, and D are incorrect:
Option A: Update communications management plan.

- Correct Reasoning: The challenge described in the question pertains to

ensuring effective communication across diverse geographic locations. The
Communications Management Plan, a component of the Project Management
Plan, outlines the communication approach, channels, and frequency. It also
identifies the stakeholders and their communication needs. In a project with
global teams, updating the communications management plan is essential to
address cross-cultural collaboration challenges. This aligns with the PMBOK
framework's emphasis on proactively managing communication.

Option B: Update risk register.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While managing teams across various geographies

involves risks, the primary issue in the question is related to communication
and cross-cultural collaboration. The Risk Register is more focused on
identifying and managing potential risks and their impacts. It does not
directly address the need for establishing effective communication channels,
especially in the context of diverse cultural backgrounds.

Option C: Update stakeholder register.

- Incorrect Reasoning: The Stakeholder Register contains information about

project stakeholders and their engagement levels. While it's important to
identify stakeholders in various locations, updating the stakeholder register
alone does not address the broader challenge of ensuring effective
communication channels. The communication plan is a more specific tool for
managing this aspect.

Option D: Update stakeholder engagement plan.

- Incorrect Reasoning: The Stakeholder Engagement Plan defines the

strategies for engaging stakeholders effectively throughout the project.
While it's crucial to engage stakeholders in a cross-cultural setting, the
question is more concerned with establishing proper communication
channels. Updating the stakeholder engagement plan may be part of the
solution, but it does not address the comprehensive communication needs
described in the question.
In summary, option A is the correct choice as it directly aligns with the need
to update the communications management plan to address the specific
challenges of cross-cultural collaboration and communication across various
geographic locations. Options B, C, and D are less appropriate in this
context, as they focus on risk management, stakeholder identification, and
engagement, but do not directly address the communication challenges
highlighted in the question.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 11: Engage and support virtual teams
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Section 5.17 - Plan
Communications Management
Question 36:
Skipped
During this practice of Agile Methodology, the team meets to micro commit
to each other, uncover problems, and ensure that the flow of work goes
smooth through the team. The Kanban board is walked through on a round-
robin basis during this meeting. What is it called?

 Backlog meeting
 Daily standups

(Correct)

 Backlog refinement
 Demonstration & reviews

Explanation
Option 2: Daily standups

Daily Standups in Agile Projects:

Daily Standups, also known as Daily Scrum or Daily Huddle, are a key
practice in Agile methodologies, particularly in Scrum. The purpose of a Daily
Standup is to facilitate quick and efficient communication within the
development team, providing an opportunity for team members to
synchronize their activities and address any impediments. The standup gets
its name from the practice of conducting the meeting while standing to keep
it short and focused.

Key characteristics of Daily Standups:

1. Frequency: Held daily, typically at the same time and place.

2. Time Limit: Short and time-boxed, usually lasting around 15 minutes.

3. Participants: Primarily for the development team members, but the Scrum
Master and Product Owner may also attend.

4. Format: Each team member answers three standard questions: What did I
accomplish yesterday? What will I do today? Are there any impediments or
blockers?

The Daily Standup helps in fostering collaboration, transparency, and quick

problem-solving, ensuring that everyone is on the same page regarding
project progress.

Kanban Boards in Daily Standups:

Kanban is another Agile methodology that focuses on visualizing work,

limiting work in progress, and maximizing flow. Kanban boards are used to
visualize the flow of work items through different stages of the process.
While the Daily Standup is more commonly associated with Scrum, it can be
adapted for use in Kanban projects as well.

Here's how Kanban boards can be used during Daily Standups:

1. Visualizing Work: The Kanban board provides a visual representation of

the work items and their current status. Team members can quickly see
what tasks are in progress, what's completed, and what's in the backlog.

2. Identifying Bottlenecks: During the Daily Standup, team members can

discuss the state of tasks on the Kanban board. If there are columns on the
board that are consistently full or have a large number of items, it signals a
potential bottleneck in the process that needs attention.

3. Quick Updates: Team members can use the Kanban board to provide quick
updates on the status of their work. For example, they might point to specific
tasks on the board while discussing what they accomplished yesterday and
what they plan to do today.

4. Collaborative Problem-Solving: If any tasks are stuck or facing issues, the

visual representation on the Kanban board facilitates collaborative problem-
solving. Team members can discuss how to unblock tasks and improve the
flow of work.

In summary, Daily Standups in Agile projects, whether following Scrum or

Kanban, promote regular communication and collaboration. In Kanban, the
visual nature of the Kanban board enhances the effectiveness of Daily
Standups by providing a shared understanding of the work and helping the
team identify areas for improvement.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 10 - Build a shared understanding

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.4 - Daily Standups
Question 37:
Skipped
A project prototype was aligned within 95% confidence interval during the
feasibility stage. However, during the project chartering process, the
customer denies approval of the project product stating incompleteness in
requirements. However, the end-users had approved the prototype. How
should the project manager respond?
 Organize a focused group discussion with the end-users to
understand the gap
 Review the WBS and verify the requirements documentation
with the customer

(Correct)

 Explore options to negotiate with the customer on basis of

approval by the end-users
 Escalate the issue to the sponsor and ask for intervention
Explanation
Option B is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, C, and D are incorrect:
Option B: Review the WBS and verify the requirements
documentation with the customer.

- Correct Reasoning: In project management, it is crucial to ensure that the

project's scope and requirements are well-defined and agreed upon by all
stakeholders. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a fundamental project
management tool that helps in breaking down the project scope into
manageable components. By reviewing the WBS and verifying requirements
documentation with the customer, the project manager can identify any gaps
or discrepancies, ensuring alignment between the project prototype and the
customer's expectations. This aligns with the PMBOK framework's emphasis
on scope management and requirements validation.

Option A: Organize a focused group discussion with the end-users to

understand the gap.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While understanding the perspective of end-users is

important, the primary concern in the question is the denial of approval by
the customer due to incompleteness in requirements. Organizing a focused
group discussion with end-users may provide valuable insights, but it does
not directly address the discrepancy between customer and end-user
approval. The focus should be on aligning with the customer's expectations.

Option C: Explore options to negotiate with the customer on the basis of

approval by the end-users.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Negotiation is a valid project management skill, but in

this context, it's essential to first clarify and align the requirements with the
customer. Simply negotiating based on end-user approval may not resolve
the issue if there are actual gaps or incompleteness in the documented
requirements. The priority should be to establish a common understanding
with the customer.

Option D: Escalate the issue to the sponsor and ask for intervention.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Escalating to the sponsor should be a last resort after

the project manager has attempted to resolve the issue at the project level.
In this scenario, where there is a discrepancy in requirements, it is more
appropriate for the project manager to first engage with the customer to
understand and address their concerns. Escalation should be considered if
there is a deadlock or if the project manager cannot resolve the issue at the
project level.

In summary, option B is the correct choice as it involves a systematic review

of the WBS and requirements documentation with the customer to identify
and address any gaps or discrepancies. Options A, C, and D, while potentially
valuable in certain contexts, do not directly address the need to verify and
align requirements with the customer, which is the primary concern in the
question.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 8 - Plan and Manage Scope
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg 225 - Requirements
management plan
Question 38:
Skipped
In a weekly project status review meeting, the quality manager expresses
concerns about the sampling plan. The project manager is not able to
understand why this has been highlighted now since the project has already
moved from planning stage to execution stage.

What should ideally be done by the project manager now to resolve the
issue?

 Update the risk response plan after inputs from all the team
members
 Acknowledge the concern raised and recommend that the
impact of this should be assessed in a separate meeting

(Correct)

 Reiterate the fact that the project has moved from planning to
execution and hence it is too late to change the sampling plan
now
 Continue with the meeting agenda and ask the quality
manager to document the proposal via email
Explanation
Option B is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, C, and D are incorrect:
Option B: Acknowledge the concern raised and recommend that the
impact of this should be assessed in a separate meeting.

- Correct Reasoning: The PMBOK framework encourages proactive issue

identification and resolution. If a concern is raised during a project status
review meeting, the project manager should acknowledge the concern and
recommend a separate meeting to assess its impact. This aligns with the
concept of issue management and the importance of addressing concerns
promptly rather than dismissing them outright.

Option A: Update the risk response plan after inputs from all the team
members.

- Incorrect Reasoning: The issue raised by the quality manager is not

necessarily a risk; it's a current concern about the sampling plan. Risk
response plans are typically associated with identified risks during the
planning phase. In this case, the concern is more immediate and should be
addressed as an issue rather than through the formal risk management
process.

Option C: Reiterate the fact that the project has moved from planning to
execution and hence it is too late to change the sampling plan now.

- Incorrect Reasoning: This response reflects a dismissive approach and does

not align with effective project management. It's important to address
concerns raised by team members and stakeholders regardless of the
project phase. Dismissing the concern without assessing its impact may lead
to quality issues during the execution phase.

Option D: Continue with the meeting agenda and ask the quality manager to
document the proposal via email.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Ignoring or deferring the concern without a proper

assessment does not align with best project management practices. While
documenting the proposal via email is a form of communication, it doesn't
actively address the immediate concern expressed by the quality manager
during the meeting.
In summary, option B is the correct choice as it acknowledges the concern,
recognizes the need to assess its impact, and suggests a separate meeting
for a more in-depth discussion. This approach aligns with the PMBOK
framework's emphasis on issue management and effective communication to
resolve concerns in a timely manner. Options A, C, and D, while reflecting
different approaches, do not address the concern raised by the quality
manager in a proactive and collaborative manner.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain1, Task 1 - Manage Conflict

 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed. - Pg. 29, Conflict Management
Question 39:
Skipped
The cost of quality (COQ) associated with a project consists of one or more
costs such as Prevention Costs, Appraisal Costs, and Failure Costs
(Internal/External). Which of the following is an example of the cost of
compliance in the context of Cost of Quality (COQ)?

 Training

(Correct)

 Rework
 Scrap
 Warranty claims
Explanation
In the context of Cost of Quality (COQ) in project management, the "cost of
training" as a "cost of compliance" refers to the expenses associated with
educating and training personnel to adhere to established quality standards,
processes, or regulatory requirements. This cost is incurred to ensure that
individuals involved in the project understand and follow the prescribed
guidelines, procedures, and quality measures.

Here's a breakdown of the concepts:

1. Cost of Quality (COQ):

- COQ is a project management concept that involves assessing and

managing the costs associated with ensuring quality in project deliverables.
- COQ is typically categorized into two main types: the cost of conformance
and the cost of non-conformance.

2. Cost of Compliance:

- This is a subset of the cost of conformance within COQ.

- It includes the costs incurred to ensure that the project adheres to specified
standards, regulations, and quality requirements.

3. Cost of Training as a Component:

- Within the cost of compliance, the "cost of training" refers specifically to

the expenditures related to educating and training project team members,
stakeholders, or other relevant personnel.

- Training costs are incurred to enhance the skills and knowledge of

individuals involved in the project, enabling them to meet the specified
quality standards and comply with established processes.

Examples of "cost of training" as a "cost of compliance" may include:

- Training sessions for project team members on quality management

systems.

- Workshops to educate personnel about regulatory requirements applicable

to the project.

- Instructional programs on new technologies or methodologies that align

with quality standards.

Effectively managing the cost of training as a cost of compliance is essential

for ensuring that project participants have the necessary competencies to
produce high-quality deliverables and comply with relevant regulations. By
investing in training, organizations aim to prevent quality issues, reduce
errors, and enhance overall project performance, contributing to the success
of the project and the satisfaction of stakeholders.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task - 7: Plan and manage the quality of
product/deliverable
 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 2.6.3.1 - COQ
Question 40:
Skipped
TechLabz is a SAAS (Software As A Service) based start-up which has
received a seed funding of $2.5Mn recently. The agile team of TechLabz is
currently working with five sub-teams, each responsible for developing a key
product feature integration. However, a few teams have expressed concerns
about unresolved impediments and blockers.

How should the project manager address this situation?

 Plan to minimize dependencies within the five teams

 Introduce a new collaboration tool to facilitate integration
 Plan to implement a tailored Scrum of Scrums approach

(Correct)

 Merge the five teams into three teams to reduce impediments

Explanation
Option C is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, B, and D are incorrect:

Option C: Plan to implement a tailored Scrum of Scrums approach.

- Correct Reasoning: The Scrum of Scrums is an Agile scaling technique used

to address coordination and integration issues across multiple Scrum teams.
In this scenario, where there are concerns about unresolved impediments
and blockers, implementing a tailored Scrum of Scrums approach allows for
regular communication and collaboration between the sub-teams. This aligns
with Agile principles and helps in managing dependencies and impediments
effectively.

Option A: Plan to minimize dependencies within the five teams.

- Incorrect Reasoning: While minimizing dependencies is a good practice,
simply planning to minimize dependencies without a structured approach
may not be sufficient to address the specific concerns of unresolved
impediments and blockers. The question suggests the need for a more
organized and collaborative approach.

Option B: Introduce a new collaboration tool to facilitate integration.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Introducing a new collaboration tool can be beneficial,

but it may not directly address the concerns about unresolved impediments
and blockers. The effectiveness of collaboration tools depends on how well
they are integrated into the team's workflow, and introducing a tool alone
may not solve the underlying issues.

Option D: Merge the five teams into three teams to reduce impediments.

- Incorrect Reasoning: Merging teams is a significant organizational change

and should not be undertaken solely to address impediments. It might
introduce new challenges, and it does not necessarily provide a targeted
solution to the specific concerns raised by the teams. Agile frameworks
generally emphasize keeping teams small and cross-functional.

In summary, option C is the correct choice as it suggests implementing a

tailored Scrum of Scrums approach, which is a recognized technique for
coordinating work across multiple Agile teams. It provides a structured way
to address impediments and blockers while maintaining the autonomy of the
sub-teams. Options A, B, and D, while addressing certain aspects of project
management, do not directly align with the need to address the expressed
concerns about impediments and blockers in a multi-team Agile
environment.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 13 - Project management

methodologies
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: A3.10.1 - Scrum of Scrums
Question 41:
Skipped
The client for a wildlife conservation project in Lithuania has identified some
major defects in the newly designed and deployed wildlife tracking system.
What category should the project manager use to estimate this cost of
quality (COQ) for troubleshooting the tracking system?

 Internal failure costs

 External failure costs

(Correct)

 Appraisal cost
 Prevention cost

Explanation
Option 2: This is an example of external failure costs (due to repair
and servicing) since this will be money spent after the project had been
handed over because of failures/snags.

In the context of Cost of Quality (COQ) in project management, costs related

to "repair and servicing" are considered external failure costs. External
failure costs are expenses incurred after the product or service has been
delivered to the customer and are associated with addressing quality issues
that were not detected before delivery.

Here's why "repair and servicing" costs are classified as external failure
costs:

1. Definition of External Failure Costs:

- External failure costs are part of the cost of poor quality incurred outside
the organization, typically after the product or service has been delivered to
the customer.

- These costs arise due to defects or quality issues that were not identified
during the project or production processes, leading to problems being
discovered by the customer.

2. Repair and Servicing Costs:

- When a delivered product or service has quality issues that require

repairs or servicing after it reaches the customer, the costs associated with
addressing these issues fall under external failure costs.
 - This can include the expenses related to fixing defects, addressing
customer complaints, providing warranty services, and any other post-
delivery actions to meet the agreed-upon quality standards.

3. Prevention vs. Failure Costs:

- COQ is often categorized into two main types: the cost of prevention
(costs incurred to prevent defects) and the cost of failure (costs incurred due
to defects).

- External failure costs, including those related to repair and servicing, are
a subset of the cost of failure and are associated with defects that escape
the organization's internal quality control processes.

4. Examples of Repair and Servicing Costs:

- Warranty repairs: Costs associated with fixing defects covered under

warranty after the product has been delivered.

- Customer support: Expenses related to addressing customer complaints

and providing support services for quality-related issues.

- Product recalls: Costs incurred when products need to be recalled and

replaced or repaired due to identified quality issues.

Understanding and tracking external failure costs, such as repair and

servicing expenses, are essential for organizations to improve their quality
management processes. By identifying and addressing the root causes of
these costs, organizations can work towards preventing similar issues in
future projects, thereby reducing the overall cost of poor quality.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task - 7: Plan and manage quality of

product/deliverable
 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition - Section 2.6.3.1 - Cost of Quality
Question 42:
Skipped
A project manager performs various project performance measurements to
assess the magnitude of variation with respect to baseline and then plan
corrective actions wherever necessary. This is an example of:

 Multicriteria decision analysis

 Variance analysis

(Correct)

 Risk analysis
 Configuration analysis

Explanation
In project management, variance analysis (Option 2) is a technique used
to compare the planned performance of a project with its actual
performance. It involves analyzing the differences or variances between the
planned and actual outcomes to identify areas where the project is deviating
from the original plan. Variance analysis is a crucial tool for project control,
monitoring, and decision-making.

Key aspects of variance analysis in project management include:

1. Planned vs. Actual Performance:

- Planned Performance: This refers to the baseline or expected performance

outlined in the project plan, including schedules, budgets, and resource
allocations.

- Actual Performance: This is the real-time data and results observed during
the execution of the project.

2. Types of Variances:

- Cost Variance: Compares the budgeted costs with the actual costs incurred.

- Schedule Variance: Compares the planned schedule with the actual

progress made.

- Scope Variance: Examines changes or deviations in project scope.

3. Steps in Variance Analysis:

- Identify Variances: Determine the differences between planned and actual

performance.

- Analyze Causes: Investigate the reasons behind the variances. Identify

whether they are due to internal or external factors.

- Evaluate Impact: Assess the impact of variances on project objectives, such

as schedule delays, cost overruns, or scope changes.

- Take Corrective Actions: If variances are unfavorable, implement corrective

actions to bring the project back on track. If variances are positive, analyze
and understand the contributing factors for potential process improvement.

4. Benefits of Variance Analysis:

- Early Issue Identification: Helps in identifying issues and deviations early in

the project life cycle.

- Informed Decision-Making: Provides data for informed decision-making by

project managers and stakeholders.

- Performance Improvement: Enables continuous improvement by learning

from past variances and adjusting future plans accordingly.

5. Tools and Techniques:

- Earned Value Management (EVM): A key tool in variance analysis, EVM

integrates project scope, schedule, and cost measures to provide a
comprehensive view of project performance.

- Trend Analysis: Examines project performance over time to identify

patterns or trends that may impact future performance.

6. Limitations of Variance Analysis:

- Assumes Stability: Variance analysis assumes that the original plan was
well-founded and remains relevant. If the project environment is highly
dynamic, variances may be unavoidable.

- May Not Capture All Factors: Some factors affecting project performance
may not be easily quantifiable or may not be captured in the planned
metrics.

Variance analysis is a fundamental aspect of project monitoring and control,

helping project managers and stakeholders stay informed about the project's
health and facilitating timely interventions to address deviations from the
plan.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed - Pg 177 (Variance Analysis)
Question 43:
Skipped
_______ methodologies are designed to scale, and provide selection of
methodology rigor based on project size and criticality. This realizes
scalability in tailoring approaches based on policies, practices and processes
in order to meet the project's unique characteristics.

Which agile methodology is being referred to here?

 Scrumban
 Xtreme Programming
 Crystal

(Correct)

 LeSS
Explanation
Crystal Methods (Option C) is a family of Agile methodologies developed
by Alistair Cockburn. Crystal Methods prioritize people and communication
over processes and tools, and they are designed to be adaptable to specific
project characteristics.

Here's a brief overview of the Crystal Methods:

1. Crystal Clear:

- Key Principles:

- Frequent Delivery: Small, frequent deliveries of the software to users.

- Reflective Improvement: Teams regularly reflect on their processes and

make improvements.

- Close Communication: Emphasis on close communication and cooperation

among team members.

2. Crystal Family:

- Crystal comes in several versions, denoted by colors (e.g., Crystal Clear,

Crystal Yellow, Crystal Orange).

- Each version is tailored for different project characteristics, such as team

size, system criticality, and priorities.

3. Characteristics:

- Prioritization: Prioritization of features and requirements based on their

importance and the project's current context.

- Iterative Development: Iterative and incremental development with

frequent releases.

- People-Centric: Focus on people and interactions as the primary drivers of

project success.

4. Adaptability:

- Crystal Methods emphasize flexibility and adaptability. The methodology is

meant to be tuned based on the unique characteristics and needs of each
project.
While Crystal Methods are not as widely adopted as some other Agile
methodologies, they offer valuable principles and practices, particularly for
projects with varying characteristics.

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section: Section A3.5 - Crystal Methods

(Pg. 106)
 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 13 - Project management
methodologies
Question 44:
Skipped
A project manager is managing a project that involves building a software for
capturing manufacturing data (machine unplanned stops, process reliability
etc.) from the shop floor. During the user acceptance testing phase of the
software, there were some changes suggested by the users in the GUI
(Graphical User Interface) to make it more interactive. The developer team
believes that the suggested changes are really necessary and should be
incorporated immediately.

What is the next best course of action for the project manager now?

 Create a change request

 Analyze the impact of the change in scope, cost, schedule and
then write up a change request

(Correct)

 Update issue log

 Decline these changes since you already know that these will
increase your project costs

Explanation
Option 2: Analyze the impact of the change in scope, cost, schedule, and
then write up a change request. 'Creating a change request' means
submitting the change request directly to CCB. That comes much later in the
PICC loop. You do not update issue log for change requests, you update
changelogs. Issue logs are for day-to-day chores related to project work (Eg.
new laptop needs to be ordered for team member, training needs to be done
for a teammate, the revised offer needs to be submitted for a particular
reason etc. etc. ). When there is a change request...you go into the ICC loop
and start first by documenting it in the change log, then analyzing it's impact
and then drafting a formal change request and then submitting it to CCB
(creating a change request).
  Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 10: Manage project changes
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Section 7.2 - PICC

I would recommend that you watch the following tutorial videos on Change
Management from my YouTube channel:

1. Change Management (PICC) Process Flow

Chart: https://youtu.be/Dawt8dRlutI

2. Situational Questions of Change

Management/PICC: https://youtu.be/i0PE2j-n7MI

Question 45:
Skipped
You are the Continuous Improvement Manager for an automobile
assembly line. As a part of an ongoing Six-Sigma Project, you are
doing a root cause analysis for a failure mode which has come up as
one of your top failure modes in your Pareto Analysis. Which tool
would you use to identify the probable assignable causes for the
effect (failure) in consideration?

 Ishikawa diagram

(Correct)

 Pareto's chart
 Histogram
 Run charts

Explanation
The Ishikawa Diagram (Option A), also known as the Fishbone Diagram or
Cause-and-Effect Diagram, is a visual tool used in the context of Lean and
Six Sigma methodologies to identify and analyze the root causes of a
problem. This diagram was developed by Kaoru Ishikawa, a Japanese quality
control expert.

Key Components of the Ishikawa Diagram:

1. Problem Statement (Effect): The problem or issue being addressed is

written at the "head" or on the right side of the diagram. This is the effect or
outcome that needs to be addressed.
2. Fishbone Structure: The main body of the diagram resembles a fishbone,
with a horizontal line representing the main problem. This structure helps
organize potential causes into categories.

3. Categories of Causes (Branches): Different branches extending from the

main line represent various categories of potential causes. Commonly used
categories in a business context are People, Processes, Equipment,
Materials, Environment, and Management.

4. Sub-causes (Fishbone Ribs): Each branch further breaks down into sub-
causes or specific factors that might contribute to the main problem. These
are the detailed causes that need to be explored.

Application in Lean and Six Sigma:

1. Problem Solving: Ishikawa Diagrams are used to systematically identify

and analyze the root causes of problems or defects in processes. This is
essential for continuous improvement efforts in Lean and Six Sigma.

2. Root Cause Analysis: The diagram aids in identifying the fundamental

reasons behind a problem rather than just addressing symptoms. By
understanding the root causes, organizations can implement effective
solutions.

3. Visual Representation: The visual nature of the Ishikawa Diagram makes it

a powerful communication tool. It helps teams collaborate, share insights,
and work together to identify and prioritize the most significant causes.

4. Data-Driven Decision-Making: In the context of Six Sigma, the Ishikawa

Diagram complements statistical analysis by providing a qualitative method
for identifying potential causes. It is often used in conjunction with tools like
Pareto charts and control charts.

Steps for Creating an Ishikawa Diagram:

1. Define the Problem: Clearly articulate the problem or effect that needs to
be addressed.

2. Identify Categories: Determine the main categories or factors that may

contribute to the problem.

3. Brainstorm Causes: Conduct a brainstorming session to identify potential

causes within each category.

4. Organize Causes: Arrange the causes under their respective categories on

the diagram.

5. Analyze and Prioritize: Evaluate the significance of each cause and

prioritize those that are most likely to be contributing to the problem.

By systematically using the Ishikawa Diagram, Lean and Six Sigma teams
can gain insights into the complex interactions within a process and identify
opportunities for improvement. It is a valuable tool in the pursuit of
operational excellence and quality management.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality of

product/deliverables
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Ishikawa Diagram - Figure 10.2,
Pg. 250
Question 46:
Skipped
What is the diagrammatic representation in the Agile planning process
called, that plots the days in the X-axis and # of story points to be
delivered/remaining in the Y-axis and is used to estimate how the project is
performing w.r.t. planned schedule? (see pic below)

 RACI chart
 Gantt chart
 Network Chart
 Iteration burndown chart

(Correct)

Explanation
In Agile project management, an Iteration Burndown Chart (Option D) is
a visual representation of the work completed versus the work remaining
during a specific iteration or sprint. It provides a snapshot of the team's
progress in delivering user stories or tasks over time. The chart helps Agile
teams track their work and adapt their plans as needed to meet the iteration
goals.

Key Components of an Iteration Burndown Chart:

1. Time Axis: The horizontal axis represents time, typically measured in days
or iterations. It shows the progression of time throughout the iteration.

2. Work Axis: The vertical axis represents the amount of work remaining or,
alternatively, the story points or effort estimates. It shows the quantity of
work the team needs to complete.

3. Ideal Burndown Line: This is a hypothetical line that represents the ideal
progress the team should make, assuming a consistent rate of work
throughout the iteration. It starts at the total amount of work planned for the
iteration and slopes downward to zero by the end of the iteration.

4. Actual Burndown Line: This line reflects the actual progress made by the
team. It shows the daily or iterative reduction in the amount of work
remaining. The actual burndown line might fluctuate above or below the
ideal line based on the team's actual progress.

Purpose and Benefits:

1. Progress Tracking: It provides a clear and visual representation of how

much work has been completed and how much is remaining during the
iteration. This allows the team to track progress at a glance.

2. Early Issue Detection: Deviations between the actual and ideal burndown
lines can highlight potential issues or delays in the iteration. Teams can
identify these early and take corrective actions.

3. Visibility: The chart enhances transparency by making the work visible to

all team members, stakeholders, and product owners. It helps everyone
understand how the team is progressing towards the iteration goals.
4. Adaptation: The Iteration Burndown Chart supports Agile principles of
adaptability. If the team realizes they are falling behind, they can collaborate
to adjust priorities, address impediments, or make changes to their plan mid-
iteration.

5. Data-Driven Decisions: Project managers, Scrum Masters, and teams can

make informed decisions based on the data provided by the chart. They can
use it to assess the team's velocity and capacity for future iterations.

Interpretation:

- Above Ideal Line: If the actual burndown line is consistently above the ideal
line, it indicates that the team is working at a slower pace than expected.
This might prompt the team to inspect and adapt their approach.

- Below Ideal Line: If the actual burndown line is consistently below the ideal
line, it suggests that the team is working faster than anticipated. This might
signal that the team can take on additional work or refine their estimates.

In summary, the Iteration Burndown Chart is a valuable tool in Agile project

management for tracking progress, facilitating communication, and
supporting the team's ability to adapt to changing circumstances during an
iteration.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 6: Plan and manage schedule

 Link to Agile Practice Guide - Iteration Burndown Chart - Figure 5.1, Pg.
62
Question 47:
Skipped
A company's culture of risk appetite and risk threshold should be considered
when identifying and planning risk responses. This forms the backbone of an
appropriate risk management strategy for a project tailored to its
complexity. This information can be accessed from:
  OPAs and EEFs

(Correct)

 Study of organizational culture

 User stories
 Group discussions

Explanation
Option A is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options B, C, and D are incorrect:

Option A: Organizational process assets (OPAs) and Enterprise

Environmental Factors (EEFs).

- Correct Reasoning:

- According to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

framework, organizational process assets (OPAs) and Enterprise
Environmental Factors (EEFs) are key inputs for the Plan Risk Management
process.

- OPAs include information about the organization's risk appetite, risk

threshold, and risk tolerance. These factors influence how risks are
perceived, assessed, and managed within the organization.

- EEFs encompass external factors, including the organization's culture,

industry standards, regulations, and market conditions. The organization's
risk culture is a crucial aspect of EEFs.

Option B: Study of organizational culture.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- While understanding the organizational culture is important, the PMBOK

framework emphasizes the use of OPAs and EEFs, which are broader
categories encompassing various aspects of the organizational environment.

- Simply studying organizational culture might not provide the

comprehensive range of information needed for risk management strategy
development.
Option C: User stories.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- User stories are associated with Agile methodologies and are primarily
used in the context of requirements gathering and prioritization.

- While user stories may capture some aspects of project requirements and
stakeholder needs, they do not specifically address the organizational
culture, risk appetite, or risk threshold.

Option D: Group discussions.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- Group discussions are a valuable communication tool, but they may not be
the primary source for understanding the overall organizational risk culture.

- The information obtained from group discussions might be anecdotal and

may not provide a structured and comprehensive understanding of risk
appetite and threshold as OPAs and EEFs do.

In summary, option A is the correct choice as it aligns with the PMBOK

framework's emphasis on leveraging organizational process assets (OPAs)
and Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) to inform the risk management
strategy. Options B, C, and D, while potentially valuable in other contexts, do
not specifically address the recommended inputs for the Plan Risk
Management process in project management.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-4: Support organizational changes

(assess organizational culture)
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Chapter 2 - The Project
Environment - Pg. 37
Question 48:
Skipped
You are in the direct & manage project work phase of integration
management process group. As a part of your weekly review of
project schedule, you find out that an activity which was on critical
path got completed in 4 weeks. You are not sure what was the
target completion duration of the activity because you are yet to
see the schedule baseline. Hence, at this point you do not know
whether this activity is on track or off track. What would you call
this raw information at this point of time in the project?

 Work performance information

 Work performance data

(Correct)

 Schedule baseline comparison

 Work performance report

Explanation
Option B is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, C, and D are incorrect:

Option B: Work performance data.

- Correct Reasoning:

- In the context of project management, work performance data refers to

the raw observations and measurements collected during the execution of
project activities.

- The completion duration of the activity (4 weeks) is raw data that has
been directly observed during the project work.

Option A: Work performance information.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- Work performance information is the processed data that has been

analyzed, interpreted, and combined with other information to provide
context and meaning. In this scenario, the completion duration alone is raw
data and has not been processed or analyzed.

Option C: Schedule baseline comparison.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- Schedule baseline comparison involves comparing the actual progress

with the baseline schedule to determine variances. However, in this case, the
schedule baseline is not available, so a comparison cannot be made.

Option D: Work performance report.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- A work performance report is a summary or compilation of work

performance information and analysis. It typically provides insights into how
the project is performing against the project management plan. In this
scenario, the information about the completion duration is not yet analyzed
or summarized, so it doesn't qualify as a work performance report.

In summary, option B (work performance data) is the correct choice because

it accurately represents the raw, unprocessed information about the
completion duration of the activity. Options A, C, and D are incorrect
because they refer to processed or analyzed information, comparisons with
baselines, or formal reports, which are not applicable in the context of the
raw completion duration data provided in the question.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 1.8 - Project
Management Data and Information
Question 49:
Skipped
The product development team for an AI-enabled interior designing
application failed to include the changes already implemented upstream by
the product design team. The product owner did inform the developers about
the changes during a daily standup meeting but there are no records which
could be traced back.

What should the most appropriate step to prevent such issues in the future?

 More frequent backlog refinement meetings with learnings

captured in retrospectives
  Organize training for the design and development team on
collaborative problem solving
 Refinement of product backlog with the team and product
owner before every iteration
 Initiate sprint retrospective to align change management
process during an iteration

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, B, and C are incorrect. This question is a classical example to
demonstrate change management in agile projects:

Option D: Initiate sprint retrospective to align change management

process during an iteration.

- Correct Reasoning:

- Sprint retrospectives are a fundamental practice in Agile methodologies,

allowing teams to reflect on their performance and identify areas for
improvement.

- In this scenario, initiating a sprint retrospective specifically focused on

aligning the change management process can help the team address the
issue of missed changes from upstream.

- Retrospectives provide a structured forum for the team to discuss what

went well, what didn't, and how the team can improve their processes,
including communication about changes.

Option A: More frequent backlog refinement meetings with learnings

captured in retrospectives.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- While backlog refinement meetings are important for ensuring a clear and
updated product backlog, the issue described is more about the team's
awareness and alignment regarding changes.

- The primary focus of retrospectives is continuous improvement, not

capturing learnings from backlog refinement meetings.
Option B: Organize training for the design and development team on
collaborative problem-solving.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- Training on collaborative problem-solving is a valuable initiative, but it

may not directly address the issue of missed changes.

- The question highlights a communication and alignment problem that

might not be completely solved through general problem-solving training.

Option C: Refinement of product backlog with the team and product owner
before every iteration.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- While refining the product backlog with the team and the product owner is
a good practice, it may not specifically address the issue of changes being
missed. Note that the question is asking for a 'systemic fix' for future, which
is an ideal case in point to be discussed in retrospectives.

- The question points to a need for improving the process of handling

changes and ensuring that the entire team is aware of them.

In summary, option D is the most appropriate step as it directly addresses

the issue raised in the question by focusing on aligning the change
management process during an iteration through a sprint retrospective.
Retrospectives are a key mechanism for continuous improvement in Agile
projects, providing a structured approach to address issues and enhance
team collaboration.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 9: Collaborate with stakeholders

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.1 - Retrospectives
Question 50:
Skipped
A drug-trial company from Latin America is planning to launch a new
medication in the field of endocrinology. The product management team is
ready with the launch. However, the legal team highlights a foreseeable risk
due to a newly mandated legislation, and hence recommends postponing the
launch by 9 months till the new laws take effect.

What would the most optimum strategy to pursue in this scenario?

 Manage the entire project with eXtreme Programming since

the launch is in large scale
 Assess feasibility to divide the scope items linked to new
legislation in an agile track and progress with the rest of the
scope in a predictive track

(Correct)

 Call out the risk due to the new legislation as an emergent risk
and plan management reserves accordingly
 Run a PESTLE analysis to assess economic feasibility to launch
the drug commercially
Explanation
Option B is the correct answer, and here's the explanation along with why
options A, C, and D are incorrect:

Option B: Assess feasibility to divide the scope items linked to new

legislation in an agile track and progress with the rest of the scope
in a predictive track.

- Correct Reasoning:

- The situation involves a foreseeable risk related to newly mandated

legislation. In an Agile context, the hybrid strategy of dividing the scope
items related to the new legislation into an agile track and progressing with
the rest in a predictive (traditional) track aligns with Agile principles.

- This approach allows the team to be adaptive and responsive to changes

while still providing a plan for the parts of the project that can be executed
predictively.

Option A: Manage the entire project with eXtreme Programming since the
launch is in large scale.

- Incorrect Reasoning:
 - eXtreme Programming (XP) is an Agile software development
methodology with a focus on high-quality code, continuous feedback, and
quick response to changing requirements. However, it may not be the most
suitable approach for managing a large-scale project, especially when
external factors like legal considerations impact the overall project timeline.

Option C: Call out the risk due to the new legislation as an emergent risk and
plan management reserves accordingly.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- While identifying and calling out the risk is a good practice, treating it as
an emergent risk and planning management reserves may not be sufficient.
The question implies a more proactive approach to manage the impact of the
legislation.

Option D: Run a PESTLE analysis to assess economic feasibility to launch the

drug commercially.

- Incorrect Reasoning:

- PESTLE analysis (Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal,

Environmental) is a strategic planning tool, but in the given scenario, the
legal risk has already been identified.

- The question is more about the strategy to deal with the known legal risk
rather than conducting a broader analysis.

In summary, option B is the most optimum strategy as it aligns with Agile

principles of adaptability and responsiveness by allowing the team to assess
feasibility, divide the scope, and progress with the project in a way that
accommodates the impact of the new legislation. This approach provides a
balance between agility and predictability in the project management
approach.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 3, Task 1: Project Compliance

 Link to Agile Practice Guide - Hybrid Project Life Cycle - Section 3.1.6
Question 51:
Skipped
You are developing the charter for a project. In a team meeting, your
sponsor asks you to review the document that contains the procurement
strategy and different purchasing alignments in forms of contracts, MOUs,
SLAs and LOAs. Which document is being referring to?

 Procurement Management Plan

 Agreements

(Correct)

 Quality Management Plan

 Conduct Procurement Plan

Explanation
Option B: AGREEMENTS - Agreements are used to define initial intentions
for a project. Agreements may take the form of contracts, memorandums of
understanding (MOUs), service level agreements (SLA), letters of agreement,
letters of intent, verbal agreements, email, or other written agreements.

In the context of procurement in project management, "agreements" refer to

formal contracts or legal arrangements between the buyer (the project or
organization) and the seller (the external party providing goods or services).
These agreements outline the terms, conditions, responsibilities, and
expectations of both parties regarding the procurement of goods or services.

Key aspects of agreements in procurement include:

1. Contractual Relationships:

- Agreements establish the legal framework for the relationship between the
buyer and the seller. They define the roles and responsibilities of each party
and set the expectations for the successful completion of the project.

2. Scope of Work:

- Agreements clearly define the scope of work or the specific goods and
services to be provided by the seller. This includes detailed descriptions of
deliverables, timelines, quality standards, and any other relevant
specifications.
3. Terms and Conditions:

- The agreements specify the terms and conditions under which the
procurement will take place. This includes payment terms, delivery
schedules, performance metrics, warranties, and other relevant clauses to
ensure that both parties understand their obligations.

4. Price and Payment Terms:

- Agreements outline the pricing structure for the goods or services being
procured. This may include fixed prices, cost-reimbursable arrangements, or
a combination of both. Payment terms, such as milestones or regular
intervals, are also defined in the agreement.

5. Contractual Changes:

- Agreements typically include provisions for handling changes to the

contract, known as change control mechanisms. These mechanisms outline
how changes to the scope, schedule, or other aspects of the agreement will
be addressed and agreed upon by both parties.

6. Legal and Regulatory Compliance:

- Agreements ensure that both the buyer and the seller comply with relevant
legal and regulatory requirements. This may include industry-specific
regulations, quality standards, or other legal obligations that govern the
procurement process.

7. Dispute Resolution:

- In the event of disputes or disagreements, agreements often include

mechanisms for dispute resolution. This could involve negotiations,
mediation, or other procedures to resolve conflicts and avoid legal action.
8. Termination Conditions:

- Agreements specify conditions under which either party can terminate the
contract. This includes situations where one party fails to meet its
obligations, or there are unforeseen circumstances that make project
continuation impractical.

Effective management of procurement agreements is crucial for the success

of a project, as it provides a structured framework for collaboration, risk
management, and the successful delivery of goods or services.

 Link to PMP ECO: Domain 1, Task 8: Negotiate project agreements

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg. 202, Agreements.
Question 52:
Skipped
A company wants to reduce future carbon footprint by resorting to greener
fuel choices. Hence, during an ongoing project, an additional scope item has
been added for installation of a solar powered boiler instead of a thermal
powered boiler.

However, the project manager foresees a risk that the solar powered boiler
may need higher maintenance and operational costs compared to the
thermal powered boiler in the long term.

What could be a possible category to capture this risk in the risk register?

 Risk on project funding

 Risk on project schedule
 Risk on maintenance costs
 Risk on total cost of ownership

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: Risk on total cost of ownership.

In the context of project management, the term "total cost of ownership"

(TCO) refers to the total cost incurred over the entire life cycle of a project or
a particular asset. TCO goes beyond the initial acquisition cost and includes
all relevant costs associated with planning, acquisition, implementation,
operation, and maintenance of the project or asset.
Key components of the total cost of ownership in project management
include:

1. Acquisition Costs:

- The initial costs associated with procuring goods, services, or assets. This
includes the purchase price, licensing fees, and any other costs directly
related to obtaining the project components.

2. Implementation Costs:

- Costs incurred during the implementation phase of the project. This may
include costs related to installation, configuration, training, and any other
activities necessary to deploy the project successfully.

3. Operating Costs:

- Ongoing costs associated with the day-to-day operation of the project or

asset. This includes expenses such as labor, utilities, maintenance,
consumables, and other operational expenses.

4. Maintenance Costs:

- Costs associated with routine maintenance and repairs to ensure the

continued functionality and performance of the project or asset. This can
include preventive maintenance, corrective maintenance, and upgrades.

5. Training and Support Costs:

- Costs related to training personnel to use and maintain the project or asset.
Additionally, support costs for providing assistance, troubleshooting, and
resolving issues during the operational phase.
6. Downtime Costs:

- Costs incurred when the project or asset is not operational. This can include
lost productivity, revenue, or other negative impacts resulting from
downtime.

7. Disposal Costs:

- Costs associated with the disposal or retirement of the project or asset at

the end of its useful life. This may involve decommissioning, removal,
recycling, or any other activities required to retire the project components.

8. Hidden Costs:

- Unforeseen or indirect costs that may arise during the project life cycle.
These could include costs associated with changes in scope, regulatory
compliance, or unexpected challenges that impact the project's budget.

Considering the total cost of ownership is crucial for project managers and
organizations as it provides a more comprehensive and accurate
understanding of the financial implications of a project. It allows for better
decision-making by taking into account not only the upfront costs but also
the ongoing expenses throughout the project's life cycle. This perspective
helps in optimizing resource allocation, evaluating project alternatives, and
ensuring that the project remains financially viable over time.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 1 - Deliver business value

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Section 1.2.2 - Business value
creation
Question 53:
Skipped
Arrange the following type of contracts in increasing order of SELLER RISK:

Acronyms:

 CPFF: Cost Plus Fixed Fee

 CPIF: Cost Plus Incentive Fee
 FPIF: Fixed Price Incentive Fee
  FP: Fixed Price Contract
 FPEPA: Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments
 CPAF: Cost Plus Award Fee
 T&M: Time and Material

 CPFF, CPIF, FPIF, FP

(Correct)

 CPFF, FP, FPEPA, CPAF

 FP, FPIF, CPFF, CPAF
 FPIF, T&M, CPIF, CPFF

Explanation
Option A: CPFF, CPIF, FPIF, FP. This is the correct order with CPFF posing
the least risk for seller and FP posing the most risk for seller.

The four procurement contract types you've mentioned—CPFF (Cost Plus

Fixed Fee), CPIF (Cost Plus Incentive Fee), FPIF (Fixed Price Incentive Fee),
and FP (Firm Fixed Price)—can be arranged in increasing order of the seller's
risk as follows:

1. Firm Fixed Price (FP):

- In an FP contract, the seller agrees to deliver the specified goods or

services for a fixed price. Regardless of the actual costs incurred by the
seller, they bear the risk of any cost overruns or unforeseen challenges. This
makes it the lowest risk for the buyer but the highest risk for the seller, as
they must manage costs efficiently to ensure profitability.

2. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF):

- An FPIF contract sets a fixed price, but it allows for adjustments based on
performance against agreed-upon targets. The buyer and seller share the
risk and reward, with a predetermined formula for sharing cost savings or
overruns. This introduces some risk for the seller, but not as much as a pure
FP contract, as there is potential for additional profit.

3. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF):

 - In a CPIF contract, the seller is reimbursed for allowable costs, and the
buyer pays an additional amount as an incentive fee. The incentive fee is
typically tied to the seller's performance against predetermined targets. This
type of contract shares more risk with the buyer than FPIF but less than
CPFF.

4. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF):

- CPFF contracts carry the highest level of risk for the buyer as the seller is
reimbursed for allowable costs plus a fixed fee. The fixed fee is agreed upon
upfront and does not change based on the seller's performance or the final
project cost. This contract type provides the least incentive for the seller to
control costs, and the buyer bears the most risk of cost overruns.

In summary, the arrangement in increasing order of the seller's risk is: FP

(highest risk for the seller), FPIF, CPIF, and CPFF (lowest risk for the seller).
As you move from FP to CPFF, the level of risk the seller takes on increases,
and their ability to manage costs and uncertainties becomes more critical to
achieving profitability.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11: Plan and manage procurements
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: All the items are covered as part
of Section 3 (DEFINITIONS) - Pg. 322
Question 54:
Skipped
During the execution stage for a vaccine rollout project, it was identified that
some sensitive information regarding patient profiling has been made public
without the right approvals. This has been classified as an 'orange' category
security breach as per the company risk profiling.

Where should the project manager ideally capture this event?

 Risk register
 Business case
 Change log
 Issue log

(Correct)

Explanation
In the context of project management, the capture of events, especially
unexpected or unfavourable ones, is crucial for effective management and
resolution. Let's analyze each option for the given scenario:

D. Issue Log:

- This is the correct answer. The Issue Log is used to capture and track
unforeseen events or problems that have occurred during the project. A
security breach, especially one classified as an 'orange' category, falls into
the category of an issue that needs immediate attention and resolution. The
Issue Log provides a structured way to document and manage such
incidents.

A. Risk Register:

- The Risk Register is used to document potential risks before they occur
and to track the planned responses to those risks. However, in this scenario,
the security breach has already occurred, and it is now an issue that needs
to be addressed. The Risk Register is more focused on proactive risk
management, whereas the Issue Log is for recording and managing issues as
they arise.

B. Business Case:

- The Business Case outlines the reasons for initiating the project and
serves as a reference point for decision-making throughout the project life
cycle. However, it is not the appropriate place to capture and manage
specific project issues or incidents. The Business Case typically focuses on
high-level project justifications and objectives.

C. Change Log:

- The Change Log is used to document changes to the project's baseline,

such as scope changes. While a security breach is indeed a change to the
expected project conditions, it is more appropriately documented in the
Issue Log, as it represents an unexpected and adverse event that requires
resolution.
In summary, option D (Issue Log) is the correct answer because it aligns with
the practice of capturing and managing unforeseen events or issues that
occur during project execution. Options A, B, and C are incorrect in this
context as they are not the designated tools for capturing and managing
issues of this nature within the project management framework.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality of

product/deliverable
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Issue Log - Pg. 212, 331
Question 55:
Skipped
BlueChip Inc. is working on an instrumentation project to improve operating
efficiency of semiconductors at depths more than 2,500m below mean-sea-
level. The project manager is designing a secondary redundant circuit to
prevent failure of the primary circuit. What risk response strategy the project
manager is using in this scenario?

 Avoid
 Mitigate

(Correct)

 Escalate
 Accept

Explanation
In the context of risk management in project management, let's analyze
each option for the given scenario:

B. Mitigate:

- This is the correct answer. Mitigation involves taking actions to reduce

the probability and/or impact of a risk. In this case, the project manager is
designing a secondary redundant circuit to prevent the failure of the primary
circuit. This is a proactive risk response aimed at reducing the impact of the
risk, aligning with the risk mitigation strategy.

A. Avoid:
 - Avoidance involves changing the project plan to eliminate the threat or
protect the project objectives from its impact. In this scenario, designing a
secondary redundant circuit doesn't eliminate the risk (failure of the primary
circuit) but rather reduces its impact, so avoidance is not the most suitable
strategy.

C. Escalate:

- Escalation involves raising the risk to a higher level of authority for

decision-making. In this context, designing a redundant circuit is a proactive
measure within the project team's control, and escalation to higher
authorities may not be necessary or appropriate. Escalation is more relevant
when a risk cannot be adequately addressed at the project level.

D. Accept:

- Acceptance involves acknowledging the existence of a risk but not taking

any specific action to address it actively. Designing a secondary redundant
circuit is a form of active response, not passive acceptance. Therefore,
"accept" is not the most appropriate choice for the strategy being employed
in this scenario.

In summary, option B (Mitigate) is the correct answer because the project

manager is taking proactive actions to reduce the impact of the risk by
designing a secondary redundant circuit. Options A, C, and D are incorrect in
this context as they do not accurately describe the risk response strategy
being applied in the given scenario.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and manage risks

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Strategies for threats - Pg. 304,
305
Question 56:
Skipped
TalentHunt Inc. is setting up an agile team to facilitate the hiring process for
major conglomerates. Service quality would be the topmost performance
indicator for this agile team since during the last quarter there have been
many complaints about the quality of service being delivered to clients by
TalentHunt, which affected their brand.
Which option would be most suitable to achieve the team's target?

 Increase the fees of service since better service needs higher

cost
 Perform focused group discussions and develop a test-driven
development model accordingly

(Correct)

 Drive innovation in the project by integrating artificial

intelligence with the hiring process
 Perform backlog refinement exercises more rigorously during
each iteration
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option B: Perform focused group
discussions and develop a test-driven development model accordingly.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option B is the most suitable,
while the other options are incorrect:

A. Increase the fees of service since better service needs higher cost:

- This option suggests increasing fees as a solution to improve service

quality. However, it does not directly address the root cause of the service
quality issues. Moreover, in Agile projects, customer collaboration and
responding to change are valued over contract negotiation, so simply
increasing fees may not align well with Agile principles.

B. Perform focused group discussions and develop a test-driven

development model accordingly:

- This option aligns with Agile practices. Focused group discussions (such
as sprint reviews, retrospectives, or daily stand-ups) promote collaboration
and communication within the agile team. Developing a test-driven
development (TDD) model emphasizes the importance of testing throughout
the development process, ensuring higher quality from the start. This
approach addresses the service quality issues directly and is in line with
Agile principles.
C. Drive innovation in the project by integrating artificial intelligence with the
hiring process:

- While innovation is valuable, the context of this question is more focused

on addressing service quality issues. Introducing artificial intelligence may be
a good practice, but it does not guarantee an immediate improvement in
service quality. Additionally, the question emphasizes service quality as the
top performance indicator, and the AI integration might be a longer-term
strategy.

D. Perform backlog refinement exercises more rigorously during each

iteration:

- Backlog refinement is an important Agile practice, but it may not directly

address the service quality issues mentioned in the question. While backlog
refinement helps in maintaining a well-prioritized and organized product
backlog, it does not inherently improve service quality without specific
actions related to service improvement.

In summary, Option B is the most suitable because it directly addresses

service quality concerns through focused group discussions and the
development of a test-driven development model. This approach aligns well
with Agile principles and practices, emphasizing collaboration,
communication, and a proactive approach to ensuring high-quality
deliverables.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and manage risks

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.7 - Agile Execution Practices
Question 57:
Skipped
In a project involving car fleet management efficiency improvement, the
project manager is using the 'power-interest grid' for stakeholder profiling.
Which of the following steps uses the tool 'power-interest grid' for the
classification of stakeholders?

 Plan stakeholder engagement

 Identify stakeholders

(Correct)
  Manage stakeholder engagement
 Monitor stakeholder engagement

Explanation
Option B: Identify stakeholders. Power/interest grid, power/influence grid, or
impact/influence grid. Each of these techniques supports a grouping of
stakeholders according to their level of authority (power), level of concern
about the project's outcomes (interest), ability to influence the outcomes of
the project (influence), or ability to cause changes to the project's planning
or execution.

The Power-Interest Grid, also known as the Power-Interest Matrix or

Stakeholder Analysis Grid, is a tool used in project management to
categorize stakeholders based on their level of power and interest in the
project. This grid helps project managers tailor their communication and
engagement strategies to effectively manage relationships with
stakeholders. Here's how it is used in stakeholder profiling:

Components of the Power-Interest Grid:

1. Power:

- Represents the level of influence or authority a stakeholder has over the

project. Powerful stakeholders may have decision-making authority, control
resources, or possess a significant ability to impact the project's outcome.

2. Interest:

- Reflects the degree to which a stakeholder is affected by or interested in

the project's success. Stakeholders with high interest are more likely to
actively engage, while those with low interest may have less involvement.

Quadrants in the Power-Interest Grid:

1. High Power, High Interest (Manage Closely):

- Stakeholders in this quadrant have both significant power and a high level
of interest. They can significantly impact the project and are actively
engaged. Managing these stakeholders closely is crucial to ensure their
expectations are met.

2. High Power, Low Interest (Keep Satisfied):

- Stakeholders in this quadrant have high power but low interest. While they
can impact the project, they may not be actively engaged or concerned. It is
essential to keep them satisfied by providing periodic updates and
addressing their concerns to prevent any negative influence.

3. Low Power, High Interest (Keep Informed):

- Stakeholders with low power but high interest may be more actively
engaged and interested in project updates. Keeping them informed is
essential to manage their expectations and ensure they are aware of project
developments.

4. Low Power, Low Interest (Monitor):

- Stakeholders with low power and low interest have minimal impact on the
project. It is generally sufficient to monitor their status without extensive
engagement unless their circumstances change.

In summary, the Power-Interest Grid is a valuable tool for stakeholder

profiling and management, guiding project managers in customizing their
approaches to different stakeholder groups based on their levels of power
and interest.

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Check ITTO charts for 'Identify
Stakeholders', 'Plan Stakeholder Engagement' and 'Monitor
Stakeholder Engagement' and you will see Power-Interest Grid listed as
one of the T&T to map stakeholders during the Identify Stakeholder
process (Pg. 74). Details could be found in Pg. 301
 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 9: Collaborate with stakeholders
Question 58:
Skipped
One of the key architects for a museum construction project was reassigned
by the functional manager to another critical task linked to a separate
project.

How should the project manager respond to manage this risk?

 Connect with the functional manager to explore options for

alternative arrangements to complete the task

(Correct)

 Instruct the architect to work on the museum construction

project since the architect is a documented resource for the
project
 Update issue log and assign an owner to manage the same
 Inform the sponsor about impact of the change in cost,
schedule and scope due to this unexpected change
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option A: Connect with the functional
manager to explore options for alternative arrangements to complete the
task.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option A is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Connect with the functional manager to explore options for

alternative arrangements to complete the task:

- This option aligns with project management principles, specifically the

concept of managing risks and issues through communication and
collaboration. By connecting with the functional manager, the project
manager is taking a proactive approach to address the risk of a key resource
being reassigned. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance of
stakeholder engagement and communication to address risks and changes.

B. Instruct the architect to work on the museum construction project since

the architect is a documented resource for the project:

- This option assumes a more authoritative approach, instructing the

architect to work on the project without considering the reasons behind the
reassignment. While the architect is a documented resource, it's essential to
understand the context of the reassignment and work collaboratively with
the functional manager to find a suitable solution. Directing the architect
without discussion may lead to resistance and impact team morale.

C. Update issue log and assign an owner to manage the same:

- Updating the issue log is a good practice for documenting and tracking
issues, but in this scenario, the situation is more of a risk than an issue. Risks
are uncertainties that can impact the project, and addressing them
proactively is crucial. Option C does not involve proactive communication
with the functional manager to explore alternative arrangements.

D. Inform the sponsor about the impact of the change in cost, schedule, and
scope due to this unexpected change:

- While keeping stakeholders informed is important, informing the sponsor

about the impact without first exploring alternative arrangements may be
premature. The project manager should first attempt to mitigate the risk by
discussing options with the functional manager before escalating the issue to
the sponsor.

In summary, Option A is the correct answer as it reflects a proactive and

collaborative approach to managing the risk of a key resource being
reassigned. This aligns with project management principles of effective
communication, stakeholder engagement, and risk management.

 Link to PMBOK 7th edition - Section 2.2.1.2 - Servant Leadership

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Lead a Team
Question 59:
Skipped
In an agile project, the sponsor has been made aware of significant delays in
completion of testing a prototype. The project manager explains that this
delay is due to lack of proper technical simulation training within the cross-
functional project team.

What could have been done differently to avoid such issues in the future?
  Provide all necessary training to every team member before
project initiation
 Document a project skill matrix and charter a team in sync
with relevant skill requirements

(Correct)

 Encourage team members to tackle impediments with their

existing skillset
 Recommend additional training budget to be setup for the
project to train all team members
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option B: Document a project skill
matrix and charter a team in sync with relevant skill requirements.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option B is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Provide all necessary training to every team member before project

initiation:

- This option suggests providing all necessary training to every team

member before the project initiation. While training is essential, it may not
be practical or efficient to provide all training upfront. Agile projects
emphasize adaptability and responding to change. Training needs can
become clearer as the project progresses, and the team encounters specific
challenges. Option A does not align with the Agile principle of responding to
change over following a plan.

B. Document a project skill matrix and charter a team in sync with

relevant skill requirements:

- This option aligns with Agile and project management principles.

Documenting a project skill matrix involves identifying the skills needed for
the project and ensuring that the team is chartered with members
possessing the relevant skills. This proactive approach helps in avoiding
issues related to skill gaps and ensures that the team is well-equipped to
handle project requirements. The Agile Practice Guide emphasizes the
importance of forming cross-functional teams with the right mix of skills.
C. Encourage team members to tackle impediments with their existing
skillset:

- While encouraging team members to tackle impediments is a positive

approach, it may not be sufficient in situations where specific technical skills
are required and could consume more time. The Agile principle of valuing
individuals and interactions over processes and tools does not imply ignoring
the importance of having the right skills within the team. Option C may not
address the root cause of the problem, which is the lack of specific technical
simulation training.

D. Recommend additional training budget to be set up for the project to train

all team members:

- While additional training may be beneficial, recommending a blanket

budget for training all team members may not be the most efficient solution.
It's important to identify specific skill gaps and target training accordingly.
Option D might lead to unnecessary expenses and may not align with the
Agile principle of delivering value with the most efficient use of resources.

In summary, Option B is the correct answer as it advocates for a proactive

approach to managing skill requirements by documenting a project skill
matrix and chartering a team accordingly. This aligns with Agile principles
and effective project management practices.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 6: Build a team

 Link to PMBOK 7th Edition: 2.2.1.3 - Common aspects of team
development
Question 60:
Skipped
A railway track construction project in Cairo is complete. The project
manager is having an end project review with the sponsor. The CPI stands as
1.2 and the SPI stands at 0.85. What does this mean?

 The project completed within budget and ahead of schedule

 The project was prematurely closed. At that point, the cost
was within budget
 (Correct)

 The project was over budget and behind schedule

 The project was within budget and within schedule

Explanation
Option B: SPI <1 for a 'complete' project means that the project is closed
prematurely.

Logically, SPI for a complete project should be = 1 since even if you are late
in a project, if you say the project is 'complete' you have your EV=PV in the
end the worst case.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 6: Plan and manage schedule

Link to Process group Practice Guide: Table 10.1 - Earned Value Calculations
Summary Table

Please watch my tutorial video on EVM from my YouTube channel as

well: https://youtu.be/FgirfE5TAm8

Alternatively, you can checkout my Earned Value Management Course on

Udemy as well.

Question 61:
Skipped
In a project, the flooring work needs to wait for 21 days after the
first level of concreting is done. This is to help cure the concrete
fully before you start laying down the floor. This is an example of:

 Lead
 Lag

(Correct)

 Mandatory dependency
 Discretionary dependency

Explanation
Option B: Lag. It is a mandatory wait of 21 days after concreting which
adds up to the project schedule, hence it is a perfect example of LAG. It is
NOT a mandatory dependency since mandatory dependency does not
mandate a waiting time always. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 6: Plan and
manage schedule
In project management, especially in the context of schedule management,
several concepts relate to the dependencies between tasks. Here are
explanations for LEAD, LAG, MANDATORY DEPENDENCY, and DISCRETIONARY
DEPENDENCY:

1. Lead:

- Definition: Lead is the amount of time by which a successor task can be

advanced concerning its predecessor task.

- Example: If Task A takes five days to complete and Task B has a lead of two
days, Task B can start three days into the execution of Task A.

2. Lag:

- Definition: Lag is the amount of time by which a successor task is delayed

concerning its predecessor task.

- Example: If Task A takes five days to complete and Task B has a lag of two
days, Task B will start two days after the completion of Task A.

3. Mandatory Dependency:

- Definition: Also known as "hard logic" or "hard dependency," a mandatory

dependency is a relationship that is inherent in the nature of the work being
performed.

- Example: In construction, pouring concrete is a mandatory dependency for

constructing walls. The walls cannot be built until the concrete has been
poured.

4. Discretionary Dependency:

- Definition: Also known as "soft logic" or "preferential dependency," a

discretionary dependency is defined by the project team based on their
judgment or preferences.
- Example: If two tasks could be done in parallel but the project manager
decides to have them done sequentially for a specific reason (perhaps to
allocate resources more effectively), this is a discretionary dependency.

In summary:

- Lead and Lag are used to adjust the timing of task relationships to account
for overlaps or delays.

- Mandatory Dependency is a relationship that is inherent and necessary for

the project work.

- Discretionary Dependency is a relationship established based on the team's

judgment or preferences, and it may not be strictly necessary but is chosen
for specific reasons.

Understanding and managing these dependencies is crucial for effective

project scheduling, resource allocation, and overall project success. These
concepts are often used in tools like Gantt charts to visualize and manage
project schedules.

I would suggest that you watch the following tutorial video on LEAD and LAG
from my YouTube channel to enhance your understanding of the
topic: https://youtu.be/LoB7249umX0

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Figure 10-13: Lead and Lag (Pg.
279)
 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 6 - Plan and manage schedule
Question 62:
Skipped
It has been observed that project teams members are in a 'defect fixing' and
'troubleshooting' mode after a new software application has been deployed
within a financial institution. The project manager needs to validate the
completed scope of the project including specifics of the handover process.

Which of the following documents should the project manager use to infer
the same?

 Final report, stakeholder engagement plan and project charter

  Final report, organizational process assets and project scope
statement

(Correct)

 Final report, procurement agreements and risk register

 Final report, organizational process assets and cost
management plan
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option B: Final report, organizational
process assets, and project scope statement.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option B is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Final report, stakeholder engagement plan, and project charter:

- The stakeholder engagement plan and project charter are important

documents, but they may not provide specific details about the completed
scope and handover process. The final report is relevant, but the stakeholder
engagement plan and project charter may not contain the detailed
information needed to validate the completed scope.

B. Final report, organizational process assets, and project scope

statement:

- The final report is a standard output of project closure and often contains
a summary of project performance, including scope-related information.
Organizational process assets (OPAs) can include historical information,
lessons learned, and best practices. The project scope statement is a critical
document that defines the project scope, and reviewing it can help validate
the completed scope. This option aligns with the Project Management Body
of Knowledge (PMBOK) principles related to project closure and validation of
scope.

C. Final report, procurement agreements, and risk register:

 - While the final report is relevant, procurement agreements and the risk
register may not be the primary sources for information on the completed
scope and handover process. Procurement agreements focus on contracts
and purchases, and the risk register primarily addresses identified project
risks. These documents may not provide the specific details needed to
validate the completed scope.

D. Final report, organizational process assets, and cost management plan:

- The cost management plan primarily focuses on how costs will be

managed throughout the project. While the final report and organizational
process assets are relevant, the cost management plan may not be the
primary document for validating the completed scope and handover process.
Option D does not emphasize the scope-related aspects.

In summary, Option B is the correct answer as it includes the final report (a

standard output of project closure), organizational process assets (which can
contain valuable historical information), and the project scope statement
(which defines the project's scope). These documents collectively provide
comprehensive information for validating the completed scope and the
specifics of the handover process.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 8.1 - Close Project or
Phase
Question 63:
Skipped
What is the type of contract where the seller is reimbursed for all
allowable costs for performing the contract work and the seller
receives a predetermined incentive fee based on achieving certain
performance objectives as set forth in the contract?

 CPFF
 CPIF

(Correct)

 CPAF
 FPIF
Explanation
CPIF (Cost Plus Incentive Fee) contract is a type of procurement contract
used in project management and procurement management. In a CPIF
contract, the buyer pays the seller for allowable costs incurred in performing
the contract work, and the seller is also provided with an additional amount
as an incentive fee based on the cost performance of the project.

Here are key features and characteristics of a CPIF contract:

1. Cost Reimbursement:

- The buyer reimburses the seller for allowable costs incurred during the
project. Allowable costs are typically defined in the contract and may include
direct costs, indirect costs, and other agreed-upon expenses.

2. Incentive Fee:

- In addition to the cost reimbursement, the seller receives an incentive fee

based on the cost performance of the project. The incentive fee is structured
to encourage the seller to control costs effectively and achieve specific cost
targets.

3. Target Cost:

- The contract specifies a target cost, which is the estimated total cost of the
project that the buyer is willing to reimburse. The target cost serves as a
baseline for cost performance evaluation.

4. Cost Sharing:

- There is a cost-sharing mechanism between the buyer and the seller.

Typically, costs are shared within a certain range (the "sharing ratio"), and
beyond that range, the buyer or seller may bear a higher or lower
percentage of the costs, depending on the agreement.
5. Cost Overruns and Underruns:

- If the final project cost exceeds the target cost, the buyer and seller share
the excess costs based on the sharing ratio. Conversely, if the final cost is
less than the target cost, the buyer and seller share the cost underrun.

6. Incentive Formula:

- The incentive fee is calculated using a predetermined formula that

considers the cost performance against the target cost. The formula typically
includes a percentage of cost savings or overruns.

CPIF contracts are often used in situations where the scope of work is difficult
to define accurately at the outset or when there is a need for the seller to
have additional motivation to control costs effectively. It aligns the interests
of the buyer and seller by providing an incentive for cost efficiency while still
allowing for cost reimbursement.

It's important for both parties to have a clear understanding of the terms,
conditions, and formulas specified in the contract to ensure effective project
management and successful collaboration. The use of CPIF contracts
requires careful monitoring of costs and communication between the buyer
and seller throughout the project.

I would recommend that you watch my tutorial video on TYPES OF

CONTRACT from my YouTube channel as well: https://youtu.be/AIXiMzAXtdw

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 11 - Plan and manage

procurement
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: CPIF Contract - Pg. 327
Question 64:
Skipped
A new project manager is being inducted into the a project during the
planning phase. The previous project manager will be leaving the company
within a couple of weeks and hence the sponsor wants the new project
manager to be completely up-to-speed with the project at the earliest.
Hence, the new project manager has been instructed to prepare the
Stakeholder Engagement Plan.
How should the new project manager proceed with this task?

 Infer that this request is redundant since a Power-Interest Grid

already exists for identified stakeholders of the project
 Schedule a meeting with the customer to understand key
project requirements
 Plan a meeting with the previous project manager and
understand the completion status of stakeholder identification

(Correct)

 Ask for the resource management plan and check for ways to
engage stakeholders which are already documented
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option C: Plan a meeting with the
previous project manager and understand the completion status of
stakeholder identification.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option C is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Infer that this request is redundant since a Power-Interest Grid already

exists for identified stakeholders of the project:

- The Power-Interest Grid is a tool used to analyze and prioritize

stakeholders based on their power and interest in the project. While it
provides valuable information about stakeholders, it may not cover all
aspects of stakeholder engagement planning. The Stakeholder Engagement
Plan involves a more comprehensive approach, including communication
strategies, information needs, and engagement levels. Option A assumes
that the Power-Interest Grid is sufficient, which is not the case.

B. Schedule a meeting with the customer to understand key project

requirements:

- While understanding key project requirements is important, it does not

directly address the task of preparing the Stakeholder Engagement Plan. The
Stakeholder Engagement Plan focuses on identifying and planning how to
engage with all relevant stakeholders, not just the customer. Option B is not
the most appropriate response to the specific task at hand.
C. Plan a meeting with the previous project manager and
understand the completion status of stakeholder identification:

- This option is the correct answer because it aligns with the PMBOK
Guide's principles of knowledge transfer and leveraging existing project
documentation. Meeting with the previous project manager allows the new
project manager to gather insights into the stakeholder identification process
(which ideally should have been completed during INITIATION stage),
understand the current status, and potentially uncover any nuances or
considerations that are important for effective stakeholder engagement
planning (in PLANNING stage).

D. Ask for the resource management plan and check for ways to engage
stakeholders which are already documented:

- While the resource management plan is relevant to project management,

it does not specifically address the task of preparing the Stakeholder
Engagement Plan. Option D focuses on resource management rather than
stakeholder engagement planning.

In summary, Option C is the correct answer as it involves knowledge transfer

from the previous project manager, ensuring a smooth transition and
providing valuable insights into stakeholder identification. This approach
aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis on effective project management
through collaboration and leveraging existing project knowledge.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 4 - Engage stakeholders

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 5.24 - Plan Stakeholder
Engagement
Question 65:
Skipped
A product owner newly onboarded with an agile teams finds it difficult to
make the team contribute towards ideas for value creation and benefits
realization. The core strength of the team lies in technical mastery and
problem solving.

Is this an cause for concern, and why?

  No, because it’s prescribed to have a team of specialists in
agile projects
 No, because the team is not expected to contribute beyond
their areas of strength
 Yes, because lack of diversification will limit the team’s ability
to adapt to changing circumstances

(Correct)

 Yes, because the product owner is acting outside the defined

role description
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option C: Yes, because the lack of
diversification will limit the team’s ability to adapt to changing
circumstances.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option C is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. No, because it’s prescribed to have a team of specialists in agile projects:

- While having specialists on an agile team is not uncommon, the Agile

Manifesto values individuals and interactions over processes and tools. Agile
teams are encouraged to collaborate and cross-functionality is emphasized.
While specialists bring expertise, complete reliance on a narrow set of skills
may limit the team's ability to adapt to changing circumstances. Option A
does not fully align with the Agile principles of collaboration and adaptability.

B. No, because the team is not expected to contribute beyond their areas of
strength:

- Agile practices promote cross-functional teams, and individuals are

encouraged to contribute beyond their primary areas of expertise. While
specialization is recognized, the emphasis is on collaboration and shared
ownership of the work. Option B contradicts the Agile principle of promoting
collaboration and collective ownership, and it may hinder the team's ability
to adapt and innovate.
C. Yes, because lack of diversification will limit the team’s ability to
adapt to changing circumstances:

- This is the correct answer. Agile teams benefit from diversity in skills and
perspectives, which enhances their ability to adapt to changing
circumstances. If the team is solely focused on technical mastery and
problem solving, they may struggle to contribute ideas for value creation and
benefits realization. Diversification is valuable for innovation and
adaptability, as highlighted in the Agile Manifesto and Agile Practice Guide.

D. Yes, because the product owner is acting outside the defined role
description:

- While it's essential for team members to operate within their defined
roles, the concern in this scenario is more about the team's lack of
diversification. The product owner's role is primarily focused on maximizing
the value of the product, and the team's composition and capabilities also
play a crucial role. Option D does not address the root cause of the difficulty
in value creation and benefits realization.

In summary, Option C is the correct answer because lack of diversification in

skills and perspectives within the team can limit its ability to adapt to
changing circumstances and hinder creativity in value creation. This aligns
with the Agile principles of collaboration, adaptability, and the value of
individuals and interactions.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Lead a Team

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 4.3.1 - Agile Teams
Question 66:
Skipped
A quality improvement project is planning to increase the confidence interval
of products within specifications as produced by a newly installed machine.
The quality manager has handed over the project manager an analysis of the
control charts prepared with data collected over the last 30 days. The key
intent of having a control chart is to:
 Focus on critical-to-quality variables
 Focus on critical thinking
 Analyze the root cause of a problem
 To check whether a quality variable is within the established
limits
 (Correct)

Explanation
Option D is the correct answer. The key intent of studying a control chart in
the context of product quality management is to monitor and control
the stability and predictability of a process. Control charts, also known
as Shewhart charts or process-behaviour charts, are a statistical tool used in
quality control to understand how a process behaves over time.

Here are the key intents and benefits of studying a control chart in the
context of product quality management:

1. Detecting Process Variability:

- Control charts help identify common cause and special cause variations in a
process. Common cause variations are inherent to the process, while special
cause variations are exceptional events that can be investigated. By
distinguishing between these types of variations, organizations can focus on
eliminating special causes and improving the overall stability of the process.

2. Continuous Monitoring:

- Control charts provide a visual representation of process performance over

time. By plotting data points on the chart, organizations can continuously
monitor the process and quickly identify any trends, shifts, or unusual
patterns. This enables timely intervention to address potential issues before
they impact product quality.

3. Setting Control Limits:

- Control charts define upper and lower control limits based on statistical
analysis of the process data. These limits represent the range within which
the process is considered stable. If data points fall outside these limits, it
indicates that the process may be out of control, and corrective action may
be needed.
4. Improving Process Performance:

- Through the insights gained from control charts, organizations can make
informed decisions to improve process performance. By understanding the
sources of variation and taking corrective actions, product quality can be
enhanced, leading to better customer satisfaction and reduced waste.

5. Enhancing Predictability:

- Control charts contribute to the predictability of a process. When a process

is stable and predictable, it becomes easier to forecast outcomes, plan
resources effectively, and meet customer expectations. Predictability is a key
factor in achieving and maintaining high-quality products.

6. Decision-Making Support:

- Control charts provide a systematic approach for decision-making. Instead

of reacting to every individual data point, organizations can use the
information from the chart to make data-driven decisions and allocate
resources where they are most needed.

7. Continuous Improvement:

- Control charts are a fundamental tool in the context of continuous

improvement. By regularly reviewing and analyzing the data, organizations
can implement changes to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of their
processes, leading to ongoing improvement in product quality.

In summary, the key intent of studying a control chart in product quality

management is to establish a systematic and data-driven approach to
monitor, control, and continuously improve processes, ensuring the
consistent delivery of high-quality products.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Control Charts - Pg. 261
Question 67:
Skipped
Following a new product launch, there have been reports of serious quality
defects with the product packaging. The project manager wants to do a
market recall of some specific manufactured batches of the product. This is
to analyze the statistical significance level of the defect. Why is statistical
sampling necessary for this action?
 To identify critical areas of focus for quality
 To have a representative idea of the population since checking
the full population is not feasible

(Correct)

 Because it is a mandate provided by PMBOK

 To help identify gaps in quality control

Explanation
Option B is the correct answer. The key intent of statistical sampling in
the context of product quality management is to make informed and reliable
conclusions about the quality of a product or process by examining a subset
of items rather than inspecting each individual item. Statistical sampling is a
systematic approach that uses statistical techniques to select a
representative sample from a larger population, allowing organizations to
draw inferences about the entire population based on the characteristics
observed in the sample.

Here are the key intents and benefits of statistical sampling in product
quality management:

1. Cost Efficiency:

- Inspecting every single product in a production lot may be impractical and

costly. Statistical sampling allows for a more cost-effective approach by
examining a representative sample, reducing the time and resources
required for inspection.

2. Risk-Based Decision-Making:

- Statistical sampling helps organizations assess and manage risks

associated with product quality. By analyzing a sample, organizations can
make decisions about accepting or rejecting an entire batch or lot, taking
into account the inherent variability in production processes.

3. Inference to the Population:

- The primary intent of statistical sampling is to draw valid conclusions about

the entire population of items based on the characteristics observed in the
selected sample. Statistical methods provide a level of confidence in the
conclusions, allowing organizations to make reliable statements about the
overall quality of the product or process.

4. Quality Assurance and Control:

- Statistical sampling is a key tool in quality assurance and control efforts. It

helps organizations monitor and control processes, ensuring that products
meet specified quality standards. By identifying and addressing quality
issues early in the production process, organizations can prevent defects and
improve overall quality.

5. Compliance with Standards:

- Many industries and regulatory bodies have standards and requirements for
product quality. Statistical sampling provides a systematic and standardized
method for organizations to demonstrate compliance with these quality
standards.

6. Continuous Improvement:

- Statistical sampling results can be analyzed to identify trends, patterns,

and areas for improvement in production processes. This supports a culture
of continuous improvement, where organizations strive to enhance product
quality over time.

7. Reducing Inspection Bias:

- Random and systematic sampling methods help reduce inspection bias. By
using statistically sound sampling techniques, organizations can minimize
the potential for bias in selecting items for inspection, leading to more
objective and representative results.

8. Resource Optimization:

- Statistical sampling allows organizations to optimize the use of resources

for inspection and testing. By focusing efforts on a representative sample,
resources can be directed more efficiently toward areas that are most likely
to provide meaningful insights into product quality.

In summary, the key intent of statistical sampling in product quality

management is to provide a systematic and statistically valid approach for
assessing and ensuring the quality of products. It enables organizations to
make data-driven decisions, manage risks, and continuously improve
processes while optimizing resources.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Pg. 302, Statistical Sampling
Question 68:
Skipped
The procurement department is planning to deliver the most suitable
contract for an office renovation project. During the process of procurement
management, any violation of the contract terms and conditions either from
buyer or seller primarily comes with a _______ risk. Choose the best answer:

 Schedule
 Cost
 Legal

(Correct)

 Escalation

Explanation
Violations of contract terms and conditions in project management
primarily come with a legal risk (Option C) due to the legally binding
nature of contracts. Contracts are formal agreements between parties that
outline the terms, conditions, obligations, and rights of each party involved in
a project. When either the buyer or the seller fails to meet their contractual
obligations, it can result in legal consequences. Here's why contract
violations are associated with legal risks:

1. Legally Binding Agreement:

- A contract is a legally binding agreement between two or more parties. It

creates legal obligations that each party is required to fulfill. When a party
fails to adhere to the terms and conditions specified in the contract, it
constitutes a breach of the legal agreement.

2. Enforceability of Terms:

- Contracts are designed to be enforceable in a court of law. If one party fails

to fulfill its contractual obligations, the other party has the legal right to seek
remedies through legal channels. This could include seeking damages,
specific performance, or other remedies as stipulated in the contract.

3. Legal Framework and Jurisdiction:

- Contracts operate within a legal framework, and the legal system provides
the means to resolve disputes arising from contract violations. Contract law
establishes the rules and principles governing the formation, interpretation,
and enforcement of contracts. The jurisdiction specified in the contract
determines which legal system and court will handle disputes.

4. Remedies and Damages:

- Contractual terms often include provisions for remedies and damages in

the event of a breach. These provisions define the compensation or
corrective actions that may be pursued in case of a violation. Legal action
may be necessary to enforce these remedies and seek compensation for
losses incurred.

5. Protecting Parties' Interests:

- Contracts are designed to protect the interests of both parties involved. If
one party fails to meet its contractual obligations, the legal system provides
a mechanism for the aggrieved party to seek protection and redress. Legal
action becomes a means of upholding the parties' rights and ensuring fair
treatment.

6. Preservation of Evidence:

- Legal proceedings often require evidence to support claims of breach of

contract. Documentation of the contract terms, project communications, and
evidence of the actual breach are crucial in legal proceedings. Failure to
meet contractual obligations may be challenged or defended based on the
available evidence.

7. Legal Recourse and Resolution:

- When a contract is violated, the injured party typically has the legal right to
seek recourse through litigation or alternative dispute resolution
mechanisms. Legal proceedings aim to resolve the dispute and enforce the
terms of the contract, bringing about a legal resolution to the conflict.

In summary, any violation of contract terms and conditions in project

management comes with a legal risk because contracts are legal
instruments, and their enforcement is overseen by the legal system. The
legal framework provides a structured process for resolving disputes and
ensuring that parties adhere to their contractual commitments. Legal action
is a means of seeking redress and upholding the rights and obligations
established in the contract.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task 1: Plan and manage project

compliance
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Check 'claims' and 'claims
administration' , Pg. 324
Question 69:
Skipped
A company is planning to roll out a new software application which leverages
the latest innovations in the field. The project manager has confirmed that all
the work packages have been identified along with the resources and
associated risks. Which estimation technique should be used in this scenario
to develop an accurate and precise cost estimate?
 Three point estimating
 Beta estimating
 Bottom up estimating

(Correct)

 Expert judgement
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option C: Bottom-up estimating.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option C is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Three-point estimating:

- Three-point estimating involves determining three estimates for an

activity: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely. While this technique is
useful for developing a range of estimates and considering uncertainties, it
may not be the most precise method for developing an accurate cost
estimate, especially when detailed information about work packages,
resources, and risks is available.

B. Beta estimating:

- Beta estimating is a type of three-point estimating that uses a statistical

distribution to calculate estimates based on the beta distribution. Similar to
three-point estimating, it provides a range of estimates. However, it may not
be the most precise method when detailed information about work packages,
resources, and risks is available, as in this scenario.

C. Bottom-up estimating:

- This is the correct answer. Bottom-up estimating involves estimating the

cost of individual work packages or activities and then rolling them up to
create a total project cost estimate. It is a detailed and thorough approach
that considers the specific requirements of each work package. This method
is especially effective when there is a clear understanding of the project
scope, and detailed information about resources and risks is available.
Bottom-up estimating is a reliable method for developing accurate and
precise cost estimates.

D. Expert judgment:

- While expert judgment is a valuable input to the estimating process, it is

not a specific technique for developing a cost estimate. It involves seeking
input and insights from experts in the field to enhance the accuracy and
reliability of estimates. However, in this scenario where detailed information
about work packages, resources, and risks is available, relying solely on
expert judgment may not be as precise as using a more detailed estimating
technique like bottom-up estimating.

In summary, Option C (Bottom-up estimating) is the correct answer because

it aligns with the PMBOK Guide's principles of detailed cost estimating by
breaking down the project into smaller, manageable components. It is a
thorough and accurate method when detailed information is available, as
opposed to more high-level estimating techniques like three-point estimating
or beta estimating.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Bottom-up estimating, Pg. 249
Question 70:
Skipped
You are the project manager for a housing development project where all the
stakeholders initially agreed for an 18 month completion. However, 3 weeks
into the project, some of the key stakeholders started to push for a 12 month
completion due to some urgent business need.

Which could be one of your preferred actions from the following?

 Reduce the scope and crash the schedule

 Advise the stakeholders on the risks of modifying timelines
and associated impact to project metrics

(Correct)
  Implement risk responses resulting from a schedule
compression of 6 months
 Negotiate with the stakeholders to reduce project
requirements
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is Option B: Advise the stakeholders on
the risks of modifying timelines and associated impact on project metrics.

Let's analyze each option and explain why Option B is the most appropriate
response, while the other options are incorrect:

A. Reduce the scope and crash the schedule:

- Reducing the scope and crashing the schedule might be a knee-jerk

reaction, but it introduces risks and may compromise the project's quality
and objectives. Additionally, scope reduction without careful consideration
and analysis can lead to negative consequences. It doesn't address the
stakeholders' concerns about timeline modification effectively.

B. Advise the stakeholders on the risks of modifying timelines and

associated impact on project metrics:

- This is the correct answer. In project management, it is crucial to

communicate the impacts of changes to stakeholders. Advising stakeholders
about the risks associated with modifying timelines allows for transparency
and informed decision-making. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis
on effective communication and stakeholder engagement.

C. Implement risk responses resulting from a schedule compression of 6

months:

- While addressing risks is an essential aspect of project management, the

immediate implementation of risk responses without thorough analysis and
communication with stakeholders can lead to hasty decisions. Option C does
not emphasize the importance of communication and negotiation with
stakeholders before implementing risk responses.
D. Negotiate with the stakeholders to reduce project requirements:

- While negotiation is an important project management skill, reducing

project requirements may not be the most suitable solution without
considering the broader impacts on the project objectives and stakeholder
needs. It is essential to involve stakeholders in the decision-making process
rather than unilaterally reducing project requirements.

In summary, Option B is the correct answer because it aligns with project

management principles, emphasizing communication, transparency, and
stakeholder engagement. Advising stakeholders about the risks of modifying
timelines allows for a more informed decision-making process, fostering
collaboration and understanding of the potential impacts on project metrics.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2 Task 8: manage Project Changes

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 7.2 - PICC
Question 71:
Skipped
An hotel landscaping project is following an adaptive life cycle due to funding
constraints limiting the full project scope definition upfront. For projects with
adaptive life cycles, all of the processes below are executed in each iteration
of the project except:

 Cost estimates
 Project charter

(Correct)

 Backlog refinement
 Burnup charts
Explanation
In an adaptive or agile project management approach, such as Scrum, the
emphasis is on flexibility, iterative development, and continuous
improvement. Let's break down the reasons for the initial need for a project
charter and the ongoing importance of cost estimations, backlog refinement,
and burnup chart updates:

Project Charter at the Beginning (Option B):

1. Establishing Project Objectives:

- A project charter outlines the project's purpose, objectives, and scope. This
is crucial at the beginning to provide a clear understanding of what the
project aims to achieve.

2. Setting Initial Direction:

- It helps in aligning the team and stakeholders by providing a shared vision

and understanding of the project's initial goals and expectations.

3. Identifying Key Stakeholders:

- The charter specifies the key stakeholders and their roles, ensuring that
everyone involved knows their responsibilities from the start.

4. Defining High-Level Risks:

- The project charter often includes high-level risks and assumptions.

Identifying these upfront allows teams to be aware of potential challenges
and plan for risk mitigation.

5. Creating a Baseline:

- It serves as a baseline document against which progress can be measured.

This is especially important in adaptive life cycles, where frequent changes
can occur.

Ongoing Iterations:

1. Cost Estimations:
- Continuous cost estimation is necessary because agile projects frequently
adapt to changing requirements. Teams need to assess the cost impact of
new features or changes and adjust the budget accordingly.

2. Backlog Refinement:

- Agile projects rely on a dynamic backlog of features and tasks. Regular

refinement ensures that the backlog reflects the current priorities and
requirements. This adaptability allows teams to respond quickly to changing
market conditions or stakeholder needs.

3. Burnup Chart Updates:

- Burnup charts provide a visual representation of work completed over time.

Regular updates help teams and stakeholders track progress, understand the
rate of work completion, and make data-driven decisions for future
iterations.

4. Flexibility in Scope:

- Agile projects often embrace changes in requirements even late in

development. This flexibility is a key aspect of agile methodologies, allowing
teams to respond to feedback and market changes effectively.

5. Continuous Improvement:

- Agile methodologies promote continuous improvement. Regularly updating

project artifacts and adapting plans based on feedback and lessons learned
ensures that the project remains aligned with business goals.

In summary, while a project charter provides a foundational structure at the

beginning of a project, ongoing activities like cost estimation, backlog
refinement, and burnup chart updates are essential to support the adaptive
nature of agile methodologies, allowing teams to deliver value in a changing
environment.
  Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.7 - Execution practices
delivering value
 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project
methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
Question 72:
Skipped
A project contingency reserve was approved considering high-impact/high-
probability risks only. During the execution stage, a high impact/low-
probability risk occurs. The project manager now needs extra funds to work
on the mitigation plan for this risk. This needs to mobilize the management
reserves. What is the next step for the project manager?

 Raise a change request

(Correct)

 Setup a meeting with the sponsor

 Update the cost baseline
 Conduct an impact analysis on the project schedule due to this
risk

Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of the given scenario:

Option A: Raise a change request

Explanation:

- This is the correct answer. When an unforeseen risk occurs during project
execution that requires additional funds not covered by the contingency
reserve, the project manager should raise a change request to mobilize the
management reserve. Management reserve is NOT a fund readily available
for the project to use.

- According to the PMBOK Guide, a change request is the documented

process used to propose and record changes to project documents,
deliverables, or baselines.

Option B: Setup a meeting with the sponsor

Explanation:
- While it's important to communicate with the sponsor about significant
issues, setting up a meeting might not be the immediate next step.

- The project manager should follow the formal change control process first,
which involves submitting a change request, before engaging the sponsor.

Option C: Update the cost baseline

Explanation:

- Updating the cost baseline is not the immediate next step. The cost
baseline is typically adjusted through the formal change control process,
which includes submitting a change request.

- Making changes to the baseline without following the proper change control
procedures can lead to issues with project governance.

Option D: Conduct an impact analysis on the project schedule due to this risk

Explanation:

- While impact analysis is an important aspect of change management, it's

not the initial step when the project manager needs extra funds.

- The immediate action is to raise a change request to request additional

funds from the management reserve.

In summary, in the given scenario, the project manager should follow the
formal change control process by raising a change request to access the
management reserves, making Option A the correct choice based on project
management principles outlined in the PMBOK Guide and Agile Practice
Guide.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 10: Manage project changes

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 7.2 - PICC
 Question 73:
Skipped
As a part of your quality management program, you need to understand
whether the ppm (parts per million) level of a defect is linked to set point of
a variable in the process. Ideally, you would like to see the correlation
between the two. Which tool would you use here?

 Scatter diagram

(Correct)

 Control chart
 Pareto's chart
 Testing of Hypothesis

Explanation
Option A: Scatter diagrams are used to check for any correlation
between two variables X and Y.
Scatter diagrams, also known as scatter plots, are graphical tools used to
visualize the relationship between two variables, X and Y. These diagrams
help project managers, data analysts, and researchers study correlations
between the two variables. Here's how scatter diagrams are used for this
purpose:

1. Visualization of Data:
- Scatter diagrams provide a visual representation of data points for
variables X and Y. Each point on the plot represents a pair of corresponding
values for X and Y.

2. Identification of Patterns:

- By examining the scatter plot, analysts can identify patterns, trends, or

clusters in the data. This visual inspection can reveal whether there is a
relationship between the two variables.

3. Correlation Assessment:

- Scatter plots are particularly useful for assessing the correlation between
variables. Correlation refers to the statistical relationship between two
variables. The scatter diagram allows analysts to observe whether an
increase or decrease in one variable corresponds to a similar change in the
other.

4. Strength and Direction of Correlation:

- The shape and direction of the scatter plot provide insights into the
strength and direction of the correlation. If points on the plot tend to form a
line sloping upwards or downwards, it indicates a positive or negative
correlation, respectively.

5. Outlier Detection:

- Outliers, which are data points significantly different from the majority, can
be easily identified in a scatter diagram. These outliers may impact the
correlation analysis and can be investigated further.

6. Correlation Coefficient Calculation:

- While scatter diagrams provide a visual assessment of correlation, analysts

may also use statistical measures, such as correlation coefficients (e.g.,
Pearson correlation coefficient), to quantify the strength and direction of the
correlation.

7. Decision-Making Support:

- The insights gained from studying scatter diagrams can inform decision-
making processes. For example, in project management, understanding the
correlation between variables can help in making informed decisions about
resource allocation, risk management, or scheduling.

8. Future Predictions:

- If a strong correlation is identified, it may be possible to use the

relationship between variables to make predictions about one variable based
on the value of the other.

In summary, scatter diagrams are a valuable tool for studying correlations

between two variables, allowing analysts to visually assess patterns, identify
relationships, and make informed decisions based on the observed data.
They are a fundamental part of data analysis and are commonly used in
various fields, including project management, research, and business
analytics.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality

 Link to Process group Practice Guide: Scatter Diagrams - Pg. 295
Question 74:
Skipped
In an agile team, the Java developer is a highly skilled individual. The person
has great in-depth knowledge on the best coding practices in Java and is able
to troubleshoot bugs within codes in no time. The person is a valued
individual within the agile team due to commendable technical mastery.

What kind of an individual does this person most likely represent?

 T shaped
 I shaped

(Correct)
  L shaped
 H shaped
Explanation
The concepts of "T-shaped" and "I-shaped" individuals are often used to
describe the skills and expertise of team members in an Agile environment.
These terms represent different approaches to skill sets within a team.

T-shaped Individuals:

A T-shaped individual has a broad skill set with deep expertise in one specific
area. The horizontal bar of the "T" represents a general understanding of
various skills and disciplines, while the vertical stem represents deep
expertise in a particular domain. In an Agile team, T-shaped individuals:

1. Collaborate Effectively:

- T-shaped team members can collaborate across different roles and

functions within the team because of their broad understanding of various
aspects of the project.

2. Flexibility:

- They are adaptable and can take on different responsibilities as needed.

This flexibility is crucial in Agile environments where roles can be fluid.

3. Knowledge Sharing:

- T-shaped individuals actively share their knowledge with other team

members, promoting a culture of continuous learning within the team.

4. Problem Solving:

- Their deep expertise in a specific area allows them to tackle complex issues
within their domain effectively.
I-shaped Individuals (CORRECT):

An I-shaped individual, on the other hand, has deep expertise in a single

domain but may lack the broad skills seen in a T-shaped individual. The "I"
represents a deep, narrow focus on a particular skill or role. In an Agile team,
I-shaped individuals:

1. Specialized Expertise:

- They bring in-depth knowledge and specialized skills to the team, making
them valuable for specific tasks or challenges.

2. Efficiency in Specific Areas:

- I-shaped team members can be highly efficient and effective in their

specialized area, leading to high-quality deliverables in that domain.

3. Focused Contributions:

- They may excel in roles that require deep concentration and expertise,
such as complex technical problem-solving or highly specialized tasks.

Balancing T-shaped and I-shaped Individuals in an Agile Team:

Agile teams often benefit from a mix of T-shaped and I-shaped individuals.
The combination allows for a well-rounded team that can handle a variety of
tasks and challenges. T-shaped team members facilitate cross-functional
collaboration, knowledge sharing, and adaptability, while I-shaped team
members provide specialized expertise in critical areas.
The dynamic interplay between T-shaped and I-shaped individuals fosters a
collaborative and effective Agile team that can respond to changing
requirements, solve complex problems, and deliver high-quality products.
The emphasis on collaboration and flexibility is a key aspect of Agile
methodologies, and the combination of T-shaped and I-shaped individuals
contributes to the overall success of Agile teams.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Build a Team

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Pg. 42 - T shaped and I shaped individuals
Question 75:
Skipped
A new tax regime is planning to get rolled out within the next 8 months,
which will affect the planned benefits of Product X due to 30% higher indirect
taxes. Product X is likely to be ready within the next 4 months, but
unfortunately, since the new tax regime is retrospective in nature, this might
significant affect the post project benefits.

How should the project manager tackle this challenge?

 Plan a risk review meeting with all stakeholders and revise the
assumption log and project charter

(Correct)

 Update the risk management plan and move forward to the

execution stage
 Engage a tax advisor and explore ways to circumvent the tax
burden
 Proceed as per plan to deliver Product X within the next 4
months and plan for extra tax burden using management
reserves
Explanation
Option A is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's analyze each
option and understand why:

A. Plan a risk review meeting with all stakeholders and revise the
assumption log and project charter:

- This option aligns with the best practice of risk management in project
management. The project manager should identify, assess, and respond to
risks. By planning a risk review meeting with stakeholders, the project
manager can gather insights into the potential impact of the new tax regime
on Product X. Updating the assumption log and project charter ensures that
the project's foundational documents reflect the current understanding of
risks and assumptions.

B. Update the risk management plan and move forward to the execution
stage:

- While updating the risk management plan is a good step, moving directly
to the execution stage without assessing and addressing the impact of the
new tax regime is not a comprehensive approach. It is essential to review
risks with stakeholders before proceeding to execution.

C. Engage a tax advisor and explore ways to circumvent the tax burden:

- While seeking advice from a tax advisor is a reasonable action,

attempting to circumvent the tax burden may not be ethical or legally sound.
Project managers should focus on managing risks rather than finding ways to
evade them.

D. Proceed as per plan to deliver Product X within the next 4 months and
plan for extra tax burden using management reserves:

- Proceeding with the plan without assessing and addressing the impact of
the new tax regime is a risky approach. While planning for management
reserves is a part of risk management, it should be done after a thorough
risk review with stakeholders. Simply planning for extra reserves without
understanding the nature and magnitude of the risk is not a proactive
strategy.

In summary, option A is the correct answer because it advocates for a

proactive approach to project governance risk management by involving
stakeholders in a risk review meeting, and updating foundational project
documents to reflect the revised assumptions and potential impacts.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 3, Task 1 - Manage project compliance

  Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 2.3.2 - Project
Governance
Question 76:
Skipped
The Chief Sales Officer (CSO) of ABC Corporation has reported a 40% drop in
free downloads and 18% drop in paid subscriptions for a newly launched
over-the-top (OTT) media application. There have been instances of a high
number of customer complaints regarding the buffering issues within the
application as well.

The project team is already working on bug fixes and upgrades to release a
version upgrade soon, but the CSO has reached out to the product owner to
ask for a full list of requirements for the existing and new product versions.

How should the project manager respond to this situation?

 Reiterate that the version releases were approved by the sales

team before deployment
 Review notes from the focused group discussions conducted
during the collect requirements process
 Implement the planned risk responses using the contingency
reserves of the project
 Arrange a product demo with the CSO demonstrating how the
version upgrade will address the issues

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's examine each
option to understand why:

A. Reiterate that the version releases were approved by the sales team
before deployment:

- While it's important to communicate the approval process, reiterating the

approval alone does not address the current issues faced by the users. The
focus should be on resolving the customer complaints and improving the
application rather than justifying past decisions.

B. Review notes from the focused group discussions conducted during the
collect requirements process:
 - Reviewing notes from focused group discussions is a valuable step, but it
may not directly address the urgent issues reported by the CSO. The
situation requires a more immediate response, and the project manager
should prioritize addressing the reported problems before delving into
historical requirements.

C. Implement the planned risk responses using the contingency reserves of

the project:

- While implementing planned risk responses is a part of project risk

management, using contingency reserves should be based on a thorough
analysis of the current situation. In this case, the CSO is requesting a list of
requirements for both existing and new product versions, suggesting a need
for a more comprehensive understanding of the product's current state and
future direction. Simply using contingency reserves without a clear plan may
not be the most effective response.

D. Arrange a product demo with the CSO demonstrating how the

version upgrade will address the issues:

- This is the correct option. It aligns with the Agile Practice Guide's
emphasis on customer collaboration over contract negotiation. The project
manager should engage with the CSO, understand the concerns, and
demonstrate how the upcoming version upgrade addresses the reported
issues. A product demo allows for direct communication, feedback, and
collaboration to ensure that the customer's expectations are met.

In summary, option D is the correct answer as it focuses on actively

addressing the reported issues, collaborating with the customer (CSO), and
providing a tangible demonstration of how the upcoming version upgrade
will resolve the problems with the over-the-top (OTT) media application.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 9 - Collaborate with

stakeholders
 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed: Types of Communication Channels - Table 2-1 -
Product Demos
Question 77:
Skipped
A team member informs the project manager that a bottling line that was
installed recently in a factory is running slow than the rated speed. The rated
speed was 600 bottles/min but the line is currently running at 550 bottles
/min. The project manager now needs to create a response for this variance.
What could be the most suitable response in this situation?
 Re-draft the project charter and the assumptions log to reflect
the speed of 550 bottles/min
 Assess if a retrofit needs to be done on the machine and plan
for additional funding
 Perform a root cause analysis to identify the reason for gap in
performance

(Correct)

 Negotiate the need for 600 bottles/min with customer and

justify the reduced speed
Explanation
Option C is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's analyze each
option to understand why:

A. Re-draft the project charter and the assumptions log to reflect the speed
of 550 bottles/min:

- This option is not the best approach in this situation. Redrafting the
project charter and assumptions log is a formal process and is typically done
when there are significant changes to the project scope, objectives, or
assumptions. The current issue with the bottling line speed should be
investigated first before making changes to these foundational project
documents.

B. Assess if a retrofit needs to be done on the machine and plan for

additional funding:

- While assessing if a retrofit is needed is a valid step, planning for

additional funding should be based on a thorough analysis of the root cause
and the feasibility of solutions. Jumping directly to planning for additional
funding without understanding the reason for the slowdown may not be the
most effective or efficient response.
C. Perform a root cause analysis to identify the reason for the gap in
performance:

- This is the correct option. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance
of identifying the root causes of variances. Performing a root cause analysis
will help the project manager understand why the bottling line is running
slower than the rated speed. This analysis is essential for making informed
decisions and implementing effective corrective actions.

D. Negotiate the need for 600 bottles/min with the customer and justify the
reduced speed:

- Negotiating with the customer should be based on a solid understanding

of the problem and potential solutions. Jumping directly to negotiating
without investigating the root cause may lead to unnecessary conflicts and
misunderstandings. The focus should be on solving the problem rather than
negotiating without sufficient information.

In summary, option C is the correct answer as it aligns with the project

management principle of conducting a root cause analysis to identify the
underlying reasons for variances in performance. Once the root cause is
identified, the project manager can develop appropriate responses and
solutions.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 15 - Manage project issues

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 7.2 - PICC
Question 78:
Skipped
A project manager is managing the construction of primary schools in a
suburban town of India. The project needs to be finished in a very tight
timeline since the funding of the project is linked to the state elections. The
sponsor of the project wants to kick off the project immediately. What should
the project manager do first?

 Arrange funding for the project

 Start working on the project schedule to understand how the
project can be completed fast
 Meet with the electoral board to understand why construction
of schools is linked to state elections
  Gather initial scope and success criteria of the project to draft
the charter

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's analyze each
option to understand why:

A. Arrange funding for the project:

- While funding is essential for project execution, it is not the first step in
initiating a project according to the PMBOK Guide. The project manager
should first establish a clear understanding of the project's scope, objectives,
and success criteria before seeking funding.

B. Start working on the project schedule to understand how the project can
be completed fast:

- Developing the project schedule is an important aspect of project

planning, but it should not be the first step in project initiation. Before
creating a schedule, the project manager needs to define the project's
scope, objectives, and success criteria.

C. Meet with the electoral board to understand why construction of schools is

linked to state elections:

- While understanding the context and background of the project is

important, meeting with the electoral board is not the first step in project
initiation. The project manager should focus on gathering information related
to the project's scope and success criteria before delving into external
discussions.

D. Gather initial scope and success criteria of the project to draft

the charter:

- This is the correct option. According to the PMBOK Guide, the project
charter is developed as part of the project initiation process. It includes the
project's purpose, objectives, success criteria, and initial scope. By gathering
this information first, the project manager can create a solid foundation for
the project and ensure that all stakeholders have a clear understanding of
the project's goals and expectations.

In summary, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the project

management best practices outlined in the PMBOK Guide. Initiating the
project by gathering the initial scope and success criteria is crucial for
developing a comprehensive project charter and setting the project on the
right path.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 1 - Deliver business value

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide - Section 1.2.2 - Business value
creation
Question 79:
Skipped
There have been disruptions reported within a project team due to repeated
conflicts between the sub-contractor and project construction supervisor.
The issue is on the verge of getting escalated to the project sponsor.

What should the project manager do?

 Meet with the sub-contractor and the construction supervisor

to discuss the issues

(Correct)

 Send a legal notice the sub-contractor notifying that conflicts

are violation of project contract
 Let the parties sort out the conflict between themselves
collaboratively
 Update the issue log
Explanation
Option A is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's analyze each
option to understand why:

A. Meet with the sub-contractor and the construction supervisor to

discuss the issues:
 - This is the correct option. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes the importance
of effective communication and conflict resolution. Meeting with the involved
parties allows the project manager to understand the root causes of the
conflicts, facilitate open communication, and work towards a resolution. This
approach aligns with the principles of stakeholder management and conflict
resolution.

B. Send a legal notice to the sub-contractor notifying that conflicts are a

violation of the project contract:

- Sending a legal notice is a drastic measure and should be considered only

when other attempts at resolution have failed. It is not the first step in
addressing conflicts within a project team. The Agile Practice Guide also
encourages collaborative problem-solving over adversarial approaches,
which sending a legal notice may represent.

C. Let the parties sort out the conflict between themselves collaboratively:

- While encouraging parties to resolve conflicts collaboratively is a good

practice, the project manager should actively facilitate the resolution
process, especially when the issue is on the verge of being escalated.
Passive involvement may lead to prolonged conflicts and negatively impact
the project. The project manager should play an active role in conflict
resolution.

D. Update the issue log:

- Updating the issue log is a project management activity, but it is not the
most immediate and proactive response to a situation where conflicts are
escalating. The project manager should prioritize addressing the conflicts
directly by engaging with the involved parties and working towards a
resolution.

In summary, option A is the correct answer because it reflects the project

manager's proactive approach to address conflicts by meeting with the sub-
contractor and construction supervisor, facilitating open communication, and
working towards a resolution. This aligns with the principles of effective
stakeholder management and conflict resolution in project management.
  Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 1 - Manage Conflicts
 Link to PMBOK 7th Ed. - Pg. 29, Conflict Management
Question 80:
Skipped
In an agile project, all the story points are complete, the backlog is clean, the
testing is done and the product is ready for client handover. However, the
client has expressed discontent highlighting that certain features of the
product does not meet the business requirements.

What could be the most effective way to prevent such outcome in future
projects?

 Confirm that the client approves product vision before the

start of the project
 Agree with the client on the requirement list and success
criteria for Definition of Done

(Correct)

 Collect customer feedbacks on troubleshooting guides and

maintenance protocols
 Ensure the test plan captures both tangible and intangible
requirements of the product
Explanation
Option B is the correct answer for the given scenario. Let's analyze each
option to understand why:

A. Confirm that the client approves product vision before the start of the
project:

- While obtaining client approval for the product vision is important, it may
not be sufficient to prevent issues with specific features not meeting
business requirements. The product vision provides a high-level view of the
project's goals, but detailed requirements need to be captured in a more
specific manner.

B. Agree with the client on the requirement list and success criteria
for Definition of Done:
 - This is the correct option. In agile projects, the Definition of Done (DoD) is
a crucial concept. It defines the criteria that must be met for a product
increment to be considered complete. By agreeing with the client on the
requirement list and success criteria for the DoD, the project team ensures a
shared understanding of what constitutes a finished product. This helps in
preventing misunderstandings and dissatisfaction with the final deliverable.

C. Collect customer feedback on troubleshooting guides and maintenance

protocols:

- While collecting customer feedback is valuable, focusing solely on

troubleshooting guides and maintenance protocols may not address the
broader issue of meeting business requirements for product features. The
key is to ensure that the product itself aligns with the client's expectations
and needs.

D. Ensure the test plan captures both tangible and intangible requirements
of the product:

- While capturing both tangible and intangible requirements in the test plan
is important for comprehensive testing, it may not be sufficient to prevent
dissatisfaction with specific features not meeting business requirements. The
focus should be on defining clear criteria for the Definition of Done in
collaboration with the client.

In summary, option B is the correct answer because it addresses the need for
a shared understanding of requirements and success criteria through the
Definition of Done. This aligns with agile principles of collaboration and clear
communication with stakeholders to ensure that the final product meets the
client's business requirements.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 8 - Plan and manage scope
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Definition of Done (DoD) - Pg. 151
Question 81:
Skipped
During a quality improvement project on a men's grooming product line, the
quality manager has deployed a new team member to oversee the quality
performance. This new team member has missed multiple project review
meetings and is often non-responsive.

What could be the most effective step to engage this stakeholder?

 Review the stakeholder engagement plan to assess the current

and expected interest levels

(Correct)

 Share the project quality management plan with this new

stakeholder
 Raise the issue to the quality manager and request alternative
resources
 Enrol the new stakeholder in a mentorship program to develop
the required capabilities
Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of the Project Management
Professional (PMP) Certification Exam, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated project management concepts:

A. Review the stakeholder engagement plan to assess the current

and expected interest levels:

- Correct: This option aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis on the
importance of stakeholder engagement. By reviewing the stakeholder
engagement plan, the project manager can assess the current interest levels
and expectations of the new team member. This will help identify any gaps
in understanding or communication, allowing for targeted efforts to engage
the stakeholder effectively.

B. Share the project quality management plan with this new stakeholder:

- Incorrect: While sharing project documents is important, the quality

management plan may not directly address the issue of the team member's
non-responsiveness. It is crucial to first assess the stakeholder's interest and
engagement levels before delving into specific project plans.

C. Raise the issue to the quality manager and request alternative resources:
- Incorrect: While raising concerns to the quality manager is a valid step,
immediately requesting alternative resources may not be the most effective
approach without understanding the underlying issues. It's important to first
assess and address the reasons for the stakeholder's disengagement before
considering resource changes.

D. Enrol the new stakeholder in a mentorship program to develop the

required capabilities:

- Incorrect: This option focuses on developing capabilities, which may not be

the immediate solution to the stakeholder's non-responsiveness. While
mentorship programs are valuable for professional development, they might
not directly address the current engagement issues.

In conclusion, option A is the correct answer as it advocates a systematic

approach by reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan to understand and
address the current and expected interest levels of the new team member.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either focus on specific
project plans without understanding the stakeholder's engagement level (B),
propose immediate resource changes without addressing the underlying
issues (C), or suggest a long-term development solution without addressing
the current non-responsiveness (D).

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 9: Collaborate with stakeholders

 Link to Process Group practice Guide: Plan stakeholder engagement -
Section 5.24
Question 82:
Skipped
A project team has been challenged from the beginning of the project to
maintain the quality parameters. The quality manager has just published the
test & evaluation documents and handed them over to the project manager.
What is the next step for the project manager?

 Develop quality standards for the project

 Perform product evaluations

(Correct)

 Validate scope
 Develop confidence interval estimates
Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of the Project Management
Professional (PMP) Certification Exam, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated project management concepts:

A. Develop quality standards for the project:

- Incorrect: Developing quality standards typically occurs earlier in the

project during the planning phase, not after test and evaluation plan
documents have been published. At this stage, the project manager should
be focused on implementing and executing the quality management plan
rather than creating new standards.

B. Perform product evaluations:

- Correct: This option aligns with the logical progression of the project
lifecycle. After receiving the test and evaluation documents from the quality
manager, the next step is to perform product evaluations. This involves
assessing the product against predefined criteria to ensure that it meets
quality standards. This step is critical for identifying any defects or deviations
from the expected quality parameters.

C. Validate scope:

- Incorrect: Scope validation is related to formal acceptance of completed

project deliverables by the customer. While important, it is not the
immediate next step after receiving test and evaluation documents. The
focus at this point should be on evaluating the product's quality.

D. Develop confidence interval estimates:

- Incorrect: Confidence interval estimates are related to statistical analysis

and risk management, and they are not directly tied to the immediate action
required after receiving test and evaluation documents (ideally this should
have already been captured in the testing plan). This option is not the most
relevant step in this context.
In conclusion, option B is the correct answer as it reflects the logical
progression in the project lifecycle. After receiving test and evaluation
documents from the quality manager, the project manager should perform
product evaluations to ensure that the project meets the defined quality
parameters. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they either focus on
activities that should have been done earlier in the project (A), are not
directly related to the immediate next step after receiving test and
evaluation documents (C), or involve a different aspect of project
management (D).

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 6.3 - Manage quality
Question 83:
Skipped
You are a project manager who has recently joined a project during the
execution phase. As a part of your handover process, the previous project
manager is reviewing the status reports, progress reports, reserve burndown
charts, defect histograms etc. These are examples of:

 Work performance reports

(Correct)

 Work performance data

 Quality metrics
 Defect analysis

Explanation
In project management, work performance data and work performance
reports are two distinct concepts that play different roles in monitoring and
controlling project work. Let's delve into each term and provide examples to
illustrate their differences:

1. Work Performance Data (Option B):

- Definition: Work performance data refers to the raw and unprocessed

information and observations collected during the execution of project
activities. It is essentially the data that is generated as a result of carrying
out the work in the project.
- Example: If you are managing a construction project, work performance
data could include the actual number of hours worked, quantities of
materials used, progress on specific tasks, or the current status of project
deliverables. It represents the factual and real-time data about the project as
it unfolds.

2. Work Performance Reports (CORRECT Option A):

- Definition: Work performance reports are the analysed and formatted

information derived from work performance data. This information is
presented in a way that is understandable and useful for project
stakeholders, aiding in decision-making and communication.

- Example: Continuing with the construction project example, a work

performance report might include a summary of the actual versus planned
progress, cost variances, quality metrics, and any identified issues or risks.
This report provides a snapshot of how the project is performing against its
baselines and helps stakeholders make informed decisions about project
direction and necessary adjustments.

In summary:

- Work Performance Data is the raw, unprocessed information collected

during the execution of project work.

- Work Performance Reports are the analyzed and formatted outputs derived
from work performance data, presented in a way that facilitates decision-
making and communication.

The relationship between these two concepts is that work performance

reports are built upon work performance data. To create meaningful reports,
project managers analyze and interpret the data to provide valuable insights
and communicate the status and health of the project to stakeholders.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and
resources
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 1.8 - Project
management data and information
 Question 84:
Skipped
A scrum master is performing an health check for skill sufficiency within an
agile team. What could be a determinant to conclude that the agile team
possesses a reasonable representation of I-shaped individuals?
 Necessary subject matter experts exist across all platforms

(Correct)

 More collaboration with the scrum master

 Minimum tasks get reassigned across teams
 An increasing list of impediments on the information radiator
Explanation
Correct Option: I-shaped individuals:
 Depth: I-shaped individuals have deep expertise in a specific area or
skill domain. Their knowledge and proficiency are focused on a
particular discipline, making them specialists or subject matter experts
in that field.

T-shaped individuals:

 Depth and Breadth: T-shaped individuals, on the other hand, also

have depth in a specific area but additionally possess a breadth of
skills across various disciplines. They are generalists in addition to
being specialists, allowing them to collaborate effectively with team
members from different backgrounds. A good representation of T
shaped skills also ensures that minimum tasks get reassigned across
teams because they have a broader management overview of backlog
management. (Option C is hence incorrect).

In summary:

 I-shaped individuals have depth in a specific skill or domain.

 T-shaped individuals have both depth in a specific area and breadth
of skills across multiple domains.

In the context of an agile project team, both I-shaped and T-shaped

individuals can contribute effectively. I-shaped individuals bring specialized
expertise, while T-shaped individuals offer a combination of specialization
and the ability to collaborate across different areas. I appreciate your
understanding, and I hope this clarification is helpful.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 2 - Lead a team

  Link to Agile Practice Guide: Pg. 42, I shaped people and T shaped
people
Question 85:
Skipped
It was highlighted during a regulatory compliance project that few of the
stakeholders might have a conflict of interest. The project manager has used
the stakeholder register to identify them and now plans to engage them to
resolve the potential conflict of interest items.

How should the project manager accomplish this goal?

 Plan stakeholder engagement

(Correct)

 Manage stakeholder engagement

 Communicate via stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
 Monitor stakeholder engagement
Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of the Project Management
Professional (PMP) Certification Exam, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated project management concepts:

A. Plan stakeholder engagement:

- Correct: Planning stakeholder engagement involves determining how to

approach and involve stakeholders throughout the project (PLANNING). In
this context, where there's a potential conflict of interest, planning
stakeholder engagement is the appropriate step. The project manager needs
to establish strategies for engaging stakeholders, including those with
conflicts, and develop approaches to address their concerns. Reference:
PMBOK Guide - Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.

B. Manage stakeholder engagement:

- Incorrect: Managing stakeholder engagement is more about

implementing the strategies and action plans developed during the planning
phase (EXECUTION). In this scenario, planning is the more relevant step as
the project manager is in the early stages of addressing potential conflicts.
Reference: PMBOK Guide - Manage Stakeholder Engagement process.
C. Communicate via stakeholder engagement assessment matrix:

- Incorrect: The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix is a tool used

to assess and classify stakeholders based on their current and desired levels
of engagement. While communication is important, this option doesn't
specifically address the goal of resolving potential conflicts of interest.
Planning stakeholder engagement is a more comprehensive approach.
Reference: PMBOK Guide - Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix.

D. Monitor stakeholder engagement:

- Incorrect: Monitoring stakeholder engagement involves tracking and

assessing stakeholder relationships throughout the project
(MONITOR AND CONTROL PHASE). However, in this scenario, the project
manager is at the stage of identifying and planning to address potential
conflicts of interest, making planning stakeholder engagement the more
suitable choice. Reference: PMBOK Guide - Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
process.

In conclusion, option A, "Plan stakeholder engagement," is the correct

answer. It aligns with the need to address potential conflicts of interest by
strategically planning how to engage stakeholders, including those with
conflicts. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either focus on
managing ongoing engagement (B and D) or emphasize communication
without addressing the planning aspect comprehensively (C).

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 9 - Collaborate with

stakeholders
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 5.24, Plan Stakeholder
Engagement
Question 86:
Skipped
For a project that involves functional managers from various countries, the
scope has become so diverse that a steering committee is now responsible in
place of the sponsor to handle the same. What should the project manager
do to accommodate this new change to maintain effective communication?
 Acknowledge the change in organizational structure and revise
communications management plan
 (Correct)

 Share a project status report with the new committee

 Raise a change request & evaluate the impact of this risk
 Update the quality management plan

Explanation
Let's analyze each option in the context of the Project Management
Professional (PMP) Certification Exam, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated project management concepts:

A. Acknowledge the change in organizational structure and revise

communications management plan:

- Correct: This option is the most appropriate response to the situation

described. Changes in organizational structure, such as the introduction of a
steering committee, can significantly impact communication flows within a
project. The project manager should acknowledge this change and update
the communications management plan to ensure that communication
channels, stakeholders, and relevant information are addressed
appropriately. Reference: PMBOK Guide - Communications Management
Plan.

B. Share a project status report with the new committee:

- Incorrect: While sharing a project status report is a good practice, it may

not be sufficient in addressing the broader impact of the change in
organizational structure. A revised communications management plan is
needed to ensure effective and targeted communication with the new
steering committee.

C. Raise a change request & evaluate the impact of this risk:

- Partially Incorrect: Raising a change request is a valid step when there's a

significant change in project circumstances. However, the primary concern in
this scenario is communication effectiveness, so raising a change request
alone may not be the most direct response. The focus should be on updating
the communications management plan. While evaluating the impact is
important, it may be better addressed through the communications
management plan update rather than a standalone risk evaluation.

D. Update the quality management plan:

- Incorrect: The change in organizational structure and the need for

effective communication are primarily related to project management
processes, not quality management. Updating the quality management plan
is not directly relevant to addressing the communication challenges posed
by the new steering committee.

In conclusion, option A, "Acknowledge the change in organizational structure

and revise communications management plan," is the correct answer. It
aligns with the need to adapt communication strategies to the new project
environment. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they either focus on
specific project reports (B), suggest a change request without directly
addressing communication planning (C), or propose an update unrelated to
the communication challenge (D).

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 9: Collaborate with stakeholders

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 6.7 - Manage
Communications
Question 87:
Skipped
Which among the following is NOT a part of the Agile Manifesto® which was
developed as a part of the Agile Movement in 2001?

 Individuals and Interactions

 Working Software
 Customer Collaboration
 Customer Satisfaction

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D is not a standard terminology of the Agile Manifesto®

The Agile Manifesto is a set of guiding values and principles for agile
software development. It emphasizes flexibility, collaboration, and a focus on
delivering value to the customer. The four core values of the Agile Manifesto
are:

1. Individuals and Interactions over Processes and Tools:

- This value highlights the importance of people and their interactions in

the development process. Agile values effective communication,
collaboration, and the empowerment of individuals within the team. While
processes and tools have their place, the emphasis is on valuing human
interactions to foster a more responsive and adaptable development
environment.

2. Working Software over Comprehensive Documentation:

- Agile prioritizes the creation of functional and working software as the

primary measure of progress. While documentation is necessary, the
emphasis is on delivering tangible, valuable software to customers regularly.
This value encourages teams to focus on practical outcomes and
continuously deliver increments of working software, reducing the reliance
on extensive documentation that may become outdated.

3. Customer Collaboration over Contract Negotiation:

- Agile encourages a collaborative approach with customers throughout the

development process. Rather than focusing solely on strict contracts and
negotiations, Agile promotes ongoing and close collaboration between
development teams and customers. This ensures that the product aligns with
customer needs, and feedback is incorporated iteratively, fostering a more
responsive and customer-centric development approach.

4. Responding to Change over Following a Plan:

- Agile embraces change and uncertainty, recognizing that requirements

and priorities can evolve throughout a project. Instead of rigidly following a
detailed plan, Agile encourages teams to be adaptable and responsive to
changing customer needs and market conditions. This value underscores the
importance of flexibility and the ability to adjust plans as necessary to
maximize value delivery.
In summary, the four values of the Agile Manifesto prioritize individuals and
interactions, working software, customer collaboration, and the ability to
respond to change. These values guide agile teams in fostering a dynamic
and customer-focused development process that values adaptability,
collaboration, and the delivery of high-quality, working solutions.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 2.2 - The Agile Manifesto
Question 88:
Skipped
_________ is a scheduling system for lean manufacturing and just-in-time
manufacturing (JIT). Taiichi Ohno, an industrial engineer at Toyota,
developed ________ to improve manufacturing efficiency. _______ is one
method to achieve JIT and it is extensively used in Agile managed projects to
enable a 'pull-based' delivery system. Fill in the blanks.

 Kanban

(Correct)

 Hoshin
 Jidoka
 Muda

Explanation
Kanban is a popular framework used in the context of agile project
management, particularly in software development and knowledge work. It
emphasizes visualizing work, limiting work in progress, and maximizing flow
to deliver value more efficiently. Here are key aspects of Kanban in the
context of agile project management:

1. Visualizing Work:

- Kanban promotes the use of visual boards to represent the flow of work
items. This visual representation helps teams understand the status of tasks,
identify bottlenecks, and improve overall transparency. The Kanban board
typically consists of columns representing different stages of work, such as
"To Do," "In Progress," and "Done."
2. Work in Progress (WIP) Limits:

- Kanban places a strong emphasis on limiting the amount of work in

progress at any given time. This constraint helps prevent overloading team
members and ensures a smoother flow of work through the system. WIP
limits are set for each stage on the Kanban board, encouraging teams to
finish work before taking on new tasks.

3. Continuous Flow:

- Kanban encourages a continuous and steady flow of work from ideation to

delivery. By managing work in progress and focusing on completing tasks
before starting new ones, teams can achieve a more predictable and
efficient workflow. This is in contrast to traditional batch-oriented
approaches.

4. Pull-Based System:

- Kanban is a pull-based system, meaning that work is pulled into the

system based on capacity and demand rather than being pushed onto the
team. Team members pull work from the backlog when they have the
capacity to take on new tasks. This approach promotes a more responsive
and demand-driven workflow.

5. Feedback Loops:

- Kanban emphasizes the importance of feedback loops to continuously

improve the process. Teams regularly review their performance, analyze
metrics, and identify opportunities for improvement. This continuous
feedback loop helps adapt to changing requirements, optimize workflows,
and enhance overall efficiency.

6. Flexibility and Adaptability:

- Kanban is known for its flexibility and adaptability. It can be applied to

various contexts and does not prescribe specific roles or ceremonies. This
makes it well-suited for teams looking to adopt agile principles without the
need for a radical change in their existing processes.

7. Service Level Agreements (SLAs):

- Kanban often involves the use of service level agreements to set

expectations for the time it takes to complete different types of work. SLAs
provide a framework for managing and improving delivery times, enabling
teams to meet customer expectations more effectively.

In summary, Kanban in agile project management is a visual and flexible

approach that helps teams manage and optimize their workflow. By
visualizing work, limiting work in progress, and continuously adapting to
change, Kanban enables teams to deliver value more efficiently while
fostering a culture of continuous improvement.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 2.3 - Lean and Kanban
Question 89:
Skipped
A ___________ is an organizational structure that standardizes the
project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of
resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. Fill in the blanks:

 OPA
 PMO

(Correct)

 EEF
 CPI

Explanation
Option 2: Project Management Office (PMO) is an organizational
structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and
facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

The Project Management Office (PMO) plays a crucial role in an organization

by providing a centralized framework for standardizing project-related
governance processes and facilitating the sharing of resources,
methodologies, tools, and techniques. The key functions and roles of a PMO
in this context include:

1. Standardizing Governance Processes:

- The PMO establishes and maintains standardized project management

processes and methodologies across the organization. This includes defining
project life cycles, creating templates, and establishing best practices.
Standardization ensures consistency in how projects are initiated, planned,
executed, monitored, and closed.

2. Facilitating Resource Sharing:

- The PMO helps optimize the allocation and utilization of resources across
projects. By maintaining a holistic view of the organization's project portfolio,
the PMO can identify resource gaps, surplus, or conflicts. This enables better
resource planning and allocation, ensuring that projects receive the
necessary support and expertise.

3. Methodologies, Tools, and Techniques:

- The PMO provides a repository of standardized methodologies, tools, and

techniques that teams can leverage for project execution. This includes
project management software, templates, risk assessment methodologies,
and other tools that enhance efficiency and consistency. By promoting the
use of proven methodologies, the PMO contributes to the success and quality
of projects.

4. Knowledge Management:

- The PMO serves as a hub for knowledge management, capturing lessons

learned, best practices, and historical project data. This knowledge
repository helps project teams learn from past experiences and continuously
improve their processes. It also facilitates knowledge sharing and
collaboration among project managers and team members.
5. Training and Development:

- The PMO is responsible for promoting a culture of continuous learning by

providing training and development opportunities for project managers and
team members. This ensures that the organization stays abreast of industry
trends, methodologies, and tools, fostering a skilled and capable project
workforce.

6. Governance Oversight:

- The PMO provides governance oversight to ensure that projects align with
organizational objectives and strategies. This involves monitoring project
performance, assessing risks, and ensuring compliance with established
processes. The PMO may also conduct project audits and reviews to maintain
a high level of project governance.

7. Portfolio Management:

- The PMO is often involved in portfolio management, overseeing the entire

portfolio of projects and ensuring alignment with organizational goals. This
involves prioritizing projects, managing dependencies, and making strategic
decisions to optimize the overall project portfolio.

8. Communication and Collaboration:

- The PMO acts as a central point for communication and collaboration

among project teams, stakeholders, and senior management. By fostering
open communication channels, the PMO facilitates the exchange of
information and promotes a collaborative project environment.

In summary, the PMO organizational structure serves as a driving force for

standardizing project-related governance processes and enabling the
efficient sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques. By
doing so, the PMO contributes to organizational agility, consistency, and the
successful delivery of projects.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task-4: Support organizational changes
(assess organizational culture)
 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Section 2.6 - PMO
Question 90:
Skipped
Select the 4 values of Agile Manifesto© as per the 2001 Agile Industry
Movement:

 Individuals and interactions over processes and tools | Servant

leadership over directional leadership| Customer Collaboration
over contract negotiation | Responding to change over
following a plan
 Individuals and interactions over processes and tools | Working
Software over comprehensive documentation | Customer
Collaboration over contract negotiation | Continuous planning
over detailed upfront planning
 Team development over individual development| Working
Software over comprehensive documentation | Customer
Collaboration over contract negotiation | Responding to change
over following a plan
 Individuals and interactions over processes and tools | Working
Software over comprehensive documentation | Customer
Collaboration over contract negotiation | Responding to change
over following a plan

(Correct)

Explanation
Option 4: Individuals and interactions over processes and tools | Working
Software over comprehensive documentation | Customer Collaboration over
contract negotiation | Responding to change over following a plan

The Agile Manifesto is a set of guiding values and principles for agile
software development. It emphasizes flexibility, collaboration, and a focus on
delivering value to the customer. The four core values of the Agile Manifesto
are:

1. Individuals and Interactions over Processes and Tools:

- This value highlights the importance of people and their interactions in

the development process. Agile values effective communication,
collaboration, and the empowerment of individuals within the team. While
processes and tools have their place, the emphasis is on valuing human
interactions to foster a more responsive and adaptable development
environment.

2. Working Software over Comprehensive Documentation:

- Agile prioritizes the creation of functional and working software as the

primary measure of progress. While documentation is necessary, the
emphasis is on delivering tangible, valuable software to customers regularly.
This value encourages teams to focus on practical outcomes and
continuously deliver increments of working software, reducing the reliance
on extensive documentation that may become outdated.

3. Customer Collaboration over Contract Negotiation:

- Agile encourages a collaborative approach with customers throughout the

development process. Rather than focusing solely on strict contracts and
negotiations, Agile promotes ongoing and close collaboration between
development teams and customers. This ensures that the product aligns with
customer needs, and feedback is incorporated iteratively, fostering a more
responsive and customer-centric development approach.

4. Responding to Change over Following a Plan:

- Agile embraces change and uncertainty, recognizing that requirements

and priorities can evolve throughout a project. Instead of rigidly following a
detailed plan, Agile encourages teams to be adaptable and responsive to
changing customer needs and market conditions. This value underscores the
importance of flexibility and the ability to adjust plans as necessary to
maximize value delivery.

In summary, the four values of the Agile Manifesto prioritize individuals and
interactions, working software, customer collaboration, and the ability to
respond to change. These values guide agile teams in fostering a dynamic
and customer-focused development process that values adaptability,
collaboration, and the delivery of high-quality, working solutions.
  Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project
methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 2.2 - The Agile Manifesto
Question 91:
Skipped
During a backlog review meeting, the product owner finds that the output
from one of the network design teams has been low. The other network
design teams are working as per the expected velocity. However, there are
no challenges with capabilities or staffing within any of the teams.

What could be a plausible explanation of the team's low output?

 There are some challenges with logging the working hours for
this team
 The other teams consist of young team members and they tend
to be more productive
 The story point estimates for the team are incorrect

(Correct)

 The team members work together daily throughout the project

keeping the customer in mind
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is C. "The story point estimates for the
team are incorrect." Let's break down each option to understand why option
C is correct and the others are incorrect, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated concepts of project management using the PMBOK Framework.

A. There are some challenges with logging the working hours for this team.

- This option refers to challenges with time tracking, which may be a

concern in traditional project management methodologies where time
tracking is crucial for cost management. However, in Agile frameworks like
Scrum, the emphasis is on delivering value rather than tracking hours
worked. Additionally, the question mentions that there are no challenges
with capabilities or staffing, making it less likely that time tracking is the
primary issue.

B. The other teams consist of young team members and they tend to be
more productive.
 - This option makes an assumption about team productivity based on the
age of team members, which is not a relevant factor in Agile methodologies.
The Agile Manifesto emphasizes individuals and interactions over processes
and tools. Productivity is not solely determined by the age of team members,
and such generalizations are not considered best practices in project
management.

C. The story point estimates for the team are incorrect.

- This is the correct answer. In Agile methodologies, including Scrum,

teams often use story points to estimate the complexity and effort required
for user stories. If the story point estimates are incorrect, it can lead to
discrepancies in velocity and impact the team's ability to deliver the
expected value. This aligns with Agile principles that focus on delivering a
potentially shippable product increment within each iteration.

D. The team members work together daily throughout the project keeping
the customer in mind.

- While daily collaboration and customer focus are important Agile

principles, this option does not address the issue of low output from one
specific team. It describes a positive practice but doesn't provide an
explanation for the underperformance of the mentioned team. It is not
directly related to the concept of story point estimation.

In conclusion, option C is the correct answer because incorrect story point

estimates can impact the team's velocity and, subsequently, its ability to
deliver value consistently during Agile iterations. The other options are
incorrect because they either focus on irrelevant factors, make assumptions
about productivity based on age, or address positive practices that do not
explain the low output of the specific team in question.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 10: Build shared understanding

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Section 5.2.2. - Backlog Preparation
Question 92:
Skipped
Organizational restructuring within a company has brought together an agile
team working on a vaccine rollout project and a predictive team working on
commissioning the vaccination centres. The project has been ongoing for a
couple of months, and neither team has visibility on the overall project scope
or the individual roles and responsibilities within the larger, now hybrid,
team.

How could the project manager tackle this situation?

 Develop a requirement traceability matrix combining the

inputs from both the teams and use this as an input for scope
definition

(Correct)

 Develop a master WBS by combining the agile work packages

with the predictive work packages and use this to track
progress
 Develop a resource management plan integrating the agile
team with the predictive team and define new way of working
 Develop a burnup chart for the agile team and start building
capability of the predictive team on agile tools and techniques
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is A. "Develop a requirement traceability
matrix combining the inputs from both the teams and use this as an input for
scope definition." Let's analyze each option to understand why option A is
correct and the others are incorrect, drawing references from the Project
Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide, and
associated concepts of project management using the PMBOK Framework.

A. Develop a requirement traceability matrix combining the inputs

from both the teams and use this as an input for scope definition.

- The requirement traceability matrix is a tool used in project management

to link requirements to their origin and ensure that all requirements are
addressed. In this context, combining inputs from both Agile and predictive
teams into a requirement traceability matrix helps in understanding the
project's overall scope. This aligns with the PMBOK Framework, emphasizing
the importance of defining and documenting project scope.

B. Develop a master WBS by combining the agile work packages with the
predictive work packages and use this to track progress.
 - While a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a valuable project
management tool, combining Agile and predictive work packages may not be
the most effective approach. Agile and predictive methodologies have
different approaches to project planning and execution, and combining them
in a single master WBS may lead to confusion. This option does not address
the issue of visibility on overall project scope, and it may not align with best
practices in Agile project management.

C. Develop a resource management plan integrating the agile team with the
predictive team and define a new way of working.

- While integrating teams and defining new ways of working may be

beneficial, the issue presented in the question is related to visibility on
project scope and individual roles and responsibilities. Developing a resource
management plan, though important, may not directly address the lack of
visibility on project scope. This option does not provide a clear solution to the
problem described.

D. Develop a burnup chart for the agile team and start building the capability
of the predictive team on agile tools and techniques.

- While building capability and using Agile tools and techniques are
valuable practices, this option focuses more on transitioning the predictive
team to Agile rather than addressing the immediate issue of visibility on
project scope. Developing a burnup chart for the Agile team may not directly
contribute to improving overall project visibility for both teams. This option
may not be the most effective solution to the problem presented.

In conclusion, option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the issue

of visibility on project scope by using a requirement traceability matrix, a
tool recognized in project management for linking requirements to their
sources and facilitating scope definition. The other options are incorrect
because they either do not directly address the visibility issue or propose
solutions that may not align with best practices in project management,
especially in the context of a hybrid team with Agile and predictive
methodologies.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 6: Build a Team

  Link to PMBOK 7th Ed. - Build a collaborative team environment -
Section 3.2
Question 93:
Skipped
A project manager is getting the team ready for a Director level review for a
program of cost optimization projects in the organization. She has a slot of
30-mins on the day of the visit of the Director to cover the review of 3
projects in the program. Hence, she needs to be very crisp & clear in her
communication. Which of the following should the project manager use in
her presentation to provide a schedule update of the projects (on-track/off-
track) to her Director?

 Gantt chart
 WBS dictionary
 Schedule management plan
 Milestone chart

(Correct)

Explanation
A milestone chart, also known as a milestone timeline or milestone
schedule, is a visual representation of the significant events or milestones
within a project displayed along a timeline. In the context of project
management, a milestone is a key point in the project timeline used to track
progress and signify the completion of a major phase or achievement.

Here are some key points about milestone charts in project management:

1. Representation of Key Events: Milestone charts display key events,

accomplishments, or important points in time throughout the project's life
cycle. These events are usually significant and mark the completion of a
project phase, the achievement of a critical task, or the occurrence of a
major decision point.

2. Time Scale: The timeline on a milestone chart typically spans the entire
duration of the project. It may be broken down into weeks, months, or other
relevant time units, depending on the project's scope and timeline.
3. Visual Aid: The chart is a visual aid that helps project stakeholders,
including team members, sponsors, and other interested parties, understand
the project's progress and upcoming milestones at a glance. It is an effective
communication tool for conveying important project information.

4. Dependencies: Milestones often have dependencies on preceding tasks

or activities. They are used to show critical points in the project where
certain tasks or goals must be achieved before progressing to the next
phase.

5. Decision Points: Milestone charts can highlight decision points where

project managers or stakeholders need to make critical decisions that impact
the project's direction, resource allocation, or overall success.

6. Monitoring Progress: Project managers use milestone charts to monitor

the project's progress against the planned timeline. They help in identifying
potential delays, addressing issues, and ensuring that the project stays on
track.

7. Communication Tool: Milestone charts are an essential part of project

communication. They help in setting expectations, managing stakeholders'
understanding of project progress, and fostering transparency among team
members.

In summary, a milestone chart is a visual tool that provides a snapshot of a

project's key events and progress over time. It is an effective means of
tracking and communicating critical milestones to ensure that the project
stays on course and meets its objectives.

 Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task-6: Plan and manage schedule

 Link to Process Group Practice Guide: Table 9.1 - 6th bullet
Question 94:
Skipped
During a backlog review meeting, the project manager finds out that many
stakeholders are not in alignment with the feature which was built in the
previous sprint. This issue was not highlighted before whilst the previous
sprint was ongoing.

What should the project manager do to address this?

 Arrange a spike with the team members to troubleshoot the

issue
 Gather more data to understand the gap in definition-of-done
(DoD)

(Correct)

 Ask the product owner to intervene and resolve the conflict

since this is linked to product development
 Perform an impact analysis of this conflict and raise a change
request
Explanation
The correct answer to the question is B. "Gather more data to understand
the gap in definition-of-done (DoD)." Let's analyze each option to understand
why option B is correct and the others are incorrect, drawing references from
the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), Agile Practice Guide,
and associated concepts of project management using the PMBOK
Framework.

A. Arrange a spike with the team members to troubleshoot the issue.

- A spike is a time-boxed research activity aimed at answering a specific

question or resolving a technical uncertainty. However, in this context, the
issue is related to stakeholders' alignment with a feature, and a spike may
not directly address the gap in understanding between the team and
stakeholders. It's more suitable for technical uncertainties rather than
alignment issues with stakeholders.

B. Gather more data to understand the gap in definition-of-done

(DoD).

- This is the correct answer. Understanding the gap in the definition-of-

done (DoD) is crucial in Agile frameworks like Scrum. The DoD outlines the
criteria that must be met for a product backlog item to be considered
complete. Gathering more data about the expectations and criteria for the
feature in question will help identify where the misalignment occurred and
how it can be addressed. This aligns with Agile principles of continuous
improvement and collaboration.

C. Ask the product owner to intervene and resolve the conflict since this is
linked to product development.

- While the product owner plays a key role in managing the product
backlog and ensuring that stakeholder needs are met, resolving conflicts
related to alignment during the sprint review is a collaborative effort. It is not
solely the responsibility of the product owner. The project manager and the
development team also have roles in addressing such issues. This option
oversimplifies the resolution process and may not lead to a comprehensive
understanding of the problem.

D. Perform an impact analysis of this conflict and raise a change request.

- Performing an impact analysis is a good practice in project management,

but in the Agile context, raising a change request may not be the immediate
solution to address misalignment with stakeholders. Agile methodologies,
including Scrum, emphasize flexibility and responsiveness to change. Instead
of immediately raising a change request, it's more appropriate to understand
the root cause of the misalignment and address it through collaboration and
adjustments within the sprint.

In conclusion, option B is the correct answer as it focuses on understanding

the gap in the definition-of-done (DoD), which is crucial in Agile
methodologies. The other options either address technical uncertainties,
oversimplify the resolution process, or suggest a more formal change
request process that may not align with Agile principles.

 Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 1, Task 1 : Manage Conflict

 Link to Agile Practice Guide: Definition of Done - Pg. 151
Question 95:
Skipped
You are in the monitor & control project work phase of integration
management process group. As a part of your weekly review of
project schedule, you find out that an activity which was on critical
path got completed in 4 weeks. You check the schedule baseline and
find out that this activity was scheduled to be completed in 3.5
weeks. You cross check with your SPI and find out that your project
is indeed off-track. What would you call this information at this
point of time in the project (hint: this is an input to your "M&C
project" process)?

 Work performance information

(Correct)

 Work performance data

 Schedule baseline comparison
 Work performance report

Explanation
Option 1: WORK PERFORMANCE INFORMATION - Work performance data is
gathered through work execution and passed to the controlling processes. To
become work performance information, the work performance data are
compared with the project management plan components, project
documents, and other project variables. This comparison indicates how the
project is performing. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task-9: Integrate project
planning activities
Question 96:
Skipped
You are the project manager of NGO project which is focusing on
menstrual hygiene in the rural areas of your country. You are
developing the project management plan and doing activities such
as brainstorming, focus groups and interviews with the female
population of the villages dividing them in terms of age groups and
financial situation. Which tools & technique process you are using
here?

 Data Gathering

(Correct)

 Expert judgement
 Meetings
 Interpersonal & team skills

Explanation
Option 1: DATA GATHERING. It is a T&T of Develop Project Management Plan
and this considers activities such as brainstorming, focus groups etc. Link to
new ECO: Domain 1, Task 5: Ensure team members/stakeholders are
adequately trained
 Question 97:
Skipped
A project manager is in the process of performing qualitative risk
analysis. Which tool evaluates the degree to which the data about
individual project risks is accurate and reliable as a basis for
qualitative risk analysis?

 Questionnaire
 Risk data quality assessment

(Correct)

 Risk data probability assessment

 Manage quality

Explanation
Option 2: Risk data quality assessment evaluates the degree to which the
data about individual project risks is accurate and reliable as a basis for
qualitative risk analysis. The use of low-quality risk data may lead to a
qualitative risk analysis that is of little use to the project. Refer PMBOK Ed. 6
Pg. 423 for more details. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and
manage risks
Question 98:
Skipped
The Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator is a self-report
inventory designed to identify a person's personality type,
strengths, and preferences. The questionnaire was developed by
Isabel Myers and her mother Katherine Briggs based on their work
with Carl Jung's theory of personality types during World War II.
What does the E-I scale of Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator
signify?
 Extraversion (E) - Introversion (I)

(Correct)

 Extraneous (E) - Introversion (I)

 Extreme (E) - Inconsequential (I)
 Exuberant (E) - Introvert (I)
Explanation
Option 1: As per Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator, the E-I scale signify
Extraversion (E) – Introversion (I). Extraverts (also often spelled
extroverts) are "outward-turning" and tend to be action-oriented, enjoy more
frequent social interaction, and feel energized after spending time with other
people. Introverts are "inward-turning" and tend to be thought-oriented,
enjoy deep and meaningful social interactions, and feel recharged after
spending time alone. Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 14: Promote team
performance through the application of emotional intelligence (MBTI
Personality Indicators)
Question 99:
Skipped
Tim is creating the contracting terms for his suppliers as a part of
the procurement management process. What is meant by the term
SLA in context of procurement management?

 Standard Level Assignments

 Service Level Agreements

(Correct)

 Service Level Alignments

 Standard Legal Agreements

Explanation
Option 2: Service Level Agreements. This specifies the success criteria for a
service from the supplier standpoint in terms of lead time, information,
additional costs (if any) etc. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11: Plan and
manage procurement
Question 100:
Skipped
You are doing a Special Economic Zone project kick-off review with
your sponsor and he asks you whether you have documented the
high-level assumptions of the project which are key to justify the
financial investment. Which document should you refer to that will
provide you the strategic assumptions and constraints which are
identified during a project initiation?

 Organizational Process Assets

 Lessons Learnt Register
 Assumptions Log

(Correct)

 Risk Register

Explanation
Option 3: ASSUMPTION LOG- High-level strategic and operational
assumptions and constraints are normally identified in the business case
before the project is initiated and will flow into the project charter. Link to
new ECO: Domain 2, Task-9: Integrate project planning activities
Question 101:
Skipped
Which of the following life cycles is best fit for project-based work
and disciplined teams with quickly evolving requirements?

 Agile
 Lean

(Correct)

 Exploratory
 Program

Explanation
Option 2: The DA Lean life cycle promotes lean principles such as minimizing
work in progress and JIT planning. The life cycle lends itself well to teams
delivering project-based work with quickly evolving requirements. Link to
new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project
methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
Question 102:
Skipped
Which of the following life cycles is best fit for project-based work
and teams new to iteration-based project management?

 Agile

(Correct)

 Lean
 Exploratory
 Program

Explanation
Option 1: Agile is an iteration-based life cycle well suited for teams new to
agile delivering project-based work. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13:
Determine appropriate project methodology/methods and practices
(Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
Question 103:
Skipped
You are a project manager in a quality function deployment project
in a FMCG company. Currently, the project is in execution stage and
the customer is happy with the progress. As a part of your daily
project meeting, you review a document which captures the key
issues, action plans against each of them, owners, due dates and
status (open/close). What would you call this document which is a
key output of the direct & manage project work process during the
execution phase?
  Issue list
 Issue tracker
 Issue log

(Correct)

 Issue register

Explanation
Option 3: ISSUE LOG - The issue log will help the project manager effectively
track and manage issues, ensuring that they are investigated and resolved.
The issue log is updated as a result of the monitoring and control activities
throughout the project's life cycle. Other terms in option A, B & D are not
standard PMBOK terms and hence wrong. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task
15: Manage project issues
Question 104:
Skipped
Disciplined Agile Delivery (DAD), the solution delivery portion of the
Disciplined Agile (DA) framework, supports several full delivery lifecycles. It
does this because solution delivery teams face different situations, so one
lifecycle will not fit all. In which phase of the DA would the team shift from
'solution' to 'production'?

 Inception
 Transition

(Correct)

 Testing
 Delivery

Explanation
Option 2: DA supports the full delivery cycle of Inception, Construction and
Transition. Transition is the phase where the team deploys the solution. Link
to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project
methodology/methods and practices (Agile/Hybrid/Predictive)
Question 105:
Skipped
You are a project manager for an automation project in a razor
manufacturing company. The project deals with automating the
assembly process of the razor cartridge with the handle. You are a
PMP certified project manager and you make it sure that all the
relevant processes are adhered to drive excellence. You are in the
'validate scope' process for your project and you want to get an
input to this process which is essentially an output of the 'control
quality' process where the deliverables are checked internally for
correctness. Which input step for 'validate scope' process are we
talking about here?

 Quality handover
 Manage quality
 Verified deliverables

(Correct)

 High level requirements

Explanation
Option 3: VERIFIED DELIVERABLES - Verified deliverables are project
deliverables that are completed and checked for correctness through the
Control Quality process. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7 - Plan and
manage quality of product/deliverables
Question 106:
Skipped
You, as a project manager, are performing a risk probability and
impact assessment. This is a key T&T for which process?

 Quantitative risk analysis

 Qualitative risk analysis

(Correct)

 Develop risk register

 Monitor risks

Explanation
Option B: Risk probability and impact assessment is a key T&T for the
process Qualitative risk analysis. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess
and Manage Risks
Question 107:
Skipped
Choose the best statement in context of the correct method of
managing procurements:

 Bid documents and agreements should be prepared by the

project manager himself
 Bid documents and agreements should be prepared by the
procurement department and handed over to the project
manager
 Bid documents and agreements should be prepared by the
sponsor and project manager
  Bid documents and agreements should be prepared by the
procurement department in collaboration with the project
manager and rolled out jointly

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: Bid documents and agreements should be prepared by the
procurement department in collaboration with the project manager and
rolled out jointly. That is the correct way as per PMBOK. Link to new ECO:
Domain 2, Task 11: Plan and manage procurements
Question 108:
Skipped
You are the project manager for a Health & Safety project for an Oil
Exploration company. You are in the 'develop schedule' process. The
project is happening in a very politically disturbed area and has a
lot of uncertainties around its execution. You should find the right
tool to estimate the schedule for this project. What is the tool used
in the process 'develop schedule' which uses risks and other sources
of uncertainties to calculate possible schedule outcomes for the
total project?

 Bottom up estimate
 Monte Carlo Simulation

(Correct)

 Sensitivity analysis
 What-if scenario analysis

Explanation
Option B: MONTE CARLO SIMULATION - Monte Carlo analysis, uses risks and
other sources of uncertainty to calculate possible schedule outcomes for the
total project. Simulation involves calculating multiple work package
durations with different sets of activity assumptions, constraints, risks,
issues, or scenarios using probability distributions and other representations
of uncertainty. Link to new ECO: Domain 3, Task 1: Plan and manage project
compliance
Question 109:
Skipped
Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting,
and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet
objectives. Which one of the following is an output of the process
'Collect Requirements'?

 Requirements traceability matrix

 (Correct)

 Agreements
 Requirements management plan
 Scope management plan

Explanation
Option A: The requirements traceability matrix is an output of the 'collect
requirements' process. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 8: Plan and manage
scope

You are not expected to memorize the ITTOs for the PMP Exam, but you need
to understand the interlinkages between them. That means you need not
memorize questions such as: 'what are the/list down the outputs of the
process...let's say Eg. DEVELOP PROJECT CHARTER?'...but from a list of
outputs as listed in the options, you should be able to identify which is an
output of the process Develop Project Charter, based on your understanding
& concept.

Question 110:
Skipped
Which among the following is the correct sequence for the items
below in order of which they get generated/are executed in a
project's life cycle (earliest to latest)?

 Control Quality, Verified Deliverables, Validate Scope,

Accepted deliverables

(Correct)

 Validate Scope, Accepted deliverables, Control Quality,

Verified Deliverables
 Control Quality, Validate Scope, Accepted deliverables,
Verified deliverables
 None of the above

Explanation
Option A: This sequence is VERY VERY important to remember. Control
quality generates the output of verified deliverables, which is an input to
validate scope process which generates the output called accepted
deliverables. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage quality
Question 111:
Skipped
___________ is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a
positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives. Fill in
the blanks:
  Overall project risk
 Risk response
 Natural calamity
 Individual project risk

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: An individual project risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if
it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.
Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and manage risks
Question 112:
Skipped
Collect Requirements is the process of determining, documenting,
and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet
objectives. On the other hand, Define Scope is the process of
developing a detailed description of the project and product. For a
project, the requirements collection process is complete and scope
definition is done. What should the project manager do next?

 Validate scope
 Control Scope
 Create estimate
 Create WBS

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: Create WBS. See Page 25 of PMBOK Ed. 6 (Table 1.4). You need
to LOGICALLY remember all these steps in sequence as mentioned in this
table. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 8: Plan and manage scope

I strongly recommend that you check out the following video from my
YouTube channel to understand how you can memorize the 49 processes of
PMBOK Ed. 6 in the correct order using logic &
pattern: https://youtu.be/5eXyCLf2JD0

Question 113:
Skipped
You are the sales manager for Lyreco Ltd. Your company deals with providing
office stationery (writing pads, pens, diary, etc.) and office services (printer
maintenance, Xerox machine maintenance, etc.) If you are a seller for some
goods & services like Lyreco. Ltd., which type of contract would be most
preferable to you among the following?

 CPFF
 (Correct)

 FFP
 FPIF
 FPEPA

Explanation
Option A: As a seller, always go for cost-reimbursable contracts since they
pose the least amount of risk for you. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11:
Plan and manage procurement

I would recommend that you watch my tutorial video on TYPES OF

CONTRACT from my YouTube channel as well: https://youtu.be/AIXiMzAXtdw

Question 114:
Skipped
Verified Deliverables' are project deliverables that are completed and
checked for correctness. Which of the following processes generate 'verified
deliverables' as one of its key outputs?

 Control quality

(Correct)

 Control scope
 Control resources
 Control schedule

Explanation
Option A: 'Verified deliverables' is the most important output of the process
Control Quality. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage
quality. You are not expected to memorize the ITTOs for the PMP Exam, but
you need to understand the interlinkages between them.

That means you need not memorize questions such as: 'what are the/list
down the outputs of the process let's say Eg. DEVELOP PROJECT
CHARTER?'...but from a list of outputs as listed in the options here, you
should be able to identify which is an output of the process Develop Project
Charter, based on your understanding & concept.

Question 115:
Skipped
For a decision tree analysis, the cost of executing a decision is $50,000. For
the benefits part, there is a 40% chance that the decision provides a return
of $90,000 and a 60% chance that the decision provides a return of $30,000.
What is the expected monetary value for this decision?
  4000

(Correct)

 28000
 22000
 12000

Explanation
Option A: EMV = [0.4 x (90000-50000)] + [0.6 x (30000-50000)]= 4000.
Since the EMV is positive, the decision can be taken. Link to new ECO:
Domain 2, Task 1: Deliver business value
Question 116:
Skipped
Pick the odd one out:

 TCPI
 SPI
 CPI
 ETC

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: ETC. This is a measure of funds. The rest are ratios and are
measures of performance. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and
manage budget and resources
Question 117:
Skipped
You are a project manager who has recently joined a project in the execution
phase. The project has gone through a lot of changes in the role of the
project manager. Also, due to multiple successions, there has always been a
discontinuity in the way the project was handed over from one project
manager to another. Now the client wants to close out the project at the
earliest meeting all success criteria. A week into the project, you have
identified a resource risk where some of your team members would move
out to other pre-planned projects (since your project is heavily delayed). You
are finding it tough to rope in additional resources at this point. What is the
best course of action as a project manager when there is a need to
accelerate a project schedule without the availability of any additional
resources?

 Crashing & Resource Smoothing

 Fast tracking

(Correct)
  Resource leveling
 Precedence diagramming method

Explanation
Option B: When there is a constraint of resources, you need to think of doing
activities that were originally planned in series, in parallel. This is fast-
tracking. Note that the scenario does not talk anything about cost as a
constraint. Hence, it is safe to assume that you can go ahead with fast-
tracking that generally increases cost. Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 7:
Address and remove impediments, obstacles, and blockers for the team
Question 118:
Skipped
Create WBS' is the process of subdividing project deliverables and
project work into smaller, more manageable components. The key
benefit of this process is that it provides a framework of what has to
be delivered. Which one of the following is an output of the process
'Create WBS'?

 Scope charter
 Scope baseline

(Correct)

 Project schedule
 Basis of estimates

Explanation
Option B: Scope baseline = Scope statement + WBS + WBS dictionary, is the
most important output of the process 'create WBS'. Link to new ECO: Domain
2, Task 8: Plan and manage scope. You are not expected to memorize the
ITTOs for the PMP Exam, but you need to understand the interlinkages
between them. That means you need not memorize questions such as: 'what
are the/list down the outputs of the process CREATE WBS?'...but from a list of
outputs as listed in the options here, you should be able to identify which is
an output of the process Create WBS, based on your understanding &
concept.
Question 119:
Skipped
Contingency plans for a project which are often part of risk
mitigation are also known as _______. Fill in the blanks:

 Rollout plan
 Fallback plan

(Correct)
  Implementation plan
 None of the above

Explanation
Option B: Contingency plans for a project which are often part of risk
mitigation are also known as Fallback Plan. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task
3: Assess and manage risks
Question 120:
Skipped
Mark the process from the following list which is NOT a part of
'Monitor & Control' process group:

 Perform integrated change control

 Validate scope
 Implement risk responses

(Correct)

 Monitor communications

Explanation
Option C: 'Implement risk responses' is a part of the Execution Process
Group. Rest all are part of M&C. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess
and manage risks. You are not expected to memorize the KAs and PGs of
Table 1.5 of PMBOK 6th edition, but conceptually you need to know that
'Implementing risk responses' is a part of EXECUTING process group since
you are executing something here, there is no monitoring & controlling
happening here.
Question 121:
Skipped
A factory manager wants to decide whether he should go ahead with the
restructuring of a manufacturing line. The cost of restructuring the
manufacturing line is $50,000. For the benefits part, there is 40% chance
that the restructuring provides an additional $90,000 worth of production
and 60% chance that the restructuring provides an additional $30,000 worth
of production. Should the investment be made?

 Yes

(Correct)

 No
 Cannot be determined
 Data insufficient

Explanation
Option A: Yes. EMV = [0.4 x (90000-50000)] + [0.6 x (30000-50000)]= 4000.
Since the EMV is positive, the decision can be taken to go ahead with the
restructuring. The following are the 2 decisions at the node: 1 - Do the
reconstruction | 2 - Do NOT do the reconstruction. Link to new ECO: Domain
2, Task 1: Deliver business value
Question 122:
Skipped
An unknown risk occurs in a project and the cost to fix it now is
$90,000. The project manager instructs his cost engineer to file a
change request, adjust the cost baseline accordingly, and use the
contingency reserve funds to address the risk. What did the project
manager do wrong?

 The cost baseline was not required to be updated

 The project manager used contingency reserves instead of
management reserves

(Correct)

 The project manager did not pre-plan this risk during risk
analysis
 The project manager did not take approval of the sponsor
before mobilizing the contingency reserves

Explanation
Option B: Since this is an unknown risk, it should have been funded by
management reserves. This is the reason why management reserves are
included in the project budget. Contingency reserves are used for risks that
are already known and aligned beforehand as part of the 'IDENTIFY RISK'
process in the PLanning phase. Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and manage risks
Question 123:
Skipped
Mark the process from the following list which is NOT a part of
'Executing' process group:

 Validate scope

(Correct)

 Acquire resources
 Develop team
 Conduct procurements

Explanation
Option A: Validate scope is a part of M&C process group. Link to new ECO:
Domain 2, Task 8: Plan and manage scope. You need not memorize all the
processes from the 49 Processes of PMBOK Ed. 6 but concept-wise you need
to know which tasks fall in which process group. Eg. you should know
conceptually that 'validate scope' is NOT a part of EXECUTING process group
but a part of the MONITORING & CONTROLLING Process Group.
Question 124:
Skipped
Asha is a project manager for an NGO which aims at improving
sanitation & hygiene in a rural locality. She has prepared the cost
estimates and developed the cost baseline for the project. What
should she ask for now/align with leadership to finalize the project
budget?

 Contingency reserve
 Management reserve

(Correct)

 Reliability estimates
 Cost Management Plan

Explanation
Option B: Cost Baseline + Management Reserve = Project Budget. Link to
new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and resources. It is
very important that you understand the following diagram from a project
Cost Management standpoint
 Question 125:
Skipped
The _____________ refer to conditions, not under the control of the
project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project. These
conditions can be internal and/or external to the organization. Fill in
the blanks

 OPAs
 EEFs

(Correct)

 RAMs
 RACI

Explanation
Option B: Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) refer to conditions, not
under the control of the project team, that influence, constrain, or direct the
project. These conditions can be internal and/or external to the organization.
Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 12: Manage project artifacts
Question 126:
Skipped
During the execution stage of a project, one of your team members comes &
tells you that he has completed the installation of a unit on the client
interface since it was being pushed by the client as very urgent. On asking
him about the change management for the same, he mentions to you that
there is none since he felt that this change was very trivial and would not
have affected cost, schedule, or resources. Hence, he went ahead with the
change. What is your next step as a project manager?

 Question the need of the functionality and contest the client

 Take disciplinary action against this team member
 Hold a meeting to review the completed work
 Check whether there is really any impact to cost, schedule or
resources and take corrective action ASAP

(Correct)

Explanation
Option D: This is the best course of action now, since the change has already
been done, and doing a post-mortem analysis will not help now. You need to
find out as soon as possible, whether there is any risk on cost, schedule, or
resources now. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 10: Manage project
changes
I would recommend that you watch the following tutorial videos on Change
Management from my YouTube channel:

1. Change Management (PICC) Process Flow

Chart: https://youtu.be/Dawt8dRlutI

2. Situational Questions of Change

Management/PICC: https://youtu.be/i0PE2j-n7MI

Question 127:
Skipped
The 'Planning' process group delineates those processes required to
establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the
course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was
undertaken to achieve. Mark the process from the following list which is NOT
a part of the 'Planning' process group:

 Develop schedule
 Perform integrated change control

(Correct)

 Perform quantitative risk analysis

 Estimate costs

Explanation
Option B: Perform integrated change control is a part of M&C process
group. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 10: Manage project changes. You
are not expected to memorize the ITTOs for the PMP Exam, but you need to
understand the interlinkages between them. That means you need not
memorize questions such as: 'what are the/list down the outputs of the
process Eg. DEVELOP PROJECT CHARTER?'...but from a list of outputs, you
should be able to identify which is an output of the process Develop Project
Charter, based on your understanding & concept.
Question 128:
Skipped
The __________ are the plans, processes, policies, procedures, and
knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing
organization. These assets influence the management of the
project. Fill in the blanks

 EEFs
 OPAs

(Correct)
  SPI
 BAC

Explanation
Option B: Organizational process assets (OPAs) are the plans, processes,
policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the
performing organization. These assets influence the management of the
project. Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 12: Manage project artifacts
Question 129:
Skipped
Develop Project Charter' is the process of developing a document
that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the
project manager with the authority to apply organizational
resources to project activities. Which of the following is an output of
the process 'Develop Project Charter'?

 Assumptions log

(Correct)

 Benefits management plan

 Business case
 Agreements

Explanation
Option A: Assumptions log is an output of the process 'develop project
charter' in addition to the project charter itself. Link to new ECO: Domain 2,
Task 9: Integrate project planning activities.

You are not expected to memorize the ITTOs for the PMP Exam, but you need
to understand the interlinkages between them. That means you need not
memorize questions such as: 'what are the/list down the outputs of the
process DEVELOP PROJECT CHARTER?'...but from a list of outputs as listed in
the options here, you should be able to identify which is an output of the
process Develop Project Charter, based on your understanding & concept.

Question 130:
Skipped
XYZ Inc. is planning to utilize a new employee management solution that
leverages innovative technologies and processes. Raul as the PM has verified
that the component work packages have been defined and constraints for
each component have been defined. Which technique should Raul use to get
a precise cost estimate?
 Three-point estimating
 Analogous estimating
 Bottom-up estimating
 (Correct)

 Parametric estimating
Explanation
Option 3: Bottom-up estimating. This is an estimating method (project
duration/cost) by aggregating the components of the lowest level
components of the WBS.

In three-point estimating three figures (pessimistic, optimistic & most-likely)

are produced initially for every distribution that is required, based on prior
experience or best guesses. The analogous estimating technique uses
information from similar projects to establish a cost estimate based on the
data available. Parametric estimating is a statistical and accuracy-based
technique for calculating the time, cost, and resources needed for project
success. None of these focus on getting an estimate precisely at a WBS level.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and resources

Question 131:
Skipped
Anna is managing the quality of a project which aims to deliver a new
grooming product for females over 50 years of age. Based on the originally
approved Proof-of-Principle, 5000 products have been developed. Anna’s
team now randomly chooses 150 products evaluated against the quality
metrics. Which activity is the project team doing now?
 Control quality
 Statistical sampling

(Correct)

 Process audit
 Quality assurance
Explanation
Option 2: Statistical sampling. In statistics, quality assurance, and survey
methodology, statistical sampling is the selection of a subset of individuals
from within a statistical population to estimate the characteristics of the
whole population. Statisticians attempt to collect samples that are
representative of the population in question. Here, samples are been taken
to measure controls and verify quality.

The project is in the ‘manage quality’ stage now, hence EXECUTION. So,
‘control quality’ is a wrong option. The process audit is too broad a term that
is applicable for many areas of a project such as procurement,
documentation, cost management, etc. Quality assurance is not an ‘activity’
but a ‘process’. Statistical sampling is one of the many ways by which quality
assurance is achieved in a project or deliverable.
Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 7: Plan and manage the quality of
products/deliverables

Question 132:
Skipped
Afreen is assembling a project team. During an initial meeting, Afreen sees
that the team members are getting to know each other and they are feeling
excited and positive about the project. Afreen is yet to brief the whole team
about the scope of the project. In what phase of development is this team?
 Norming
 Forming

(Correct)

 Storming
 Performing
Explanation
Option 2: Forming. The Forming Phase is when the team members meet &
learn about the project before their formal roles & responsibilities are
assigned. The team has just been introduced and everyone is overly polite
and pleasant. Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 6: Build a Team

This is a question, where you need to know the 5 stages of development of a

team as per Tuckman’s Ladder. They are FORMING, STORMING, NORMING,
PERFORMING, and ADJOURNING. Additional reading:

https://toggl.com/track/stages-of-team-development/

https://www.mindtools.com/pages/article/newLDR_86.htm

Question 133:
Skipped
Near the end of an IT project, several of the testing programmers are
transferred to another critical project. To complete the job, you need to
acquire additional testing support now from a new vendor. You are
concerned about the quality of work this new vendor will deliver and also
there is a significant cost risk of using a new supplier at this advanced stage
of the project. What should be your best-suited procurement contract type in
this scenario?
 Firm Fixed Price (FFP)
 Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
 Time & Material (T&M)
 Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

(Correct)
Explanation
Option 4: Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) Contract is best suited to this
scenario. In this type of contract, the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as
defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if they
meet the defined performance criteria (cost, quality, etc.)

Since the project is at an advanced stage now and there is a risk of cost
overrun, any type of cot reimbursable contract is not suitable. Hence, CPAF is
wrong.

T&M material contract is generally not used as well in such a late stage of a
project due to risks of cost overrun. Also, the supplier doesn’t have any
incentive in the T&M contract to perform at their best.

FFP contracts are generally used at the early stages of a project and also
carry a similar drawback like T&M contract, that it does not have any
incentive associated with it.

Please watch my tutorial video on YouTube on different contract types to

know more about such complex contracting
strategies: https://youtu.be/AIXiMzAXtdw

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 11: Plan & Manage Procurement

Question 134:
Skipped
Most of your core agile team members are deployed on different projects,
but your project needs to make progress. You outsource the work to external
freelancers to work remotely on the pending user stories. During the first
sprint, the external freelancing team did NOT understand certain user
requirements, but still managed to complete the first 5 stories that were
previously blocked because the original team was NOT able to handle the
data complexity of the work. What should you as the project manager do in
this situation to make progress on the project while your core team remains
redeployed?
 Plan hiring a few freelancers within your team
 Perform a back reprioritization exercise to match the
freelancer team skills

(Correct)

 Assign all the usability stories to the freelancing team

 Check project budget to assess potential cost overrun
Explanation
Option 2: The project manager here should notice that the remote team has
a higher specialist skill level and should seek to leverage their talent. This
action fills the skill gap of the local team.

Planning to hire a few freelancers within your team, is too overboard since
this has to go through the right HR channels and sponsor approvals.

Assigning all the usability stories to the freelancing team might not look good
for the core project team when they are back in your project after their
redeployment is over. Also, this might question the need of having a core
project team overall for your project.

Checking the project budget to assess potential cost overrun can be an

action done by you in parallel because this action does not help in making
direct progress on the project while your core team remains redeployed. It is
more of a ‘Monitor & Control’ action, rather than an ‘Execution’ action

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 11: Engage and support virtual teams

Question 135:
Skipped
The team is working on Project Woodnut and has currently resolved a
complex algorithmic issue. The project is now moving forward. The project
manager is aware that the same issue can arise in future projects. What
should be done first to respond to this situation?
 Update the issue log and make sure the lessons learned
register is updated

(Correct)

 Develop a risk report & circulate it among stakeholders

 Notify the project sponsor about the warning
 Ensure that the lessons learned register is updated
Explanation
Option 1. The issue log needs to be updated first (since the 'risk' is now an
'issue' that is resolved) to reflect the resolution of the issue. Then the lessons
learned register needs to be updated to prevent future reoccurrence. Option
1 captures both of these aspects, whereas, option 4 only captures one
aspect of the issue, hence incorrect.

Developing a risk report (passive action) or notifying the sponsor (escalation

action) are extraneous actions that should be avoided without addressing the
problem statement first.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices
 Question 136:
Skipped
Some tasks on the project were slipping and that made the project manager
reprioritize the task list to enable fast tracking. However, that did not provide
the required results, and now the project manager needs to escalate the
issue. Which plans should be reviewed before the necessary escalations are
made (Select TWO)
 Change Management Plan
 Risk management Plan
 Stakeholder Engagement Plan

(Correct)

 Communications Management Plan

(Correct)

 Procurement Management Plan

Explanation
Option 3, 4. The slippage risk has become an issue and now you need to
handle the issue by escalation. Mind that escalation is not only with the
sponsor but may also happen with other senior stakeholders. The
stakeholder engagement plan will tell you how to engage the stakeholders
and the communications management plan helps you to ensure that your
messages are communicated to stakeholders in various formats and various
means as defined by the communications strategy.

Change management plan – less likely since you are not proposing any
change at the moment

Risk Management plan – less likely since the issue at hand is ‘communication
of as escalation issue’ which may not be met if the risk management plan is
only updated by the project team

Procurement management plan – too broad as an option, since you are not
proposing any change to procurement strategy at the moment

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 14: Establish project governance structure
(Define escalation paths and thresholds)

Question 137:
Skipped
A newly appointed project manager needs to deliver an agile project in
Germany with critical regulatory requirements to be completed within strict
deadlines. The vendor working with the team on the project is TLC Ltd.
located in Singapore. Though TLC has delivered excellent quality work in the
past for the organization, currently they are well behind schedule. The team
explains to the project manager that their repeated attempts to get TLC back
on track with the project have failed since the vendor often turns a blind eye
toward the team’s feedback & concerns. However, the project sponsor insists
that TLC Ltd. has been a long-standing partner with the company and is
critical for the success of the project. What action should the project
manager take?
 Email TLC Ltd. and inform them about revising the penalty
clauses in the contract
 Ask help from the project sponsor to reach out to the CEO of
TLC Ltd. and highlight the situation
 Explore alternate vendors to reassign the work currently
provided to TLC Ltd.
 Create a virtual workspace for the team so that everyone is
aware of and accountable for their tasks.

(Correct)

Explanation
Option 4. Creating a virtual workspace for the team so that everyone is
aware of and accountable for their tasks is the most sensible action that can
be taken here. Communication in virtual teams can be challenging.

Being direct may NOT leave a good first impression and revising a service
agreement may be perceived as hostile by the vendor (hence option 1 is
incorrect).

This vendor is critical to the success of the project and important to the
business (this makes option 3 incorrect), and the team may be getting
demoralized by their unsuccessful attempts to manage the vendor.

Be attentive to these factors using active listening and emotional

intelligence. Creating a workspace that enables everyone on the project
team to see the project work and be accountable for delivering their work on
time is the best option here. Reaching out to the CEO of TLC or your sponsor
is treated as an unnecessary escalation, and hence should be avoided (so,
option 2 is incorrect).

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task-1: Manage conflict

Question 138:
Skipped
A new product development initiative is rolled out in Seoul, South Korea. The
business context is difficult and the government has come out with many
changes in the regulatory frameworks over the last few years. On top of this,
local monopolies and cartels are making it even more difficult to create a
new product market. Supply costs are rising as well due to increased costs of
transportation and customs duty. Why would be an agile incremental project
approach the most suitable in this landscape?
 This ensures that the project can be pulled off at any time
without incurring substantial losses
 It accelerates the delivery of business value and minimizes the
risk of irrelevancy

(Correct)

 It reduces the need for team colocation and eliminates

bottlenecks
 It provides stringent guidelines to abide by regulatory
requirements
Explanation
Option 2. Agile incremental project management life cycle accelerates
delivery of business value and minimizes the risk of irrelevancy through the
delivery of Minimum Viable Product. (MVP). Smaller releases can go to
market faster and benefit from early user input. Hence, this is the best
choice.

This ensures that the project can be pulled off at any time without incurring
substantial losses – this is not the reason why an agile incremental project
management life cycle is chosen here. This is more in line with developing a
‘prototype’ that falls in the domain of an iterative life cycle.

It reduces the need for team colocation and eliminates bottlenecks – too
vague as an option and does not justify enough why an agile incremental
project management life cycle is chosen here.

It provides stringent guidelines to abide by regulatory requirements – more

in line with predictive project management techniques and counterintuitive
to the cause of selecting an agile life cycle in this context.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices

Question 139:
Skipped
Go-Deliver, a start-up e-commerce company needs to quickly expand its
product portfolio to meet growing market demand. Recently, team members
are switching between two or three agile teams, each dedicated to a
different product line. You as the project manager see that this way the
output is diminishing and defect rates for completed user stories are rising in
all teams.
In which two ways can you help the agile teams improve their work? (Choose
TWO.)

 Perform root-cause analysis in the next retrospectives.

(Correct)

 Influence the product owners to right-size their portfolios.

 Organize dedicated teams to reduce context-switching.

(Correct)

 Appoint dedicated test teams to offload the agile teams.

 Train the agile teams to Improve time and focus management.
Explanation
Option 1, 3. Organizing dedicated teams to reduce context-switching is
definitely a good option because as of now, clearly, that’s a problem. On top
of that, performing a root cause analysis in the upcoming retrospectives
might be a good idea as well to fix this issue systematically.

Influence the product owners to right-size their portfolios, which is part of the
portfolio management initiative will not impact the project which you are
doing at the moment.

Appoint dedicated test teams to offload the agile teams could have been
done if product testing was your bottleneck. This is clearly not the case.
Moreover, if you let defects pass from development to testing, with the
assumption that the development team can do whatever they want because
the testing team will always be there to sort out the defects…is not a good
approach as a leader.

Training the agile teams to improve time and focus management might be a
good idea to improve overall team performance, but does not solve the issue
at hand.

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 10: Build Shared Understanding

Question 140:
Skipped
A hybrid project for cloud server installation combines many brief
administrative tasks with small-scale installation works. An agile track makes
good progress on key objectives, however, the scrum master notices that
small tasks are accumulating in the backlog. Most of these tasks can be done
within a day, but they are dependent on unpredictable triggering events.
Which approach should be more suitable to clear out these minor tasks
faster?
  Combine multiple minor tasks to make story sizes consistent
with key objectives
 Reprioritize the backlog to favor the smallest stories and
reassign them daily
 Reprioritize the backlog on a daily basis so that recent triggers
boost story priority
 Integrate the small tasks to either DoD or acceptance criteria

(Correct)

Explanation
Option 4. The stories will not be considered complete until associated small
tasks are triggered and completed. Hence, a good approach would be to
integrate the small tasks with the Definition of Done or the Acceptance
Criteria of an iteration. This way you can club small actions of similar nature
within an agile iteration and since these are dependent on unpredictable
triggering events, a particular iteration can be kept open till all tasks are
closed and the DoD is reached.

The question does not say that the story sizes are not in line with the key
objectives of the project. Hence, combining multiple minor tasks to make the
story sizes consistent with key objectives is a redundant action.

Reprioritizing the backlog to favor the smallest stories will make the
considerable ones fall off track. Hence, that is the wrong choice.

Backlog reprioritization is done on an iteration basis & not on a weekly basis.

When you start a sprint/iteration, the backlog review & prioritization should
happen before that. Reprioritizing the backlog on a daily basis will be too
micro-managing since priorities will change day-to-day, which is not
convenient for the agile team.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices

Question 141:
Skipped
Hawkins Tires, a manufacturer of four-wheeler tires is setting up a new agile
innovation team with the mission to place product quality above all other
success criteria for a project. This is planned to be rolled out following a
number of customer complaints raised over the last quarter which has
caused Hawkins Tires to do multiple product-recalls.

Which option should be most effective for Hawkins Tires to re-establish its
brand identity for high-quality manufacturing?
  Source better raw materials from high-end suppliers
 Perform a benchmarking exercise with competitors to track
their defect reduction strategy
 Use Test Driven Development based on continuous user focus
group input

(Correct)

 Create an automated testing vision system to eliminate

manufacturing defects
Explanation
Option 3. TDD in agile is a framework that emphasizes the creation of unit
test cases prior to writing the real code. It is an iterative process that
incorporates programming, unit testing, and refactoring. The TDD technique
is based on the ideas of the Agile Manifesto and Extreme Programming. As
the name implies, the test process is at the heart of TDD based on
continuous user focus group input.

Sourcing better raw materials from high-end suppliers may increase your
manufacturing cost unnecessarily without solving the core issue.

Performing a benchmarking exercise with competitors to track their defect

reduction strategy is not a bad idea, but this can only solve part of the
problem. The issue with Hawkins’s Brand Identity may not only be with
manufacturing defects but also can be with product design, storage,
transportation, etc.

Along similar lines, creating an automated testing vision system to eliminate

manufacturing defects is a myopic action restricted within the factory walls,
and hence incorrect.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices

Question 142:
Skipped
An agile team is struggling to solve a leakage issue with a packaging design.
Eventually, the team comes up with the solution, but it requires a different
product formulation. What should the team do before further developing the
solution?
 Create a prototype and perform a demo with end-user
 Ask the product owner to approve the change

(Correct)

 Run a cost-benefit analysis to determine its value

  Check if the change is consistent with the product vision
Explanation
Option 2. Ask the product owner to approve the change. This is a case in
which basic product characteristics may be affected by the change and
might not be captured in the product vision. The product owner
is responsible for shaping the product in accordance with the vision (it is
critical that you understand the role & responsibilities of various agile team
members for your PMP Exam).

During that process, it is the role of the Product Owner to check if the change
is consistent with the product vision and run a cost-benefit analysis to
determine its value. It’s not the job of the agile team to do that. Hence
options 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Finally, prototyping (if at all needed) will come after the new development
has been approved & signed off by the Product Owner. Hence, option 1 is
incorrect as well.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices

Question 143:
Skipped
You are the scrum master in an agile-led project and over the last three
iterations, you see that a trend of increasingly prolonged testing work is
getting generated. Now you plan for the team to perform an intensive
backlog refinement exercise. What metric would you track to measure the
success of the exercise?
 Value per story increases
 Speed of impediment resolution
 # of stories completed/iteration

(Correct)

 # of lessons learned items generated

Explanation
Option 3. The number of stories completed per iteration. By doing that, the
complexity of your stories is reduced, resulting in a faster turnaround time
for completed stories. A complete story goes through the following phases
(Courtesy: Cleveroad):
So, if your testing phase is not complete, your story is not complete. This is
the key output metric you need to track here.

An increase in value per story does not signify whether you are able to
reduce the time for testing or not, which is your primary problem statement.
We are talking about a decrease in the # of backlog items by the team by
maximizing the # of stories completed per iteration.

Speed of impediment resolution is an overall agile team effectiveness metric

across multiple projects and is not specific to this scenario. It can be tracked
as an output metric of your standup meetings.

#of lessons learned items generated is an output measure of a retrospective

and not a backlog refinement exercise.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate project

methodology/methods and practices

Question 144:
Skipped
You have recently been recruited as a scrum master for an agile-led project.
Upon initial onboarding, you find out that the project is structured without
time-boxing. The tasks are grouped at a high level but cannot be predictably
scheduled. Which of the following ways should you suggest to lead the
project for an efficient execution? (Choose THREE)
 Track the status of readiness to help the team initiate the task
at the right time
 (Correct)

 Plan to release deadlines to make the team complete the work

within acceptable limits
 Use a Gantt chart to group tasks in rows and track progress
across columns

(Correct)

 Maintain a to-do task library to limit the number of work-in-

progress tasks

(Correct)

 Pre-empt the blockers to determine the order of execution

Explanation
Option 1, 3, 4.

Option 1. Correct. Track the status of readiness to help the team initiate the
task at right time will prevent overloading the team since you cannot predict
the finish of the tasks efficiently in the current scenario

Option 2. Incorrect. Since it is mentioned in the scenario that the tasks

cannot be predictably scheduled, deadlines cannot be accurate as well.

Option 3. Correct. A task board display in form of a Gantt chart will help in
tracking progress, hence it’s definitely a good idea.

Option 4. Correct. A pool of task-to-do limits the number of concurrent tasks

in progress. This can be taken as a corollary of Option 1

Option 5. Incorrect. Pre-empting blockers & impediments to prioritize the

order of execution will not help your overall project progress because you are
not at any advantage by delaying/preponing a difficult task here. Your team
anyways needs to do it in the end, so what benefits you will get by delaying
or preponing the difficult tasks?

Link to new PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 13: Determine appropriate
project methodology/methods and practices

Question 145:
Skipped
You are leading an agile project in a matrix organization where the functional
manager is also a key project stakeholder. However, due to time constraints,
the functional manager delegated the project responsibilities to a technician
in his team. This person is now a new stakeholder in your project. A couple of
sprint planning meetings have happened already but this new stakeholder is
not attending the meetings. How should you engage this new stakeholder?
 Review the stakeholder engagement plan with the new
stakeholder and assess their level of engagement

(Correct)

 Present the iteration backlog list to this new stakeholder and

assign the tasks relevant to this stakeholder
 Request that the functional manager briefs this new
stakeholder about the roles & responsibilities and ensure that
they attend all the meetings
 Ask the new stakeholder to pair with a more experienced
stakeholder to learn from the experience
Explanation
Option 1. Reviewing the stakeholder engagement plan with the new
stakeholder and assessing their level of engagement is the most pragmatic
approach you can take as a servant leader.

Presenting the iteration backlog list to this new stakeholder and assigning
the tasks relevant to this stakeholder is a passive way of engagement and
should be avoided

Requesting that the functional manager briefs this new stakeholder about
the roles & responsibilities and ensuring that they attend all the meetings is
the transfer of your responsibility as a project manager to the functional
manager. Hence, this is incorrect.

Asking the new stakeholder to pair with a more experienced stakeholder to

learn from experience is again a passive way of onboarding this new
member in your team, and hence to be avoided.

Link to new PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 4: Engage Stakeholders

Question 146:
Skipped
Within predictive life cycles, this term is used for both costs and schedules to
establish what you’ll measure against later in the Executing and Monitoring
& Controlling processes. Please select the best option:
 Variance
 Expected Value
 Earned Value
 Baseline

(Correct)
Explanation
Option 4. Cost baselines and schedule baselines are used to measure
performance in the Executing and Monitoring & Controlling processes. This is
part of the Triple Constraint Management of Project Management. Please
refer to my EVM Course on Udemy to know more about this topic and other
concepts such as EV, PV, AC, VAC, etc: https://bit.ly/EVM_PMPWITHRAY

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 5: Plan and manage budget and resources

Question 147:
Skipped
Bruce is working as a project manager on a small project which is part of a
larger program. In his team, a new resource has been assigned to replace a
key resource who had to leave the project. Unfortunately, the quality
manager, who is an external stakeholder for Bruce’s project claims that the
functional manager who sent the new resource has sent an incompetent
person who will not be helpful to the project team. How should Bruce handle
this situation?
 Assess the new resource’s ability to perform the necessary
work by testing their communication skills with the current
project team
 Evaluate the skills of the new resource to see how it fits the
overall skill matrix of the team

(Correct)

 File a request with PMO to explore alternatives for acquiring a

more competent resource
 Share the feedback with the new resource’s functional
manager to mitigate any conflict within the project team
Explanation
Option 2. Evaluate the skills of the new resource to see how it fits the
overall skill matrix of the team. Without seeing or evaluating performance
firsthand, a general opinion has no validity. In general, any third-party
information, heresy, or rumor is dangerous to relationships in a project and
can create strained relationships. Hence the project manager (Bruce) should
investigate the veracity of any opinion and base his decision on facts.

The rest of the options go opposite to this servant leadership attitude where
Bruce takes the opinion of the quality manager as fact and plans accordingly.
Hence, they are incorrect.

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 2: Lead a Team (Servant Leadership)

Question 148:
Skipped
After the start of an SEZ (Special Economic Zone) project, the project
manager comes to know that an expected government subsidy when the
project team procures construction material from local manufacturers may
not be available. How should the project manager address the issue?
 Raise the project’s risk level
 Plan to release the contingency funds
 Update the risk register

(Correct)

 Update the issue register

Explanation
Option 3. While the mentioned situation is not an issue yet, it is a risk that
should be captured in the risk register (not the issue register) and managed
appropriately.

Raising the risk level of the entire project is too broad as a step since the risk
is only relevant to part of the project scope which may/may not affect the
entire project’s risk score.

Planning to release the contingency fund without the risk even occurring
(and becoming an issue) is a premature step and hence should be avoided.

Link to new ECO: Domain 2, Task 3: Assess and manage risks

Question 149:
Skipped
Arrange the personality traits (A B, C, D) with their MBTI personality indicator
classifications (1, 2, 3, 4) in the table below.

(Note: In your PMP Exam, you will be asked to perform this matching using
the drag & drop feature on the exam interface)
  A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
 A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(Correct)

 A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

 A-3, B-4. C-1, D-3
Explanation
Option 2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Link to new ECO: Domain 1, Task 14: Promote team performance through the
application of emotional intelligence. Check the MBTI Personality Types
Infographic here (Courtesy: Wikimedia)

Question 150:
Skipped
Titan Inc., a medium-sized company that manufactures home security
solutions is expanding into a new market. It does not have any previous
experience in that market. Which tools should the project manager use to
collect requirements? (Choose TWO)
 Prototypes

(Correct)

 Expert Judgement

(Correct)

 Product Analysis
 Requirements Traceability Matrix
Explanation
Option 1, 2. Prototypes – Correct. These are near-fail-proof strategies to
test the risks of a new and potentially complex market.

Expert judgment – Correct. Experts are a source of experience and

knowledge. Given the increased risks of a new and potentially complex
market, using expert judgment is recommended.

Product Analysis – Incorrect. To broad as a term for collecting requirements.

It can mean a task during control quality, validate scope, etc.

Requirements Traceability Matrix - Incorrect. This is an output of the ‘collect

requirements’ process, not a tool or technique. This is how the PMP Exam will
test your knowledge of ITTOs in your PMP Exam. You see here that this is
nowhere close to ‘memorizing’ the ITTO charts, but to understanding the
logical flow of the processes.

Link to PMP Exam ECO: Domain 2, Task 8: Plan and Manage Scope