Sample papers session 2023-24

Mathematics By Chirag Sir

&
Science By Dhiren Sir
 Contents

1. Math _ Sample paper 1…………………………………………………… 1

2. Math _ Sample paper 2…………………………………………………… 8

3. Math _ Sample paper 3…………………………………………………… 15

4. Math _ Sample paper 4…………………………………………………… 21

5. Math _ Sample paper 5…………………………………………………… 28

6. Math _ Sample paper 6…………………………………………………… 35

7. Math _ Sample paper 7…………………………………………………… 42

8. Math _ Sample paper 8…………………………………………………… 49

9. Math _ Sample paper 9…………………………………………………… 57

10.Math _ Sample paper 10………………………………………………….. 64

11.Science _ Sample paper 1………………………………………………… 71

12.Science _ Sample paper 2………………………………………………… 78

13.Science _ Sample paper 3………………………………………………… 84

14.Science _ Sample paper 4………………………………………………… 90

15.Science _ Sample paper 5………………………………………………… 97

16.Science _ Sample paper 6………………………………………………… 103

17.Science _ Sample paper 7………………………………………………… 110

18.Science _ Sample paper 8………………………………………………… 117

19.Science _ Sample paper 9………………………………………………… 124

20.Science _ Sample paper 10……………………………………………….. 132

 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. The point (0, -4) lies [1]

a) on the negative direction of y-axis b) in quadrant III

c) in quadrant IV d) on the negative direction of x-axis

– −−
2. Each side of an equilateral triangle is 2x cm. If x√3 = √48 , then area of the triangle is : [1]

a) √−−
48 cm
2 b) –
48√3 cm2

c) 16√–
3 cm
2 d) 16 cm2

3. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ∠C AB = 40

o
and ∠C BA = o
110 , the value of x is : [1]

a) 55 o
b) 80
o

c) 50 o
d) 60
o

4. In the given figure, ABCD is a Rhombus. Find the value of x and y ? [1]

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1
 a) x = 55°and y = 65° b) x = 80°and y = 80°

c) x = 75°and y = 55° d) x = 50°and y = 50°

5. If 4x - 4x-1 = 24, then (2x)x equals [1]

– –
a) √5 b) 25√5

–
c) 125 d) 5√5

6. In the adjoining figure, ∠ B = ∠ C and AD⊥ BC. The rule by which △ABD ≅ △ADC [1]

a) SSS b) SAS

c) RHS d) AAS
7. How many lines pass through one point? [1]

a) one b) three

c) two d) many
8. The degree of the zero polynomial is [1]

a) 0 b) any natural number

c) 1 d) not defined
– –
9. The simplest rationalisation factor of (2√2 − √3) is [1]
– – – –
a) √2 + √3 b) 2√2 + √3

– – –
c) 2√2 + 3 d) √2 − √3

10. The Diagonals AC and BD of a Parallelogram ABCD intersect each other at point O. If ∠DAC = 32
∘
and [1]
∠AOB = 70
∘
, then ∠DBC is equal to

a) 86 ∘
b) 38
∘

c) 32 ∘
d) 24
∘

11. If x-2 = 64, then x + x0 =

3
[1]

a) 2

3
b) 3

c) d) 2
3

12. The linear equation 2x – 5y = 7 has [1]

a) No solution b) Infinitely many solutions

c) A unique solution d) Two solutions

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2
13. In the adjoining figure, if AB ∥ DE, then the measure of ∠ ACD is :- [1]

a) 90° b) 100 0

c) 80° d) 70°
1 1

14. The value of (32) 5

+ (−7)
0
+ (64) 2
is [1]

a) 10 b) 0

c) 11 d) 1
15. In the given figure, if chords AB and CD of the circle intersect each other at right angles, then, x + y = [1]

a) 75o b) 45o

c) 90o d) 60o

16. Abscissa of all points on the x-axis is [1]

a) -1 b) 0

c) 1 d) any number
17. Express y in terms of x in the equation 5x - 2y = 7. [1]

a) y = b)
5x−7 7−5x
y =
2 2

c) y = d)
7x+5 5x+7
y =
2 2

18. If p(x) = 5x - 4x2 + 3 then p(-1) = ? [1]

a) -2 b) -6

c) 2 d) 6

19. Assertion (A): ABCD is a square. AC and BD intersect at O. The measure of ∠ AOB = 90o. [1]

Reason (R): Diagonals of a square bisect each other at right angles.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

–
20. Assertion (A): √3 is an irrational number. [1]
Reason (R): Square root of a positive integer which is not a perfect square is an irrational number.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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3
 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. In the given figure, we have ∠1 = ∠3 and ∠2 = ∠4 . Show that ∠A = ∠C . [2]

22. Read the following two statements which are taken as axioms: [2]
i. If two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are not equal.
ii. If a ray stands on a line, then the sum of two adjacent angles so formed is equal to 180°.
Is this system of axioms consistent? Justify your answer.
23. Which of the following points lie on the y-axis? [2]
A(1, 1), B(3, 0), C(0, 3), D(0, 0), E(–5, 0), F(0, –1), G(9, 0), H(0, –8).
– –
24. Simplify: (√3 − √2) 2
[2]
OR
– –
Find the value of a :
6
= 3√2 − a√3
3√2−2√3

25. The height of a conical vessel is 3.5 cm. If its capacity is 3.3 litres of milk. Find the diameter of its base. [2]
OR

The radius and slant height of a cone are in the ratio 4 : 7. If its curved surface area is 792 cm2, find its radius. (Use
π =
22

7
).
Section C
[3]
−1/4
√25
26. Simplify: 3
+ (
256

625
) +
1

2/3
√64 64
( )
125

27. Various modes of transport used by 1850 students of a school are given below: [3]

School bus Private bus Bicycle Rickshaw By foot

640 360 490 210 150

Draw a bar graph to represent the above data.

28. ABC is a triangle right angled at C. A line through the mid-point M of hypotenuse AB and parallel to BC [3]
intersects AC at D. Then prove that,
i. D is the midpoint AC
ii. MD is perpendicular to AC
iii. CM = AM = 1

2
AB
29. Find the solution of the linear equation x + 2y = 8 which represents a point on [3]
i. The x-axis
ii. The y-axis
30. Read the bar graph given in Figure and answer the following questions: [3]

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4
 i. What information is given by the bar graph?
ii. In which years the areas under the sugarcane crop were the maximum and the minimum?
iii. State whether true or false:
The area under the sugarcane crop in the year 1982-83 is three times that of the year 1950-51.
OR
Construct a histogram for the following data:

Monthly
School fee (in 30-60 60-90 90-120 120-150 150-180 180-210 210-240
₹):

No of Schools 5 12 14 18 10 9 4

31. If x + 2a is a factor of x5 - 4a2x3 + 2x + 2a + 3, find a. [3]

Section D
32. In each of the figures given below, AB ∥ CD. Find the value of x in each case.
∘
[5]

OR
In the given figure, AB || CD. Prove that p + q - r = 180.

33. A cloth having an area of 165 m2 is shaped into the form of a conical tent of radius 5 m. [5]

i. How many students can sit in the tent if a student on an average, occupies 5

7
m2 on the ground?
ii. Find the volume of the cone.
34. The perimeter of a triangular field is 420 m and its sides are in the ratio 6 : 7 : 8. Find the area of the triangular [5]
field.
OR
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 12 : 13 and its perimeter is 150 m. Find the area of the triangle.

35. Using factor theorem, factorize the polynomial: 2x4 – 7x3 – 13x2 + 63x – 45 [5]
Section E

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5
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Peter, Kevin James, Reeta and Veena were students of Class 9th B at Govt Sr Sec School, Sector 5, Gurgaon.
Once the teacher told Peter to think a number x and to Kevin to think another number y so that the
difference of the numbers is 10 (x > y).
Now the teacher asked James to add double of Peter's number and that three times of Kevin's number, the total
was found 120.
Reeta just entered in the class, she did not know any number.
The teacher said Reeta to form the 1st equation with two variables x and y.
Now Veena just entered the class so the teacher told her to form 2nd equation with two variables x and y.
Now teacher Told Reeta to find the values of x and y. Peter and kelvin were told to verify the numbers x and y.

(i) What are the equation formed by Reeta and Veena?

(ii) What was the equation formed by Veena?
(iii) Which number did Peter think?
OR
Which number did Kelvin think?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In a forest, a big tree got broken due to heavy rain and wind. Due to this rain the big branches AB and AC with
lengths 5m fell down on the ground. Branch AC makes an angle of 30° with the main tree AP. The distance of
Point B from P is 4 m. You can observe that ΔABP is congruent to ΔACP.

(i) Show that △ACP and △ABP are congruent.

(ii) Find the value of ∠ ACP?
(iii) Find the value of ∠ BAP?
OR
What is the total height of the tree?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A Ferris wheel (or a big wheel in the United Kingdom) is an amusement ride consisting of a rotating upright
wheel with multiple passenger-carrying components (commonly referred to as passenger cars, cabins, tubs,
capsules, gondolas, or pods) attached to the rim in such a way that as the wheel turns, they are kept upright,
usually by gravity.
After taking a ride in Ferris wheel, Aarti came out from the crowd and was observing her friends who were
enjoying the ride . She was curious about the different angles and measures that the wheel will form. She forms

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6
the figure as given below

(i) Find ∠ ROQ.

(ii) Find ∠ ​RQP.
(iii) Find ∠ ​RSQ.
OR
Find ∠ ​ORP.

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7
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. Rationalisation of the denominator of 1
gives [1]
√5+√2

– – – –
a) √5 + √2 b) √5 − √2

c) 1
d) √5−√2

√10 3

2. If (4, 19) is a solution of the equation y = ax + 3, then a = [1]

a) 4 b) 6

c) 3 d) 5
3. P(5, -7) be a point on the graph. Draw the PM ⊥ y-axis. The coordinates of M are [1]

a) (0, -7) b) (0, 0)

c) (-7, 0) d) (-7, 5)
4. To draw a histogram to represent the following frequency distribution : [1]

Class interval 5-10 10-15 15-25 25-45 45-75

Frequency 6 12 10 8 15

The adjusted frequency for the class 25-45 is

a) 6 b) 5

c) 2 d) 3
5. If the line represented by the equation 3x + ky = 9 passes through the points (2, 3), then the value of k is [1]

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8
 a) 2 b) 1

c) 3 d) 4
6. In ancient India, the shapes of altars used for household rituals were [1]

a) triangles and rectangles b) trpeziums and pyramids

c) squares and circles d) rectangles and squares

7. In the given figure, straight lines AB and CD intersect at O. If ∠AOC = ϕ, ∠BOC = θ and θ = 3ϕ , then [1]
ϕ = ?

a) 40° b) 30°

c) 45° d) 60°
8. In which of the following figures are the diagonals equal? [1]

a) Rhombus b) Rectangle

c) Parallelogram d) Trapezium

9. If x + 1 is a factor of the polynomial 2x2 + kx, then k = [1]

a) -3 b) 4

c) -2 d) 2
10. x = 2, y = 5 is a solution of the linear equation [1]

a) 5 x + y = 7 b) x + y = 7

c) 5x +2y = 7 d) x + 2y = 7
11. In the adjoining figure, BC = AC. If ∠ ACD = 115 , the ∠ A is
∘
[1]

a) 50 ∘
b) 65
∘

c) 57.5 ∘
d) 70
∘

12. Diagonals of a quadrilateral ABCD bisect each other. If ∠ A = 45o, then ∠ B = [1]

a) 125o b) 115o

c) 120o d) 135o

13. In the given figure, P and Q are centers of two circles intersecting at B and C. ACD is a straight line. Then, the [1]
measure of ∠BQD is

Page 2 of 19
9
 a) 130 o
b) 150
o

c) 105 o
d) 115
o

14. An irrational number between 2 and 2.5 is [1]

– −−
a) √5 b) √11

−
− −
− −−−
−
c) √22.5 d) √12.5

15. Express y in terms of x in the equation 5y - 3x - 10 = 0. [1]

a) y = 3−10x

5
b) y =
3+10x

c) y = d)
3x−10 3x+10
y =
5 5

16. If the sides of a triangle are produced in order, then the sum of the three exterior angles so formed is [1]

a) 90° b) 270°

c) 180° d) 360°
17. x+ 1 is a factor of the polynomial [1]

a) x 3
+ 2x
2
− x− 2 b) x
3
+ 2x
2
− x+ 2

c) x 3
− 2x
2
+ x+ 2 d) x
3
+ 2x
2
+ x− 2

18. If a solid sphere of radius r is melted and cast into the shape of a solid cone of height r, then the radius of the [1]
base of the cone is

a) 3r b) r

c) 2r d) 4r

19. Assertion (A): The side of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm then the area of the triangle is 9 cm2. [1]
Reason (R): All the sides of an equilateral triangle are equal.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): For all values of k, ( −3

2
, k) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3 = 0. [1]
Reason (R): The linear equation ax + b = 0 can be expressed as a linear equation in two variables as ax + y + b
= 0.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Find the area of a triangle, two sides of which are 8 cm and 11 cm and the perimeter is 32 cm. [2]

22. Prove the exterior angle formed by producing a side of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to the interior opposite [2]
angle.

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10
23. A right triangle ABC with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the side 12 cm. Find the volume of the [2]
solid so obtained.
24. In the given figure, △ABC is an equilateral. Find [2]
i. ∠ ADC
ii. ∠ AEC

OR
Prove that a diameter of a circle which bisects a chord of the circle also bisects the angle subtended by the chord at
the centre of the circle.
25. Find whether the given equation have x = 2, y = 1 as a solution: [2]
2x + 5y = 9
OR
The following values of x and y are thought to satisfy a linear equation :

x 1 2

y 1 3

Section C
–
[3]
√2+√3
26. Find the values of a and b in each of 3√2−2√3
= a − b√6

27. Factorise : x3 – 23x2 + 142x – 120 [3]

28. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base is 3: 2. Find the area of the [3]
triangle.
OR
The perimeter of a triangle is 480 meters and its sides are in the ratio of 1:2:3. Find the area of the triangle?
29. Find solutions of the form x = a, y = 0 and x = 0, y = b for the following pairs of equations. Do they have any [3]
common such solution?
5x + 3y = 15 and 5x + 2y = 10
30. If two isosceles triangles have a common base, prove that the line joining their vertices bisects them at right [3]
angles.
OR
S is any point on side QR of a △PQR. Show that: PQ + QR + RP > 2PS.
31. Seema has a 10 m × 10 m kitchen garden attached to her kitchen. She divides it into a 10 × 10 grid and wants [3]
to grow some vegetables and herbs used in the kitchen. She puts some soil and manure in that and sows a green
chilly plant at A, a coriander plant at B and a tomato plant at C.
Her friend Kusum visited the garden and praised the plants grown there. She pointed out that they seem to be in

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11
 a straight line. See the below diagram carefully and answer the following questions :

i. Write the coordinates of the points A, B, and C taking the 10 × 10 grid as coordinate axes.
ii. By distance formula or some other formula, check whether the points are collinear.
Section D
– – – −−
32. It being given that √3 = 1.732, √5 = 2.236, √6 = 2.449 and √10 = 3.162, find upto three places of decimal, [5]
3+√5
.
3−√5

OR
7√3 2√5 3√2
Simplify: − − .
√10 +√3 √6+√5 √15 +3√2

33. i. AB = BC, M is the mid-point of AB and N is the mid-point of BC. Show that AM = NC. [5]
ii. BM = BN, M is the mid-point of AB and N is the mid-point of BC. Show that AB = BC.

34. In each of the figures given below, AB || CD. Find the value of x ∘
[5]

OR
In the given figure, AB || CD || EF, ∠DBG = x, ∠EDH = y , ∠AEB = z , ∠EAB = 90
∘
and ∠BEF = 65
∘
.
Find the values of x, y and z.

35. The following data gives the amount of manure (in thousand tonnes) manufactured by a company during some [5]
years:

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12
 Year 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997

Manure
(in thousand 15 35 45 30 40 20
tonnes)

i. Represent the above data with the help of a bar graph.

ii. Indicate with the help of the bar graph the year in which the amount of manufactured by the company was
maximum.
iii. Choose the correct alternative :
The consecutive years during which there was maximum decrease in manure production are:
a. 1994 and 1995
b. 1992 and 1993
c. 1996 and 1997
d. 1995 and 1996
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Sanjay and his mother visited in a mall. He observes that three shops are situated at P, Q, R as shown in the
figure from where they have to purchase things according to their need. Distance between shop P and Q is 8 m
and between shop P and R is 6 m.
Considering O as the center of the circles.

(i) Find the Measure of ∠ QPR.

(ii) Find the radius of the circle.
(iii) Find the Measure of ∠ QSR.
OR
Find the area of ΔPQR.
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Once upon a time in Ghaziabad was a corn cob seller. During the lockdown period in the year 2020, his business
was almost lost.
So, he started selling corn grains online through Amazon and Flipcart. Just to understand how many grains he
will have from one corn cob, he started counting them.
Being a student of mathematics let's calculate it mathematically. Let's assume that one corn cob (see Fig.),

Page 6 of 19
13
 shaped somewhat like a cone, has the radius of its broadest end as 2.1 cm and length as 20 cm.

(i) Find the curved surface area of the corn cub.

(ii) What is the volume of the corn cub?
(iii) If each 1 cm2 of the surface of the cob carries an average of four grains, find how many grains you would
find on the entire cob?
OR
How many such cubs can be stored in a cartoon of size 20 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Harish makes a poster in the shape of a parallelogram on the topic SAVE ELECTRICITY for an inter-school
competition as shown in the follow figure.

(i) If ∠ A = (4x + 3)o and ∠ D = (5x - 3)o, then find the measure of ∠ B.
(ii) If ∠ B = (2y)o and ∠ D = (3y - 6)o, then find the value of y.
(iii) If ∠ A = (2x - 3)o and ∠ C = (4y + 2)o, then find how x and y relate.
OR
If AB = (2y - 3) and CD = 5 cm then what is the value of y?

Page 7 of 19
14
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
¯
¯¯ p
1. The number 0. 3 in the form q
, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0, is [1]

a) 3

100
b) 3

10

c) 33

100
d) 1

2. The line represented by the equation x + y = 16 passes through (2, 14). How many more lines pass through the [1]
point (2, 14)

a) 10 b) 2

c) many d) 100
3. The point whose ordinate is 3 and which lies on the y-axis is [1]

a) (3,3) b) (3,0)

c) (1,3) d) (0,3)
4. In a histogram the class intervals or the groups are taken along [1]

a) X-axis b) Y-axis

c) both of X-axis and Y-axis d) in between X and Y axis

5. Which of the following point does not lie on the line y = 2x + 3? [1]

a) (-5, -7) b) (-1, 1)

c) (3, 9) d) (3, 7)

Page 1 of 19
15
 6. The total number of propositions in the Euclid’s Elements is [1]

a) 460 b) 465

c) 32 d) 13
7. Given that lines l1, l2 and l3 in figure are parallel. The value of x is: [1]

a) 140 0
b) 40 0

c) 50° d) 80°
8. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC. M and N are the mid-points of AD and BC respectively. If AB = 12 [1]
cm, MN = 14 cm, then CD =

a) 10 cm b) 14 cm

c) 12 cm d) 16 cm
9. If x3
+
1
3
= 110 , then x + 1

x
= [1]
x

a) 15 b) none of these

c) 5 d) 10
10. If (-2, 5) is a solution of 2x + my = 11, then the value of ‘m’ is [1]

a) -2 b) 2

c) 3 d) -3
11. ABCD is a Rhombus such that ∠AC B= 40 , then ∠ADB is
∘
[1]

a) 100 ∘
b) 40
∘

c) 60 ∘
d) 50
∘

12. The Quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a Quadrilateral PQRS, taken in order, is a [1]
rectangle if

a) PQRS is a Rectangle b) None of these

c) PQRS is a Parallelogram d) Diagonals of PQRS are at right angles.

13. What fraction of the whole circle is minor arc RP in the given figure? [1]

a) of the circle b) of the circle

1 1

4 5

c) 1

3
of the circle d) 1

2
of the circle
¯
¯¯ ¯
¯¯
14. The sum of 0. 3 and 0. 4 is [1]

a) b)
7 7

11 99

c) 7

10
d) 7

Page 2 of 19
16
15. The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 is a line which meets the x-axis at the point [1]

a) (0,3) b) (3,0)

c) (2, 0) d) (0 ,2)
16. The side BC of △ABC is produced to a point D. The bisector of ∠ A meets side in L. If ∠ ABC = 30° and [1]
∠ ACD = 115°, then ∠ ALC =

a) 85° b) None of these

∘
c) 145° d) 72
1

17. In a bar graph, 0.25 cm length of a bar represents 100 people. Then, the length of bar which represents 2000 [1]
people is

a) 4.5 cm b) 4 cm

c) 5 cm d) 3.5 cm
18. If the ratio of volumes of two spheres is 1 : 8, then the ratio of their surface areas is [1]

a) 1 : 4 b) 1 : 2

c) 1 : 16 d) 1 : 8
19. Assertion (A): The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 25 : 14 : 12 and its perimeter is 510 cm. Then the area of [1]
the triangle is 4449.08 cm2.
Reason (R): Perimeter of a triangle = a + b + c, where a, b, c are sides of a triangle.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) R is not the correct explanation of A. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): There are infinite number of lines which passes through (2, 14). [1]
Reason (R): A linear equation in two variables has infinitely many solutions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
–
21. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 60 cm. Find its height. Given (√3 = 1.732). [2]
22. In given figure, if OA = 10, AB = 16 and OD ⊥ to AB. Find the value of the CD. [2]

23. A conical pit of top diameter 3.5 m is 12 m deep. What is its capacity in kilolitres? [2]
24. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in given figure: [2]

Page 3 of 19
17
 OR
On a common hypotenuse AB, two right triangles ACB and ADB are situated on opposite sides. Prove that ∠BAC =
∠BDC.
25. Express the linear equation in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c in 2x = -5y. [2]
OR
Write the linear equation represented by line AB and PQ. Also find the co-ordinate of intersection of line AB and PQ.

Section C

26. If a =
2+√5
and b =
2−√5
, then find the value of a2 - b2. [3]
2−√5 2+√5

27. Find the remainder whenx 3

+ 3x
2
+ 3x + 1 is divided by [3]
5 + 2x

28. One side of an equilateral triangle is 8 cm. Find its area by using Heron's Formula. Find its altitude also. [3]
OR
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 13 : 14 : 15 and its perimeter is 84 cm. Find the area of the triangle.
29. For what value of c, the linear equation 2x + cy = 8 has equal values of x and y for its solution? [3]
30. In a parallelogram, show that the angle bisectors of two adjacent angles intersect at right angles. [3]
OR
BN and CM are perpendiculars to a line passing through the vertex A of a triangle ABC. If L is the mid point of BC,
Prove that LM = LN.

31. Draw the graphs of y = x and y = -x in the same graph. Also find the co-ordinates of the point where the two [3]
lines intersect.
Section D
– – –
32. Represent each of the numbers √5, √6 and √7 the real line. [5]
OR

Page 4 of 19
18
 If a = 1
and b = 1
, then find the value of:
7−4√3 7+4√3

i. a2 + b2
ii. a3 + b3
33. In a line segment AB point C is called a mid-point of line segment AB, prove that every line segment has one [5]
and only one mid-point.

34. In figure, ∠ ABC = 65o, ∠ BCE = 30o, ∠ DCE = 35o and ∠ CFE = 145o. Prove that AB || EF. [5]

OR
In the given figure, AB ∥ CD, ∠ABO = 40
∘
, ∠C DO = 35
∘
. Find the value of the reflex ∠ BOD and hence the
value of x.

35. Verify that x 3

+ y
3
+ z
3
− 3xyz [5]
1 2 2 2
= (x + y + z) [(x − y) + (y − z) + (z − x) ]
2

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Child labour refers to any work or activity that deprives children of their childhood. It is a violation of children's
rights. This can them mentally or physically. It also exposes them to hazardous situations or stops them from
going to school. Naman got data on the number of child labors (in million) in different country that is given
below.

(i) What is the difference between highest no child labor and the minimum no of child labor?
(ii) What is the percentage of no. of child labor in Peru over the no. of child labor in India?
(iii) What is the total no. of child labor in the countries having child labor more than 2 million?
OR
How many countries are having child labor more than Mexico?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Once four friends Rahul, Arun, Ajay and Vijay went for a picnic at a hill station. Due to peak season, they did
not get a proper hotel in the city. The weather was fine so they decided to make a conical tent at a park. They

Page 5 of 19
19
 were carrying 300 m² cloth with them. As shown in the figure they made the tent with height 10 m and diameter
14 m. The remaining cloth was used for the floor.

(i) How much Cloth was used for the floor?

(ii) What was the volume of the tent?
(iii) What was the area of the floor?
OR
What was the total surface area of the tent?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
As shown In the village of Surya there was a big pole PC. This pole was tied with a strong wire of 10 m length.
Once there was a big spark on this pole, thus wires got damaged very badly. Any small fault was usually
repaired with the help of a rope which normal board electricians were carrying on bicycles.
This time electricians need a staircase of 10 m so that it can reach at point P on the pole and this should make
60° with line AC.

(i) Show that ΔAPC and ΔBPC are congruent.

(ii) Find the value of ∠ x.
(iii) What is the value of ∠ PBC?
OR
Find the value of ∠ y.

Page 6 of 19
20
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper- 4

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. A point is at a distance of 3 units from the x-axis and 7 units from the y-axis. Which of the following may be the [1]
co-ordinates of the point?

a) (7, 3) b) (3, 7)

c) (4, 5) d) (0, 0)
2. Each side of an equilateral triangle measures 8 cm. The area of the triangle is [1]
–
a) 32√3cm 2
b) 48 cm2
– –
c) 16√3cm 2
d) 8√3cm
2

3. In the given figure PQ and RS are two equal chords of a circle with centre O. OA and OB are perpendiculars on [1]
chords PQ and RS, respectively. If ∠AOB = 140 ,
o
then ∠P AB is equal to

a) 60 o
b) 70
o

c) 40 o
d) 50
o

4. In fig ABCD is a parallelogram. If ∠DAB = 60

∘
and ∠DBC = 80
∘
then ∠C DB is [1]

Page 1 of 19
21
 a) 60° b) 40°

c) 70° d) 80°
1

[1]
1

5. The value of x in 3 + 2x = (64) 2

+ (27) 3
is

a) 14 b) 8

c) 5 d) 3
6. In figure, what is the value of x? [1]

a) 60 b) 35

c) 45 d) 50
7. Write the linear equation such that each point on its graph has an ordinate 5 times its abscissa. [1]

a) y = 5x b) none of these

c) 5x + y = 2 d) x = 5y
–
8. √3 is a polynomial of degree. [1]

a) 0 b) 2

c) 1

2
d) 1
2 −1

9. If g = t 3 + 4t 2 , what is the value of g when t = 64? [1]

a) 31
b) 257

2 16

c) 33

2
d) 16
10. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a quadrilateral ABCD, taken in order, is a square [1]
only if

a) ABCD is a Rhombus b) Diagonals of ABCD are equal and

perpendicular

c) Diagonals of ABCD are perpendicular d) Diagonals of ABCD are equal

11. (125)
−1/3
=? [1]

a) − 1
b) -5
5

c) 1

5
d) 5
12. Any solution of the linear equation 2x + 0y + 9 = 0 in two variables is of the form [1]

a) (− 9
, m) b) (-9 , 0)
2

c) (0, − 9
) d) (n, −
9
)
2 2

Page 2 of 19
22 2/7
13. In the given figure, straight lines AB and CD intersect at O. If ∠AOC + ∠BOD = 130
∘
then ∠AOD = ? [1]

a) 110° b) 65°

c) 115° d) 125°
2x −8 3

14. If 3
=
5
x
, then x = [1]
225 5

a) 4 b) 2

c) 5 d) 3
15. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If ∠ AOB = 100° and ∠ AOC = 90°, then ∠ BAC = ? [1]

a) 75° b) 95°

c) 85° d) 80°
16. If (x, y) = (y, x), then [1]

a) x – y = 0 b) x + y = 0

c) x ÷ y = 0 d) xy = 0
17. If a linear equation has solutions (1, 2), (-1, -16) and (0, -7), then it is of the form [1]

a) y = 9x - 7 b) 9x - y + 7 = 0

c) x - 9y = 7 d) x = 9y - 7

18. The value of (x − 1

x
) (x +
1

x
2
) (x +
1
2
) is [1]
x

a) x b)
4 1 3 1
+ x − + 2
4 3
x x

c) x d)
2 1 4 1
+ − 2 x −
2 4
x x

19. Assertion (A): In ΔABC, E and F are the midpoints of AC and AB respectively. The altitude AP at BC [1]
intersects FE at Q. Then, AQ = QP.
Reason (R): Q is the midpoint of AP.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Every integer is a rational number. [1]
Reason (R): Every integer m can be expressed in the form .
m

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Page 3 of 19
23
 Section B
21. In fig. AC = XD, C is the mid-point of AB and D is the mid-point of XY. Using a Euclid's axiom, show that AB [2]
= XY.

22. In the given figure, we have ∠ABC = ∠ACB,∠4 = ∠3 . Show that ∠1 = ∠2 . [2]

23. Find Co-ordinates of vertices of rectangle ABCD. [2]

24. Assuming that x is a positive real number and a, b, c are rational numbers, show that: [2]
a+b b+c c+a
a b c

=1
x x x
( ) ( c
) ( a
)
x
b x x

OR
¯
¯¯¯
¯ p
Express the decimal 18. 48 in the form q
, where p, q are integers and q ≠ 0.
25. A cone and a hemisphere have equal bases and equal volumes. Find the ratio of their heights. [2]
OR
The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 4 : 25. Find the ratio of their volumes.
Section C
2
−1 −
1

4
[3]
26. Simplify {[625 2
] }

27. Draw a histogram of the following distribution: [3]

Height (in cm) Number of students

150 - 153 7

153 - 156 8

156 - 159 14

159 - 162 10

162 - 165 6

165 - 168 5

28. ABCD is a rhombus and P, Q, R, S are mid-points of AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Prove that quadrilateral [3]
PQRS is a rectangle.

Page 4 of 19
24
29. Find at least 3 solutions for the following linear equation in two variables: 5x + 3y = 4. [3]
30. The monthly profits (in Rs) of 100 shops are distributed as follows: [3]

Profits per
0-50 50-100 100-50 150-200 200-250 250-300
shop:

No. of shops: 12 18 27 20 17 6

Draw a histogram for the data and show the frequency polygon for it.
OR
Draw a frequency polygon for the following distribution:

Marks obtained 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80

No. of students 7 10 6 8 12 3 2 2

31. Factorize the polynomial: [3]

3 3 2 2
8a − b − 12a b + 6ab

Section D
32. In the given figure, POQ is a line. Ray OR is perpendicular to line PQ. OS is another ray lying between rays OP [5]
and OR. Prove that ∠ROS =
1

2
(∠QOS − ∠P OS) .

OR
In fig two straight lines PQ and RS intersect each other at O, if ∠ POT = 75° Find the values of a, b and c

33. A hemispherical dome of a building needs to be painted. If the circumference of the base of the dome is 17.6 m, [5]

find the cost of painting it, given the cost of painting is ₹ 5 per 100 cm2.
34. The perimeter of a right triangle is 24 cm. If its hypotenuse is 10 cm, find the other two sides. Find its area by [5]
using the formula area of a right triangle. Verify your result by using Heron's formula.
OR
Find the area of the triangle whose sides are 42 cm, 34 cm and 20 cm in length. Hence, find the height corresponding
to the longest side.
35. If (x3 + ax2 + bx + 6) has (x - 2) as a factor and leaves a remainder 3 when divided by (x - 3), find the values of a [5]
and b.
Section E

Page 5 of 19
25
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Ajay lives in Delhi, The city of Ajay's father in laws residence is at Jaipur is 600 km from Delhi. Ajay used to
travel this 600 km partly by train and partly by car.
He used to buy cheap items from Delhi and sale at Jaipur and also buying cheap items from Jaipur and sale at
Delhi.
Once From Delhi to Jaipur in forward journey he covered 2x km by train and the rest y km by taxi.
But, while returning he did not get a reservation from Jaipur in the train. So first 2y km he had to travel by taxi
and the rest x km by Train. From Delhi to Jaipur he took 8 hrs but in returning it took 10 hrs.

(i) Write the above information in terms of equation.

(ii) Find the value of x and y?
(iii) Find the speed of Taxi?
OR
Find the speed of Train?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Haresh and Deep were trying to prove a theorem. For this they did the following

i. Draw a triangle ABC

ii. D and E are found as the mid points of AB and AC
iii. DE was joined and DE was extended to F so DE = EF
iv. FC was joined.
(i) △ ADE and △EFC are congruent by which criteria?
(ii) Show that CF∥ AB.
(iii) Show that CF = BD.
OR
Show that DF = BC and DF∥ BC.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
There was a circular park in Defence colony at Delhi. For fencing purpose poles A, B, C and D were installed at
the circumference of the park.
Ram tied wires From A to B, B to C and C to D, and he managed to measure the ∠ A = 100° and ∠ D = 80°

Page 6 of 19
26
Point O in the middle of the park is the center of the circle.

(i) Name the quadrilateral ABCD.

(ii) What is the value of ∠ C?
(iii) What is the value of ∠B .
OR
Write any three properties of cyclic quadrilateral?

Page 7 of 19
27
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 5

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
¯
¯¯¯
¯ ¯
¯¯¯
¯
1. The value of 2. 45 + 0. 36 is [1]

a) 31

11
b) 24

11

c) 67

33
d) 167

110

2. The equation x = 7 in two variables can be written as [1]

a) 1.x + 1.y = 7 b) 1.x + 0.y = 7

c) 0.x + 1.y = 7 d) 0.x + 0.y = 7

3. The point which lies on y-axis at a distance of 6 units in the positive direction of y-axis is [1]

a) (-6, 0) b) (0, -6)

c) (6, 0) d) (0, 6)
4. In a histogram, which of the following is proportional to the frequency of the corresponding class? [1]

a) Width of the rectangle b) Length of the rectangle

c) Perimeter of the rectangle d) Area of the rectangle

5. How many linear equations in ‘x’ and ‘y’ can be satisfied by x = 1, y = 2? [1]

a) Infinitely many b) Two

c) Only one d) Three

6. The number of dimensions, a surface has [1]

Page 1 of 19
28
 a) 2 b) 1

c) 0 d) 3
7. In the given figure x = 30°, the value of Y is [1]

a) 45° b) 40°

c) 10° d) 36°
8. If APB and CQD are 2 parallel lines, then the bisectors of the angles APQ, BPQ, CQP and PQD form, square [1]
only if

a) Diagonals of ABCD are equal b) ABCD is a Rhombus

c) None of these d) Diagonals of ABCD are unequal

9. Degree of the polynomial 2x4 + 3x3 - 5x2 + 9x + 1 is [1]

a) 3 b) 1

c) 2 d) 4
10. The cost of 2 kg of apples and 1 kg of grapes on a day was found to be ₹160. A linear equation in two variables [1]
to represent the above data is

a) x - 2y = 160 b) 2x + y = 160

c) x + y = 160 d) 2x - y = 160
11. In the adjoining figure, AB = FC, EF = BD and ∠ AFE = ∠ CBD. Then the rule by which △AF E ≅ △C BD [1]

a) SSS b) AAS

c) ASA d) SAS
12. The figure formed by joining the mid-points of the adjacent sides of a rhombus is a [1]

a) trapezium b) rectangle

c) square d) none of these

13. In the given figure, M, A, B and N are points on a circle having centre O. AN and MB cut at Y. If [1]
∠N Y B = 50
o
and ∠Y N B = o
20 , then reflex ∠M ON is equal to

Page 2 of 19
29
 a) 240 o
b) 200
o

c) 260 o
d) 220
o

14.
√3+√2
+
√3−√2
= [1]
√3−√2 √3+√2

a) 8 b) -10

c) 10 d) -8
15. If a linear equation has solutions (-2, 2), (0, 0) and (2, -2), then it is of the form: [1]

a) x + y = 0 b) -2x + y = 0

c) x – y = 0 d) -x + 2y = 0
16. In a △ABC,if ∠ A = 60°, ∠ B = 80° and the bisectors of ∠ B and ∠ C meet at O, the ∠ BOC = [1]

a) 60° b) 30°

c) 150° d) 120°

17. One of the factors of (25x2 - 1) + (1 + 5x)2 is [1]

a) 5 – x b) 10x

c) 5x – 1 d) 5 + x
18. The curved surface area of a cylinder and a cone is equal. If their base radius is same, then the ratio of the slant [1]
height of the cone to the height of the cylinder is

a) 1 : 1 b) 2 : 3

c) 1 : 2 d) 2 : 1
19. Assertion (A): The perimeter of a right angled triangle is 60 cm and its hypotenuse is 26 cm. The other sides of [1]

the triangle are 10 cm and 24 cm. Also, area of the triangle is 120 cm2.
Reason (R): (Base)2 + (Perpendicular)2 = (Hypotenuse)2

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): The point (0, 3) lies on the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 12. [1]
Reason (R): (0, 3) satisfies the equation 3x + 4y = 12.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The height of an equilateral triangle measures 9 cm. Find its area, correct to 2 places of decimal. (Take [2]
–
√3 = 1.732 )

Page 3 of 19
30
22. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in the given figure: [2]

23. Find the volume, curved surface area and the total surface area of a hemisphere of diameter 7 cm. [2]
24. If the perpendicular bisector of a chord AB of a circle PXAQBY intersects the circle at P and Q, prove that arc [2]
PXA ≅ arc PYB.
OR
Two chords PQ and RS of a circle are parallel to each other and AB is the perpendicular bisector of PQ. Without
using any construction, prove that AB bisects RS.
25. How many solution(s) of the equation 3x + 2 = 2x - 3 are there on the : [2]
i. Number line?
ii. Cartesian plane?
OR
Solve the equation for x: 5(4x + 3) = 3(x - 2)
Section C
−−
−
26. Represent √9.3 on the number line. [3]

27. Factorize: a2x2 + (ax2 + 1 )x + a [3]

28. Calculate the area of the shaded region in Fig. [3]

OR
A traffic signal board, indicating 'SCHOOLAHEAD', is an equilateral triangle with side 'a'. Find the area of the
signal board, using Heron's Formula. If its perimeter is 180 cm,
29. Write linear equation 3x + 2y =18 in the form of ax + by + c = 0. Also write the values of a, b and c. Are (4, 3) [3]
and (1, 2) solution of this equation?
30. Prove that the angle between internal bisector of one base angle and the external bisector of the other base angle [3]
of a triangle is equal to one-half of the vertical angle.
OR
In the given figure, ABCD is a square and P is a point inside it such that PB = PD. Prove that CPA is a straight line.

Page 4 of 19
31
31. In Figure, LM is a line parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 3 units. [3]

i. What are the coordinates of the points P, R and Q?

ii. What is the difference between the abscissa of the points L and M?
Section D
–
32. If , find the value of a . [5]
2 1
a = 3 − 2√2 −
2
a

OR

, find the value of p2 + q2.

3−√5 3+√5
If p = and q =
3+√5 3−√5

33. In the adjoining figure, name: [5]

i. Six points
ii. Five line segments
iii. Four rays
iv. Four lines
v. Four collinear points

34. If is given that ∠XY Z = 64

∘
and XY is produced to point P. Draw a figure from the given information. If ray [5]
YQ bisects ∠ ZYP, find ∠ XYQ and reflex ∠ QYP.

Page 5 of 19
32
 OR
In fig two straight lines PQ and RS intersect each other at O, if ∠ POT = 75° Find the values of a, b and c

35. Draw a histogram with frequency polygon for the following data: [5]

class interval 25 - 29 30 - 34 35 - 39 40 - 44 45 - 49 50 - 54

frequency 5 15 23 20 10 7

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
There was a circular park in Defence colony at Delhi. For fencing purpose poles A, B, C and D were installed at
the circumference of the park.
Ram tied wires From A to B, B to C and C to D, and he managed to measure the ∠ A = 100° and ∠ D = 80°
Point O in the middle of the park is the center of the circle.

(i) Name the quadrilateral ABCD.

(ii) What is the value of ∠ C?
(iii) What is the value of ∠B .
OR
Write any three properties of cyclic quadrilateral?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The front compound wall of a house is decorated by wooden spheres of diameter 21 cm, placed on small
supports as shown in figure. 25 such spheres are used for this purpose and are to be painted silver. Each support
is a cylinder and is to be painted black.

(i) what will be the total surface area of the spheres all around the wall?
(ii) Find the cost of orange paint required if this paint costs 20 paise per cm2.
(iii) How much orange paint in liters is required for painting the supports if the paint required is 3 ml per cm2?
OR

Page 6 of 19
33
 What will be the volume of total spheres all around the wall?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
There is a Diwali celebration in the DPS school Janakpuri New Delhi. Girls are asked to prepare Rangoli in a
triangular shape. They made a rangoli in the shape of triangle ABC. Dimensions of △ABC are 26 cm, 28 cm, 25
cm.

(i) In fig R and Q are mid-points of AB and AC respectively. Find the length of RQ.
(ii) Find the length of Garland which is to be placed along the side of △QPR.
(iii) R, P and Q are the mid-points of AB, BC, and AC respectively. Then find the relation between area of
△ PQR and area of △​ABC.
OR
R, P, Q are the mid-points of corresponding sides AB, BC, CA in ΔABC, then name the figure so obtained
BPQR.

Page 7 of 19
34
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 6

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
−−−− −
1. Value of 4
√(81)
−2
is [1]

a) 1

9
b) 1

81

c) 9 d) 1

2. For the equation 5x – 7y = 35, if y = 5, then the value of ‘x’ is [1]

a) 12 b) -12

c) -14 d) 14
3. The co-ordinates of the origin are [1]

a) (2, 2) b) (0, 0)

c) (0, 2) d) (2, 0)
4. A histogram is a pictorial representation of the grouped data in which class intervals and frequency are [1]
respectively taken along

a) horizontal axis only b) horizontal axis and vertical axis

c) vertical axis and horizontal axis d) vertical axis only

5. Express ‘x’ in terms of ‘y’ in the equation 2x – 3y – 5 = 0. [1]
3y−5 3y+5
a) x = 2
b) x =
2

5−3y 3+5y
c) x = 2
d) x =
2

Page 1 of 19
35
 6. The edges of a surface are [1]

a) Curves b) None of these

c) Points d) Lines
7. In the figure, l∥m & l∥n then x is- [1]

a) 45° b) 90o

c) 60° d) 30°

8. ABCD is a Trapezium in which AB∥ DC and ∠A = ∠B = 45o. Find angles C and D of the Trapezium [1]

a) 150o, 150o b) 120o, 120o

c) 200o, 50o d) 135o, 135o

9. The factors of x3 -1 + y3 + 3xy are [1]

a) 3(x + y - 1)(x2 + y2 - 1) b) (x - 1+ y)(x2 - 1 - y2 + x + y + xy)

c) (x + y + 1)(x2 + y2 + 1 - xy - x - y) d) (x- 1 + y)(x2 + 1 + y2 + x + y - xy)

10. If we multiply both sides of a linear equation with a non-zero number, then the solution of the linear equation: [1]

a) Remains the same b) Changes in case of multiplication only

c) Changes in case of division only d) Changes

11. If one angle of a parallelogram is 24o less than twice the smallest angle, then the measure of the largest angle of [1]
the parallelogram is

a) 112o b) 68o

c) 176o d) 102o

12. If bisector of ∠A and ∠B of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at p , ∠B and ∠C at Q , ∠C and ∠D [1]
at R and, ∠D and ∠A at S then PQRS is a

a) Rectangle b) Parallelogram

c) Rhombus d) Quadrilateral whose opposite angles are

supplementary
13. In the figure, O is the center of the circle. If ∠OAB = o
40 , then ∠AC B is equal to : [1]

Page 2 of 19
36
 a) 40 o
b) 70
o

c) 60 o
d) 50
o

14. If a = -2, b = -1, then ab - ba is equal to [1]

a) -1 b) 0.5

c) -2 d) -1.5
15. The graph of the linear equation y = x passes through the point [1]

a) ( 3
,
−3
) b) (0,
3
)
2 2 2

c) ( −1
,
1
) d) (1 ,1)
2 2

16. If the bisector of the angle A of a △ABC is perpendicular to the base BC of the triangle then the triangle ABC [1]
is:

a) Isosceles b) Obtuse Angled

c) Equilateral d) Scalene
17. In a bar graph if 1 cm represents 30 km, then the length of bar needed to represent 75 km is [1]

a) 3.5 cm b) 2.5 cm

c) 2 cm d) 3 cm
18. The diameters of two cones are equal. If their slant heights are in the ratio 5 : 4, the ratio of their curved surface [1]
areas, is

a) 5 : 4 b) 4 : 5

c) 16 : 25 d) 25 : 16

19. Assertion (A): The height of the triangle is 18 cm and its area is 72 cm2. Its base is 8 cm. [1]

Reason (R): Area of a triangle = 1

2
× base × height

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): A linear equation 2x + 3y = 5 has a unique solution. [1]
Reason (R): A linear equation in two variables has infinitely many solutions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 60 cm. Find its area. [2]
22. In the given figure, ∠ BAD = 75°, ∠ DCF = x° and ∠ DEF = y°. Find the values of x and y. [2]

Page 3 of 19
37
23. A Joker's cap is in the form of a right circular cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find the area of the [2]
sheet required to make 10 such caps.
24. If O is the centre of circle, find the value of x in given figure: [2]

OR
In a given figure, O is the centre of a circle and PQ is a diameter. If ∠ ROS = 40°, find ∠ RTS.

25. Find whether (1, 1) is the solution of the equation x – 2y = 4 or not? [2]
OR
If the length of a rectangle is decreased by 3 units and breadth increased by 4 unit, then the area will increase by 9 sq.
units. Represent this situation as a linear equation in two variables.
Section C
26. Rationalise the denominator: . [3]
3

√3+√5−√2

27. Expand ( 1
a −
1
b + 1)
[3]
2 3

28. The perimeter of a triangular field is 540 m and its sides are in the ratio 25 : 17 : 12. Find the area of the triangle. [3]
OR
The sides of a triangular field are 41m, 40m and 9m. Find the number of rose beds that can be prepared in the field, if

each rose bed on an average needs 900 cm2 space.

29. Find solutions of the form x = a, y = 0 and x = 0, y = b for the following pairs of equations. Do they have any [3]
common such solution?
3x + 2y = 6 and 5x + 2y = 10
30. Show that the line segments joining the mid-points of the opposite sides of a quadrilateral bisect each other. [3]
OR
ABC is a triangle right angled at C. A line through the mid-point M of hypotenuse AB and parallel to BC intersects
AC at D. Show that
i. D is the mid-point of AC
ii. MD ⊥ AC
iii. CM = MA = 1

2
AB
31. In fig. write the Co-ordinates of the points and if we join the points write the name of fig. formed. Also write [3]
Co-ordinate of intersection point of AC and BD.

Page 4 of 19
38
 Section D
−2

9
n 2
×3 ×(3
−n/2
)
n
−(27) [5]
32. If , prove that m - n = 1.
1
=
3m 3
3 ×2 27

OR
7√3 2√5 3√2
Simplify: − − .
√10 +√3 √6+√5 √15 +3√2

33. In the adjoining figure, name: [5]

i. Two pairs of intersecting lines and their corresponding points of intersection
ii. Three concurrent lines and their points of intersection
iii. Three rays
iv. Two line segments

34. Fig., AB || CD and CD || EF. Also, EA ⊥ AB. If ∠ BEF = 55°, find the values of x, y and z. [5]

OR

In figure, ∠ AOF and ∠ FOG form a linear pair, ∠ EOB = ∠ FOC = 90o and ∠ DOC = ∠ FOG = ∠ AOB = 30o. Find
the measures of FOE, COB and DOE.

Page 5 of 19
39
35. Divide p(x) by g(x), where p(x) = x + 3x2 – 1 and g(x) = 1 + x [5]

Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A teacher is a person whose professional activity involves planning, organizing, and conducting group activities
to develop student's knowledge, skills, and attitudes as stipulated by educational programs. Teachers may work
with students as a whole class, in small groups or one-to-one, inside or outside regular classrooms. In this
indicator, teachers are compared by their average age and work experience measured in years.
For the same in 2015, the following distribution of ages (in years) of primary school teachers in a district was
collected to evaluate the teacher on the above-mentioned criterion.

(i) What is the total no of teachers?

(ii) Find the class mark of class 15 - 20, 25 - 30 and 45 - 50?
(iii) What is the no of teachers of age range 25 - 40 years?
OR
Which classes are having same no. of teachers?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Once four friends Rahul, Arun, Ajay and Vijay went for a picnic at a hill station. Due to peak season, they did
not get a proper hotel in the city. The weather was fine so they decided to make a conical tent at a park. They
were carrying 300 m² cloth with them. As shown in the figure they made the tent with height 10 m and diameter
14 m. The remaining cloth was used for the floor.

(i) How much Cloth was used for the floor?

(ii) What was the volume of the tent?
(iii) What was the area of the floor?
OR
What was the total surface area of the tent?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In the middle of the city, there was a park ABCD in the form of a parallelogram form so that AB = CD, AB||CD
and AD = BC, AD || BC.

Page 6 of 19
40
Municipality converted this park into a rectangular form by adding land in the form of ΔAPD and Δ BCQ. Both
the triangular shape of land were covered by planting flower plants.

(i) Show that ΔAPD and ΔBQC are congruent.

(ii) PD is equal to which side?
(iii) Show that ΔABC and ΔCDA are congruent.
OR
What is the value of ∠ m?

Page 7 of 19
41
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 7

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. The abscissa of any point on y-axis is [1]

a) 1 b) any number

c) -1 d) 0
2. Area of an isosceles triangle ABC with AB = a = AC and BC = b is [1]
−−− −−−− −−−−−−
a) b)
1 2 2 1 2 2
b√4a − b b√a − b
4 4

−−− −−−− −−−−−−

c) 1

2
2
b√4a − b
2
d) 1

2
2
b√a − b
2

3. In Fig., AB and CD are two equal chords of a circle with centre O. OP and OQ are perpendiculars on chords AB [1]
and CD, respectively. If ∠ POQ = 150º, then ∠ APQ is equal to

a) 60º b) 75º

c) 15º d) 30º
4. D and E are the mid-points of the sides AB and AC. Of △ABC. If BC = 5.6cm, find DE. [1]

Page 1 of 18
42
 a) 2.8 cm b) 3 cm

c) 2.9 cm d) 2.5 cm

5. (625)0.16 × (625)0.09 = [1]

a) 625 b) 5

c) 125 d) 25
6. In figure, for which value of x is l1|| l2? [1]

a) 43 b) 37

c) 45 d) 47
7. The taxi fare in a city is as follows: For the first kilometer, the fare is ₹8 and for the subsequent distance it is ₹5 [1]
per kilometer. Taking the distance covered as x km and total fare as ₹y, write a linear equation for this
information.

a) y = 5x + 3 b) y = 5x – 3

c) x = 5y – 3 d) x = 5y + 3
8. If x2
+ kx − 3 = (x − 3)(x + 1) , then the value of ‘k’ is [1]

a) -3 b) 2

c) -2 d) 3
x

9. If 10x = 64, what is the value of 10 2

+1
? [1]

a) 18 b) 80

c) 81 d) 42
10. In Triangle ABC which is right angled at B. Given that AB = 9cm, AC = 15cm and D, E are the mid-points of [1]
the sides AB and AC respectively. Find the length of BC?

a) 13cm b) 13.5cm

c) 12cm d) 15cm

11. When simplified (x-1 + y-1)-1 is equal to [1]

a) xy b) x + y
xy x+y
c) x+y
d) xy

12. The system of linear equations ax + by = 0, cx + dy = 0 has a non-trival solution if [1]

Page 2 of 18
43
 a) ad – bc = 0 b) ad – bc < 0

c) ad –bc = 0 d) ac + bd = 0
13. In Fig. the value of y, is [1]

a) 60° b) 45°

c) 20° d) 30°
−− −
−
−−
14.
4 3
√√22 is equal to [1]
1

a) 2 −6
b) 2
−
6

c) 2 6 d) 2
6

15. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If ∠ OAC = 50°, then ∠ ODB = ? [1]

a) 50o b) 60o

c) 75o d) 40o

16. The point which lies on x-axis at a distance of 4 units in the negative direction of x-axis is [1]

a) (4, 0) b) (-4, 0)

c) (0, -4) d) (0, 4)

17. The positive solutions of the equation ax + by + c = 0 always lie in the [1]

a) 3rd quadrant b) 4th quadrant

c) 2nd quadrant d) 1st quadrant

18. If f(x) = x2 - 5x + 1, then the value of f(2) + f(-1) is [1]

a) 2 b) 1

c) -2 d) -1

19. Assertion (A): If the diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD are equal, then ∠ ABC = 90o [1]

Reason (R): If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, it becomes a rectangle.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

Page 3 of 18
44
 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Rational number lying between two rational numbers a and b is a+b

2
. [1]
Reason (R): There is one rational number lying between any two rational numbers.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. If P, Q, and R are three points on a line and Q is between P and R, then prove that PR - QR = PQ. [2]
22. Look at the Fig. Show that length AH > sum of lengths of AB + BC + CD. [2]

23. In which quadrant will the point lie, if : [2]

(i) The y-coordinate is 3 and the x-coordinate is –4?
(ii) The x-coordinate is –5 and the y-coordinate is –3?
(iii) The y-coordinate is 4 and the x-coordinate is 5?
(iv) The y-coordinate is 4 and the x-coordinate is –4?
24. Simplify the following by rationalizing the denominator : 30
[2]
5√3−3√5

OR
1 1 2
−
Simplify: 64 3
[64 3
− 64 3
]

25. The largest sphere is carved out of a solid cube of side 21 cm. Find the volume of the sphere. [2]
OR
If the radius of the base of a right circular cone is halved keeping the height same, what is the ratio of the volume of
the reduced cone to that of the original one?
Section C
p
26. Express 0.47 in the form , where p and q are integers and q [3]
¯
¯¯
≠ 0
q

27. The production of oil (in lakh tonnes) in some of the refineries in India during 1982 was given below: [3]

Refinery: Barauni Koyali Mathura Mumbai Florida

Production of oil
30 70 40 45 25
(in lakh tonnes)

Construct a bar graph to represent the above data so that the bars are drawn horizontally.
28. In the figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC. CP || AB and AP is the bisector of exterior ∠ CAD [3]
of △ABC.
Prove that (i) ∠ PAC = ∠ BCA and (ii) ABCP is a parallelogram.

29. Find solutions of the form x = a, y = 0 and x = 0, y = b for the following pairs of equations. Do they have any [3]
common such solution?
5x + 3y = 15 and 5x + 2y = 10

Page 4 of 18
45
30. Given below are the seats won by different political parties in the polling outcome of a state assembly elections: [3]

Political party A B C D E F

Seats won 65 52 34 28 10 31

Draw a bar graph to represent the polling results.

OR
The following bar graph shows the results of an annual examination in a secondary school.
Read the bar graph (Figure) and choose the correct alternative in each of the following:

i. The pair of classes in which the results of boys and girls are inversely proportional are:
a. VI, VIII
b. VI, IX
c. VIII,IX
d. VIII, X
ii. The class having the lowest failure rate of girls is
a. VII
b. X
c. IX
d. VIII
iii. The class having the lowest pass rate of students is
a. VI
b. VII
c. VIII
d. IX

31. Using factor theorem, factorize the polynomial: x4 –7x3 + 9x2 + 7x –10 [3]
Section D
32. In the given figure, AB ∥ CD and ∠AOC = x
∘
. If ∠OAB = 104
∘
and ∠OC D = 116
∘
, find the value of x. [5]

OR
In the given figure, OP, OQ, OR and OS are four rays. Prove that
∠ POQ + ∠ ROQ + ∠ SOR + ∠ POS = 360°.

Page 5 of 18
46
33. A solid wooden toy is in the shape of a right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere. If the radius of the [5]
hemisphere is 4.2 cm and the total height of the toy is 10.2 cm, find the volume of the wooden toy.
34. The perimeter of a triangle is 50 cm. One side of a triangle is 4 cm longer than the smaller side and the third side [5]
is 6 cm less than twice the smaller side. Find the area of the triangle.
OR
If each side of a triangle is doubled, then find the ratio of area of new triangle thus formed and the given triangle.
35. Find the values of p and q so that x4 + px3 + 2x2 − 3x + q is divisible by (x2 - 1) [5]
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Ajay is writing a test which consists of ‘True’ or ‘False’ questions. One mark is awarded for every correct
answer while ¼ mark is deducted for every wrong answer. Ajay knew answers to some of the questions. Rest of
the questions he attempted by guessing.

(i) If he answered 110 questions and got 80 marks and answer to all questions, he attempted by guessing were
wrong, then how many questions did he answer correctly?
(ii) If he answered 110 questions and got 80 marks and answer to all questions, he attempted by guessing were
wrong, then how many questions did he guess?
(iii) If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong and answered 80 correctly, then how many
marks he got?
OR
If answer to all questions he attempted by guessing were wrong, then how many questions answered
correctly to score 95 marks?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In a forest, a big tree got broken due to heavy rain and wind. Due to this rain the big branches AB and AC with
lengths 5m fell down on the ground. Branch AC makes an angle of 30° with the main tree AP. The distance of
Point B from P is 4 m. You can observe that ΔABP is congruent to ΔACP.

(i) Show that △ACP and △ABP are congruent.

(ii) Find the value of ∠ ACP?
(iii) Find the value of ∠ BAP?
OR

Page 6 of 18
47
 What is the total height of the tree?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Rohan draws a circle of radius 10 cm with the help of a compass and scale. He also draws two chords, AB and
CD in such a way that the perpendicular distance from the center to AB and CD are 6 cm and 8 cm respectively.
Now, he has some doubts that are given below.

(i) Show that the perpendicular drawn from the Centre of a circle to a chord bisects the chord.
(ii) What is the length of CD?
(iii) What is the length of AB?
OR
How many circles can be drawn from given three noncollinear points?

Page 7 of 18
48
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 8

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
−− n

1. If √5
n
= 125, then 5
√64
= [1]

a) 1

5
b) 25

c) 1

125
d) 625
2. The graph of y = 6 is a line [1]

a) Parallel to x-axis at a distance 6 units from b) Making an intercept 6 on the x- axis.

the origin

c) Making an intercept 6 on both the axes. d) Parallel to y-axis at a distance 6 units from
the origin
3. If the x co-ordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies: [1]

a) in quadrant IV b) in quadrant III

c) on y-axis d) on x-axis
4. In a bar graph, 0.25 cm length of a bar represents 100 people. Then, the length of bar which represents 2000 [1]
people is

a) 4.5 cm b) 4 cm

c) 5 cm d) 3.5 cm
5. Which of the following is a linear equation in two variables? [1]

Page 1 of 20
49
 a) 2x – 5y = 0 b) x + 5 = 8

c) x 2
= 5x + 3 d) 5x =
2
y + 3

6. Euclid stated that if equals are added to equals, the wholes are equal in the form of [1]

a) A definition b) An axiom

c) A theorem d) None of these

7. In Fig., which of the following statements must be true? [1]
i. a + b = d + c
ii. a + c + e = 180°
iii. b + f = c + e

a) (ii) only b) (i) only

c) (ii) and (iii) only d) (iii) only

8. A diagonal of a Rectangle is inclined to one side of the rectangle at an angle of 25 . The Acute Angle between
∘
[1]
the diagonals is :

a) 115 ∘
b) 40
∘

c) 50 ∘
d) 25
∘

9. The degree of a biquadratic polynomial is [1]

a) 2 b) 4

c) 3 d) 1
10. For what value of ‘k’, x = 2 and y = -1 is a solution of x + 3y – k = 0? [1]

a) 2 b) -2

c) -1 d) 1
11. In Figure, if l1|| l2, the value of x is [1]

Page 2 of 20
50
 a) 60 b) 45

c) 22 1

2
d) 30
12. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 18 cm and 24 cm respectively, then its side is equal to [1]

a) 20 cm b) 15 cm

c) 16 cm d) 17 cm
13. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. ∠OAB and ∠OC B are 40 and 30 respectively. Then, the
o o
[1]
measure of ∠AOC is

a) 110 o
b) 140
o

c) 120 o
d) 170
o

–
14. If √7 = 2.646 then 1
=? [1]
√7

a) None of these b) 0.375

c) 0.378 d) 0.441
15. x = 5 and y = -2 is the solution of the linear equation. [1]

a) x + 3y = 1 b) 2x + y = 9

c) 3x + y = 0 d) 2x – y = 12
16. △ABC ≅ △P QR , then which of the following is true? [1]

a) CA = RP b) CB = QP

c) AB = RP d) AC = RQ

17. The factors of x4 + x2 + 25, are [1]

a) (x2 +3x + 5)(x2 + 3x -5 ) b) (x2 + 3x + 5)(x2 - 3x + 5)

c) none of these d) (x2 + x+ 5)(x2 - x + 5)

18. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of [1]

a) a cone and a cylinder b) a cone and a hemisphere

c) a frustum of a cone and a cylinder d) a hemisphere and a cylinder

19. Assertion (A): The side of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm then the height of the triangle is 9 cm. [1]
√3
Reason (R): The height of an equilateral triangle is 2
a.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): The graph of the linear equation x - 2y = 1 passes through the point (3, 1). [1]
Reason (R): Every point lying on graph is not a solution of x - 2y = 1.

Page 3 of 20
51
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The base of an isosceles triangle measures 80 cm and its area is 360 cm2. Find the perimeter of the triangle. [2]

22. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in the below figure: [2]

23. A cylinder and a cone have equal heights and equal radii of their bases. If their curved surface areas are in the [2]
ratio 8:5. Show that the ratio of radius to height of each is 3:4.
24. If O is the centre of the circle, find the value of x in given figure: [2]

OR

In given figure, ∠ AOC = 120o. Find ∠ BDC.

25. Write four solutions of the equation: πx + y = 9 [2]

OR
Solve the following equation for x: (5x + 1)(x + 3) - 8 = 5(x + 1)(x + 2)
Section C
−−
26. Locate √13 on the number line. [3]
27. Factorize: 6x 2
+ 5x − 6 [3]
28. The triangular side walls of a flyover have been used for advertisements. The sides of the walls are 122 m, 22 m [3]

and 120 m (see Fig.). The advertisements yield an earning of ₹ 5000 per m2 per year. A company hired one of its
walls for 3 months. How much rent did it pay?

Page 4 of 20
52
 OR
The cost of leveling the ground in the form of a triangle having the sides 51m, 37m and 20m at the rate of Rs.3 per
m2 is Rs.918. State whether the statement is true or false and justify your answer.
29. A family spends Rs. 500 monthly as a fixed amount on milk and extra milk costs Rs.20 per kg. Taking quantity [3]
of extra milk as x and total expenditure on milk as y. Write a linear equation and fill the table.

x 0 - 2

y - 1000 -

30. AB is a line segment and P is the mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB such that ∠ BAD = ∠ [3]
ABE and ∠ EPA = ∠ DPB. Show that:
i. ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP
ii. AD = BE (See figure)

OR
In figure, AC = BC, ∠ DCA = ∠ ECB and ∠ DBC = ∠ EAC. Prov triangles DBC and EAC are congruent, and hence
DC = EC and BD = AE.

31. In fig find the vertices' co-ordinates of △ABC [3]

Section D
– – –
32. Write the following in the descending order of magnitude. √2, √3, √5 . [5]
3 6

Page 5 of 20
53
 OR
5−√21
If x = 2
, prove that (x3
+
x
1
3
) − 5 (x
2
+
1

x
2
) + (x +
1

x
) = 0 .
33. In Fig, name the following: [5]

i. Five line segments

ii. Five rays
iii. Four collinear points
iv. Two pairs of non-intersecting line segments
34. Prove that the bisectors of a pair of vertically opposite angles are in the same straight line. [5]
OR
In each of the figures given below, AB ∥ CD. Find the value of x in each case. ∘

35. A survey conducted by an organisation for the cause of illness and death among the women between the ages 15 [5]
- 44 (in years) worldwide, found the following figure (in %):

S.No. Cause of illness and death Female fatality rate (%)

1 Reproductive health conditions 32

2 Neuropsychiatric conditions 26

3 Injuries 13

4 Cardiovascular conditions 5

5 Respiratory conditions 4

6 Other causes 20

i. Represent the information given above graphically.

ii. Which condition is the major cause of women's ill health and death worldwide?
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A Ferris wheel (or a big wheel in the United Kingdom) is an amusement ride consisting of a rotating upright
wheel with multiple passenger-carrying components (commonly referred to as passenger cars, cabins, tubs,
capsules, gondolas, or pods) attached to the rim in such a way that as the wheel turns, they are kept upright,
usually by gravity.
After taking a ride in Ferris wheel, Aarti came out from the crowd and was observing her friends who were
enjoying the ride . She was curious about the different angles and measures that the wheel will form. She forms

Page 6 of 20
54
 the figure as given below

(i) Find ∠ ROQ.

(ii) Find ∠ ​RQP.
(iii) Find ∠ ​RSQ.
OR
Find ∠ ​ORP.
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The front compound wall of a house is decorated by wooden spheres of diameter 21 cm, placed on small
supports as shown in figure. 25 such spheres are used for this purpose and are to be painted silver. Each support
is a cylinder and is to be painted black.

(i) what will be the total surface area of the spheres all around the wall?
(ii) Find the cost of orange paint required if this paint costs 20 paise per cm2.
(iii) How much orange paint in liters is required for painting the supports if the paint required is 3 ml per cm2?
OR
What will be the volume of total spheres all around the wall?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Harish makes a poster in the shape of a parallelogram on the topic SAVE ELECTRICITY for an inter-school
competition as shown in the follow figure.

(i) If ∠ A = (4x + 3)o and ∠ D = (5x - 3)o, then find the measure of ∠ B.
(ii) If ∠ B = (2y)o and ∠ D = (3y - 6)o, then find the value of y.
(iii) If ∠ A = (2x - 3)o and ∠ C = (4y + 2)o, then find how x and y relate.

Page 7 of 20
55
 OR
If AB = (2y - 3) and CD = 5 cm then what is the value of y?

Page 8 of 20
56
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 9

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
1. The ordinate of every point on the x-axis is [1]

a) 1 b) any real number

c) 0 d) -1
2. The sides of a triangle are 325 m, 300 m and 125 m. Its area is [1]

a) 48750 m2 b) 18750 m2

c) 97500 m2 d) 37500 m2

3. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ∠DBA = 35

o
, then the measure of ∠AC B is equal to [1]

a) 65 o
b) 55
o

c) 45 o
d) 60
o

4. In the given figure, ABCD is a Rectangle. Find the values of x and y? [1]

Page 1 of 18
57
 a) x = 120° and y = 120° b) x = 50° and y = 60°

c) x = 55° and y = 35° d) x = 60° and y = 70°

1 1

5. The value of 7 2
⋅8 2
is [1]

a) (28) 1/2
b) (56)
1/2

c) (14) 1/2
d) (42)
1/2

6. In the given figure, BO and CO are the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C respectively. If ∠A = 50

∘
then ∠BOC = ? [1]

a) 115o b) 130o

c) 100o d) 120o

7. Which of the following is not a solution of 2x – 3y = 12? [1]

a) (0, -4) b) (2, 3)

c) (6, 0) d) (3, -2)

8. If x + 1

x
= 3, then the value of x 2
+
1

2
x
is [1]

a) 0 b) 7

c) 1 d) 9

9. The number of consecutive zeros in 23 × 34 × 54 × 7, is [1]

a) 4 b) 5

c) 2 d) 3

10. The diagonals AC and BD of a rectangle ABCD intersect each other at P. If ∠ ABD = 50o, then ∠ DPC = [1]

a) 70o b) 80o

c) 90o d) 100o

11. Choose the rational number which does not lie between − 2

3
and −
1

5
[1]

a) − 7

20
b) −
3

10

c) − 1

4
d) 3

10

12. The equation x - 2 = 0 on number line is represented by [1]

a) infinitely many lines b) two lines

Page 2 of 18
58
 c) a point d) a line
13. In the given figure, the value of x which makes POQ a straight line is: [1]

a) 40° b) 30°

c) 35° d) 25°
1 1

[1]
14. The value of is
3
9 ×27 2

−1 1

6 3
3 ×3

a) 27 b) 9

c) 1 d) 3
15. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠ ACB = 30°. Then, ∠ AOB = ? [1]

a) 90° b) 60°

c) 30° d) 15°
16. The point (7, 0) lies [1]

a) on the positive direction of y-axis b) on the positive direction of x-axis

c) in quadrant IV d) in quadrant II
17. The equation of x-axis is [1]

a) y = 0 b) x = 0

c) y = k d) x = k

18. The degree of the polynomial (x3 - 2)(x2 - 11) is [1]

a) 0 b) 5

c) 3 d) 2
19. Assertion (A): In ΔABC, median AD is produced to X such that AD = DX. Then ABXC is a parallelogram. [1]
Reason (R): Diagonals AX and BC bisect each other at right angles.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

– – – – –
20. Assertion (A): If √2 = 1.414, √3 = 1.732, then √5 = √2 + √3 . [1]
Reason (R): Square root of a positive real number always exists.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

Page 3 of 18
59
 c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. In how many lines two distinct planes can intersect? [2]
22. In fig., if AC = BD, then prove that AB = CD [2]

23. Name the quadrant in which the following points lie: (i) A(2, 9) (ii) B(–3, 5) (iii) C(–4, –7) (iv) D(3, –2) [2]
24. Find five rational numbers between 3

5
and 2

3
[2]
OR
Rationalise the denominator: 4
.
2+√3+√7

25. Find the volume and surface area of a sphere whose radius is 5m. [2]
OR
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose edge is 9 cm.
Section C
– –
26. If √2 = 1.414 and √3 = 1.732, find the value of
5
[3]
√2+√3

27. The following table gives the marks scored by 100 students in an entrance examination. [3]

Mark: 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80

No. of Students
4 10 16 22 20 18 8 2
(Frequency):

Represent this data in the form of a histogram.

28. In the following figure, triangle ABC is right angled at B. Given that AB = 9 cm., AC = 15 cm and D, E are the [3]
mid-points of AB and AC respectively.

Calculate :
i. The length of BC
ii. The area of △ADE.
29. Find solutions of the form x = a, y = 0 and x = 0, y = b for the following pairs of equations. Do they have any [3]
common such solution for equations 9x + 7y = 63 and x + y = 10
30. Following table shows a frequency distribution for the speed of cars passing through at a particular spot on a [3]
high way:

Class interval (km/h) Frequency

30 - 40 3

40 - 50 6

50 - 60 25

60 - 70 65

70 - 80 50

Page 4 of 18
60
 80 - 90 28

90 - 100 14

Draw histogram and frequency polygon representing the data above.

OR
The following data on the number of girls (to the nearest ten) per thousand boys in different sections of Indian society
is given below.

Section Number of girls per thousand boys

Scheduled Caste (SC) 940

Scheduled Tribe (ST) 970

Non SC/ST 920

Backward districts 950

Non-backward districts 920

Rural 930

Urban 910

i. Represent the information above by a bar graph.

ii. In the classroom discuss what conclusion can be arrived at from the graph.
–
31. Find the value of k, if x - 1 is a factor of p(x) in case: p(x) 2
= kx − √2x + 1 [3]
Section D
32. In the given figure, AB || CD. Prove that p + q - r = 180. [5]

OR
Fig., AB || CD and CD || EF. Also, EA ⊥ AB. If ∠ BEF = 55°, find the values of x, y and z.

33. A tent is in the shape of a right circular cylinder up to a height of 3 m and conical above it. The total height of [5]
the tent is 13.5 m and the radius of its base is 14 m. Find the cost of cloth required to make the tent at the rate of
Rs.80 per square metre. [Take π = 22/7 ]
34. The perimeter of a right triangle is 144 cm and its hypotenuse measures 65 cm. Find the lengths of other sides [5]
and calculate its area. Verify the result using Heron's Formula.
OR
The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 13 cm and 12 cm. Find the length of perpendicular from the opposite

Page 5 of 18
61
 vertex to the side whose length is 12 cm.
35. If a + b + c = 5 and ab + bc + ca = 10, then prove that a 3
+ b
3 3
+ c − 3abc = −25 [5]
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Reeta was studying in the class 9th C of St. Surya Public school, Mehrauli, New Delhi-110030
Once Ranjeet and his daughter Reeta were returning after attending teachers' parent meeting at Reeta's school.
As the home of Ranjeet was close to the school so they were coming by walking.
Reeta asked her father, "Daddy how old are you?"
Ranjeet said, "Sum of ages of both of us is 55 years, After 10 years my age will be double of you.

(i) What is the second equation formed?

(ii) What is the present age of Reeta in years?
(iii) What is the present age of Ranjeet in years?
OR
If the ratio of age of Reeta and her mother is 3 : 7 then what is the age of Reeta's mother in years?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A children's park is in the shape of isosceles triangle said PQR with PQ = PR, S and T are points on QR such
that QT = RS.

(i) Which rule is applied to prove that congruency of △PQS and △PRT.
(ii) Name the type of △PST.
(iii) If PQ = 6 cm and QR = 7 cm, then find perimeter of △PQR.
OR

If ∠ QPR = 80o find ∠ PQR?

38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
There was a circular park in Defence colony at Delhi. For fencing purpose poles A, B, C and D were installed at
the circumference of the park.
Ram tied wires From A to B, B to C and C to D, and he managed to measure the ∠ A = 100° and ∠ D = 80°

Page 6 of 18
62
Point O in the middle of the park is the center of the circle.

(i) Name the quadrilateral ABCD.

(ii) What is the value of ∠ C?
(iii) What is the value of ∠B .
OR
Write any three properties of cyclic quadrilateral?

Page 7 of 18
63
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Mathematics
Sample Question Paper - 10

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A-E.

2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.

3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.

4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.

5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.

6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2

marks each respectively.

7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of

2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided in the 2marks questions of Section E.

8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.

Section A
−1

1. (1296) 4
= [1]

a) 6 b) −
1

c) -6 d) 1

2. The graph of y = 6 is a line [1]

a) Parallel to x-axis at a distance 6 units from b) Making an intercept 6 on the x- axis.

the origin

c) Making an intercept 6 on both the axes. d) Parallel to y-axis at a distance 6 units from
the origin
3. Signs of the abscissa and ordinate of a point in the second quadrant are respectively. [1]

a) (-, +) b) (+, -)

c) (+, +) d) (-, -)
4. In a histogram the area of each rectangle is proportional to [1]

a) the class size of the corresponding class b) cumulative frequency of the corresponding
interval class interval

c) the class mark of the corresponding class d) frequency of the corresponding class
interval interval

Page 1 of 19
64
 5. If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3y = k, then the value of k is [1]

a) 2 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6
6. The things which are double of the same things are [1]

a) equal b) halves of the same thing

c) unequal d) double of the same thing

7. In the figure, POQ is a line. The value of x is [1]

a) 25° b) 30°

c) 20° d) 35°
8. If a diagonal AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD bisect each other, then ABCD is a [1]

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus

c) Rectangle d) Triangle
9. If 10x − 4x 2
− 3 , then the value of p(0) + p(1) is [1]

a) -3 b) 0

c) 3 d) 1
10. The cost of a notebook is twice the cost of a pen. The equation to represent this statement is [1]

a) 2x = 3y b) x = 3y

c) none of these d) x - 2y = 0
11. In △ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD such that BE produced meets AC at F. If AC = 10.5 cm, then AF = [1]

a) 2.5 cm b) 5 cm

c) 3 cm d) 3.5 cm
12. D and E are the mid-points of the sides AB and AC of △ABC and O is any point on the side BC, O is joined to [1]
A. If P and Q are the mid-points of OB and OC res, Then DEQP is

a) A Triangle b) A Rectangle

c) A Rhombus d) A Parallelogram
13. In a figure, O is the centre of the circle with AB as diameter. If ∠AOC o
= 40 , the value of x is equal to [1]

a) 80 o
b) 50
o

c) 70 o
d) 60
o

Page 2 of 19
65
 p
14. The value of 1.9999………………. in the form q
, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ are integers and q ≠ 0, is [1]

a) 1999

1000
b) 19

10

c) 2 d) 1

15. The force applied on a body is directly proportional to the acceleration produced on it. The equation to represent [1]
the above statement is

a) y = kx b) y = x

c) y + x = 0 d) none of these
16. In a △ABC , if 3∠A = 4∠B = 6∠C then A : B : C = ? [1]

a) 6 : 4 : 3 b) 2 : 3 : 4

c) 3 : 4 : 6 d) 4 : 3 : 2
17. To draw a histogram to represent the following frequency distribution : [1]

Class interval 5-10 10-15 15-25 25-45 45-75

Frequency 6 12 10 8 15

The adjusted frequency for the class 25-45 is

a) 6 b) 5

c) 2 d) 3
18. To make a closed hollow cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm, the area of metal sheet required is [1]

a) 704 cm2 b) 825 cm2

c) 1100 cm2 d) 550 cm2

19. Assertion (A): The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. Its area is 6 cm2. [1]
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
Reason (R): If 2s = (a + b + c), where a, b, c are the sides of a triangle, then area = √(s − a)(s − b)(s − c).

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): The equation of 2x + 5 = 0 and 3x + y = 5 both have degree 1. [1]
Reason (R): The degree of a linear equation in two variables is 2.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A triangular park ABC has sides 120 m, 80 m and 50 m (in a given figure). A gardener Dhania has to put a fence [2]
all around it and also plant grass inside. How much area does she need to plant? Find the cost of fencing it with
barbed wire at the rate of ₹ 20 per metre leaving a space 3m wide for a gate on one side.

Page 3 of 19
66
22. Find an angle marked as x in given figure where O is the centre of the circle: [2]

23. A hemispherical bowl made of brass has inner diameter 10.5 cm. Find the cost of tin-plating it on the inside at [2]
the rate of ₹32 per 100 cm2.
24. In Fig., BC is tangent to the circle at point B of circle centred at O. BD is a chord of the circle so that ∠ BAD = [2]

55o. Find m ∠ DBC.

OR
In given figure, AOB is a diameter of the circle and C, D, E are any three points on the semi-circle. Find the value of
∠ ACD + ∠ BED.

25. Express the linear equation in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c in 2x + 3y = [2]
¯
¯¯
9.35

OR
Find whether(4, 0) is the solution of the equation x – 2y = 4 or not?
Section C

26. Solve the equation for x: 32x+4 + 1 = 2 × 3x+2 [3]

27. Find the value of the polynomial 3x3 - 4x2 + 7x - 5, when x = 3 and also when x = -3. [3]
28. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of the equal side to its base is 3: 2. Find the area of the [3]
triangle.
OR

Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50 m, 65 m and 65 m at the rate of Rs7 per m2.
29. Find the solution of the linear equation x + 2y = 8 which represents a point on [3]
i. The x-axis
ii. The y-axis
30. P is the mid-point of the side CD of a parallelogram ABCD. A line through C parallel to PA intersects AB at Q [3]
and DA produced at R. Prove that DA = AR and CQ = QR.
OR
Show that the quadrilateral formed by joining the mid-points the sides of a rhombus, taken in order, form a rectangle.
31. Write the answer of each of the following questions: [3]
i. What is the name of horizontal and the vertical lines drawn to determine the position of any point in the
Cartesian plane?

Page 4 of 19
67
 ii. What is the name of each part of the plane formed by these two lines?
iii. Write the name of the point where these two lines intersect.
Section D
–
[5]
7+3√5 7−3√5
32. Find the values of a and b if 3+√5
−
3−√5
= a + b√5 .
OR

then find the value of a2 + b2 - 4ab.

√2+1 √2−1
If a = and b = ,
√2−1 √2+1

33. In the adjoining figure, name: [5]

i. Two pairs of intersecting lines and their corresponding points of intersection
ii. Three concurrent lines and their points of intersection
iii. Three rays
iv. Two line segments

34. In each of the figures given below, AB ∥ CD. Find the value of x in each case.
∘
[5]

OR
In each of the figures given below, AB ∥ CD. Find the value of x in each other case.
∘

35. What must be added to x4 + 2x3 - 2x2 + x - 1 so that the result is exactly divisible by x2 + 2x - 3 [5]
Section E
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Ladli Scheme was launched by the Delhi Government in the year 2008. This scheme helps to make women
strong and will empower a girl child. This scheme was started in 2008.
The expenses for the scheme are plotted in the following bar chart.

Page 5 of 19
68
 (i) What are the total expenses from 2009 to 2011?
(ii) What is the percentage of no of expenses in 2009-10 over the expenses in 2010-11?
(iii) What is the percentage of minimum expenses over the maximum expenses in the period 2007-2011?
OR
What is the difference of expenses in 2010-11 and the expenses in 2006-09?
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Once upon a time in Ghaziabad was a corn cob seller. During the lockdown period in the year 2020, his business
was almost lost.
So, he started selling corn grains online through Amazon and Flipcart. Just to understand how many grains he
will have from one corn cob, he started counting them.
Being a student of mathematics let's calculate it mathematically. Let's assume that one corn cob (see Fig.),
shaped somewhat like a cone, has the radius of its broadest end as 2.1 cm and length as 20 cm.

(i) Find the curved surface area of the corn cub.

(ii) What is the volume of the corn cub?
(iii) If each 1 cm2 of the surface of the cob carries an average of four grains, find how many grains you would
find on the entire cob?
OR
How many such cubs can be stored in a cartoon of size 20 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]

Page 6 of 19
69
Haresh and Deep were trying to prove a theorem. For this they did the following

i. Draw a triangle ABC

ii. D and E are found as the mid points of AB and AC
iii. DE was joined and DE was extended to F so DE = EF
iv. FC was joined.
(i) △ ADE and △EFC are congruent by which criteria?
(ii) Show that CF∥ AB.
(iii) Show that CF = BD.
OR
Show that DF = BC and DF∥ BC.

Page 7 of 19
70
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Ram heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the beaker as a [1]
function of time. Which of the following would correctly represent the result?

a) III b) IV

c) I d) II
2. Robert Brown is a well known scientist as he discovered ________. [1]

a) Lysosme b) Cell

c) Nucleus d) Vacuole
3. A car travels 10 m in 5 seconds, 20 m in the next 10 seconds, and 30 m in the last 10 seconds. The average speed [1]
of the motion is:

a) 30 ms-1 b) 2.2 ms-1

c) 2.4 ms-1 d) 2.0 ms-1

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 4. Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include [1]

a) strict cleaning b) fumigation

c) all of these d) proper drying

5. While preparing a temporary mount of cheek cells, teacher asked Rohit to pick up the stain. He had four bottles [1]
A, B, C, and D containing methylene blue, glycerine, distilled water, Canada balsum. Which one should he pick?

a) B b) C

c) D d) A
6. The primary function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cells is: [1]

a) detoxification b) protein synthesis

c) carbohydrate metabolism d) catabolism of proteins

7. A change in the physical state can be brought about [1]

a) when energy is either given to, or taken out b) without any energy change
from the system

c) only when energy is taken out from the d) only when energy is given to the system
system
8. Roshini is making a temporary mount of onion peel. What precautions should be taken to avoid the entry of air [1]
bubbles in the slide?

a) Coverslip should be gently dropped over the b) Peel should be immersed in stain for over an
peel hour

c) Peel should be allowed to fold over itself d) Coverslip should be dropped on to the peel
once or twice from a certain height
9. In the experiment to establish the relation between loss in weight of an immersed solid with the weight of water [1]
displaced by it, the upthrust experience by the object in tap water and in salty water are Uw and Us respectively,
then :

a) Uw < Us b) Uw > Us

c) Uw = Us d) Us = 2Uw

10. A car accelerates uniformly from 18 km/h to 36 km/h in 5 minutes. The acceleration is [1]

a) 5 ms-1 b) 1 ms-2

c) 1 km/s2 d) 216 ms-2

11. How many electrons are present in the species He2+ ion? [1]

a) 2 b) 0

c) 4 d) 8
12. On observing onion peel slide under low power of compound microscope which set of structures are clearly [1]
seen.

a) Nucleus, cell membrane, vacuole, b) Cell Wall, vacuole, nucleus, cytoplasm

chromosomes

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 c) Cell wall, cell membrane, mitochondria, d) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole, chromosomes.
vacuole
13. Which of the following is an incorrect pair? [1]
A. Lysosome - Secretory granules.
B. Nucleus - Brain of the cell
C. Mitochondria - a powerhouse of the cell
D. Chloroplast - Kitchen of the cell

a) (A) b) (D)

c) (B) d) (C)
14. Tyndall effect is observed in which one of the following? [1]

a) True solution b) Starch + Water

c) Alum + Water d) NaCl + Water

15. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature [1]
i. ice
ii. wood
iii. soil
iv. air

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)

16. ________ crops are grown during the rainy season, in the months of June to October. [1]

a) Kharif b) Oil

c) Cereal d) Rabi
17. Assertion (A): If a particle is moving with constant velocity, then the average velocity for any time interval is [1]
equal to instantaneous velocity.
Reason (R): If average velocity of a particle moving on a straight line is zero for a given time interval, then
instantaneous velocity at some instant within this interval may be zero.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Naphthalene, camphor, iodine, ammonium chloride are some common examples of the [1]
substances which undergo sublimation.
Reason (R): All solids are first converted to liquids and then gases on heating.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of complex plants. [1]
Reason (R): Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants possible in the terrestrial environments.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Rutherford’s atomic model was that it could not explain the stability of atoms. [1]
Reason (R): Any charged particle during acceleration would radiate energy, and while revolving, it would lose
its energy and eventually fall into the nucleus.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

21. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic [2]
energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased to three
times?
OR
It is possible that an object is in the state nof accelerated motion due to external force acting on it, but no work is
being done by the force? Explain with example.
22. Why are gases highly compressible? [2]
23. A stone is dropped in a well 44.1 m deep. The sound of splash is heard, 3.13 s after the stone is dropped. Find [2]
the velocity of the sound in air. (Take g = 9.8 ms-2)
24. Explain why should we wear cotton clothes in summer. [2]

25. A force of 5 N gives a mass m1, an acceleration of 10 ms-2 and a mass m2, an acceleration of 20 ms-2. What [2]

acceleration would it give if both the masses were tied together?

OR
Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high speed.
26. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars. [2]
Section C
27. i. What is meant by frequency of sound waves? [3]
ii. Give the range of frequencies of sound waves that an average human ear can detect.
iii. A source of wave produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 0.2 s. The distance between a crest and next trough is
50 cm. Find the
a. wavelength
b. frequency
c. time period of the wave.
28. Study the data given below and answer the questions which follow: [3]

Particle Electrons Protons Neutrons

A 2 3 4

B 10 9 8

C 8 8 8

D 8 8 10

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 i. Write the mass number and atomic number of particles A, B, C, D.
ii. Which particles represent a pair of isotopes? Explain.
29. A ball starts from rest and rolls down 16 m down an inclined plane in 4 s. [3]
(a) What is the acceleration of the ball?
(b) What is the velocity of the ball at the bottom of the inclined plane?
OR
Discuss the graphs A, B and C shown in the figure. Compare the total distance travelled and the displacements.
Which graph represents a motion with negative acceleration?

30. Prachi and Kanchi were observing a building having two different staircase. One slanting and other vertically [3]
spiral. Prachi was of the opinion that a person using slanting staircase will be doing more work against gravity
but Kanchi thought otherwise. They started arguing. Sanchi, their friend, explained and gave entirely different
view and pacified them.
a. What according to you was the explanation given by Sanchi?
b. What appreciable values do you see in the Sanchi?
31. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of a floor is shown in the figure. Find the force acting [3]
on the ball if the mass of the ball is 50 g.

32. Write main differences between plant cell and animal cell. [3]
OR
A solution of 3% glucose and a solution of 8% glucose are kept in a trough separated by a semipermeable membrane.
What will you observe after 1 hour?
33. Briefly describe striated and smooth muscles with their functions. [3]
Section D
34. What are the differences between the mass of the object and its weight? [5]
OR
A stone is dropped from the edge of a roof.
i. How long does it take to fall 4.9 m?

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 ii. How fast does it move at the end of that fall?
iii. How fast does it move at the end of 7.9 m?
iv. What is its acceleration after 1s and after 2 s?
35. Why are mitochondria called powerhouse of the cell? Give three similarities and one difference between [5]
mitochondria and plastid.
OR
i. State what will happen when human red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic salt/sugar solution.
ii. Why plant cell shrinks when kept in a hypertonic solution.
iii. Why lysosomes are known as suicidal bags?
36. Distinguish between compounds and mixtures. [5]
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Animal tissue has various types of epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue and of
tissue one of them is the connective tissue which consists of blood, bone, cartilage. Blood is the fluid matrix
called plasma in which red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelet are suspended while bone form the
framework that supports the body it also anchors the muscle and supports the main organ of the body. Two bones
are connected by a ligament. cartilage is a solid matrix composed of sugar and protein.
(i) Name the tissue which connects muscle to a bone.
(ii) Matrix of bone cells are composed of
OR
Two bones are connected by ligament how muscle connects to the bone?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Fish is a cheap source of animal protein for our food. Fish liver oil is rich in vitamin A and D. Basically fisheries
are of two types:
i. Fin fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of cartilaginous and bony fishes.
ii. Shell fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of crustaceans (prawns, crabs) and
molluscs (oysters, mussels etc.).
Depending upon the mode of obtaining fish, fisheries are of two types: Capture fishing and Culture fishing.

(i) Mention the two types of fisheries depending upon the mode of obtaining fish.
(ii) Which fatty acid is exclusively found in fish?
(iii) Is Rohu a bony fish or not? In which type of fisheries it is used?
OR
What is the difference between capture fishery and culture fishery?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended
throughout the bulk of the medium. Particles of a suspension are visible to the naked eye. The particles of a
suspension scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible. Due to the relatively smaller size
of particles, as compared to that of a suspension, the mixture appears to be homogeneous. The scattering of a

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beam of light is called the Tyndall effect. The components of a colloidal solution are the dispersed phase and the
dispersion medium. The solute-like component or the dispersed particles in a colloid form the dispersed phase,
and the component in which the dispersed phase is suspended is known as the dispersing medium.

(i) Differentiate between Dispersed phase and Dispersion medium?

(ii) Differentiate between Homogeneous and Heterogeneous mixture?
(iii) What is emulsion?
OR
Give an example of solid sol?​​

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which one of the following is the correct set up to determine the melting point of ice? [1]

a) I b) III

c) IV d) II
2. A eukaryotic nucleus has a: [1]

a) non-porous, single membrane b) porous, single membrane

c) porous, double membrane d) non-porous, double membrane

3. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of the [1]
distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds in cm s-1 is

a) 50 b) 80

c) 30 d) 20
4. Manures are used in sandy soils mainly to [1]

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78
 a) increase the water holding capacity b) avoid waterlogging

c) reduce soil pollution d) provide all essential nutrients to crops

5. Those organs of the body like oral cavity, esophagus, etc., which are subjected to mechanical abrasions are lined [1]
by

a) stratified cuboidal epithelium b) simple squamous epithelium

c) simple columnar epithelium d) stratified squamous epithelium

6. Lysosomes are formed by: [1]

a) SER b) Golgi apparatus

c) Plasma membrane d) RER

7. What information do we get from the molecular formula? [1]
a. It represents one molecule of the substance.
b. It does not tell the name of the substance.
c. It tells about the type of atoms.
d. It represents the formula mass unit of the substance.

a) (b) and (c) are correct b) All of these

c) (a) and (b) are correct d) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
8. Choose the chemical compound with which the specimen is temporarily mounted. [1]

a) Water b) Glycerine

c) Alcohol d) Salt solution

9. The level of water in a measuring cylinder before and after a solid of 8 g mass is fully immersed into it as [1]
shown.The density of the given solid is:

a) 4 g/cm3 b) 3 g/cm3

c) 2 g/cm3 d) 5 g/cm3

10. The maximum speed of a train is 90 km/h. It takes 10 hours to cover a distance of 500 km. The ratio of its [1]
average speed to maximum speed is:

a) 9:5 b) 5:9

c) 1: 5 d) 5:1
11. Fill in the gap using given analogy [1]
Atomic number : Number of protons :: Mass number : _______.

a) Number of protons + Number of electrons b) Number of neutrons + Number of protons

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79
 c) Number of electrons d) Number of protons
12. Cambium is an example of [1]

a) simple permanent tissue b) internally meristem

c) lateral meristem d) apical meristem

13. Ribosomes are the centre for: [1]

a) Respiration b) Fat synthesis

c) Photosynthesis d) Proteins synthesis

14. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called [1]

a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as b) dissolution and it is a physical

chemical change

c) dissolution and it is a chemical change d) corrosion and it is a chemical change

15. Which one of the following will result in the formation of a mixture? [1]

a) Breaking of ice cubes into small pieces b) Adding sodium metal to water

c) Agitating a detergent with water in a d) Crushing of a marble tile into small particles
washing machine
16. Which of one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers. [1]

a) Iron b) Potassium

c) Nitrogen d) Phosphorous
17. Assertion (A): The speed or velocity of a car running on a crowded city, road changes continuously. [1]
Reason (R): The movement of a car on a crowded city road is an example of non-uniform acceleration.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): A gas can be easily compressed by applying pressure. [1]
Reason (R): Since the inter-particle spaces in the gaseous state are very small, they cannot be decreased by
applying pressure.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Parenchyma cells help in storage of food. [1]
Reason (R): Parenchyma cells are the main seats of photosynthesis.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): In Rutherford’s gold foil experiment, very few α-particles are deflected back. [1]
Reason (R): Nucleus present inside the atom is heavy.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Explain why it is difficult to push a tin can into water keeping its mouth upwards than when its mouth is kept [2]
downwards towards the water?
OR
Mountains roads rarely go straight up but wind up gradually. Why?
22. The mass per unit volume of a substance is known as density ( density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in [2]
order of increasing density:Air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.
23. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave? [2]
24. Does the evaporation of a liquid occur only at a fixed temperature? [2]
25. Why does a cricket player move his hands backward while catching the ball? [2]
OR
A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it, and the glass pane is not cracked. But on the other
hand, when a stone strikes the same glass pane, it gets smashed. Why is it so?
26. Find the percentage composition of sucrose C12H22O11. [2]

Section C
27. a. What is meant by reflection of sound? [3]
b. Describe an activity to study the reflection of sound.
c. State the laws of reflection of sound.
28. What is the basic difference between the isotopes of an element? [3]
29. The average time taken by a normal person to react to an emergency is one fifteenth of a second and is called the [3]
'reaction time'. If a bus is moving with a velocity of 60 kmh-1 and its driver sees a child running across the road,
how much distance would the bus had moved before he could press the brakes? The reaction time of the people
increases when they are intoxicated. How much distance had the bus moved if the reaction time of the driver
were 1/2 s under the influence of alcohol?
OR
Suppose you go up a tower 80 m high and throw a ball horizontally with a velocity of 20m/s. What will be the shape
of the path followed by the ball? While falling, the motion of the ball will be a combination of two independent
motions. Name these two motions.
30. Give reason : An iron nail sinks in water, but a ship made of iron floats. [3]
31. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of floor is shown in the figure. Calculate the force [3]
acting on the ball, if the mass of the ball is 100 g.

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81
32. What are the differences between cell wall and cell membrane? [3]
OR
How do substances like CO2 and water move into and out of the cell ? Discuss.

33. i. Which process in meristematic tissue converts it to permanent tissue? [3]

ii. Which feature of meristematic tissue helps aquatic plants to maintain buoyancy in water?
iii. Why epidermis of plants living in dry habitats is thicker?
iv. Identify the following.
a. Living component of xylem
b. Dead element of phloem
v. Which type of conducting tissues conduct water and minerals vertically?
Section D
34. i. A steel needle sinks in water but a steel ship floats. Explain, how? [5]
ii. Why do you prefer a broad and thick handle of your suitcase?
OR
From a cliff of 49 m high, a man drops a stone. One second later, he throws another stone. They both hit the ground
at the same time. Find out the speed with which he threw the second stone.
35. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which [5]
i. determines the function and development of the cell
ii. packages materials coming from the endoplasmic reticulum
iii. provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without bursting
iv. is site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life.
v. is a fluid contained inside the nucleus
OR
Grass looks green, papaya appears yellow. Which cell organelle is responsible for this?
36. i. To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293K. Find its [5]
concentration at this temperature.
ii. Calculate the mass of glucose and mass of water required to make 200g of 25% solution of glucose.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The covering or protective tissues in the animal body are epithelial tissues. Epithelium covers most organs and
cavities within the body. It also forms a barrier to keep different body systems separate. Epithelial tissue cells are
tightly packed and form a continuous sheet. The skin, which protects the body, is also made of squamous
epithelium. Skin epithelial cells are arranged in many layers to prevent wear and tear. This columnar epithelium
facilitates movement across the epithelial barrier. In the respiratory tract, the columnar epithelial tissue also has
cilia, which are hair-like projections on the outer surfaces of epithelial cells. Cuboidal epithelium forms the
lining of kidney tubules.
(i) Identify the type of epithelial tissue shown in the following figure.

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 (ii) Which cell is present in the inner lining of the intestine?
OR
Is excretion is the main function of the cuboidal epithelium?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Crop Season: Different crops require different climatic conditions like temperature, moisture and photoperiods
to grow well and complete their life cycle.
The Indian cropping season is classified into two main seasons- (i) Kharif and (ii) Rabi based on the monsoon.
The characteristics of these two main crop seasons are:

(i) Mention the various cropping seasons in India.

(ii) Differentiate between Rabi and Kharif crops.
(iii) If there is low rainfall in a village throughout the year, what measures will you suggest to the farmers for
better cropping ?
OR
What is zaid crop? Give example.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Homogeneous mixtures are regarded as solutions or true solutions. Heterogeneous mixtures are of two types.
These are suspensions and colloidal solutions. These differ in the size of the particles responsible for the

difference in their properties. In a suspension, the particle size is more than 10-5 cm whereas in a colloidal
solution, it ranges between 10-5 cm to 10-7 cm. The two phases which constitute colloidal solutions, are
dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Based upon their nature, the colloidal solutions are classified into eight
types. The mixture of the non-reacting gases is always homogeneous irrespective of their nature. Therefore, it is
not a colloidal solution.
(i) Scattering of light occurs when a beam of light is passed through Blood. Why?
(ii) What is Tyndall effect?
(iii) What is called colloidal solution?
OR
Give an example of colloidal solution and identified their dispersed phase and dispersion medium?

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 3

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Look at the following figure and suggest in which of glass container the rate of evaporation will be highest? [1]

a) II b) I

c) IV d) III
2. The statement 'cells arise only from pre-existing cells' was given by: [1]

a) Louis Pasteur b) Schwann

c) Schleiden d) Rudolf Virchow

3. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 5.5 km away with a speed of 5.5 km h-1. Finding the [1]

market closed he instantly turns and walks back with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the average speed and
average velocity of the man between t = 0 to t = 104 min?

a) 6.36 km h-1, 6.36 km h-1 b) 0, 6.36 km h-1

c) 0, 0 d) 6.36 km h-1, 0

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84
 4. Plants can be made diseases-resistant by [1]

a) both hybridisation and genetic modification b) hybridisation

c) use of antibiotic d) genetic modification

5. Chloroplasts may occur in [1]

a) chlorenchyma and sieve tubes b) xylem parenchyma and sclerenchyma

c) collenchyma and sclerenchyma d) parenchyma and collenchyma

6. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by [1]

a) Mitochondria b) Golgi apparatus

c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum d) Plasma membrane

7. Symbol of Iron is:- [1]

a) Ir b) Fe

c) None of these d) I
8. Name the muscle which is found in visceral organs. [1]

a) Both Serum and Plasma b) Smooth muscle

c) Blood d) Plasma
9. Three students A, B and C determined the volume of a solid by immersing it in water in the overflow cans are [1]
set up as shown. The result obtained will be wrong for :

a) Student A b) All of these

c) Student B d) Student C
10. In which of the following cases of motion, the distance moved and the magnitude of displacement are equal? [1]

a) The earth is revolving around the Sun b) The pendulum is moving to and fro

c) A car is moving on a straight road d) A car is moving in a circular path

11. The first model of an atom was given by [1]

a) Rutherford b) N. Bohr

c) E. Goldstein d) J.J. Thomson

12. Which of the following cells is found in the cartilaginous tissue of the body? [1]

a) Osteocytes b) Mast cells

c) Basophils d) Chondrocytes
13. Cell arises from the pre-existing cell was stated by [1]

a) Virchow b) Purkinje

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85
 c) Robert Hook d) Robert Brown
14. A student mixed the white of an egg with water and stirred it well. After sometimes he observe that: [1]

a) egg white settles down at the bottom b) a transparent solution is formed

c) a translucent mixture is formed d) egg white floats on the surface of the water
15. A change is said to be a physical change when [1]

a) No energy change occurs b) All statements are correct

c) The change can be easily reversed d) No new substances are formed

16. Which of the following type of irrigation system is used in areas closer to rivers? [1]

a) Dug wells b) Tanks

c) River lift d) Canals

17. Assertion (A): When the displacement of a body is directly proportional to the square of the time. Then the [1]
body is moving with uniform acceleration.
Reason (R): The slope of velocity-time graph with time axis gives acceleration.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Solids have fixed shape but rubber band being solid can change its shape. [1]
Reason (R): When force is applied, then the rubber band changes its shape and regain its shape.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Dendrite is a single, long cylindrical process which forms fine branches terminally. [1]
Reason (R): It consists of short processes arising from the cyton.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Atomic mass number is the number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom. [1]
Reason (R): All atoms of an element have the same atomic number.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process? [2]
OR
Define average power.
22. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102° C at normal pressure. Is water pure? Will this water [2]
freeze at 0° C? Comment.

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23. A sound wave has a frequency 2 kHz and wavelength 40 cm. How long will it take to travel 1.6 km? [2]
24. Give an experiment to show that ammonium chloride undergoes sublimation. [2]
25. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 ms-1 across the frozen surface of a lake and comes to rest after [2]

travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction between the stone and the ice?
OR
Why can a small mass such as a bullet kill a person when fired from a gun?

26. Write the electronic configuration of a positively charged sodium ion (Na+). Atomic number of sodium is 11. [2]
Section C
27. i. What is echo ranging? State any one application of this technique. [3]
ii. The wavelength of waves produced on the surface of the water is 20 cm. If the wave velocity is 36 m/s.
Calculate
a. The number of waves produced in one second.
b. The time required to produce one wave?
[3]

28.

i. Identify the ion from the given figure.

ii. Write the electronic configuration of the ion and atom mentioned in the figure.
iii. How do we get the number of protons as 12?

29. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 ms-1. If the acceleration of the stone [3]

during its motion is 10 ms-2in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how
much time will it take to reach there?
OR
An electron moving with a velocity of 5× 104 ms-1 enters into a uniform electric field and acquires a uniform
acceleration of 104 ms-2 in the direction of its initial motion.
i. Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.
ii. How much distance the electron would cover in this time?
30. Shyam and his friends were playing with a catapult (gulel) in his garden. Several mangoes were dislodged and [3]
fell with the help of catapult. One of his friend was aiming the catapult on a bird. Shyam prevented him from
doing so.
a. Name the energy possessed by the stretched string of the catapult.
b. What will happen if the stone is thrown without stretching the string of a catapult?
c. Why did Shyam prevent his friend from aiming at the bird? Which quality is highlighted in Shyam's
behaviour?

31. i. Explain, why is it difficult to walk on sand? [3]

ii. Why is the recoil of a heavy gun, on firing, not so strong as that of a light gun using the same cartridge?
32. Differentiate between chromatin and chromosome. [3]

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 OR
What happens when cell is placed in -
(a) Hypertonic solution
(b) Hypotonic solution
(c) Isotonic solution
33. Write a note on the protective tissue in plants. (Give appropriate diagram also). [3]
Section D
34. i. At some moment, two giant planets Jupiter and Saturn of the solar system are in the same line as seen from [5]
the earth. Find the total gravitational force due to them on a person of mass 50 kg on the earth. Could the
force due to the planets be important?

Mass of the Jupiter = 2 × 1027 kg

Mass of the Saturn = 6 × 1026 kg

The distance of Jupiter from the earth = 6.3 × 1011 m

The distance of Saturn from the earth = 1.28 × 1012 m

ii. A bag of sugar weighs 'w' at a certain place on the equator. If this bag is taken to Antarctica, then will it
weigh the same or more or less. Give a reason for your answer.
OR
A stone is dropped from a 100 m high tower. How long does it take to fall?
a. the first 50 m and
b. the second 50 m.
35. Write a note on Golgi apparatus and the functions it performs. [5]
OR
Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell.
36. i. What factors affect the solubility of solvent and solute? [5]
ii. State the differences between compounds and mixtures
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In older plants, the outer protective layer that is epidermis undergoes certain changes the epidermis of the stem is
replaced. There is cork cambium which is simple tissue having one type of the cell. The cell of cork cambium
are rectangular and their protoplast is vacuolated contain tannins. The cork cambium gives off new cell from its
both side. The cell of the cork cambium is dead and compactly arranged without the intercellular space and there
is suberin deposition.
(i) The epidermis of the cell is replaced by?
(ii) How does a cork acts as a protective tissue?
OR
There is suberin deposition what is the main disadvantage?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Fish is a cheap source of animal protein for our food. Fish liver oil is rich in vitamin A and D. Basically fisheries
are of two types:
i. Fin fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of cartilaginous and bony fishes.

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 ii. Shell fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of crustaceans (prawns, crabs) and
molluscs (oysters, mussels etc.).
Depending upon the mode of obtaining fish, fisheries are of two types: Capture fishing and Culture fishing.

(i) Mention the two types of fisheries depending upon the mode of obtaining fish.
(ii) Which fatty acid is exclusively found in fish?
(iii) Is Rohu a bony fish or not? In which type of fisheries it is used?
OR
What is the difference between capture fishery and culture fishery?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A solution of a solid in a liquid such as water can be prepared by adding it slowly to water with constant stirring
at a certain temperature (room temperature). If the addition process is continued, a stage is ultimately reached in
the dissolution process when no more of the solid dissolves. Rather it starts setlling at the bottom of the
container such as a glass beaker. The solution at this stage is said to be saturated. The solubility of a solute is
always expressed with respect to the saturated solution. It may be defined as the maximum amount of the solute
that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent to form a saturated solution at a given temperature. Please
remember that the role of temperature is very important. If temperature is increased, the solution becomes
unsaturated. In case the temperature is decreased, the solution becomes supersaturated. As a result, crust of the
solute gets deposited on the surface.
(i) What do mean by the term Solubility?
(ii) 20 g of a solute are dissolved in 500 g of the solvent. The solubility of the solute is:
(iii) When a saturated solution becomes unsaturated?
OR
What do you mean by concentration of solution?

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 4

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which of the changes is/are endothermic? [1]

a) P, S b) S

c) P,Q,S d) R
2. Four strips are cut from a fresh potato. The length of each strip is measured. One strip is placed in water and [1]
others in different concentrations of sugar solution. After an hour, the strips were measured again. The results are
shown in the table. Which of the liquids P, Q, R and S is water?

Liquid Original length of strip (mm) Final length of strip (mm)

P 75 75

Q 78 80

R 82 80

S 86 85

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 a) Q b) S

c) P d) R
3. The water drop falls at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving the tap at [1]
instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop at that instant? (Take g =

10 m S-2)

a) 2.50 m b) 1.25 m

c) 4.00 m d) 3.75 m
4. Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilizers? [1]

a) Potassium b) Nitrogen

c) Phosphorus d) Iron
5. Which of the following tissues has dead cells? [1]

a) Collenchyma b) Epithelial tissue

c) Parenchyma d) Sclerenchyma
6. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed [1]

a) plasmolysis b) endocytosis

c) both exocytosis and endocytosis d) exocytosis

7. Calculate the formula unit mass of ZnCl2? (nearest approximation) [1]

a) 111 u b) 123 u

c) 124 u d) 137 u
8. Lignified, narrow, elongated and dead cells are found in [1]

a) collenchyma b) phloem

c) parenchyma d) sclerenchyma
9. The water level in a measuring cylinder, before and after immersing a metal cube in it, is shown in the figure. [1]
The volume of the metal cube is:

a) 18 cm3 b) 24 cm3

c) 20 cm3 d) 22 cm3

10. A dancer is demonstrating dance steps along a straight line. The position-time graph of the dancer is given here. [1]

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 The average speed for the dance step depicted by CD is

a) 1 m S-1 b) 1.33 m S-1

c) 0.89 m S-1 d) 2.75 m S-1

11. Which of the following correctly represent the electronic distribution in the Mg atom? [1]

a) 8, 2, 2 b) 2, 8, 2

c) 3, 8, 1 d) 1, 8, 3
12. Tendons help to connect [1]

a) muscle to muscle b) muscle to bone

c) bone to cartage d) bone to bone

13. The well defined nucleus is absent in ________. [1]

a) Prokaryotic cell b) Plant cell

c) Animal cell d) Eukaryotic cell

14. Which one is a physical change? [1]

a) Mixing BaSO4 + NaCl b) Mixing NH3 and HCl

c) Burning magnesium in air d) Adding NaCl to water

15. A food sample turned blue-black after addition of a few drops of iodine solution. This sample contains: [1]

a) starch b) fat

c) protein d) glucose
16. _________ are related to the duration of sunlight. [1]

a) Geotropism b) Photoperiods

c) Pollination d) Phototropism
17. Assertion (A): An object may have acceleration even if it is moving with uniform velocity. [1]
Reason (B): An object may be moving with uniform velocity but it may be changing its direction of motion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Evaporation of spirit from the skin make the skin feel cool. [1]
Reason (R): It liberates latent heat of vaporisation from the skin.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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19. Assertion (A): The cells of sclerenchyma tissue are living. [1]
Reason (R): They are long and narrow as the walls are thickened due to the deposition of lignin.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Isotopes are electrically neutral. [1]
Reason (R): Isotopes of an element have equal number of protons and electrons.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. The Jog falls in Karnataka state are nearly 20 m high 2,000 tonnes of water falls from it in a minute. Calculate [2]

the equivalent power, if all this energy can be utilised. (g = 10 ms-2)

OR
A force of 7N acts on an object. The displacement is say 8 m, in the direction of the force. Let us take it that the force
acts on the object through the displacement. What is the work done in this case?

22. Why is it that on increasing the wind speed the rate of evaporation increases? [2]
23. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced? [2]
24. Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion. Explain. [2]
25. Two persons manage to push a motor car of mass 1,200 kg at a uniform velocity along a level road. The same [2]
motor car can be pushed by three persons to produce an acceleration of 0.2 ms −2
. With what force does each
person push the motor car? Assume that all persons push the motor car with the same muscular effort.
OR
A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance, why does the ball
come to rest?
26. Draw a sketch of Bohr's model of an atom with three shells. [2]
Section C
27. i. Sound is produced when your school bell is struck with a hammer. Why? [3]
ii. A powerful sound signal sent from a ship is received again after 4.8 seconds. How deep is the ocean bottom?
(Speed of sound in water = 1500 m/s).
28. An old man and a scientist were talking about a deserted house. The old man was sure that it was haunted by [3]
ghosts, but the scientist discarded the view saying no one had ever seen a ghost. The old man was annoyed and
challenged the scientist about existence of atoms, sub-atomic particles which also could not be seen.
i. Name the three sub-atomic particles and their discoverers.
ii. Whose viewpoint do you support and why?
29. Write a short note on uniform circular motion. [3]
OR

A train is travelling at a speed of 90 kmh-1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform retardation of 0.5 ms-2.
Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

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30. Figure shows a conveyor belt transporting a package to a raised platform. The belt is driven by a motor. [3]

i. State three types of energy, other than gravitational potential energy, into which the electrical energy supplied
to the motor is converted.
ii. The mass of the package is 36 kg. Calculate the increase in the gravitational potential energy (p.e.) of the
package when it is raised through a vertical height of 2.4 m.
iii. The package is raised through the vertical height of 2.4 m in 4.4 s. Calculate the power needed to raise the
package.
iv. Assume that the power available to raise package is constant. A package of mass greater than 36 kg is raised
through the same height. Suggest explain the effect of this increase in mass on the operation of the belt.
31. The velocity-time graph of an object of mass m = 50 g is shown in the figure. Observe the graph carefully and [3]
answer the following questions.
i. Calculate the force on the object in time interval 0 to 3 s.
ii. Calculate the force on the object in the time interval 6 to 10 s.
iii. Is there any time interval in which no force acts on the object? Justify your answer.

32. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. [3]

Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell

1. Size. Generally small (1 – 10 μ m). 1. Size. Generally large (5 – 100 μ m).

2. Nuclear Region ________ and known as 2. Nuclear Region. Well defined and surrounded by a nuclear
________ membrane.

3. Chromosomes. Single 3. More than one Chromosome

4. Membrane Bound Cell Organelles. Absent. 4. ________

OR
What are the colours absorbed by plants? The green light of the sunlight is blocked. How will the phytosynthesis be
affected?
33. i. What will happen if cells are not properly organised in tissue? [3]
ii. Under certain circumstances squamous epithelium is known as stratified squamous epithelium. Justify.
Section D
34. The weight of any person on the moon is about 1/6 times that on the earth. He can lift a mass of 15 kg on the [5]
earth. What will be the maximum mass, which can be lifted by the same force applied by the person on the
moon?
OR
i. A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case, will it experience a
greater buoyant force? If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the

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 effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water. Give the reason for
each case.
ii. A ball weight 4 kg of density 4000 kg m-3is completely immersed in water of density 103kg m-3. Find the force of

buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 ms-2.)

35. Explain main functional regions of a cell with the help of a diagram. [5]
OR
Write the main functions of atleast ten cell components.
36. Iron filings and sulphur were mixed together and divided into two parts, A and B. Part A was heated strongly [5]
while part B was not heated. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added to both the parts and evolution of gas was seen
in both the cases. How will you identify the gases evolved?
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The tissue is a group of cells having similar origin, structure& function. Study of tissues is called Histology. In
unicellular organism (Amoeba) single cell performs all basic functions, whereas in multi-cellular organisms
(Plants and Animals) shows division of labour as Plant tissue & Animal tissues. Plant tissues are two types:

Meristematic & Permanent tissue.

Meristematic tissue: The meristems are the tissues having the power of cell division. It is found on that region
of the plant which grows.
Following are the types of Meristems:
The Apical meristems- It is present at the growing tip of the stem and roots and increases the length.
The lateral meristems- It present at the lateral side of stem and root (cambium) and increases the girth.
The intercalary meristems- It present at internodes or base of the leaves and increases the length between the
nodes.
(i) Which tissue help in the secondary growth of the plant?
(ii) In what region of the plant does intercalary meristematic growth occur?
OR
Where does meristematic tissue mostly found in a plant?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The practice of keeping or rearing, caring, and management of honey bee on a large scale for obtaining honey
and wax is called apiculture. The place where bees are raised is called an apiary. Bee-keeping requires low
investment and generates additional income, hence it is done by farmers along with agriculture.
Following are the Honey bee varieties that are used for bee-keeping as follows:

Indigenous varieties Exotic varieties

Apis cerana indica (Indian bee) Apis mellifera (Italian bee)

Apis dorsata (Rock bee), Apis florae (Little bee) Apis adamsoni (South African bee)

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 (i) Why bee keeping should be done in good pasturage?
(ii) Does honey bee help in pollination? Which type of flowers attracts the honey bee?
(iii) Mention the products obtained from the honey bee.
OR
What is the best season to start beehive?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter. Sodium chloride is itself a pure
substance matter. The solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Lemonade, soda water etc.
are all examples of solutions. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot
be separated into their components by physical methods. A solution has a solvent and a solute as its components.
The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it (usually the component present in a
larger amount) is called the solvent. The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent
(usually present in lesser quantity) is called the solute.

(i) In a water-sugar solution: Identify solute and solvent?

(ii) What is the size of the particles of a solution?
(iii) What is pure substance?
OR
What do you mean by Alloy?

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96
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 5

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Following figure shows three states of matter and its interconversion. Which process display in A and B? [1]

a) (A)Sublimation (B) condensation b) (A) Fusion (B) Solifification

c) (A) Vapourisation (B) Condensation d) (A) Fusion and (B) Condensation

2. Which of the following cell functions will stop, if its ribosomes are destroyed? [1]

a) Formation of complex sugars b) Lipid metabolism

c) Protein synthesis d) ATP synthesis

3. What does the slope of the velocity-time graph give? [1]

a) acceleration b) force

c) displacement d) distance
4. Which one of the following is not an exotic breed of cow? [1]

a) Holstein-Friesian b) Brown swiss

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97
 c) Sahiwal d) Jersey
5. _____ smoothens the bone surface at the joints. [1]

a) Adipose tissue b) Cartilage

c) Ligament d) Tendon
6. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are [1]

a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Plastids

c) Golgi apparatus d) Ribosomes

7. The number of molecules in CuSO4.5H2O bonded by H-bond is [1]

a) 5 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1
8. Girth of stem increases due to [1]

a) apical meristem b) vertical meristem

c) intercalary meristem d) lateral meristem

9. In the following figure the zero error is: [1]

a) 5 gwt b) – 5 gwt

c) 2 gwt d) – 2 gwt
10. Usha swims in a 90 m long pool. She covers 180 m in one minute going either way. The average velocity is: [1]

a) 30ms-1 b) zero

c) 180ms-1 d) 90ms-1

11. How many electrons, protons and neutrons will be present in X –, if atomic number of X is 9 and mass number is [1]
19?

a) E = 10, P = 9, N = 10 b) E = 9, P = 10, N = 10

c) E = 10, P = 10, N = 10 d) E = 9, P = 9, N = 10
12. Bone matrix is rich in [1]

a) fluoride and calcium b) calcium of potassium

c) calcium and phosphorus d) phosphorus and potassium

13. The basic building units of an onion bulb, are called ________. [1]

a) scales b) cells

c) roots d) tissues

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14. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is [1]

a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect b) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall
effect

c) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall
effect
15. Which one of the following will form a translucent solution in water? [1]

a) Soil b) Sand

c) Starch d) Sugar
16. The enrichment of water bodies with nutrients leading to excessive growth of phytoplankton is known as:- [1]

a) Ammonification b) Nitrification

c) Eutrophication d) Phyto-enrichment.

17. Assertion (A): A tiger can accelerate from rest at the rate of 4 m/s2. [1]
Reason (R): The velocity attained by it in 10s is 40 m/s.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): The conversion of gas directly into solid is called condensation. [1]
Reason (R): Naphthalene leaves residue when kept open for some time.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The cells of non-striated muscles or smooth muscles are spindle-shaped, uni-nucleated, [1]
elongated, and have no striations.
Reason (R): They are found within the walls of elementary canal, bladder, and blood vessels.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Electrons moving in the same orbit will lose or gain energy. [1]
Reason (R): On jumping from higher to lower energy level, the electron will gain energy.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. How is the power related to the speed at which a body can be lifted? How many kilograms will a man working [2]

with the power of 100 W, be able to lift at constant speed of 1 ms-1 vertically? (g = 10 ms-2)
OR
A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of the ball reduces by 40 per cent after striking the ground,

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 how high can the ball bounce back? (g = 10 ms-2)
22. Give reasons for the following observation: [2]
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to
go close.
23. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves. [2]
24. What are the factors which are responsible for bringing a change in the physical state of a substance? [2]

25. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 150 ms-1 strikes a stationary wooden block and [2]
comes to rest in 0.03 s. Calculate a distance of penetration of the bullet into the block. Also calculate the
magnitude of the force exerted by the wooden block on the bullet.
OR
According to the third law of motion, when we push on an object, the object pushes back on us with an equal and
opposite force. If the object is a massive truck parked along the roadside, it will probably not move. A student
justifies this by answering that the two opposite and equal forces cancel each other. Comment on this logic and
explain why the truck does not move.
26. The relative atomic mass of copper is 63.5u. It exists as two isotopes which are 63
29
Cu and 65
29
Cu . Calculate the [2]
percentage of each present in if.
Section C
27. Define frequency and wavelength with reference to sound. Explain, what is echo? Write full form of SONAR. [3]
Give two applications of ultrasound.
28. On the basis of the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the samples given below identify [3]
i. the cation.
ii. the pair of isobars, and
iii. the pair of isotopes.

Sample Protons Neutrons Electrons

A 17 18 16

B 18 19 18

C 17 20 17

D 17 17 17

29. Draw the graph for uniform retardation - [3]

a. position - time graph
b. velocity - time graph
c. Acceleration- time graph
OR
Deduce the following equations of motion:

i. S =ut + ( 1

2
) at2

ii. v2 = u2 + 2aS
30. A test tube loaded with lead shots weighs 50 gf and floats upto the mark 'X' in water. The test tube is then made [3]
to float alcohol. It is found that 10 gf of lead shots have to be removed, so as to float it to level 'X'. Find RD of
alcohol.

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31. Give reason for the following: [3]
i. Road accidents occurring due to high speeds are much worse than accidents due to low speeds of vehicles.
ii. When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at a high-speed, passenger tends to get thrown to one side.
32. Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis. What is its importance? [3]
OR
Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is the endoplasmic reticulum important for
membrane biogenesis?
33. We can control some of the actions of our body, but some are not in our control. Comment on this statement. [3]
Section D
34. i. A person weighs 110.84 N on the moon, whose acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 of that the earth. If the [5]

value of g on the earth is 9.8 m/s2, then calculate

a. g on the moon
b. mass of person on the moon
c. weight of person on the earth
ii. How does the value of g on the earth is related to the mass of the earth and its radius? Derive it.
OR
i. Suppose the mass of the earth somehow increases by 10% without any change in its size. What would happen to
your weight?
ii. Suppose the radius of the earth becomes twice of its present radius without any change in its mass. What will
happen to your weight?
35. Draw a well-labeled diagram of a eukaryotic nucleus. How is it different from the nucleoid? [5]
OR
i. Describe the role played by the lysosomes. Why are they termed as suicidal bags? How do they perform their
function?
ii. What happens to the dry raisins, when placed in plain water for some time? State the reason for whatever is
observed. What would happen if these raisins are then placed in concentrated salt solution?
36. Classify each of the following as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons. [5]
i. Drying of a shirt in the sun.
ii. Rising of hot air over a radiator.
iii. Burning of kerosene in a lantern.
iv. Change in the colour of black tea on adding lemon juice to it.
v. Churning of milk cream to get butter.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent tissue. Parenchyma is the most
common simple permanent tissue. It consists of relatively unspecialized cells with thin cell walls. They are
living cells. Collenchyma allows bending of various parts of the plant-like tendrils and stems of climbers without
breaking. Sclerenchyma tissue makes the plant hard and stiff. We have seen the husk of a coconut. It is made of
sclerenchymatous tissue. They are long and narrow as the walls are thickened due to lignin. The tissue is present

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 in stems, around vascular bundles, in the veins of leaves and in the hard covering of seeds and nuts.

(i) The flexibility in plants is due to which tissue?

(ii) Is aerenchyma provides mechanical support?
OR
Is apical and intercalary meristems permanent tissue?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A bee colony consists of a single queen and a large number of worker bees. Drones are present in the early
stages but do not occur later on. All the functions of the colony are performed by worker bees. They build the
hive, collect food, feed themselves as well as the queen, store food and protect the hive. Genetically, a worker
bee does not differ from a queen bee and can even become a laying worker bee, but in most species will produce
only male (drone) offspring.
(i) Why are drones absent in the mature bee colony?
(ii) When and how are drones produced?
(iii) What is bee bread?
OR
Why worker bees are females but they do not lay eggs?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A solution of a solid in a liquid such as water can be prepared by adding it slowly to water with constant stirring
at a certain temperature (room temperature). If the addition process is continued, a stage is ultimately reached in
the dissolution process when no more of the solid dissolves. Rather it starts setlling at the bottom of the
container such as a glass beaker. The solution at this stage is said to be saturated. The solubility of a solute is
always expressed with respect to the saturated solution. It may be defined as the maximum amount of the solute
that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent to form a saturated solution at a given temperature. Please
remember that the role of temperature is very important. If temperature is increased, the solution becomes
unsaturated. In case the temperature is decreased, the solution becomes supersaturated. As a result, crust of the
solute gets deposited on the surface.
(i) What do mean by the term Solubility?
(ii) 20 g of a solute are dissolved in 500 g of the solvent. The solubility of the solute is:
(iii) When a saturated solution becomes unsaturated?
OR
What do you mean by concentration of solution?

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 6

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. The name of A, B, C and D in the following diagram are: [1]

a) A - Solidification, B - Vaporisation, C - b) A - Vapourisation, B - Fusion, C -

Fusion, D - Condensation Condensation, D - Solidification

c) A - Fusion, B - Vaporisation, C - d) A - Condensation, B - Vaporisation, C -

Condensation, D - Solidification Solidification, D - Fusion
2. Which among the following is concerned with the synthesis and transport of lipids within the cell? [1]

a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) Lysosomes

c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus

3. Which of the following is the position-time graph for a body at rest? [1]

a) b)

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 c) d)

4. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of [1]

a) Micro-nutrients and Macro-nutrients b) Micro-nutrients

c) Fertilizers d) Macro-nutrients
5. The extra stain from the slide if present is removed by: [1]

a) keeping slide under running water b) evaporation by heating

c) soaking with filter paper d) drying stain under sunlight

6. Analyze the statements and pick up the right one regarding mitochondrial membranes from the following: [1]

a) Mostly mitochondria have a single b) The inner membrane is longer than the outer
membrane membrane

c) The outer membrane is longer than the inner d) Both the inner and the outer membranes are
membrane almost equal in length

7. A sample of CaCO3 contains 3.01 × 1023 ions of Ca+2 and CO −2

. The mass of the sample is: [1]
3

a) 200 g b) 50 g

c) 100 g d) 5 g
8. Cartilage is not found in [1]

a) nose b) ear

c) larynx d) kidney
9. Three students used three different containers (A) (B) and (C) of different shapes, for finding the loss in weight [1]
of solid when dipped in water. On dipping a solid sphere in these containers they would observe that the loss in
weight is:

a) Minimum in [A] b) Maximum in [A]

c) Maximum in [B] d) Same in all

10. A person sitting in the truck projected a ball vertically upwards. The ball: [1]

a) falls outside the truck b) falls by the side of truck

c) falls back in his hand d) falls in front of the truck

11. A student weights 30 kg. Suppose his body is entirely made up of electrons. How many electrons are there in his [1]

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 body?

a) 3.29 × 1023 b) 3.29 × 1030

c) 3.29 × 1031 d) 3.29 × 1032

12. Which is the most widely distributed connective tissue? [1]

a) Blood b) Lymph

c) Adipose connective tissue d) Areolar connective tissue

13. The number of lenses in a compound microscope is: [1]

a) 1 b) 4

c) 3 d) 2
14. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature [1]
i. ice
ii. wood
iii. soil
iv. air

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)

15. To prepare iron sulphide, by heating a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder, we should use a: [1]

a) copper dish b) china dish

c) watch glass d) petri dish

16. Which one is not a source of carbohydrate ? [1]

a) Millets b) Sorghum

c) Gram d) Rice
17. Assertion (A): Motion with uniform velocity is always along a straight-line path. [1]
Reason (R): In uniform velocity a motion, speed is the magnitude of the velocity and is equal to the
instantaneous velocity.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid. [1]
Reason (R): Solid converted to liquid is called sublimation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The inner lining of the intestine has tall epithelial cells. [1]
Reason (R): Columnar epithelium facilitates absorption and secretion.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the

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 explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Thomson's model of an atom is popularly known as the plum pudding or Christmas pudding [1]
model of an atom.
Reason (R): According to the Thomson's plum pudding model, an atom is a positively charged sphere in which
the electrons are embedded.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Two girls, each of weight 400 N climb up a rope through a height of 8 m. We name one of the girls A and the [2]
other B. Girl A takes 20 s while B takes 50 s to accomplish this task. What is the power expended by each girl?
OR
A woman pulls a bucket of water of total mass 5 kg from a well which is 10 m deep of 10 m in 10 s, Calculate the

power used by her. (Take, g = 10 ms-2)

22. What happens to the particle motion if the temperature of the gas is increased? [2]
23. Why do we see light first and hear the sound later during thunderstorm? [2]
24. How will you demonstrate that air contains water vapours? [2]
25. Which of the following has more inertia: [2]
a. a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?
b. a bicycle and a train?
c. a five rupees coin and a one-rupee coin?
OR

From the rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is fired with an initial velocity of 35 ms-1. Calculate the initial
recoil velocity of the rifle.
26. Do protons originate from the anode? [2]
Section C
27. i. On which factors the speed of sound depends? [3]
ii. How bat searches its prey at night?
28. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under: [3]

X Y

Protons 6 6

Neutrons 6 8

Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
29. State which of the following situations are possible and give an example for each of these. [3]
(a) An object moving with a constant acceleration but with zero velocity
(b) An object moving in a certain direction with an acceleration in the perpendicular direction.
OR

A cheetah is the fastest land animal and can achieve a peak velocity of 100 kmh-1 up to distances less than 500 m . If

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 a cheetah spots his prey at a distance of 100 m, what is the minimum time it will take to get its prey, if the average

velocity attained by it is 90 kmh-1?

30. A boy is moving on a straight road against a frictional force of 5 N. After travelling a distance of 1.5 km he [3]
forgot the correct path at a round about (Fig.) of radius 100 m. However, he moves on the circular path for one
and half cycle and then he moves forward upto 2.0 km. Calculate the work done by him.

31. A bullet travelling at 360 m/s strikes a block of soft wood. The mass of the bullet is 2.0 g. The bullet comes to [3]
rest after penetrating 10 cm into the wood.
a) Find the average de-accceleration force exerted by the wood.
b) Find the time taken by the bullet to come to rest.
32. There would be no plant life if chloroplasts did not exist. Justify. [3]
OR
Where will you find more number of ribosomes-in cancer cells or in fat cells?
33. Draw well-labeled diagrams of various types of muscles found in the human body. [3]
Section D
34. i. Prove that, if the earth attracts two bodies placed at the same distance from the centre of the earth with equal [5]
force, then their masses will be the same.
ii. Mathematically express the acceleration due to gravity in terms of mass of the earth and radius of the earth.
iii. Why is G called a universal constant?
OR
A block of wood is kept on a tabletop. The mass of the wooden block is 5 kg and its dimensions are 40 cm × 20 cm
× 10 cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden block on the table top if it is made to lie on the table top with its
sides of dimensions

i. 20 cm × 10 cm and
ii. 40 cm × 20 cm.
35. Write the main function of each of the following. [5]
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) Ribosome
(d) Lysosome

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 (e) Nucleolus
(f) Endoplasmic reticulum
OR
Differentiate between
i. Cell wall and cell membrane.
ii. Nuclear region of a bacterial cell and nuclear region of an animal cell.
iii. Prokaryotic cell & eukaryotic cell.

36. i. Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why? [5]
ii. Whether a solution is always liquid or not. Comment.
iii. Can a solution be heterogeneous?
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Plant tissue is consists of meristematic tissue and permanent tissue. Meristematic tissue which is responsible for
the growth of plants they are dividing tissue and permanent tissue provides permanent shape, size, and function
to the plant they are also further classified as simple permanent tissue and complex permanent tissue. The plant
tissue is responsible for performing various functions such as providing flexibility to plant parts as to stalk which
can bend easily without breaking while some provide strength to the plant some of them have modified themself
to provide floatation in an aquatic plant.
(i) Which part of the plant is responsible or growth of tip of stem and root?
(ii) Which type of tissue present in the aquatic plants how it helps the aquatic plant to float?
OR
Which plant tissue provide flexibility?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Poultry is the rearing of domesticated fowl (chicken), ducks, geese, turkey and some varieties of pigeon for their
meat and eggs. Poultry birds are of two types that is broilers and layers. One is specialized meat-producing
poultry birds while other is egg-laying poultry birds. The tremendous rise in the availability of poultry products
is called Silver Revolution.

(i) What is the meaning of layers regarding poultry?

(ii) There are different breeds of hens, so give some information about broiler.
(iii) We know that different types of revolution regarding animal husbandry. So, what is the silver revolution
explain?
OR
There are different breeds of poultry birds, mention two examples of indigenous and exotic breeds of
poultry birds.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]

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Homogeneous mixtures are regarded as solutions or true solutions. Heterogeneous mixtures are of two types.
These are suspensions and colloidal solutions. These differ in the size of the particles responsible for the

difference in their properties. In a suspension, the particle size is more than 10-5 cm whereas in a colloidal
solution, it ranges between 10-5 cm to 10-7 cm. The two phases which constitute colloidal solutions, are
dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Based upon their nature, the colloidal solutions are classified into eight
types. The mixture of the non-reacting gases is always homogeneous irrespective of their nature. Therefore, it is
not a colloidal solution.
(i) Scattering of light occurs when a beam of light is passed through Blood. Why?
(ii) What is Tyndall effect?
(iii) What is called colloidal solution?
OR
Give an example of colloidal solution and identified their dispersed phase and dispersion medium?

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 7

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. The inferences drawn by the temperature versus time graph are [1]

A. During the melting, temperature of substance does not change.

B. Temperature rises after all amount of ice melts.
C. At a specific temperature water starts boiling and temperature remains the same during the conversion of
water into steam.
Which statement is correct regarding graph?

a) Only (C) is correct b) All (A), (B) and (C) are correct

c) Only (B) is correct d) Only (A) is correct

2. Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is [1]

a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi apparatus

c) Mitochondria d) Lysosome

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 3. Which of the following figures represent uniform motion of moving object correctly? [1]

a) b)

c) d)

4. The process of crossing genetically dissimilar plants of a species is called [1]

a) All of these b) interspecific cross

c) intervarietal cross d) intergeneric cross

5. Which of the following sets includes simple permanent tissues? [1]

a) Collenchyma, parenchyma, Sclerenchyma b) Pholem, xylem, collenchyma

c) Sclerenchyma, phloem, collenchyma d) Parenchyma, phloem, sclerenchyma

6. Kitchen of the cells [1]

a) Golgi apparatus b) Endoplasmic reticulum

c) Chloroplast d) Mitochondria
7. Atomicity of Chlorine and Argon is: [1]

a) Monoatomic and diatomic respectively b) Diatomic and diatomic respectively.

c) Diatomic and monoatomic respectively. d) Monoatomic and monoatomic respectively.

8. Which of the following components are seen in a slide of human cheek cell when observed under a microscope? [1]

a) Cell wall, cytoplasm, nucleus b) Cell membrane, protoplasm, nucleus

c) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus d) Cell wall, protoplasm, nucleus

9. Four students A, B, C and D while performing an experiment on establishing the relation between the loss of [1]
weight of small solid when fully immersed in tap water, and the weight of water displaced by it, used four
different shapes of overflow cans containing water as shown :The arrangement, that would given correct results
is that of student:

a) A b) D

c) B d) C
10. What is the slope of the body when it moves with uniform velocity? [1]

a) positive b) zero

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 c) may be positive or negative d) negative
11. The isotopes of hydrogen which contain same number of electrons, protons and neutrons? [1]

a) Deuterium b) Tritium

c) Pratium d) Protium
12. The end of a long bone is connected to another bone by [1]

a) Ligament b) Muscle

c) Cartilage d) Tendon
13. The cell organelles (other than the nucleus) which contain DNA are: [1]

a) Plastids and lysosomes b) Golgi apparatus and lysosomes

c) Plastids and mitochondria d) Mitochondria and Golgi apparatus

14. Which will not give a stable solution even when stirred for sometimes? [1]

a) Milk in water b) Common salt in water

c) Egg albumin in water d) Sugar in water

15. Which of the following settles down when allowed to stand undisturbed doe sometimes? [1]

a) Copper sulphate solution b) Blood

c) Muddy water d) Solution of egg albumin in water

16. Using fertilizers in farming is an example of [1]

a) High cost production b) Low cost production

c) None of these d) No cost production

17. Assertion (A): Motion of satellites around their planets is considered as accelerated motion. [1]
Reason (R): During their motion, the speed remains constant, while the direction of motion changes
continuously.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Ice floats on the surface of water. [1]
Reason (R): The density of both water and ice is same.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Parenchyma cells help in storage of food. [1]
Reason (R): Parenchyma cells are the main seats of photosynthesis.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Cathode rays travel in straight lines. [1]

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 Reason (R): Cathode rays do not penetrate through thin sheets.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A body moves along a circular path. How much work is done in doing so? Explain. [2]
OR
Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is zero? Explain.
22. When a solid starts melting, its temperature does not rise till whole of it has melted. Explain. [2]
23. A ship sends out an ultrasound that returns from the seabed and is detected after 3.42 s. If the speed of [2]
ultrasound through seawater is 1531 m/s, what is the distance of the seabed from the ship?
24. What happens to the heat energy which is supplied to the solid once it has started melting? [2]
25. Deduce Newton's first law from the second law. [2]
OR
Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake the branch of the tree.
26. Calculate the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an element 'X' which is represented as 31
15
X . [2]
Section C
27. How do stethoscope and megaphone work on the principle of multiple reflections of sound? [3]
28. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons. [3]
29. Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a leveled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in figure. [3]
Which car is the slowest.

OR
A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find:
a. the speed acquired.
b. the distance travelled.
30. Anil lives in a village and his school is 8 km away from his home. His father suggests buying a motor cycle to [3]
go to school. Anil opposes the idea and opts for a bicycle instead.
a. Write the energy transformation taking place while Anil rides his bicycle.
b. Justify (the stand taken by Anil in your own words.
c. How can he convince his friends to do the same?
31. The following is the distance-time table of an object in motion: [3]

Time (in second) Distance (in metre)

0 0

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 1 1

2 8

3 27

4 64

5 125

6 216

7 343

i. What conclusion can you draw about the acceleration? Is it constant, increasing, decreasing or zero?
ii. What do you infer about the force acting on the object?
32. Differentiate between RER and SER [3]
OR
Who discovered cell, and how?
33. Differentiate between sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues. Draw a well-labeled diagram. [3]
Section D
34. Show that the weight of an object on the moon is th of its weight on the earth. Given, the mass of the earth Me [5]
1

= 6×1024 kg , mass of the moon, Mm =7⋅4×1022 kg , The radius of the earth, Re = 6400 km and radius of the

moon, Rm = 1740 km.

OR
What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth
is 6 × 10 24
kg and radius of the earth is6.4 × 10 m).
6

35. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells. [5]
OR
What is membrane biogenesis? How is plasma membrane formed during this process?
36. Non-metals are usually poor conductors of heat and electricity. They are non-lustrous, non-sonorous, non- [5]
malleable and are coloured.
i. Name a lustrous non-metal.
ii. Name a non-metal which exists as a liquid at room temperature.
iii. The allotropic form of a non-metal is a good conductor of electricity. Name the allotrope.
iv. Name a non-metal which is known to form the largest number of compounds.
v. Name a non-metal other than carbon which shows allotropy.
vi. Name a non-metal which is required for combustion.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Permanent tissues are of two types that is Simple permanent tissues and Complex permanent tissues.
Simple permanent tissues subdivided as follows:
i. Parenchyma: Tissues provide support to plants. They are loosely packed and has large intracellular space.
Parenchyma with chlorophyll which performs photosynthesis is called chlorenchyma.
ii. Collenchyma: Tissue are thickened at the corners, have very little intercellular space. It allows easy bending
of various parts of a plant without breaking.

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 iii. Sclerenchyma: Cells of this tissue are dead and commonly seen in the husk of a coconut.

(i) In which of the simple plant tissue, deposition of lignin is found? Also describe lignin.
(ii) Why is cork impervious to gases and water?
OR
Which type of tissue is present in the cortex of the root and veins of the leaves?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Irrigation
The process of supplying water to crop plants through human efforts by means of canals, wells, reservoirs, tube
wells etc., is known as irrigation. Most agriculture in India is dependent on timely monsoons and sufficient
rainfall spread through most of the growing season. However, the extra water required by crops is met through
irrigation.

(i) Which is the most common source of irrigation?

(ii) Mention the various sources of irrigation.
(iii) Which is the least use source of irrigation?
OR
What are the other sources of irrigation?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended
throughout the bulk of the medium. Particles of a suspension are visible to the naked eye. The particles of a
suspension scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible. Due to the relatively smaller size
of particles, as compared to that of a suspension, the mixture appears to be homogeneous. The scattering of a
beam of light is called the Tyndall effect. The components of a colloidal solution are the dispersed phase and the
dispersion medium. The solute-like component or the dispersed particles in a colloid form the dispersed phase,

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and the component in which the dispersed phase is suspended is known as the dispersing medium.

(i) Differentiate between Dispersed phase and Dispersion medium?

(ii) Differentiate between Homogeneous and Heterogeneous mixture?
(iii) What is emulsion?
OR
Give an example of solid sol?​​

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116
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 8

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which experiments set-up is correct for determining the melting pt. of ice? [1]

a) Both P and Q b) Q

c) P d) Neither P nor Q
2. Lysosomes are the reservoirs of: [1]

a) steroid hormones b) glycogen

c) digestive enzymes d) oxidising enzymes

3. A signal from a space ship reaches the ground in 5 minutes. What was the distance of the space ship from the [1]

ground station? The speed of the signal is 3 × 108 m/s.

a) 9 × 107 m b) 9 × 1010 m

c) 9 × 106m d) 3 × 106 m

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117
4. Weeds affect the crop plants by - [1]

a) All of these b) Dominating the plants to grow.

c) Killing of plants in the field before they d) Competing for various resources of crops
grow. (plants)
5. We use glycerine in temporary mount of the material because: [1]

a) it increases the clarity of the material b) it increases the beauty

c) it avoids drying of the material d) it provides the medium for floating the
material
6. Which of these options are not a function of Ribosomes? [1]
i. It helps in manufacture of protein molecules
ii. It helps in manufacture of enzymes
iii. It helps in manufacture of hormones
iv. It helps in manufacture of starch molecules

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (iv) and (i)

c) (i) and (ii) d) (ii) and (iii)

7. The sample of water from a well is analysed. What will be the ratio of hydrogen and oxygen in it by mass? [1]

a) 16:1 b) 8:1

c) 1:16 d) 1:8 or 2:16

8. Most of the metabolic functions of plants are carried out by [1]

a) sclerenchyma b) collenchyma

c) meristems d) parenchyma
9. The position of the water level, in a measuring cylinder, before and after immersing a solid in it, are as shown in [1]

the figure given below. The volume of the given solid (in cm3) is :

a) 2.2 b) 1.8

c) 4.2 d) 6.6

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10. If a moving body comes to rest, then it's acceleration is: [1]

a) Negative b) Positive

c) Constant d) Zero
11. The difference between isotopes and isobars [1]

a) Isotopes have same physical properties but b) Isobars have same chemical properties but
isobars have different. isotopes have different chemical proerties.

c) Both have same physical properties. d) Isotopes have same chemical properties but
isobars have different.
12. The common characteristic of xylem tracheids and sieve tubes is that both are: [1]

a) thick-walled cells b) dead cells

c) living cells d) meant for conduction

13. The technical term for the “Group of similar cells performing a specific function” is: [1]

a) Tissue b) Cell

c) Organ system d) Organ

14. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly [1]
represents the composition of the solutions?

a) 1.00g of NaCl + 100g of water b) 0.10 g of NaCl + 99.90g of water

c) 0.01g of NaCl + 99.99g of water d) 0.11g of NaCl + 100g of water

15. To prepare a colloidal solution of starch, we should: [1]

a) add the thin paste of starch to hot water with b) add starch powder to cold water and boil
stirring

c) add the starch powder to boiling water and d) heat starch, add it to cold water and then
cool bring it to boil
16. The poultry birds groomed for obtaining meat are called _______ [1]

a) Pork b) Growers

c) Broilers d) Poultry
17. Assertion (A): An object may acquire acceleration even if it is moving at a constant speed. [1]
Reason (R): With change in the direction of motion, an object can acquire acceleration.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): It is easier to cook food at high altitudes. [1]
Reason (R): The boiling point of water decreases at high altitudes.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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19. Assertion (A): Cells of cork or bark are dead, acts as a protective covering. [1]
Reason (R): In leguminous plants, the root nodules harbor nitrogen-fixing bacteria which convert atmospheric
nitrogen into nitrates.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom. [1]
Reason (R): The electrons revolve around the nucleus of the atom.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. Find the energy in joules consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each. [2]
OR
If an electric iron of 1200 W is used for 30 minutes every day, find the electric energy consumed in the month of
April.
22. We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away. Give reason. [2]
23. A human heart on an average is found to beat 75 times a minute. Calculate its frequency. [2]
24. If the melting point of an object A is high then what state you expect it to be at room temperature? [2]
25. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of 400 m in 20 s. [2]
Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes.
OR

A hockey ball of mass 200 g travelling at 10 ms-1 is struck by a hockey stick so as to return it along its original path
with a velocity at 5 ms-1. Calculate the magnitude of change of momentum occurred in the motion of the hockey ball
by the force applied by the hockey stick.
26. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen. [2]
Section C
27. i. Which characteristic of sound helps to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark [3]
room?
ii. State the relationship between frequency and time period of a wave. The wavelength of vibrations produced
on the surface of the water is 4 cm. If the wave velocity is 20 m/s find the frequency and Time period.
28. Given below is the atomic structure of an atom of element 23
11
A , according to Bohr's model of atom. [3]

i. What is wrong with this structure of atom?

ii. Draw a correct representation of this atom.
iii. Write the chemical formula of the chloride of this element.
29. The speed-time graph for a car is shown is Fig. [3]

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 a. Find how far does the car travel in the first 4 seconds? Shade the area on the graph that represents the
distance travelled by the car during the period.
b. Which part of the graph represents uniform motion of the car?
OR
What type of motion is represented by the following graphs.

30. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the sun, given that the mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg [3]

and of the sun = 2 ×1030 kg. The average distance between the two is 1.5 ×1011 m.
31. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of the floor is as shown in the figure. Calculate the force [3]
acting on the ball, if mass of the ball is 100 g.

32. What is prokaryotic cell? Differentiate between prokaryotic cell & eukaryotic cell? [3]
OR
Why does the skin of your fingers shrinks when you wash clothes for a long time?
33. Describe the types of connective tissues along with their functions. [3]
Section D

34. A car falls off a ledge and drops to the ground in 0.5 s. Let g = 10 ms-2 (for simplifying the calculations). [5]

i. What is its speed on striking the ground?

ii. What is its average speed during the 0.5 s?
iii. How high is the ledge from the ground?
OR
Derive an expression for the force of attraction between two bodies and then define gravitational constant.
35. What are cell organelles? Write the names of different cell organelles. [5]
OR
Differentiate between
i. Cell wall and cell membrane.
ii. Nuclear region of a bacterial cell and nuclear region of an animal cell.
iii. Prokaryotic cell & eukaryotic cell.

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36. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given [5]
below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a
saturated solution).

Temperature in K

Substance dissolved 283 293 313 333 353

Solubility

Potassium Nitrate 21 32 62 106 167

Sodium Chloride 36 36 36 37 37

Potassium Chloride 35 35 40 46 54

Ammonium Chloride 24 37 41 55 66

a. What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50
grams of water at 313 K?
b. Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at
room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
c. Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
d. What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Given below is the diagram of the human nerve cell.

(i) Label the part (A) and (B).

(ii) What is the function of nervous tissue?
OR
Mention all part of the human body composed of nervous tissue.
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Cattle Breeding
Cross-breeding helps in the development of certain desired characteristics in animals like, Increased milk
production, Resistance against diseases, Breeds that require less amount of quality feed.
Exotic breed cattle (long lactation) are interbred with the locally bred cattle (high resistance to the diseases) to
produce high quality bred that contain both the characteristics. In order to obtain a good quality of milk from the
cattle, it is important to manage shelter, food, breeding and disease control of cattle. Cattle are prone to various

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 internal and external parasites, bacteria and virus which are likely to affect their milk production.

(i) What are milch animals ?

(ii) What are the draught animals?
(iii) How does cross-breeding help in cattle breeding?
OR
Mention the preconditions for a good yield of milk.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter. Sodium chloride is itself a pure
substance matter. The solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Lemonade, soda water etc.
are all examples of solutions. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot
be separated into their components by physical methods. A solution has a solvent and a solute as its components.
The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it (usually the component present in a
larger amount) is called the solvent. The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent
(usually present in lesser quantity) is called the solute.

(i) In a water-sugar solution: Identify solute and solvent?

(ii) What is the size of the particles of a solution?
(iii) What is pure substance?
OR
What do you mean by Alloy?

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 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 9

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. A glass tumbler containing hot water is kept in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator. If you could measure [1]
the temperature of the content of the tumbler, which of the following graph would correctly represent the change
in its temperature as a function of time?

a) IV b) III

c) I d) II
2. Select the incorrect statement. [1]
i. Osmosis is a slow process, occurs down the concentration gradient and does not expend energy.
ii. Electron microscope uses very high voltage electricity. It uses electromagnets instead of glass lenses and
beam of electrons instead of light.
iii. A semipermeable membrane does not allow both solvent and solute molecules to pass through it.
iv. Active transport of materials is rapid and usually occurs against the concentration gradient involving carrier
proteins and energy in the form of ATP.

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 a) Statement (i) is correct. b) Statement (iv) is correct.

c) Statement (ii) is correct. d) Statement (iii) is correct.

3. Statement 1: Reducing the initial velocity to half the initial value, the stopping distance of moving object [1]
decreases by a factor of 2 (for the same deceleration).
Statement 2: Stopping distance is proportional to the square of the initial velocity.

a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and
statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1. statement 1.

c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
4. Bee pasturage refers to [1]

a) the flowers available for nectar collection by b) the trees where bees make the hives
the bees

c) the hives where honeybees live and deposit d) the worker bees in a hive, who collect honey
honey
5. The mechanical strength and rigidity of the cell wall is due to [1]

a) suberin b) lignin

c) cellulose d) cutin
6. The functional units of the Golgi apparatus are: [1]

a) cisternae b) vacuoles

c) vesicles d) cytoplasm
7. The chemical symbol for sodium is [1]

a) Sd b) K

c) So d) Na
8. The muscular tissue which function throughout the life continuously without fatigue is [1]

a) smooth muscle b) cardiac muscle

c) voluntary muscle d) skeletal muscle

9. For performing an experiment to verify Archimedes principle, a student used a spring balance with a zero error [1]
of 4 g wt. He used to measure the weight of a solid metallic block as shown in the figure below. The solid
metallic block was then lowered in water contained in an overflowing jar and the water displaced by this block
was collected in graduated or measuring cylinder as shown in figure.

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125
 The apparent loss in weight of the solid metallic block is :

a) 38 g wt b) 35 g wt

c) 40 g wt d) 30 g wt
10. The area below v-t graph is a measure of: [1]

a) Angular speed b) Displacement

c) Angular acceleration d) Acceleration

11. 226
88
A,
228
87
B,
228
88
C,
228
90
D [1]
Which of the following nuclei are isotopes?

a) 226
88
A,
228
88
C b) 228
87
B,
228
88
C

c) Both 228
87
B,
228
88
C and 228
88
C,
228
90
D d) 228
88
C,
228
90
D

12. Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases by the presence of [1]

a) cellulose b) lignin

c) lipids d) suberin
13. Chromosomes are made up of [1]

a) RNA b) DNA

c) DNA and protein d) Protein

14. Which type of solution is formed when sand and water are mixed thoroughly and then kept undisturbed for some [1]
time?

a) True solution b) Mixture

c) Colloidal d) Suspension
15. A student added only two drops of iodine to a rice extract in test tube 'A'. Another student added a little rice [1]
extract to iodine solution in test tube 'B'. They would then observe:

a) no change of colour in any test tube b) a change of colour to blue-black in both

tubes 'A' and 'B'

c) a change of colour to blue-black in test tube d) a change of colour to blue-black in test tube
'B' but not in test tube 'A' 'A' but not in test tube 'B'
16. Kharif season extends from [1]

a) April to June b) January to March

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 c) June to October d) October to January
17. Assertion (A): The bus travels 250 km from Delhi to Jaipur towards the West and then comes back to the [1]
starting point. Total displacement is zero.
Reason (R): The average velocity of the bus for the whole journey (both ways) is 0 kilometers per hour.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): An iron almirah is a solid at room temperature. [1]
Reason (R): Water can flow and it assumes the shape of the containing vessel.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years, [1]
the nail is still present there.
Reason (R): The girth of the stem or root increases due to apical meristem (cambium).

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Isotopes are electrically neutral. [1]
Reason (R): Isotopes are species with same mass number but different atomic numbers.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A rocket of 3 × 106 kg mass takes off from a launching pad and acquires a vertical velocity of 1 kms-1 at an [2]

altitude of 25 km.
Calculate
a. Potential energy

b. Kinetic energy. (Take the value of g = 10 ms-2)

OR

The volume of 50 g substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g cm-3, will the substance float or sink?
22. Why is it not proper to regard the gaseous state of ammonia as vapours? [2]
23. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the [2]
time interval between successive compressions from the source?
24. How much water should be mixed with 12 mL of alcohol so as to obtain a 12 % alcohol solution? [2]
25. Why do the driver and the person seated in front seat need a seat belt? [2]
OR
A truck of mass M is moved under a force F. If the truck is then loaded with an object equal to the mass of the truck
and the driving force is halved, then how does the acceleration change?

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26. The element boron occurs in nature as two isotopes having atomic masses 10u and 11u. What are the percentage [2]
abundances of these isotopes in a sample of boron having average atomic mass of 10.8u?
Section C
27. Explain the working and application of a sonar. [3]
28. On the basis of the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the samples given below identify [3]
i. the cation.
ii. the pair of isobars, and
iii. the pair of isotopes.

Sample Protons Neutrons Electrons

A 17 18 16

B 18 19 18

C 17 20 17

D 17 17 17

29. An iron ball of density 7800 k gm-3 and volume 200 cm-3 is totally immersed in water. [3]

i. Calculate the weight of the iron ball in the air.

ii. Calculate the upthrust.
iii. Its apparent weight in water.
iv. Its apparent density in water.
OR

A train travels the first 15 km at a uniform speed of 30 kmh-1, the next 75 km at a uniform speed of 50 kmh-1, and

the last 10 km at a uniform speed of 20 kmh-1. Calculate the average speed for the entire train journey.
30. An automobile engine propels a 1,000 kg car A along a levelled road at a speed of 36 km h-1. Find the power if [3]

the opposing frictional force is 100 N. Now, suppose after travelling a distance of 200 m, this car collides with
another stationary car B of same mass and comes to rest. Let its engine also stop at the same time. Now, car B
starts moving on the same level road without getting its engine started. Find the speed of the car B just after the
collision.
31. Look at the diagram below and answer the following questions: [3]

i. When a force is applied through the free end of the spring balance A, then the reading on the spring balance
A is 15 g-wt. What will be the measure of the reading shown by spring balance B?
ii. Write the reasons for your answer.
iii. Name the force that balance A exerts on balance B and the force of balance B on balance A.
32. What is nucleoid? How it is different from the nucleus of eukaryotic cell? [3]
OR
How does fungi and bacteria can withstand much greater changes in the surrounding medium than animal cells?
33. Differentiate between bone and cartilage with respect to structure, function and location. [3]
Section D
34. Define acceleration due to gravity. Derive an expression for acceleration due to gravity in terms of mass of the [5]

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 earth (M) and universal gravitational constant (G).
OR
i. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an object on the earth's
surface.
ii. Derive how does the value of gravitational force F between two objects change when
a. distance between them is reduced to half and
b. mass of an object is increased four times.
35. Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell. [5]
OR
Grass looks green, papaya appears yellow. Which cell organelle is responsible for this?
36. i. Distinguish among the true solution, suspension and colloid in a tabular form under the following heads: [5]

a. Stability
b. Filterability
c. Type of mixture
ii. Give the expression for the concentration of a solution. How will you prepare a 10% solution of glucose by
mass in the water?
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Animal tissues are of many types such as epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue and nervous tissue.
Blood is a type of connective tissue, and muscle forms muscular tissue. The nature of the matrix differs in
concordance with the function of the particular connective tissue. Blood has a fluid (liquid) matrix called
plasma, in which red blood corpuscles, white blood corpuscles and platelets are suspended. Blood flows and
transports gases, digested food, hormones and waste materials to different parts of the body. Bone is another
example of connective tissue. It forms the framework that supports the body. It also anchors the muscles and
supports the main organs of the body. Another type of connective tissue, cartilage, has widely spaced cells.

(i) Identify the following tissue.

(ii) Are the cells of connective tissues loosely spaced?

OR

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 What are the components of the matrix of bone?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Poultry is the fastest growing segment of animal husbandry in India despite the fact that the majority of Indians
are vegetarians. Poultry yields eggs from layers that are female birds. It yields meat from two sources, young
birds or broilers, and non-productive layers. The indigenous breeds include Busra, Chhattisgarh, Kadaknath, and
Aseel. They are slow growing. The yield of eggs is small. The exotic breeds are White Leghorn, Rhode Island
Red, Plymouth Rock, and Australorp. The exotic breeds are fast growing and yield a large number of eggs (180-
280 per year). Many of the exotic breeds have been acclimatised in our country. A number of high-yielding
hybrids have been developed, e.g., ILS-82, B-77, HH-260.

(i) What is Broilers?

(ii) When are broilers dressed?
(iii) Which Indian poultry bird is used in cock fighting?
OR
Mention one poultry bird that yields the maximum number of eggs per annum.
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter. Sodium chloride is itself a pure
substance matter. The solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Lemonade, soda water etc.
are all examples of solutions. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot
be separated into their components by physical methods. A solution has a solvent and a solute as its components.
The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it (usually the component present in a
larger amount) is called the solvent. The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent
(usually present in lesser quantity) is called the solute.

(i) In a water-sugar solution: Identify solute and solvent?

(ii) What is the size of the particles of a solution?
(iii) What is pure substance?
OR

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130
What do you mean by Alloy?

Page 8 of 15
131
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 10

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which of the changes is/are exothermic? [1]

a) P,Q,S b) R

c) P, S d) S
2. Which of the following is correct for the given figure? [1]

a) The parts labelled ‘a’, ‘b' and ‘c’, all possess b) The part labelled ‘a’ is the site of dark
photosynthetic pigments such as reaction.
chlorophyll.

c) The part labelled ‘c’ is called granum. d) The part labelled ‘b’ is called intergranal
thylakoid.

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132
 3. The area under the velocity-time graph gives the value of: [1]

a) velocity b) acceleration

c) mass d) distance travelled

4. Induced breeding is used to increase the production of [1]

a) poultry birds b) draught animals

c) cows d) fish
5. Which of the following does not loss their nucleus at maturity? [1]

a) Red blood cells b) Companion cells

c) Sieve tube cells d) Vessel

6. 70-80% of the volume of a mature plant cell is occupied by: [1]

a) cytoplasm b) vacuole

c) nucleus d) endoplasmic reticulum

7. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is [1]

a) Ni b) N

c) N2 d) N+

8. Which of the following statements is the best description of the composition of blood? [1]

a) plasma and three types of cells b) plasma and haemoglobin

c) serum and three types of cells d) fibrin and three types of cells
9. In the following figure the zero error is: [1]

a) 5 gwt b) – 5 gwt

c) 2 gwt d) – 2 gwt

10. A body moving with uniform acceleration has velocities 20 ms-1 and 30 ms-1. when passing two points A and B. [1]
Then the velocity midway between A and B is:

a) 25.5 ms-1 b) 24 ms-1

c) 25 ms-1 d) –
10√6 ms-1
11. The triad which is isoelectronic [1]

a) Mg2+, F-, O b) –
Na+, O2 , Ne

c) Na+, Al, N3 – d) Cl – , Ar, Ca

12. ________ in the cell wall of cork/bark makes it impervious to water. [1]

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 a) Cellulose b) Lignin

c) Suberin d) Pectin
13. If a plant cell is kept in a hypotonic solution, it will: [1]

a) increase in its volume b) the decrease in its volume

c) burst d) maintain the same volume

14. Which of the following are physical changes? [1]
i. Melting of iron metal
ii. Rusting of iron
iii. Bending of an iron rod
iv. Drawing a wire of iron metal

a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

15. Fermentation of grapes is an example of [1]

a) Redox reaction b) Reversible change

c) Chemical change d) Physical change

16. Pulses crops are rich in [1]

a) Fats b) Vitamins

c) Proteins d) Carbohydrates
17. Assertion (A): An object can have constant speed but variable velocity. [1]
Reason (R): Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector quantity.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): The diffusion rate of oxygen is smaller than nitrogen. [1]
Reason (R): Molecular size of nitrogen is smaller than oxygen.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): The root tips of a plant were cut and the plant was replanted. The plant will die within few days [1]
of replanting.
Reason (R): The root tips are cut, the roots won’t grow because of the absence of meristematic tissue. And if the
roots will not grow, proper absorption of water and minerals will not occur.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): According to Bohr’s model, electrons occupy certain stable orbits or shells. [1]
Reason (R): Each shell has a definite energy.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B
21. A man whose mass is 50 kg climbs up 30 steps of a staircase, each measuring 20 cm high, in 30 s. Calculate the [2]

power used in climbing the stairs. (Take g = 10 ms-2)

OR
A man of mass 60 kg runs up a flight of 30 steps in 15 seconds. If each step is 20 cm high, calculate the power
developed by the man. (Take g = 10 m/s).
22. What happens when the temperature of the solids increase? [2]
23. Two children are at the opposite ends of a long iron pipe. One of them strikes the end of iron pipe with a stone. [2]
Find the ratio of time taken by the sound waves in air and in iron to reach the other child. (Speed of sound in air

= 340 ms-1 and speed of sound in iron is 5130 ms-1).

24. Discuss the role of pressure and temperature in the liquefication of a gas [2]
25. Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall backward when it [2]
accelerates from rest?
OR
Describe in brief an activity to illustrate the property of inertia of rest.
26. What are the limitations of J.J.Thomson's model of the atom? [2]
Section C
27. Represent graphically by two separate diagrams in each case [3]
i. Two sound waves having the same amplitude but different frequencies?
ii. Two sound waves having the same frequency but different amplitudes.
iii. Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different wavelengths.
28. Find out the valency of atoms represented by the following figures. [3]

i.

ii.

iii.

29. The velocity time graph of runner is given in the graph. [3]

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 a. What is the total distance covered by the runner in 16s?
b. What is the acceleration of the runner at t = 11s?
OR
The velocity of a body in motion is recorded every second as shown-

time (s) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

velocity (m/s) 60 54 48 42 36 30 24 18 12 6

Calculate the -
a. acceleration
b. distance travelled and draw the graph.
30. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the same [3]
when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why?
31. The motion of a body of mass 5 kg is shown in the velocity-time graph. [3]

Find from the graph

i. The acceleration.
ii. The force acting on the body.
iii. The change in momentum of the body in 2 s after the start.
32. Differentiate between plant cell and animal cell. [3]
OR
Do you agree "A cell is a building unit of an organism". If yes, explain why.
33. Diagrammatically show the difference amongst three types of muscle fibres. [3]
Section D
34. i. A person weighs 110.84 N on the moon, whose acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 of that the earth. If the [5]

value of g on the earth is 9.8 m/s2, then calculate

a. g on the moon
b. mass of person on the moon
c. weight of person on the earth
ii. How does the value of g on the earth is related to the mass of the earth and its radius? Derive it.
OR
What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth

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 is 6 × 10 24
kg and radius of the earth is6.4 × 10 m).
6

35. Explain main functional regions of a cell with the help of a diagram. [5]
OR
Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.
36. Name the process associated with the following: [5]
i. Dry ice is kept at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure.
ii. A drop of ink placed on the surface of water contained in a glass spreads throughout the water.
iii. A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the beaker with stirring.
iv. A acetone bottle is left open and the bottle becomes empty.
v. Milk is churned to separate cream from it.
vi. Settling of sand when a mixture of sand and water is left undisturbed for some time.
vii. Fine beam of light entering through a small hole in a dark room, illuminates the particles in its paths.
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
In older plants, the outer protective layer that is epidermis undergoes certain changes the epidermis of the stem is
replaced. There is cork cambium which is simple tissue having one type of the cell. The cell of cork cambium
are rectangular and their protoplast is vacuolated contain tannins. The cork cambium gives off new cell from its
both side. The cell of the cork cambium is dead and compactly arranged without the intercellular space and there
is suberin deposition.
(i) The epidermis of the cell is replaced by?
(ii) How does a cork acts as a protective tissue?
OR
There is suberin deposition what is the main disadvantage?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
India has the maximum cattle population in the world. However, their productivity is less than half the
productivity of many exotic breeds of cattle. The exotic breeds live in cold countries. They cannot live
comfortably in hotter India. The only way to improve the productivity of Indian cattle is to produce hybrids
which are acclimitised to Indian conditions and are resistant to most local diseases. For hybridisation exotic bulls
are kept in colder climate. Their semen is collected and cryopreserved. The same is sent to various parts of the
country for artificial insemination.
(i) Mention two exotic breeds of cattle.
(ii) Mention two hybrid breeds of cattle.
(iii) Mention some factors governing the yield of milk.
OR
When can cattle be inseminated?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A solution of a solid in a liquid such as water can be prepared by adding it slowly to water with constant stirring
at a certain temperature (room temperature). If the addition process is continued, a stage is ultimately reached in
the dissolution process when no more of the solid dissolves. Rather it starts setlling at the bottom of the
container such as a glass beaker. The solution at this stage is said to be saturated. The solubility of a solute is
always expressed with respect to the saturated solution. It may be defined as the maximum amount of the solute
that can be dissolved in 100 g of the solvent to form a saturated solution at a given temperature. Please

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remember that the role of temperature is very important. If temperature is increased, the solution becomes
unsaturated. In case the temperature is decreased, the solution becomes supersaturated. As a result, crust of the
solute gets deposited on the surface.
(i) What do mean by the term Solubility?
(ii) 20 g of a solute are dissolved in 500 g of the solvent. The solubility of the solute is:
(iii) When a saturated solution becomes unsaturated?
OR
What do you mean by concentration of solution?

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