VISTEP MATERIALS DÀNH

CHO CÁC SỈ TỬ ĐÃ HẾT MÁU

CHO IELTS
(LEVEL TỪ HƯỜM HƯỜM ĐẾN ĐỔ
MÁU)
 CONTACT ZÉT LỜ 0333 988 559 (CHÍNH CHỦ) ĐỂ
BIẾT THÊM CHI TIẾT VỀ LỚP HỀ

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 LISTENING

TEST 1
1. How did he feel in his first job?
A. bored
B. confused
C. enthusiastic
2. What are listeners being invited to?
A. a show
B. a talk
C. a party
3. Who was she?
A. a pedestrian
B. a driver
C. a passenger
4. What is her main point?
A. Being in the right place at the right time is a matter of luck
B. More time is spent planning than filming
C. It is worthwhile spending time preparing
5. Where is the speaker?
A. outside a café
B. by the sea
C. on a lake
6. What does she want the shop assistant to do about her table-tennis table?
A. provide her with a new one
B. have it put together for her
C. give her the money back

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 7. What is her business?
A. hiring out boats
B. hiring out caravans
C. building boats
8. Who is talking?
A. an actor
B. a journalist
C. a theatre-goer

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

9. Where is the woman?
A. At a hotel
B. At a restaurant
C. At a conference
D. At a laundry room
10. What service is the woman asking about?
A. Room cleaning
B. Laundry service
C. Express check-in
D. Conference room rental
11. When most likely will the woman give a speech?
A. On Sunday
B. On Monday
C. On Tuesday
D. On Wednesday

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 12. What will the man probably do next?
A. Process the woman’s payment
B. Help the woman with her luggage
C. Take the woman’s jacket
D. Give the woman a bag
13. Why does the woman say the meeting should be postponed?
A. Some important data is missing
B. Some employees will be absent
C. The computer system has a problem
D. An executive is scheduled to visit the office
14. Who is likely a woman?
A. a manager
B. a salesperson
C. a doctor
D. a shop assistant
15. When will the meeting most likely be held?
A. Thursday morning
B. Thursday afternoon
C. Friday morning
D. Friday afternoon
16. What will the man probably do next?
A. Visit a computer facility
B. Take a lunch break
C. Reserve a meeting room
D. Write an e-mail message

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 Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

17. Why is the man traveling to India?

A. To study at a university

B. To sell his company’s products

C. To attend a conference

D. To look for an apartmen

18. What does the man say about the bag?

A. It is lightweight
B. It is fashionable
C. It is too expensive
D. It is too small
19. What does the woman offer to do?
A. Show the man a different part of the shop
B. Look for other products on a computer
C. Give the man a discount
D. Repair an item for the man
20. When will the product be shipped?
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within a week
C. Within a month
D. Within 2 days
21. Stan says that the best thing about walking is that you can
A. get fit by doing it
B. please yourself how you do it
C. do it on your own

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 22. Stan’s opinion on scrambling is that
A. people doing it may need to be accompanied
B. it is unsuitable for beginners
C. it is more exciting than walking
23. What did Stan discover when he went climbing?
A. It was not enjoyable
B. It was harder than he expected
C. It can be very frightening
24. What does Stan say about mountain biking?
A. Britain is not the best place for it.
B. It is more expensive in Britain than elsewhere
C. It is best where there are lots of downhill slopes
25. Stan’s advice on scuba diving is that
A. most of the courses for it are good
B. it is easier than it seems
C. you should think carefully before trying it
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following radio interview
26. How did Douglas feel when he booked the weekend?
A. sure that he would enjoy training for it
B. uncertain if it was a good idea for him
C. surprised that such activities were organized
27. Douglas expected that the experience would help him to
A. meet people with similar interests
B. improve his physical fitness
C. discover his psychological limits

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 28. He was surprised that the other participants
A. were there for reasons like his
B. were experienced climbers
C. were in better condition than him
29. What did one of his friends say to him?
A. He was making a mistake
B. Climbing was fashionable
C. She was envious of him
30. What did the people plan at the end of the trip?
A. to send each other postcards
B. to take a different sort of trip together
C. to go on another climbing trip together

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following radio interview

31. What was the origin of Martin Middleton’s love of travel?

A. living abroad in the 1960s

B. something he read as a child
C. a television film about Africa
32. When he visited Borneo, Martin
A. had no fixed expectations
B. made a program about life on the river
C. became more interested in filming old buildings
33. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become
A. more relaxed
B. more creative
C. more organized

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 34. Looking back, Martin regards his experience on the iceberg as
A. slightly ridiculous
B. extremely
C. strangely depressing
35. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to
A. relax by the sea
B. stay in comfortable surroundings
C. travel for a particular reason
1. How far was the man from the beach?

TEST 2
1. How far was the man from the beach?
A. one mile
B. two miles
C. three miles
D. four miles
2. Where did the twins find each other?
A. at a party
B. in college
C. a family reunion
D. at high school
3. How much money did the man get?
A. $130,000
B. $135,000
C. $145,000
D. $115,000

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 4. How far had the camera floated?
A. 1,010 miles
B. 1,011 miles
C. 1,100 miles
D. 1,000 miles
5. Who placed the babies next to each other?
A. a nurse
B. a doctor
C. their mother
D. their sister
6. Why didn’t the people hear the smoke alarm?
A. It was broken
B. The parrot imitated the sound
C. They didn’t have one
D. It wasn’t very loud
7. Where were they made?
A. In Italy
B. In China
C. In the U.S
D. In Spain
8. What is it made of?
A. cotton
B. leather
C. wool
D. wood

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 9. How many cakes did the man order?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Ten
D. Twelve
10. What is the woman saying will not be enough for that day?
A. The cakes
B. The people who are coming
C. The roses
D. The budget
11. What should they try to do?
A. spend more money
B. make sure everything is enough for the event
C. cut the cakes in small pieces for many people
D. tell people not to come
12. What will make the boss pleased?
A. their preparation
B. to let them spend some more money
C. the fixed budget
D. the new budget

Quetions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

13. Who is the man?
A. A store clerk
B. A doctor
C. A patient
D. A teacher

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 14. What does the woman tell Mr. Stevens to do?
A. Don’t smoke
B. Make an appointment next week
C. Take an X-ray
D. Drink only a little
15. Why did Mr. Stevens probably call her Dr. Bothering?
A. She was mean to other people
B. The woman’s name is Bothering
C. He heard a lot of complaints
D. Joking around, they are close together
16. What can be inferred from the conversation?
A. She will see the man next time
B. She will call the man next time
C. She is setting the appointment for the man
D. She does not want to be botth

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

17. What are the receipts for?
A. Travel expenses
B. Office supplies
C. Product sales
D. Delivery costs
18. What is the woman trying to get?
A. A loan from her company
B. An airplane ticket for her business trip
C. Insurance money for her trip
D. Her money back from her company

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 19. What can you say about her financial situation?
A. She is trying to invest more money into stocks
B. She is getting loans to buy a house
C. She is short of some money
D. She is making a good salary
20. What will the man do?
A. check his mailbox again
B. pay the woman
C. go to conference trip in Singapore
D. miss her email

Questions 21 to 25
Listen to a talk given by a professor about the poet Sylvia Plath
21. What is The Bell Jar?
A. about her father
B. her first novel
C. a very successful collection of poems
D. her last poem
22. What happened to Sylvia Plath’s ‘Collected poems’?
A. won the Pulitzer Prize twenty years after it was published
B. were written during the last year of her life
C. won the Pulitzer Prize in 1982
D. were never published
23. What can we know about Sylvia’s husband?
A. made movies
B. died in 2003
C. was also a poet
D. had a movie made about him

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 24. What did Susan Bassnett think about Sylvia’s work?
A. was about her husband
B. wasn’t very good
C. was about work life
D. was of great interest to women
25. What can we know about Sylvia’s brother?
A. was born two years after her
B. was two years older than her
C. was a professor at Boston University
D. was a highly educated academic

Questions 26-30
Listen to a lecture given by a professor about facial recognition
26. Where does the TV show ‘Las Vegas’ take place?
A. in a shopping mall
B. in a police department
C. in a casino
D. in a crime lad
27. What is a faceprint?
A. a code which identifies a face
B. distinctive curves in the face
C. a 2D image of the face
D. the number of nodal points on the face
28. Which one is the problem with 2D facial recognition from the list below?
A. It is still effective if a picture is dark.
B. the person in the photograph must face the camera.
C. facial curves change over time.
D. Nodal points cannot be measured.

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 29. What is the problem with the 3D technology?
A. It can only be used when the individual is directly facing the camera.
B. The image might change over time.
C. It is impossible to match a 3D image to a 2D image
D. It cannot distinguish between identical twins
30. Which element below can be measured by Skin Biometric?
A. the curve of the chin
B. the skin’s depth
C. the existences of lines on the face
D. the distance between the eyes

Questions 31-35
Listen to the lecture about population growth
31. What is the number of children born per 1000 people per year?
A. Replacement Level
B. Fertility Level
C. Birth Rate
D. Fertility Level
32. Which of the following countries in the UK has the highest fertility rate?
A. England
B. Scotland
C. Wales
D. Northern Ireland

33. Why is fertility rate in the UK higher

than it was twenty years ago?

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 A. Couples are choosing to have larger families
B. a higher proportion of women are having children
C. women who delayed childbirth are having children now
D. Fewer women are interested in their careers
34. What proportion of women in their mid-forties do not have children nowadays?
A. 10%
B. 4%
C. 25%
D. 40%
35. Which reason for low fertility rates is NOT mentioned?
A. women are increasingly focused on their jobs
B. Children are considered to cost a lot of money
C. Parents do not have time to have many children
D. People want to enjoy their lives before taking on responsibility

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 TEST 3
1. How will the woman get to the airport?
A. she will get a ride with the man
B. she will ride the airport shuttle
C. she will drive her car
D. she will rent a car
2. What does the woman want to eat?
A. she would like eggs and potatoes
B. she wants eggs and pancakes
C. she wants to eat potato pancakes
D. pancakes is what she would like to eat
3. How many boxes of cookies did the man order?
A. the man bought one box of cookies
B. the man ordered four boxes of cookies
C. he purchased five boxes of cookies
D. he did not order any cookies this year
4. What is the correct area code for the woman?
A. the number is 6-9-1
B. the area code is 1-9-6
C. 9-1-6 is the area code
D. 6-1-9 is the correct number
5. How much per copy will the woman pay?
A. she will pay eight cents per page
B. the price is ten cents a copy
C. she owes 15 cents per copy
D. 20 cents per page is the price

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 6. How much will the woman pay?
A. one dollar a minute
B. one dollar a page
C. 2 dollars and 50 cents a minute
D. 2 dollars and 50 cents a page
7. What does the woman want to do?
A. see a documentary
B. change the channel
C. watch television
D. go to a movie
8. What does the man want the woman to do?
A. he wants all 20 dollar bills
B. he wants all 50 dollar bills
C. he wants all large bills
D. he wants some 20 dollar and some 50 dollar bills

Questions 9 to 12
Listen to a conversation about a tragic event
9. What is the topic of this conversation?
A. Fire damage to some apartments
B. How to prevent fires
C. An apartment fire and what one can learn from it
D. An early morning news story
10. According to the woman, how extensively were the apartments damaged?
A. One was damaged more severely than the others
B. All the apartments were completely destroyed
C. There was one thousand dollars of damage
D. All twenty apartments suffered some
damage

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 11. What did the man say about some of the apartment residents?
A. They were killed
B. They were taken to the hospital
C. The damage to the apartments was more serious than the harm to the residents
D. They weren’t frightened
12. What advice does the man give to the woman to protect herself from fires?
A. Call the fire department
B. Rush to the hospital
C. Listen for a smoke alarm
D. Have an alarm and extinguisher in good condition

Questions 13 to 16
Listen to a conversation between two students
13. What are the man and woman discussing in this conversation?
A. A presentation for political science class
B. How quickly time passes
C. The differences between the various types of courts
D. A schedule for preparing for a political science exam
14. What will the man and woman discuss during their presentation?
A. Three levels of courts
B. Only the municipal courts
C. The state but not the federal courts
D. Only the state and federal courts
15. When do they next plan to meet?
A. On Thursday
B. On Monday
C. In a week
D. Before Monday

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 16. How much time do they have to prepare for the presentation?
A. Plenty of time
B. Until Monday
C. About one week
D. Until a week from Monday

Questions 17 to 20
Listen to a conversation between two friends
17. When does the conversation probably take place?
A. Just before a vacation
B. Just after the end of a school semester
C. At the end of the summer
D. Just after a break from school
18. What are the man and woman discussing?
A. A trip to visit the Eskimos
B. A trip the woman is planning to take
C. A trip the man has already taken
D. A camping trip the man and the woman took
19. Which of the following is NOT part of the kayaking trip?
A. Sleeping outside on the ground
B. Spending time in a hot tub
C. Relaxing at the lodge
D. Enjoying excellent food
20. How does the woman feel about taking a kayaking trip?
A. She’d be scared, but she’d like to try
B. She can’t wait
C. It would be quite exciting for her
D. She’d prefer not to cry

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 21. What prompted the conversation?
A. The man wants to place a classified ad in the newspaper.
B. The woman wants to find an apartment close to school
C. The man wants to pay for a newspaper subscription
D. The woman wants to fill out an application for employment
22. What does the man want to sell?
A. furniture
B. books
C. garden supplies
D. an apartment
23. What is the man’s last name?
A. Martin
B. Martyn
C. Wynn
D. Wartin
24. How will the man pay?
A. He will pay by check
B. He will have the amount billed to his home address
C. He will give the woman cash
D. He will come back to pay when he is billed
25. Why does the man decide to revise what he has written?
A. To make it clearer to understand
B. To make it longer to read
C. To make it cheaper to print
D. To make it easier to use

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 What is the purpose of the conversation?
26. What is the purpose of the conversation?
A. To help the woman make a purchase
B. To request the woman’s identification
C. To show the woman how to make out a check
D. To register the woman for a course at City colleage
27. What is meant by the term cash?
A. Money
B. Money or credit cards
C. Credit cards or checks
D. Checks or money
28. How does the woman pay for her purchase?
A. Credit card
B. money
C. debit card
D. check
29. What did the woman use as identification?
A. She used her student ID and a charge card
B. She used her credit card
C. She used her driver’s license and her student ID card
D. She used her telephone number and her student ID card
30. Who is the man in this conversation?
A. A clerk
B. The woman’s husband
C. A police officer
D. A bank teller

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 Questions 31-35
31. What is the main subject of the conversation?
A. The man’s last appointment
B. Professor Irwin’s office hours
C. Student advisement during registration
D. The man’s health problems
32. When is the man’s new appointment scheduled?
A. Tuesday at 2 o’clock
B. Thursday at 2 o’clock
C. This afternoon at three o’clock
D. Now
33. What should the man have done about his 1st appointment?
A. He should have made an appointment
B. He should have called to cancel his appointment
C. He should have come for his appointment
D. He should have stayed at home until he was well
34. What is the man’s excuse?
A. He was not well
B. He was out of town
C. He did not know what to do
D. He forgot the time
35. What word best describes professor Irwin’s attitude toward the student?
A. uninterested
B. apologetic
C. sick
D. annoyed

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 READING

TEST 1
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each
followed by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best
answer A, B, C, or D for each question. Answer all questions following a passage on
the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions.

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the Second World War is the
country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there
were over five in 1996. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million
mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the
1930's and the war had held back marriages and the catching – up process began after
1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950's, producing a
population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This
rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade
before 1911, when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic
conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also
derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of
families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest
in the world.

After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued
falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline
reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also
caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer,
more women were working, young married couples were buying automobiles or
houses before starting families, rising living standards were cutting down the size of
families. It appeared that Canada was once
more falling in step with the trend toward

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 smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the
Industrial Revolution.

Although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by 1966(the increase in
the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent). Another large population wave was
coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who
were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society
B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada
D. Standards of living in Canada
2. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?
A. In the decade after 1911
B. After 1945
C. During the depression of the 1930's
D. In 1966
3. The word "five" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. Canadians
B. Years
C. Decades
D. Marriages
4. The word "surging" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. new
B. extra
C. accelerating
D. surprising
5. The word "trend" in paragraph 1 is
closest in meaning to

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 A. tendency
B. aim
C. growth
D. directive
6. The word "peak" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. pointed
B. dismal
C. mountain
D. maximum
7. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?
A. 1966
B. 1957
C. 1956
D. 1951
8. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population
growth after 1957 EXCEPT
A. people being better educated
B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living
D. couples buying houses
9. It can be inferred from the passage that before the industrial Revolution
A. families were larger
B. population statistics were unreliable
C. the population grew steadily
D. economic conditions were bad
10. The word "It" in the last paragraph refers to
A. horizon
B. population wave
C. nine percent

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 D. first hal

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such
foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated.
Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently
proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the
typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this
interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or in
adequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not
supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing
such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a
result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents
or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized
and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and
other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural
vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to
unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like.

One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that
they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are
misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional
quality than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if
consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy
and buy only expensive organic foods
instead.

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 11. The word "organically" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. steadily
B. slowly
C. conventionally
D. naturally
12. The word "Advocates" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. Proponents
B. Merchants
C. Inspectors
D. Consumers
13. In paragraph 1, the word "others" refers to
A. advantages
B. advocates
C. organic foods
D. products
14. The "welcome development" mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in
A. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America
D. the number of consumers in North America
15. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the
term "organic foods"?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists
B. It has been used only in recent years
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 C. It has no fixed meaning
D. It is seldom used by consumers

16. The word "unsubstantiated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. unbelievable
B. uncontested
C. unpopular
D. unverified
17. The word "maintain" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. improve
B. monitor
C. preserve
D. restore
18. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited
incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally
grown foods
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown
foods
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops
19. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods
are better than conventionally grown foods are often
A. careless
B. mistaken
C. thrifty
D. wealthy
20. What is the author's attitude toward
the claims made by advocates of health
foods?

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 A. Very enthusiastic
B. Somewhat favorable
C. Neutral
D. Skeptical

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greece. The one
most widely accepted today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from
ritual. The argument for this view goes as follows. In the beginning, human beings
viewed the natural forces of the world, even the seasonal changes, as unpredictable,
and they sought through various means, to control these unknown and feared powers.
Those measures which appeared to bring the desired results were then retained and
repeated until they hardened into fixed rituals. Eventually stories arose which
explained or veiled the mysteries of the rites. As time passed some rituals were
abandoned, but the stories, later called myths, persisted and provided material for art
and drama.

Those who believe that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites
contained the seed of theater because music, dance, masks, and costumes were almost
always used. Furthermore, a suitable site had to be provided for performances, and
when the entire community did not participate, a clear division was usually made
between the "acting area" and the "auditorium." In addition, there were performers,
and since considerable importance was attached to avoiding mistakes in the
enactment of rites, religious leaders usually assumed that task. Wearing masks and
costumes, they often impersonated other people, animals, or supernatural beings, and
mimed the desired effect - success in hunt or battle, the coming rain, the revival of the
Sun - as an actor might. Eventually such dramatic representations were separated from
religious activities.

Another theory traces the theater's origin from the human interest in storytelling.
According to this view, tales (about the hunt, war, or other feats) are gradually
elaborated, at first through the use of
impersonation, action, and dialogue by a

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 narrator and then through the assumption of each of the roles by a different person. A
closely related theory traces theater to those dances that are primarily rhythmical and
gymnastic or that are imitations of animal movements and sounds.

21. What does the passage many discuss?

A. The origins of theater
B. The role of ritual in modern dance
C. The importance of storytelling
D.The variety of early religious activities
22. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. seasonal changes
B. natural forces
C. theories
D. human beings
23. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?
A. The reason drams are often unpredictable
B. The seasons in which dramas were performed
C. The connection between myths and dramatic plots
D. The importance of costumes in early drama
24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater
and ritual?
A. Dance
B. Costumes
C. Music
D. Magic
25. The word "considerable" in
paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

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 A. thoughtful
B. substantial
C. relational
D. ceremonial

26. The word "enactment" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. establishment
B. performance
C. authorization
D. season
27. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. mistakes
B. costumes
C. animals
D. performers
28. According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and
drama?
A. Ritual uses music whereas drama does not
B. Ritual is shorter than drama
C. Ritual requires fewer performers than drama
D. Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not
29. The passage supports which of the following statements?
A. No one really knows how the theater began
B. Myths are no longer represented dramatically
C. Storytelling is an important part of dance
D. Dramatic activities require the use of costumes
30. The word "imitations" in the last
paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. actions
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 B. repetitions
C. limitations
D. behaviors

PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40

Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South,
when the Civil war ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to
be demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated
economy. Civil government also had to be put back on a peacetime basis and
interference from the military had to be stopped.

The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to
be undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to
peacetime conditions, factories had to be retooled for civilian needs.

Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national
debt had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the ear started to nearly
$3 billion in 1865, the year the war ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but
one that a prudent government could pay. At the same time, war taxes had to be
reduced to less burdensome levels.

Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border
states, had to be repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with
discouraging slowness. Other important questions needed answering. What would be
the future of the four million black people who were freed from slavery? On what
basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the Union?

What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One
of these leaders, Jefferson Davis, President of the Southern Confederacy, was the
subject of an insulting popular Northern
song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple

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 Tree." And even children sang it. Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell
during the early days of his two-year imprisonment. But he and the other Southern
leaders were finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from
Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the leaders were
finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help reconstruction
efforts proceed with as little bitterness as possible.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Wartime expenditures
B. Problems facing the United States after the war
C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war
D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy
32. The word "Staggering" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. specialized
B. confusing
C. various
D. overwhelming
33. The word "devastated" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. developing?
B. ruined
C. complicated
D. fragile
34. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the
damage in the South is correct?
A. It was worse than in the North
B. The cost was less than expected
C. It was centered in the border states
D. It was remedied rather quickly

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 35. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil
War EXCEPT
A. helping soldiers readjust
B. restructuring industry
C. returning government to normal
D. increasing taxes

36. The word "task" in paragraph 4 refers to

A. raising the tax level
B. sensible financial choices
C. worse decisions about former slaves
D. reconstruction of damaged areas
37. Why does the author mention a popular song in the last paragraph?
A. To give attitude towards the South
B. To illustrate the Northern love of music
C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South
D.To compare the Northern and Southern presidents
38. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase " _____it was
unlikely that a jury from Virginia. a Southern Confederate state, would convict
them" (paragraph 5)?
A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis
B. A popular song insulted Virginian
C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders
D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains
39. The word "them" in paragraph 5 refers to
A. charges
B. leaders
C. days
D. irons

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 40. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the
Southern leaders in order to
A. raise money for the North
B. repair the physical damage in the South
C. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners
D. help the nation recover from the war

TEST 2

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

The Glen Nevis River Race
Glen Nevis is known as the. ‘outdoor capital’ of Scotland. Britain’s highest mountain,
Ben Nevis, rises above the area, while the waters of the River Nevis flow through the
rocky valley below. The spectacular scenery attracts walkers and climbers all through
the seasons, despite the cold weather in winter.

During the summer months, one of the most exciting activities is the annual Glen
Nevis River Race, in which competitors uses a lilo, a plastic bed filled with air
normally used for camping or floating in the sea, or another kind of beach toy to race
along the river. There are rocks, waterfalls and sections with scary names like Dead
Dog Pool and the Leg Breaker for them to get through though there are areas of
calmer waters too.

Competitors set off at 30 second intervals by jumping with their lilos from a tiny shelf
in a rock into the fast-flowing water 12 metres below. It can take anything from 20
minutes to over two hours to complete the course, depending on the level of the river
and the abilities of the competitor.

There is much discussion amongst people who take part regularly about which type of
lilo works best for the race. Some prefer short wide ones, while others say that a long
narrow one is better. But since you can use

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 anything that floats, all kinds of beach toys such as bananas, sharks and crocodiles can
be floating down the river.

The only rules are that competitors must be at least 16 years old, and should provide
their own crash helmet, a rubber wet suit and a life jacket. Gloves and old trainers are
recommended to protect against knocks and bumps. The most important qualification,
however, is a sense of fun.

The race is full of exciting moments, and the greatest of these is at the Lower Falls
Leap, where terrified competitors have to jump over a ten-metre waterfall not far from
the finish. More than 3,000 athletes have taken part in the race during its 30-year
history. Their £30 entry fee helps to raise money for the mountain rescue team, whose
members provide an essential service in the region for free. The race is a popular
afternoon out for visitors and it costs nothing to watch, although any money given is
gratefully accepted.

The prizes may not be fantastic, but everyone receives a certificate of completion and
the winner gets the tittle River Race Champion and all agree that it has been worth it
for the satisfying feeling of reaching the end safely.

1. Visitor come to Glen Nevis to

A. enjoy the cold weather and spectacular scenery
B. practise walking
C. challenge themselves with climbing activities
D. enjoy outdoor activities
2. Parts of the course of the River Race are
A. really typical
B. quite easy to conquer
C. less rough than others
D. really dangerous
3. All competitors are able to
A. begin the race as ssoon as they are ready
B. finish the course within 20 minutes
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 C. swim for 12 metres
D. carry out the game based on their own strength
4. Types of lilo used can be
A. restricted to certain ones
B. varied as long as they can float
C. really important
D. divided into two types

5. Competitors must
A. prepare their own safety clothing
B. use safety clothing of the organisers
C. be more than 16 years old
D. use new trainers
6. The Lower Falls Leap
A. is the most frightening part
B. requires competitors to swim over ten metres
C. has been taken by 3,000 athletes
D. is the last challenge
7. Members in the rescue team
A. help raise money
B. receive £30 each
C. work voluntarily
D. are paid professionals
8. Visitors who come to see the race
A. should buy the tickets
B. could donate for some money
C. should be there in the morning

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 D. are fully charged
9. Certificates of completion is
A. given to all people there
B. only given to the winner
C. not really interesting
D. a great encouragement for competitors

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. Some people return to do the race again and again
B. All competitors need to be serious about the race
C. Competitors must bring lilos during the race
D. The race takes place at Glen Nevis rive

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

Robert Capa
Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war
photography. Born in Hungary in 1913 as Friedmann Endre Ernő, Capa was forced to
leave his native country after his involvement in anti-government protests. Capa had
originally wanted to become a writer, but after his arrival in Berlin had first found
work as a photographer. He later left Germany and moved to France due to the rise in
Nazism. He tried to find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that he changed
his name to Robert Capa, mainly because he thought it would sound more American.

In 1936, after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war, Capa went to Spain and it was
here over the next three years that he built his reputation as a war photographer. It was
here too in 1936 that he took one of his most famous pictures, The Death of a Loyalist
Soldier. One of Capa’s most famous quotes was 'If your pictures aren't good enough,
you're not close enough.' And he took his
attitude of getting close to the action to an

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 extreme. His photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime example of this
as Capa captures the very moment the soldier falls. However, many have questioned
the authenticity of this photograph, claiming that it was staged.

When World war II broke out, Capa was in New York, but he was soon back in
Europe covering the war for Life magazine. Some of his most famous work was
created on 6th June 1944 when he swam ashore with the first assault on Omaha Beach
in the D-Day invasion of Normandy. Capa, armed only with two cameras, took more
than one hundred photographs in the first hour of the landing, but a mistake in the
darkroom during the drying of the film destroyed all but eight frames. It was the
images from these frames however that inspired the visual style of Steven Spielberg's
Oscar winning movie ‘Saving Private Ryan’. When Life magazine published the
photographs, they claimed that they were slightly out of focus, and Capa later used
this as the title of his autobiographical account of the war.

Capa’s private life was no less dramatic. He was friend to many of Hollywood’s
directors, actors and actresses. In 1943 he fell in love with the wife of actor John
Austin. His affair with her lasted until the end of the war and became the subject of his
war memoirs. He was at one time lover to actress Ingrid Bergman. Their relationship
finally ended in 1946 when he refused to settle in Hollywood and went off to Turkey.

In 1947 Capa was among a group of photojournalists who founded Magnum Photos.
This was a co-operative organisation set up to support photographers and help them to
retain ownership of the copyright to their work.

Capa went on to document many other wars. He never attempted to glamorise war
though, but to record the horror. He once said, "The desire of any war photographer is
to be put out of business."

Capa died as he had lived. After promising not to photograph any more wars, he
accepted an assignment to go to Indochina to cover the first Indochina war. On May
25th 1954 Capa was accompanying a French regiment when he left his jeep to take
some photographs of the advance and
stepped on a land mine. He was taken to a

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 nearby hospital, still clutching his camera, but was pronounced dead on arrival. He left
behind him a testament to the horrors of war and a standard for photojournalism that
few others have been able to reach.

Capa’s legacy has lived on though and in 1966 his brother Cornell founded the
International Fund for Concerned Photography in his honor. There is also a Robert
Capa Gold Medal, which is given to the photographer who publishes the best
photographic reporting from abroad with evidence of exceptional courage. But
perhaps his greatest legacy of all are the haunting images of the human struggles that
he captured.

11. Why did Capa change his name?

A. To hide his identity
B. Because he had been involved in protests
C. To sound more American
D. Because he had to leave Hungary
12. Capa originally wanted to be
A. A photojournalist
B. A writer
C. An American
D. A protestor
13. Capa went to Spain to
A. fight in the civil war
B. build his reputation
C. have a holiday
D. take photographs
14. Capa’s famous picture Death of a
Loyalist Soldier

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 A. was taken by someone else
B. was definitely genuine
C. wasn’t even taken in Spain
D. cannot be proven genuine or staged
15. When World War II broke out Capa
A. went to New York
B. swam ashore on Omaha Beach
C. went to Europe
D. went to Normand

16. A mistake meant that

A. Most of Capa’s images of the D-Day landing were destroyed
B. Capa lost both of his two cameras
C. only one hundred of Capa’s photographs were published
D. Capa’s images inspired an Oscar winning movie
17. Capa’s private life was
A. less dramatic than his professional life
B. very glamorous
C. spent mostly in Hollywood
D. spent in Turkey
18. Capa wanted his work to
A. be very famous
B. show how glamorous war can be
C. show the true horror of war
D. make lots of money

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 19. Which sentence best paraphrases paragraph 3?

A. Capa took some of his most famous photographs during the D-Day invasion, but
most were tragically destroyed in an accident

B. Capa never tried to avoid danger. He risked his life to take photographs of the D-
Day invasion, but then destroyed most of them

C. Capa only kept the best eight D-Day photographs as the others were out of focus.
These inspired the visual style of a Hollywood film

D. Capa left Europe when the war broke out and went to take his most famous
photographs of the D-Day invasion

20. Which sentence best paraphrases paragraph 4?

A. Capa had a tragic private life and was never able to settle down and find happiness

B. Despite having many good friends and lovers, Capa always put his work first

C. Capa wanted to make friends with important people in Hollywood so that he could
move into the movie industry

D. Capa’s private life was very complicated. He could not choose between the two
women he loved, so he went off to work in Turkey

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

The perfume story

The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in
Ancient Rome, where the emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome,
much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic civilizations in the Middle
Ages. Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants
of the Indian peninsula. They developed the
processes of distillation and suspension in

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 alcohol, which allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the
ancient process, by which flower petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was
carried back to European monasteries during the Crusades.

At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic
alcoholic waters were ingested as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to
purify the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black Death, the
bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted
by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion
to using water for washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.

Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly
because it was an important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such
materials at hand was essential for the distillation process. In the late seventeenth
century, trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism
and patronage which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was
the preserve of glove-makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required
putrid substances. Consequently, the gloves were scented before they were sold and
worn. A glove and perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it
required 7 years of formal training under a master perfumer.

The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-
and-perfume makers, particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the
royal court, where it is said that a different perfume was used each week. The
perfumers diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints
and hair dyes. They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers,
vinegar-makers and wig-makers were all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed
products. Even simple shopkeepers were coming up with their own concoctions to
sell.

During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to
emerge, particularly in Britain where there
was a flourishing consumer society. In
France, the revolution initially disrupted the
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 perfume trade due to its association with aristocracy, however, it regained momentum
later as a wider range of markets were sought both in the domestic and overseas
markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new high-end perfumery
shops to open in Paris.

Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance
which required perfumers to declare the ingredients of all products for internal
consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders concentrated on products for
external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports
blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able
to dominate the markets for some time.

One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding.
Until then, trademarks had had little significance in the perfumery where goods were
consumed locally, although they had a long history in other industries. One of the
pioneers in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857.
He took advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To
do this, he built a brand which conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying
a premium for. He recognised the role of design in enhancing the value of his
products, hiring a French lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles.

21. The purpose of the text is to

A. compare the perfumes from different countries

B. describe the history of perfume making

C. describe the problems faced by perfumers

D. explain the different uses of perfume over time

22. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic
countries?

A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil

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 B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire

C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India

D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials

23. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?

During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad
odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.

A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death.

B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease.

C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease

D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes

24. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?

A. Because it was an important trade route

B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry

C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws

D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves

25. What does “putrid” mean in paragraph 3?

A. Bad-smelling

B. Rare

C. Prestigious

D. Numerous

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 26. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as
medicine?

A. Louis XIV

B. Louis XV

C. Rimmel

D. Napoleon

27. In paragraph 4, it is implied that

A. Master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week.

B. Mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters.

C. The Royal Court only bought perfume from masters.

D. Cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts

28. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?

A. The industry declined then rose again

B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover

C. The industry was greatly boosted

D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers

29. London came to lead the perfume industry because

A. the French were unable to export perfumes for a period of time

B. the production of perfume ceased during the Napoleonic wars

C. Napoleon’s new laws affected the profitability of perfume-making

D. the French Revolution meant that there were fewer customers in France

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 30. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?

A. He created attractive packaging for his products.

B. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks.

C. His products were more expensive than other brands.

D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train

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 PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40
Armenian Culture

The Armenians became active in literature and many art forms at a very early point in
their civilization. Metalworking and architecture have been traced back to about 1000
B.C. The beginning of truly national art is usually fixed at the onset of the Christian
era. The three great artistic periods coincided with times of independence or semi-
independence: from the fifth to the seventh century; the Bagratid golden age of the
ninth and tenth centuries; and the era of the kingdom of Lesser Armenia in the twelfth
to fourteenth centuries.

Of especially high quality in the earlier periods were works in gold and bronze, as
well as temples, military fortifications, and aqueducts. In the early Christian era,
classical church architecture was adapted in a series of cathedrals. The circular domes
typical of Armenian churches were copied in Western Europe and in Ottoman Turkey.
The best example of the distinctive architectural sculpture used to adorn such churches
is the early tenth-century Church of the Holy Cross on an island in Lake Van. The
architecture of contemporary Erevan is distinguished by the use of pinkish tufa stone
and a combination of traditional Armenian and Russian styles.

Armenian painting is generally considered to have originated with the illumination of

religious manuscripts that thrived from the ninth to the seventeenth century. Armenian
painters in Cilicia and elsewhere enriched Byzantine and Western formulas with their
unique use of color and their inclusion of Oriental themes acquired from the Mongols.
Many unique Armenian illuminated manuscripts remain in museums in the West.

The nineteenth century saw a blooming of Armenian painting. Artists from that
period, such as the portrait painter Hacop Hovnatanian and the seascape artist Ivan
Aivazovsky, continue to enjoy international reputations. Notable figures of the
twentieth century include the unorthodox Alexander Bazhbeuk-Melikian, who lived a
persecuted existence in Tbilisi, and the émigré surrealist Arshile Gorky (pseudonym
of Vosdanik Adoian), who greatly
influenced a generation of young American

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 artists in New York. Other émigré painters in various countries have continued the
tradition as well.

The Armenian literary tradition began early in the fifth century A.D. with religious
tracts and histories of the Armenians. The most important of these were written by
Agathangelos, Egishe, Movses Khorenatsi, and Pavstos Buzand. A secular literature
developed in the early modern period, and in the eighteenth century Armenian
Catholic monks of the Mekhitarist order began publishing ancient texts, modern
histories, grammars, and literature. In the nineteenth century, Armenians developed
their own journalism and public theater. Khachatur Abovian wrote the first Armenian
novel, Verk Haiastani (The Wounds of Armenia), in the early 1840s. Armenian
literature and drama often depict struggles against religious and ethnic oppression and
the aspirations of Armenians for security and self-expression.

31. What is the passage about?

A. religion and culture in Armenia

B. Christianty and church architecture in Armenia

C. the history of metal working, architecture, paiting, and literture in Armenia

D. the thriving of fine arts in Armenia

32. What does the passage imply?

A. Paintings and literature work in Armenia were originated from Cilicia

B. Armenian painting and literature originated with the adoption of Christianity

C. Armenian art and literature were copied from Ottoman Turkey

D. Without Christianity, there would have been no art and literature in Armenia

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 33. In the last paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word "secular"?

A. blessed

B. not religious

C. civil

D. non spiritual

34. In the fourth paragraph, what do the words "that period" refer to?

A. the ninth century

B. the seventeenth century

C. the twentieth century

D. the nineteenth century

35. In the third paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word
"illumination."?

A. illustration

B. copying

C. decoration

D. explanation

36. What did the three great artistic periods coincide with?

A. times of Armenian independence or semi-independence

B. the golden and brozen ages

C. the illumination of religious manuscripts

D. classical church architecture

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 37. Where does the sentence -- "Armenia accepted Christianity as its state
religion in A.D. 306." -- best belong?

A. at the end of the first paragraph

B. at the end of the second paragraph

C. in the second paragraph, after the third sentence

D. in the first paragraph, after the third sentence

38. What is an example of the influence Armenian art in the early Christian era?

A. Byzantine artists used Armenian paint colors

B. Ottoman Turkey and Europe copied the circular domes typical of Armenian
churches

C. Armenian artists had international reputations

D. Erevan applied only Russian style in his architect work

39. In the fourth paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word "blooming"?

A. flourishing

B. thriving

C. developing

D. withering

40. In the last paragraph, what is the meaning of the word "depict" mean?

A. prevent

B. distort

C. hide

D. describe

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