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50. Tuyển Tập Đề Chuyên & HSG Bình Dương - Otto Channel

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
186 views162 pages

50. Tuyển Tập Đề Chuyên & HSG Bình Dương - Otto Channel

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giabaotranle594
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Bình Dương

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS CẤP TỈNH


MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – NĂM 2019
- Thời gian thi: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................................. SBD: ...............................

Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 10 trang. Thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh ghi câu trả lời của mình trên Phiếu trả lời.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU


 Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Phần thi nghe kéo dài 20 phút, gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 02 lần.
I. LISTENING (60 points)
Task 1: Listen to a conversation between a boy and his father. You have 20 seconds to read
through the questions. Listen and choose the best answer for each question.
1. What time of day does this conversation take place?
A. in the morning B. in the afternoon C. in the evening
2. Why doesn’t the father give his son something to eat?
A. There isn’t any to eat. B. The boy has just eaten. C. They’re going to eat soon.
3. What snack does the boy want at the beginning of the conversation?
A. potato chips B. candy C. donuts
4. Which one food does the father NOT offer to his son for a snack?
A. tomatoes B. broccoli C. carrots
5. What does the father ask the boy to do while he is preparing the snack?
A. watch TV B. play with toys C. look at books

Task 2: Listen to a man talking about the four seasons. You have 20 seconds to read through
the questions. Listen and choose the best answer for each question.
6. This presentation was most likely part of which type of recording?
A. an academic speech at school
B. an informal discussion between friends
C. a TV weather program on seasonal changes
7. Based on what you heard, how would you characterize the winter season?
A. January receives about 30 inches in snow.
B. Outdoor activities tend to be popular during this season.
C. Winter temperatures hover below freezing for the 3-month period.
8. Which statement is NOT mentioned about the spring?
A. Spring usually begins at the end of March.
B. Night-time temperatures dip below 50 degrees.
C. Plentiful wind currents make some outdoors activities possible.
9. What is the summer season like in this area?
A. hot and dry B. mild and breezy C. warm and humid
10. What is one activity people like to do in the fall?

________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 1/10
A. have a fall picnic B. clean their houses C. go and see the fall colors

Task 3: Listen to a woman talking about the life cycle of a butterfly. You have 40 seconds to
read through the sentences. Listen and put the sentences in the correct order. Number 0 has
been done for you as an example.
The correct
Sentences:
order:
0. K A. After about two weeks, an adult butterfly comes out of the chrysalis.
0. L B. In the chrysalis stage, the caterpillar is now called pupa.
11. C. Inside the chrysalis, the pupa undergoes a series of changes.
12. D. Once the caterpillar is big enough it stops eating.
13. E. The butterfly pumps fluids into its wings to make them strong and to expand.
14. F. The caterpillar first feeds on its eggshell and leaves and starts to grow.
15. G. The caterpillar sheds its skin several times so that it can grow.
16. H. The caterpillar then forms a protective layer around itself.
17. I. The pupa remains motionless in the chrysalis.
18. J. When the butterfly comes out, its wings are small and wet.
19. K. A butterfly lays eggs on the leaves of a plant.
20. L. These eggs hatch and young ones called larvae or caterpillars come out.
0. M M. After a few hours, the wings become strong and the butterfly is able to fly.
0. N N. These series of changes a butterfly is called metamorphosis.

Task 4: Listen to a man talking about Monaco. Now you have 40 seconds to read through the
sentences. Listen and write ONE WORD and/or A NUMBER in each of the blanks.
21. Monaco is the second smallest country in the world after ____________________ City.
22. The entire country only has one ____________________ city.
23. Monaco has an area of 2.02 km2 and a population of ____________________ people.
24. Monica is a small place on France’s ____________________ coastline.
25. Monaco has the 181st largest ____________________ in the world.
26. Its GDP is just over ____________________ U.S. dollars.
27. The GDP per capita in Monica is $____________________.
28. The average private ____________________ of Monaco’s citizens was $1.7 million.
29. Liechtenstein and Luxembourg were second and third ____________________.
30. The USA was ____________________ in the top ten list.

II. USE OF ENGLISH (40 points)


Part 1:
Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each gap.
Fold everything
Almost certainly you have at one time in your life ____31____ origami, even if it was
just making a paper aeroplane. Perhaps it was something more sophisticated like a paper crane.
The chances are that as you did it, you reflected on how ingenious this ____32____ Japanese art
is. Animals, boxes, flowers, boats – all can be created from a single square or rectangular
____33____ of paper simply by folding it – no cutting, no pasting.
But did you ever stop to think how the same techniques might be applied to engineer
equipment ____34____ could be of real practical use? In fact, origami-inspired creations have
already flown in space; in 1995, Japanese engineers launched a satellite with solar ____35____

________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 2/10
that folded like a map. And very soon origami engineering may well be seen in a host of other
____36____.
“It’s now mathematically ____37____ that you can pretty much fold anything,” says
physicist Robert J. Lang, who quit his engineering job in California eight years ago to fold
things full-time. Lang, an origami ____38____ since the age of six, advised a well-known car
manufacturer on the best way to fold an airbag into a dashboard. He is currently working on a
space telescope lens that, if all goes to plan, should be able to unfold to the size of a football
____39____.
At the other end of the scale, researchers are also working on tiny folding devices that
could lead to ____40____ in medicine and computing. These include origami stents that are
____41____ into arteries and open up to keep the blood flowing. Computers of the future are
____42____ to contain tiny, folded motors or capacitors, which will mean faster processing and
better memory storage.
There’s no ____43____ that saving space has become important in our world, as the
search for ever smaller electronic components shows. Origami also ____44____ the demand for
things which need to be small when transported and large when they arrive, like the everyday
____45____.

31. A. practically B. practice C. practised D. practical


32. A. traditional B. commercial C. abstract D. sacred
33. A. wad B. sheet C. side D. roll
34. A. when B. what C. that D. whose
35. A. powers B. eclipses C. systems D. panels
36. A. applicants B. applications C. appliance D. applicator
37. A. proven B. discussed C. advised D. considered
38. A. enthusiastic B. enthusiasm C. enthusiast D. enthuse
39. A. pitch B. match C. league D. squad
40. A. breakthroughs B. barriers C. failures D. mysteries
41. A. changed B. transformed C. broken D. inserted
42. A. reluctant B. likely C. fortunate D. improbably
43. A. point B. chance C. choice D. doubt
44. A. repeats B. rejects C. meets D. manages
45. A. automobile B. motorbike C. smartphone D. umbrella

Part 2:
Read the following passage and use only ONE word that best fits each gap. Write the answer on
your answer sheet.
Passage A: The importance of laughter
Psychologists tell us that humour and laughter (46)_______________ good for our social
relationships. Having a good sense of humour is often regarded (47)_______________ being
one of the most important characteristics that people look (48)_______________ in a friend. In
classrooms, a humorous teacher can make learning far (49)_______________ enjoyable and
improve a student’s motivation.
In one study, students on a psychology course (50)_______________ split into two
different groups: one group was taught with a certain amount of humour, and the other with
(51)_______________ humour at all. Later, when researchers tested the students to see how
much they had retained of (52)_______________ they had heard in the lectures, they found that
those who had attended lectures containing humour scored significantly higher than the other
students.
________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 3/10
Humour and laughter make us feel happy, and our laughter makes others laugh as well,
so if we laugh a lot we may be helping to make other people feel happy.

Passage B: The importance of reading


Reading is good (53)_______________ us. In fact, there is plenty of evidence that
reading for pleasure is more than just another leisure pursuit – it actually improves our mental
and physical health. Reading extended texts (54)_______________ as novels or biographies,
(55)_______________ requires intense concentration for a considerable period of time, helps to
lengthen attention spans in children and improves their ability to think clearly. However,
experts say (56)_______________ is essential to acquire the habit of reading extensively
(57)_______________ a small child, while the brain is still developing.
Reading can undoubtedly be beneficial to our mental well-being. Reading not
(58)_______________ helps combat feelings of loneliness, it also allows people to relax and
forget their problems for (59)_______________ while. The concentration required during the
act of reading seems to ease muscle tension and slow the heart rate. Researchers have found that
just six minutes of reading can reduce stress levels by as (60)_______________ as two-thirds.

Part 3:
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word in parentheses. Do not change the word given. You must use between TWO AND FOUR
words, including the word given. Use no contractions.

Example: Susan went to the gym frequently so that she would be healthier. (order)
→ Susan often went to the gym ____________________ healthier.
Answer: → Susan often went to the gym in order to be healthier.

61. I had not expected the film to be so good. (much)


→ The film ______________________________ I had expected.
62. It’s not worth inviting her here. She will never come. (point)
→ There ______________________________ in inviting her here. She will never come.
63. “Do you know the way to the Italian restaurant?” Julie asked Maria. (if)
→ Julie asked Maria ______________________________ the Italian restaurant was.
64. The family went skiing a month ago. (month)
→ It ______________________________ the family went skiing.
65. I found the noise of the city strange at first, but now I don’t any more. (to)
→ Now I have got ______________________________ the noise of the city.
66. I don’t really want you to go out tonight. (rather)
→ I ______________________________ home tonight.
67. I only finished my project because of your help. (not)
→ I wouldn’t have finished my project had ______________________________ me.
68. “Did you go to the museum on Friday?” David asked me. (been)
→ David wanted to know ______________________________ to the museum on Friday.
69. John never pays any attention to what his children say. (notice)
→ John never ______________________________ what his children say.
70. It’s no use asking Lynda to help as she’s really busy. (waste)
→ It’s ______________________________ asking Lynda to help as she’s really busy.
________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 4/10
III. READING (40 points)
Part 1:
You are going to read an article about the Great Barrier Reef. Five sentences have been
removed from the article. Choose from the sentences (A-E) the one which fits each gap.

A. Global warming is bleaching and killing the reef’s coral.


B. We have a social conscience to look after the Great Barrier Reef.
C. People will look after the reef better if they know how valuable it is.
D. This is over three times more than those employed by Australia’s national airline Qantas.
E. Deloitte’s report puts a value of US$42.5 billion on the reef, and a worth of US$4.9
billion a year to the Australian economy.

Australia’s world-famous Great Barrier Reef has been assigned a monetary value for the
first time. The financial advising company Deloitte Access Economics has outlined the worth of
one of nature’s most spectacular wonders. ____(71)____ It also supports 64,000 full-time jobs
in the tourism, fishing, recreation and scientific research industries. ____(72)____ The report
says: “The livelihoods and businesses the reef supports across Australia far exceeds the
numbers supported by many industries we would consider too big to fail.”
Deloitte says quantifying the World Heritage-listed reef’s worth is one attempt at
conserving it for future generations. ____(73)____ Deloitte said the reef is worth “more than 12
Sydney Opera Houses”. However, the reef and its 1,700 fish species are in danger.
____(74)____ A local businessman said it was “astounding” that a value was put on the reef. He
said, “Why on earth do we need to quantify it in terms of money? ____(75)____ It’s on our
doorstep and we should be looking after it.”

Part 2:
You are going to read an article about plants. Five sentences have been removed from the
article. Choose from the sentences F-L the one which fits each gap. There are two extra
sentences which you do not need to use.

________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 5/10
F. After all, he adds, “We have a very fancy brain, but maybe most of the time we’re not
using it.”
G. And now researchers think they can develop the best strategy to help them grow even
though, yes, they don’t have brains.
H. Both pots had equal amounts of nutrients on average, but one pot always had the same
amount, while the other pot sometimes had a lot of nutrients and sometimes a lot less.
I. But if the person were stranded with no money in a far-flung place and getting $20,000
would get him home, the choice would probably be different.
J. On average, most people would realize that the first choice would pay more and would
like it if there are no other restrictions.
K. Or at least enough like us that they can still judge risk and make good decisions even
though they happen to have a few handicaps that we don’t.
L. This behavior is consistent with “risk sensitivity theory,” applicable to both plants and
humans, which says it’s smart to take a risk and hope for the best when conditions are bad
anyway.

Plants, they’re just like us. ____(76)____


We’ve long known that plants are smarter than we think. After all, they probably have
memories, even though they don’t have neurons. ____(77)____
In a paper published in Current Biology, researchers divided the roots of pea plants into
two different pots. ____(78)____
The plants turned out to be surprisingly good at picking the best pot. When there were
lots of nutrients overall, plants chose the consistent pot, sort of like the game-show finalist who
decides to walk away with $100,000 instead of risk it all for a chance for just a little more.
When nutrients were low, they chose the unpredictable pot, like the game-show finalist who
only has $2,000 and might as try for ten times that. ____(79)____
As one plant ecologist who worked on the study, Hagai Shemesh of Tel-Hei College in
Israel, cheerfully said, the experiment “raises a question, not about plants, but about animals and
humans” and just how dumb we might be. ____(80)____

Part 3:
You are going to read an extract about lichens. Choose the answer (A B, C or D) that fits best
according to the text.
Lichens, probably the hardiest of all plants, live where virtually nothing else can – not
just on rugged mountain peaks but also on sunbaked desert rocks. They are usually the first life
to appear on a mountainside that has been scraped bare by an avalanche. Unlike other members
of the plant kingdom, lichens are actually a partnership between two plants. The framework of
a lichen is usually a network of minute hairlike fungus that anchors the plant. The other
component is an alga (similar to the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant pools) that is
distributed throughout the fungus. Being green plants, algae are capable of photosynthesis – that
is, using energy from the Sun to manufacture their own food. The fungi are believed to supply
water, minerals, and physical support to the partnership.
Lichens are famous for their ability to survive water shortage. When water is scarce,
lichens may become dormant and remain in that condition for prolonged periods of time. Some
lichens can even grow where there is no rain at all, surviving on only occasional dew, the
moisture that condenses on the surface of the plants at night. And unlike most other plants,
lichens are little affected by the strong ultraviolet rays in the mountains.
________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 6/10
Lichens use little energy, for they grow slowly. Some grow so slowly and are so old that
they are called “time stains.” You may find lichens that are centuries old; certain of these lichen
colonies have been established for an estimated 2,000 years. For decades, scientists wondered
how the offspring of an alga and a fungus got together to form a new lichen, it seemed unlikely
that they would just happen to encounter one another. It was finally discovered that in many
cases the two partners have never been separated. Stalklike “buds” that form on certain lichens
are broken off by the wind or by animals; these will roll or be blown to a new location.

81. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?


A. How large can lichens be?
B. Where do lichens usually occur?
C. Where can the oldest lichens be found?
D. How long does it take for lichens to establish themselves?
82. The word “hardiest” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. most unusual B. most basic C. most abundant D. most vigorous
83. The word “framework” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. structure B. fragment C. condition D. environment
84. The author mentions “the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant pools” in
paragraph 1 to explain ________.
A. how the sun affects lichens B. why plants depend on water
C. where fungi become algae D. what algae are
85. The word “prolonged” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. precise B. extended C. approximate D. regular
86. Which of file following terms is defined in the passage?
A. “anchors” (in paragraph 1) B. “stagnant” (in paragraph 1)
C. “dew” (in paragraph 2) D. “ultraviolet” (in paragraph 2)
87. What does the phrase “lichen colonies” in paragraph 3 suggest?
A. Many lichens live together in one area.
B. Nothing but lichens live in some locations.
C. Lichens displace the plants that surround them.
D. Certain groups of lichens have never been separated.
88. The word “encounter” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. lose B. support C. meet D. create
89. The word “these” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. partners B. buds C. lichens D. animals
90. It can be inferred from the passage that lichens use less energy and grow more slowly
when ________.
A. they are exposed to ultraviolet rays B. the environment is polluted
C. the supply of water is inadequate D. they are very old
91. All of the following are mentioned about lichens in the passage EXCEPT ________.
A. They can live thousands of years.
B. They are a union of two separate plants.
C. They are capable of producing their own food.
D. They require large amounts of minerals to prosper.

Part 4:
You are going to read a magazine article in which four people talk about running the London
Marathon. Choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once.
________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 7/10
Which of the people
92. ________ ran in order to help a charity?
93. ________ doesn’t like the reactions of the watching crowd?
94. ________ feels that entering the marathon is a rewarding experience?
95. ________ began running to accompany a runner?
96. ________ didn’t finish last year’s marathon?
97. ________ had an unpleasant experience in his or her first marathon?
98. ________ entered the marathon with colleagues from work?
99. ________ is not confident about his or her physical condition?
100. ________ belongs to a sports group?
101. ________ intends to run another marathon soon?
102. ________ trains under bad weather conditions?
103. ________ saw himself or herself on television?
104. ________ doesn’t have to go far for his or her runs?

RUNNING FOR FUN


A. Peter Chamberlain
I was always keen on sports. Running a long distance is a bit like life too. You start with
a sense of anticipation, you go through some great highs and terrible lows, but in the end
it seems to be worth it. There is nothing that I enjoy more than a good workout at the
gym or a good one-hour run across the local wildlife reserve. Fortunately, where I live, I
can reach the open countryside in just a couple of minutes on foot from my front door
step. In my case, participation in the London Marathon was not about winning, it was
about doing the best you possibly can. My first marathon was a disaster. Everything was
going fine until the twelfth mile when I started to feel a bit of fatigue kicking in and hit
the wall between the fourteenth and fifteenth miles.

B. Rosalind Masterson
I surprised myself by doing so well, to tell you the truth. It all started when a friend of
mine was training for the marathon and asked me to join her a few mornings a week. I
didn’t think I was very fit when I started, although years ago I’d go cycling three times a
week and jogging at weekends. I found the experience enjoyable but realised I preferred
jogging on my own. Success depends a lot on your mood. Last year, for example, I was
feeling very stressed for one reason or another, and I got tired much more quickly; I
didn’t even get to the end of the course! This year’s been completely different. London
was such a success that I’ve entered for the Berlin Marathon next month, along with
three friends. My husband thinks I’m mad, though when we watched the news that night
and he could see my face among the crowds, he was fairly impressed.

C. Ruth Watson
Long distance running is not about how fast you can run, it’s about how much pain you
can take. Long distance running is a good discipline for life itself. I run with my head
and my heart, because physically I don’t think I’ve got a great deal of talent or ability. I
was always a very energetic sports person and I have entered the marathon five times so
far. Last year I managed to complete a half marathon in 90 minutes, which was quite an
accomplishment for someone who did not train systematically. One thing that annoyed
me in my last marathon was the attitude of people watching. They took more interest in

________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 8/10
the fun runners and celebrities than in the battle of the elite runners chasing qualification
times for the Olympic Games.

D. John Saddler
An old friend of mine has been a member of a jogging club for years, and he finally
persuaded me to go along with him one Saturday to see if I would enjoy it. Well, I felt
fairly good afterwards, so I joined the club and started thinking seriously about running. I
thought that entering for the marathon would give me a unique opportunity to raise some
cash for the Red Cross. In fact, four of us from the office decided to do the same thing,
and between us we raised over £25,000, which was great! Running wasn’t as hard as I
expected. Training can be difficult, especially when it means I have to drag myself out of
bed on cold winter mornings and go jogging in the pouring rain. I never train with
friends because I find it impossible to concentrate on what I’m doing.

Part 5:
You are going to read an extract about a mountain lodge in Sweden – an ideal destination to
view the Aurora Borealis, also called the Northern Lights, which appears in the night sky in
Arctic regions. Choose the answer (A B, C or D) that fits best according to the text.
When I step out onto the deck there’s no mistaking the intensity of the Arctic chill.
That’s not surprising. I’m a good hundred miles inside the Arctic Circle; in fact you can’t get
much farther north and still be in Sweden. This is Abisko Mountain Station, perhaps the crown
jewel of the Swedish mountain lodges. I’m back for a second time to this remote, scenic spot
under the landmark Lapporten Mountain, the gateway into the wilds of Lapland.
When an early, heavy snowstorm last autumn pinned me down in my tent for days and
eventually chased me from the backcountry back to the station and its comforts, I was to
discover a different side to Abisko. People come here for many reasons: some to hike, some to
climb, some to bird-watch, some to cross-country ski in the winter. But there’s yet another
entirely different attraction here. For proof, all I have to do is look up from the station’s
expansive deck into the night sky above the huge lake called the Tornetrask. Bright undulating
waves of light, tinged with subtle shades of green and red, ripple across the sky. The Northern
Lights display tonight varies from subdued flashes to outrageously intense surges of ghostly
lights rolling across the dark expanse of night sky. A new moon accentuates the mind-blowing
show.
The Aurora may be old hat to those who live this far north, but for the rest of us it is an
unforgettable experience. For travellers from afar it’s a spectacle that has us shivering on the
deck, bundled up in all the cold-weather gear we’ve brought. The lights here are so
mesmerizing we quickly forget the discomfort of the cold.
One of the factors that makes Abisko a prime location for viewing the Aurora is the
Tornetrask itself. The huge lake, which sprawls more than 70 kilometres long just north of the
station, creates an unusual weather phenomenon that keeps the skies above the station clear
even when fog or clouds blanket most of northern Sweden. This is the famed “blue hole of
Abisko’’. A perennial patch of sky kept mostly clear by the climatological effects of this inland
sea and its valley.
When this quirk of weather is combined with the comforts of the station, the package
adds up to one of the best options anywhere for viewing the Aurora. Much more elaborate than
many wilderness huts, the Abisko mountain stations feature restaurants, hot showers and other
comforts. Abisko is the only one of these stations located on a highway, so the range of
accommodations and level of service here is in a class by itself.
________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 9/10
In addition to the lodge itself, however, it is Abisko’s remote location and its unique
infrastructure that make it such a prime vantage point to view a heavenly phenomenon. It is
dark; Abisko is far from any city lights that might dim the show. The station operates a ski lift
to the top of Nuolja Peak, more than 3,000 feet high. For the first time this year, a cafe at the top
of the mountain has been turned into a viewing platform for the Northern Lights, called the
Aurora Sky Station. Also, the station posts “forecasts” each night of expected Aurora activity,
gleaned from scientific observations arriving via computer, so visitors may choose the best
viewing time.

105. What is true of the author’s first visit to the lodge?


A. He was camping there.
B. He was forced there by the weather.
C. He went there in search of the Aurora.
D. He was not very impressed with the experience.
106. The phrase “old hat” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. poor B. in very bad taste
C. strange and shocking D. familiar and unexciting
107. The travellers viewing the Aurora ________.
A. needn’t dress warmly. B. are distracted by the cold.
C. are in awe of what they see. D. can only see it before midnight.
108. The word “quirk” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. a flaw B. a fast change
C. an unusual feature D. a very pleasant surprise
109. What is NOT said to help make a good viewing of the Aurora at Abisko more likely for
visitors there?
A. It is located near a highway.
B. Weather forecasts are available.
C. There are no city lights nearby.
D. There is a mountain viewing platform.
110. The author’s overall opinion of Abisko is that ________.
A. it could be improved
B. it’s on exceptional place
C. it is not as popular as it deserves to be
D. the primitive conditions are made worthwhile by the experience

IV. WRITING (60 points)


Part 1:
Your name is Alex. You recently had a short holiday organized by Travel Joy. The manager of
the company sent you a letter asking to state the problems which had occurred during your
vacation. Write a letter to the manager, explaining what the problems were and telling them
what you want them to do. Write between 120-150 words. Begin your letter with “Dear Sir”.

Part 2:
Discuss the benefits and disadvantages of riding a bicycle to school. Give reasons for your
answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should
write an essay between 240-300 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

________________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 10/10
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TRUNG HỌC CƠ SỞ
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Năm học 2019-2020
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút.
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC
(không tính thời gian phát đề)
- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................................. SBD: ...............................
Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 10 trang. Thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh ghi câu trả lời của mình trên Phiếu trả lời.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
- Phần thi nghe kéo dài 35 phút, bao gồm 5 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 02 lần.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (60 points)


Part 1: For questions 1-3, listen to part of a discussion between two friends. Choose the
correct answer (A, B, C, D) for each question.
1. What are the people discussing?
A. Getting presents B. Purchasing books
C. Attaching bar codes D. Working in a library
2. What is the woman referring to when she states, “That sounds like fun”?
A. Unpacking books B. Having a birthday
C. Logging in books D. Unwrapping presents
3. Which duty does the man like the least?
A. Logging in books B. Opening boxes of purchased books
C. Attaching the bar code D. Entering the data into the computer

Part 2: For questions 4-6, listen to a conversation between two students. Choose the correct
answer (A, B, C, D) for each question.
4. What are the people discussing?
A. A painting that thieves favor B. A popular painting among the public
C. Security precautions at a museum D. The most valuable painting in the museum
5. What does the woman mean by the phrase “Being out on unauthorized loan for three years”?
A. A painting can be on loan for fewer than three years.
B. The curator did not authorize the painting to be on loan.
C. The Rembrandt was stolen and recovered three years later.
D. It took three years to paint unauthorized copies of the stolen paintings.
6. What reason is given for the painting’s popularity among thieves?
A. It’s a Rembrandt. B. It’s relatively small.
C. It’s worth $5 million. D. It’s easily recognized.

Part 3: You will hear five different people talking about things they were relieved about. For
questions 7-11, choose from the list (A-F) what each speaker says. Use the letters only once.
A. avoiding injury
7. Speaker 1
B. winning a match
8. Speaker 2
C. passing an exam
9. Speaker 3
D. finding an object
10. Speaker 4
E. escaping punishment
11. Speaker 5
F. seeing someone again

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Part 4: For questions 12-20, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for
each blank.
Complete the notes below.
JOB APPLICATION
Type of job: 12. ___________________________
Student’s name: 13. ___________________________
Student’s major: 14. ___________________________
Contact number: 15. ___________________________
Intended minimum pay: £10 per hour

Complete the table below.


Job Cleaner Councilor assistant Cashier
Place 16. _________________ Student union 18. _________________
Problem Too early 17. _________________ Yoga class

Complete the notes below.


Job available: Teaching assistant
Place: 19. ___________________________ Center
Duties: To supervise student attendance
To send out 20. ___________________________
Date of interview: Wednesday 7th May

Part 5: For questions 21-24, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) for each question.
21. What background information does Daisy give about rice?
A. Wild rice is grown throughout Asia.
B. All rice varieties have a lovely aroma.
C. Some types of rice need less water than others.
22. Erik says that a priority for rice farmers is to be able to ________.
A. grow rice without fertilizers
B. predict weather patterns
C. manage water resources
23. Where is the International Rice Research Institute?
A. The Philippines B. China C. Japan
24. Scientists in Bangladesh want to find a ________.
A. more effective type of fertilizer
B. strain of rice resistant to flooding
C. way to reduce the effects of global warming

For questions 25-30, decide which country the statements apply to. Write A, B or C.
A. Japan B. China C. Thailand
25. ______ They grow the most rice in the world.
26. ______ They export the most rice in the world.
27. ______ They aim to increase nutritional value of rice.
28. ______ Less rice is eaten than in the past.
29. ______ An annual rice festival takes place.
30. ______ A new type of rice is now popular locally.

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II. USE OF ENGLISH (40 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each gap.
Write the answer (A, B, C, D) on your answer sheet.
Blue Zones
Although the aging process isn’t fully (31)________, scientists do know that health and
longevity (32)________ a complex interplay of genetics and environment. Researcher Dan
Buettner has spent years visiting areas of the world where people tend to live longer, healthier
lives in an attempt to (33)________ what these environmental factors might be. He identified
areas he calls ‘Blue Zones’, (34)________ people live particularly long and happy lives.
Sardinia, for example, has the highest (35)________ of male centenarians in the world,
Okinawa the longest disability­free life (36)________ and Costa Rica’s Nicoya Peninsula
middle­aged residents who are four times more likely to (37)________ their ninetieth birthday
than their (38)________ in the United States. As diverse as the people in the Blue Zones may
be, they share a number of characteristics. Their homes (39)________ physical activity, they
avoid overeating, have purposeful lives and are surrounded by others who value and appreciate
them. As Buettner observes, these patterns not only (40)________ in lives that are longer but in
lives well led.

31. A. appreciated B. understood C. known D. identified


32. A. involve B. demand C. beg D. need
33. A. sort B. conclude C. settle D. determine
34. A. which B. that C. when D. where
35. A. amount B. instance C. concentration D. figure
36. A. anticipation B. hope C. probability D. expectancy
37. A. arrive B. achieve C. reach D. complete
38. A. equals B. peers C. colleagues D. partners
39. A. promote B. drive C. insist D. push
40. A. result B. produce C. lead D. make

Part 2: Read the following passage and use only ONE word that best fits each gap. Write the
answer on your answer sheet.

Passage A: Smiles of frustration


How can you tell if someone is feeling frustrated? Most people are convinced smiling is
not a typical reaction to frustration but a new study has proved this to (41)_______________ a
misconception. What’s (42)_______________, it turns out that computers programmed with the
latest information from this research (43)_______________ a better job of differentiating smiles
of delight and frustration than human observers.
(44)_______________ part of the experiment, participants were asked to act out feelings
of frustration. Many of them stamped their (45)_______________ or frowned deeply but they
didn’t smile. But (46)_______________ given a task that caused genuine frustration, ninety
percent of participants reacted instinctively (47)_______________ smiling. Interestingly, the
recorded images showed very (48)_______________ difference between these frustrated smiles
and the smiles showing delight at the video of a cute baby. (49)_______________ closer
inspection, however, video analysis showed that the progression of both kinds of smile was
quite noticeable: (50)_______________ the happy smiles built up gradually, frustrated smiles
appeared quickly but faded fast.

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Passage B: Laughing is Good for You - Seriously
It is a sad fact (51)_______________ adults laugh far less than children, sometimes by as
much as a couple of hundred (52)_______________ a day. Just take a (53)_______________ at
people’s faces on the way to work or in the office: you’ll be lucky to see a smile, let
(54)_______________ hear a laugh . This is a shame – especially in (55)_______________ of
the fact that scientists have proved that laughing is good for you. “When you
(56)_______________,” says psychologist David Cohen, “it produces the feel­good hormones,
endorphins. It counters the effects of stress (57)_______________ enhances the immune
system.”
There are many (58)_______________ why we might laugh less in adult life: perhaps we
are too work­obsessed, or too embarrassed to (59)_______________ our emotions show. Some
psychologists simply believe that children have more naive responses, and as adults we
naturally grow (60)_______________ of spontaneous reactions.

Part 3: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word in parentheses. Do not change the word given. Use between THREE AND
FOUR words, including the word given in your answer. Use no contractions. Write the
answer (three or four words) on your answer sheet.

Example: Susan went to the gym frequently so that she would be healthier. (order)
→ Susan often went to the gym ____________________ healthier.
Answer: → Susan often went to the gym in order to be healthier.

61. The lesson was cancelled as only three students came. (turned)
→ Only three students ______________________________ the lesson, so it was cancelled.
62. It was wrong of us to give him so much money so young. (had)
→ He should ______________________________ so much money at such a young age.
63. I didn’t see anyone wearing yellow at the dinner. (nobody)
→ There ______________________________ at the dinner.
64. Once you give me a description of the hotel, I can decide whether or not to go there.
(describe)
→ I can decide to go to the hotel after you ______________________________ me.
65. Do you regret leaving your job now? (you)
→ Do you wish ______________________________ your job now?
66. It doesn’t matter which chemical you put into the mixture first. The results will be the same.
(difference)
→ It ______________________________ chemical you put into the mixture first.
67. The amount of money spent on the project made it very important. (of)
→ This project ______________________________ owing to the money spent on it.
68. I forbid you to go to stay out so late. (question)
→ It’s ______________________________ for you to stay out so late.
69. This revolutionary new engine won’t work unless it’s carefully planned. (crucial)
→ Careful planning is ______________________________ of this revolutionary new
engine.
70. Our class has won the History Quiz for the third year running. (succession)
→ For the ______________________________, our class has won the History Quiz.

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III. READING (40 points)
Part 1: Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the
one which fits each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write the
answer (A-G) on your answer sheet.
A. Although it may seem unnecessary to do these, Liz views them as essential.
B. It also has a less obvious but possibly even more profound impact.
C. Liz knows that she must nevertheless do her best to avoid it.
D. Quite the opposite, actually, as research into its effects progresses.
E. In fact, Liz’s behaviour is not at all like that of other college students her age.
F. But that’s exactly what many researchers say it is.
G. Research suggests that the most critical period of sleep for this to happen in is the one on
the same day.

College students need their sleep!


Research into the connection between sleep and learning
suggests that sleep is even more important than previously thought.

Only a month and a half into her first semester at college, Liz, a student at Harvard
University, already wishes she had more time for sleep. Several mornings each week, Liz rises
before six to join her teammates for rowing practice. On days like these she seldom sleeps more
than seven hours per night, but it’s not as if she doesn’t try.
(71)____________ She often misses opportunities to socialize in order to get her
coursework done and still get to bed at a reasonable time. Even without knowing just how
important sleep is to learning, she tries to make time for it.
This is not always easy, however. The many demands on her time include her chosen
sport, as well as activities like studying optional extra subjects. (72)____________ She and
other students who think the same way as her sacrifice sleep to fit everything in. It isn’t
surprising to learn, therefore, that students represent one of the most sleep­deprived segments of
the population. Coursework, sports and new­found independence all contribute to the problem.
Studies have found that only eleven percent of college students sleep well consistently,
while seventy­three percent experience at least occasional sleep issues, as Liz does. Forty
percent of students felt well­rested no more than two days per week. Poor sleep is no longer
considered a harmless aspect of college. (73)____________ The results of this show that it has
significant impact on memory and learning. Inadequate sleep negatively affects our learning
processes. It is simply more difficult to concentrate when we are sleep deprived; this affects our
ability to focus on and gather information presented to us, and our ability to remember even
those things we know we have learned in the past. (74)____________ That is, the effect that
many sleep researchers think it has on memory consolidation, the process by which connections
in the brain strengthen and form into something more permanent.
A number of studies have shown that poor quality sleep can negatively impact on a
person’s ability to turn factual information or processes they’ve just learned into long­term
memories. (75)____________ And if this opportunity is missed – such as when a student stays
awake all night – it generally can’t be made up. Even if sleep is ‘recovered’ on subsequent
nights, the brain will be less able to retain and make use of information gathered on the day
before. These findings shed new light on the importance of making time for sleep, not only for
college students like Liz, but for anyone who wants to continue to learn.
Early in her first semester at Harvard, Liz feels like she is maintaining a healthy balance,
but only just. Trying hard to get the most out of her time in college, she admits it’s sometimes
________________________________________________________________________________________
HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 – Trang 5/10
hard to see sleep as an important part of her athletic and scholastic objectives.
(76)____________ Rather than thinking of sleep as wasted time or even time off, we should,
they say, instead view it as the time when our brain is doing some of its most important work.

Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Write the answer (A, B, C, D) on your answer sheet.

The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a
source of wonder for ages. In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles
a magician’s trick. The turnings of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so
the process is unclear. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat’s fall slowed down for the
phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the former was accomplished by means of high­
speed photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth
century the capture on film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.
The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two
sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white cat
in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat was
dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the
photos reveals the secret: As the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail
twist counterclockwise so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton’s laws.
Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again,
with the desired end result. The explanation was that while nobody can acquire spin without a
twisting force, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this
instinctively, but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of
their perceptions a thousand-fold.

77. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Miracles in modern science
B. Procedures in scientific investigation
C. The explanation of an interesting phenomenon
D. The differences between biology and physics
78. The word “process” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. the righting of a tumbling cat B. the cat’s fall slowing down
C. high­speed photography D. a scientific experiment
79. All of the following are mentioned in the careful analysis of the photos EXCEPT the
________.
A. cat’s tail B. cat’s body C. cat’s eyes D. cat’s legs
80. Why are the photographs referred to as an “experiment”?
A. The photographs were not very clear.
B. The photographer thought the cat might have been injured.
C. The photographer used inferior equipment.
D. The use of the photographs was to explain the process.
81. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about high­speed photography
in the late 1800’s?
A. It was a relatively new technology.
B. The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.
C. The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.
D. It was not fast enough to provide new information.
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82. The word “rotates” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. drops B. turns C. controls D. touches
83. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is ________.
A. frightened B. small C. intelligent D. flexible
84. What happened last in the experiment?
A. The cat rotated the front of its body clockwise.
B. The cat landed on its feet.
C. The cat was dropped upside down.
D. The cat pulled in its legs before reversing its twist and then extended them again.
85. According to the passage, how did scientists increase the speed of their perceptions a
thousand­fold?
A. By analyzing photographs
B. By observing a white cat in a dark room
C. By dropping a cat from a greater height
D. By studying Newton’s laws of motion

Part 3: You are going to read an article about fashion shows. For questions 86-100, choose
from the sections of the article (A-F). The sections may be chosen more than once. Write the
answer (A-F) on your answer sheet.

In which section of the article are the following mentioned?


86. ____ negative comments about clothes shown at a show
87. ____ information about the show that Burberry is unwilling to give
88. ____ how quickly reactions to the show appear
89. ____ the effect of a single show on certain people’s futures
90. ____ what the audience does as soon as the show finishes
91. ____ the building where sales of the clothes from the show are made to shops
92. ____ the need to be different from other clothes companies
93. ____ people who decide not to attend a show
94. ____ a comparison between how long it takes to plan the show and how long the show
lasts
95. ____ when Burberry makes its clothes in large quantities
96. ____ what people attending the show bring with them
97. ____ where various categories of people watch the show from
98. ____ a false impression that people may have of fashion events like this one
99. ____ where Burberry sells its products to the public
100. ____ people wanting to speak to someone involved in the show

How fashion shows work


“Sales can depend on just 18 minutes under the spotlight”, James Hall reports.

A) It is Burberry’s catwalk show during Milan Fashion Week. The tent, pitched in a courtyard
in an exquisite building on Milan’s Corso Venezia, gradually fills with 1000 fashion editors
and representatives from the world’s smartest department stores, all clutching invites as
thick as slices of bread. At the end of the catwalk, hundreds of photographers jostle for the
best position. The room is packed. The lights dim and the show gets under way. The models
strut their stuff to pastoral music. The theme is gardening. The show, which has taken more
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HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 – Trang 7/10
than six months to plan at the cost of tens of thousands of pounds, is over in 18 minutes. The
lights rise and the crowd dashes to the next event.

B) Welcome to the sausage factory of high fashion. Burberry’s show is one of about 100 that
take place during Milan Fashion Week. To the outside world, fashion weeks like Milan’s
appear to be little more than a love­in for the luxury goods sector. However, beneath the
glitzy exterior, there is serious business going on. Fashion editors can make or break a brand
with a favourable or cruel review. Designers’ entire careers can hang on one collection. But,
most crucially, retail executives will place orders worth hundreds of millions of pounds
based on what they see.

C) So how does the business of Fashion Week work? What are the mechanics of the event?
And how immediate are the benefits if the show is deemed a hit? For Burberry, Milan
Fashion Week is the zenith of the year. Although Burberry is known in the UK as a retailer,
over 40 per cent of its annual sales come from selling its clothes through other people’s
shops around the world. Its four annual shows at Milan are its main chance to show retailers
what it has to offer. Creating a buzz in the fashion press is equally important as these same
collections will be on sale at Burberry’s own shops. Burberry has just minutes to do this in
each show.

D) Christopher Bailey, Burberry’s creative director, starts picking out fabrics for the clothes
months before the show. The ranges are only mass­produced once the orders come in after
Fashion Week, so getting the looks right for the catwalk is absolutely key. Mr Bailey
explains that Milan is his chance to set out Burberry’s stall for the rest of the year. Standing
out from the crowd is the name of the game. “When you are up against some of the biggest
names in fashion on the same night, you have to make an impression,” he says.

E) Burberry starts to fit out the venue about two weeks before the show. Lighting, seating,
sound system, decor, backstage area, they are all planned in minute detail and designed by
Mr Bailey to echo the show’s theme. Store windows around the world are also co­ordinated
to mirror the themes. The company does not disclose the event’s budget, but it is clearly
huge. The seating arrangement has a strict hierarchy. There are blocks of seats for different
groups; a block for the most important fashion editors (around and opposite the company’s
management), a block for retail buyers from Europe, a block for emerging markets and so
on. An early indicator of a show’s success is who turns up – or pointedly fails to.

F) Fortunately, Burberry’s show is exceptionally well­attended. Although the 18 minutes of the


show are crucial, the 24 hours following the event are arguably more important. This is
when the hard sell occurs and the money is effectively banked. As soon as Mr Bailey takes
his bow at the end of the show, dozens of fashion journalists and TV crews rush backstage to
grab a word with him. Clips, quotes and reviews are online and on newswires within
minutes. At 9 a.m. the morning after the show, Burberry opens its showroom above its store
in Milan. This is the most important part of the entire process as it is when department store
buyers place their orders. The clothes from the night before are on rails and film and music
from the show plays on a loop. A trickle of buyers soon becomes a torrent. Just five hours
later, Mr Bailey returns to London to start the entire process again.

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Part 4: You are going to read an article about the relationship between money and happiness.
For questions 101-110, choose from the sections of the article (A-E). The sections may be
chosen more than once. Write the answer (A-E) on your answer sheet.

In which section (A-E) of the article does the writer


101. ______ describe a study in which subjects were given a strict time limit?
102. ______ praise the researchers for something they did?
103. ______ describe precisely how the researchers chose the subjects of one of their
studies?
104. ______ give details about the way the subjects were divided into groups?
105. ______ regret a missed opportunity in the research?
106. ______ state what Dunn, Aknin and Norton originally wanted to establish?
107. ______ report results of a study of people from the same social group?
108. ______ describe a study where subjects received money from people other than the
researchers?
109. ______ point out the negative consequences of spending patterns for spenders and for
others?
110. ______ state that more should be done to help people learn to use their money wisely?

A - When does money buy happiness?


Can money buy happiness? Yes, but only to a very limited extent unless you learn how
to put it to good use. A large body of research shows that if your income meets your basic
needs, this will make you relatively happy. Curiously, though, if you have more than you need
to make ends meet, you won’t necessarily be any happier, even if you have a lot more than is
necessary.
One of the most intriguing explanations for this paradox is that people often squander
their wealth on the very things that are least likely to make them feel good, namely, consumer
goods. Furthermore, the more they indulge in consumer goods, the more likely they are to
obsess about money and the less inclined they will be to use that money to help others. And it is
doing just that – using money to help others – that three Canadian researchers, Elizabeth Dunn,
Lara Aknin and Michael Norton set out to prove was the key to happiness.

B - Personal versus social spending


The researchers started out by randomly selecting a group of just over 600 people from
the local telephone directory. They asked them four questions: How much do you earn? How
happy are you? How much of your income is devoted to personal spending on bills and
expenses or gifts for yourself? And how much goes on ‘social spending’, that is, gifts for others
and donations to charity? They then looked at the relationship between income, happiness and
the two types of spending. Unfortunately, the researchers couldn’t claim that it was the type of
spending that made people happy or not, though their study did show that spending seems to
have more to do with happiness than income alone.

C - The effects of bonuses and spending


But Dunn, Aknin and Norton needed to come up with another kind of test which would
show a change in happiness levels over time. To do this, they chose sixteen people and asked
them how happy they were before and after receiving a bonus at work. The bonuses varied in
amount and, once again, after some time had passed, the researchers asked their informants how
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HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 – Trang 9/10
they had spent the money. Thanks to the care the researchers took, this time the relationship
between social spending and happiness was much more clear­cut, so much so, in fact, that they
could state de nitively that the way people spent the bonus played more of a role in their
happiness than the size of the bonus itself. But there was still work to be done.

D - A novel experiment that ties it all together


Once the research group had both the results of a large survey and a study of how levels
of happiness changed, they went on to design a novel experiment. This time they chose forty­six
people whom they asked to rate their happiness rst thing in the morning. Each of them was
then given either $5 or $20 and told they had to spend it by ve in the afternoon of the same
day. Half the people were told to spend the money on themselves and the other half were told
they should buy a gift for someone else or donate the money to a charity. The participants were
called after 5 p.m. that day and asked to rate their happiness again. This time around, the
statistics proved Dunn, Aknin and Norton’s hypothesis even more clearly. It didn’t matter how
much the participants had been given; if they had spent it on someone else, they tended to feel
happier.

E - A role for education


Even though it is so easy to observe the positive effects of social spending, most people
just don’t know they are there. The researchers asked over 100 university students which of the
four conditions from the nal experiment would make them happiest. Most were wrong on two
counts. They believed they would be happiest with $20 and happiest spending it on themselves.
There is clearly a call for teaching people the facts of money and happiness. Dunn, Aknin and
Norton’s research would make an excellent starting point.

IV. WRITING (60 points)


Part 1:
Your name is Charlie. Louis, a friend of yours, has written to you to ask for some advice. He
wants to visit Binh Duong for two weeks this summer and would like to know about
accommodation, specialties and places of interest. Write to him (100-150 words) to give him as
many suggestions as you can and also mention any customs that may seem strange to him.
Begin your letter with “Dear Louis”.

Part 2:
“Advances in technology have improved our lifestyle.”
To what extent do you agree or disagree with the statement above? Give reasons for your
answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should
write an essay of between 200-300 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

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KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH BÌNH DƯƠNG
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Ngày thi: 12/10/2020

Thời gian thi: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Họ và tên thí sinh: .............................................................................SBD: .................................

Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 12 trang, thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh ghi câu trả lời của mình trên Phiếu trả lời.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
________________________________________________________________________
HƯỚNG DẪN BÀI THI NGHE HIỂU
➢ Mở đầu và kết thúc bài thi nghe có tín hiệu nhạc
➢ Bài thi nghe gồm ba phần
➢ Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần
➢ Bài thi nghe kéo dài 25 phút

I. LISTENING (50 points)


Part 1:
Question 1-5: What five advantages and disadvantages of bicycles do the students mention?
Circle the letters.
A. They help you stay healthy.
B. They are simple to maintain.
C. They are non-polluting.
D. They are easy to store.
E. They are less expensive than other types of transportation.
F. They are not comfortable to use in the rain and colD.
G. They are easily stolen.
H. They are not convenient for long trips.
I. They are dangerous to ride on busy highways.
J. Their tires are not puncture resistant.

Question 6-10: Complete the note below. Write TWO WORDS for each answer.
➢ To encourage bicycle riding, cities can:
• make (6) ______________________ on road
• make places to (7) ____________________ at subway stations
• provide (8) _______________________
➢ Bicycling equipment:
• Safety: wear a helmet and (9) ____________________
• Comfort: light clothes and (10) ______________________

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Part 2: Complete the table with information about the American crow. Write A WORD or A
NUMBER for each answer.
Lenght: (11) ___________ centimeters
Colour: black
(12) __________ food: corn
Nest material: (13) ___________
Nesting place: (14) ___________
Number of eggs: 3-6 eggs
Days to (15) _________: 18 days
Days to fly: 35 days

Part 3: You will hear five short extracts in which different people are talking about their
listening skills.
TASK ONE: Choose from the list (A-H) how each speaker reacts while listening.
A. gets bored listening to facts an figures
B. switches off if the content seems irrelevant
16. Speaker 1
C. needs to be able to relate to the person talking
17. Speaker 2
D. is very quick on the uptake when someone is speaking
18. Speaker 3
E. is very sensitive to the tone people adopt
19. Speaker 4
F. gets annoyed if their train of thoughts is interrupted
20. Speaker 5
G. doesn’t maintain eye contact with people
H. gets irritated when a speaker stops mid-sentence

TASK TWO: Choose from the list (L-S) what strategy each speaker adopts to process what they
are hearing.
L. needs to identify exactly what the speaker is trying to say
M. likes to interact initially with the speaker
21. Speaker 1
N. never interrupts when someone is talking to them
22. Speaker 2
O. discards the details they hear and focuses on the main points
23. Speaker 3
P. gives the impression they’re patient when listening
24. Speaker 4
Q. makes a mental note of what the speaker has said
25. Speaker 5
R. connects what they’re hearing with their own circumstances
S. tries to visualize what the speaker is saying to them

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)


Part 1: Decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.
26. Complete the form as ____________ in the notes below.
A. insisted B. specified C. implied D. devised
27. He took no ___________ of what i saiD.
A. advice B. revenge C. warning D. notice
28. Her house was _________ at a high value.
A. considered B. deemed C. assessed D. appreciated
29. Don’t be _________ to your elders.
A. affable B. consistent C. impertinent D. respectable

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30. He’s one of the best doctors in town and held in high _________ .
A. esteem B. estimation C. value D. appraisal
31. Too many trees round a house ________ it of air and light.
A. deprive B. deprave C. deride D. derive
32. Could you possibly ________ me at the next committee meeting?
A. stand up for B. make up for C. go back on D. keep in with
33. Tax ________ deprives the nation or several million dollars a year.
A. retention B. evasion C. invasion D. desertion
34. It was teeming down with rain and we all got _________ .
A. dripping B. humid C. damp D. soaked
35. She didn’t realize at that time how dull and __________ her life had been.
A. dreary B. enchanting C. engrossed D. exciting
36. He _________ hard to make a success of his life.
A. saved B. plunged C. strove D. throve
37. At the _________ moment, he backed out.
A. insignificant B. meaningful C. crucial D. trifling
38. She has got something of great importance to ___________ to him.
A. impair B. compare C. impart D. deport
39. Their journey through Asia was ___________ with difficulties.
A. entertained B. beset C. assaulted D. devoid
40. He is not a habitual smoker, but he occasionally _________ in a cigarette.
A. enjoys B. indulges C. divulges D. declines
41. The board president designated a _________ team to tear down the dilapidated building
which jeopardised the passers-by.
A. demolition B. exasperation C. contamination D. castigation
42. Not only is little Johnny’s grammar incoherent and his spelling atrocious but also his
puctuation _________.
A. slothful B. sluggish C. highbrow D. haphazard
43. When the firm closed down due to financial difficulties, he was made _________.
A. frivolous B. surplus C. disabled D. redundant

Part 2: Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
Intelligent Chickens
Although chickens might not ____(44)____ most people’s list of clever animals, their
particular abilities can sometimes be surprisingly impressive. For example, they can
____(45)____ to a challenge. Readers may be impressed by the chicken that learnt to peck a key
to ____(46)____ access to a perch suspended over a tank of water. It then crossed the perch,
pulled a string three times to unlock a door, turned right at a T-junction, and jumped across water
to reach a nest box.
However, this is a crude anthropormorphic example of animal intelligence. In fact, most
animals can be trained to perform ____(47)____ complex tasks with the promise of a food
reward. Dr Christine Nicol of the University of Bristol trained the performing chicken to
____(48)____ just this point. She says that it is not possible to measure intelligence on a single
scale. However, what has impressed her the most about chickens is how they can teach and learn.
Hens, it seems, recognise when their chicks eat the wrong thing, and intensely peck and scratch

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at better foods to demonstrate correct conduct. They are also, she says, “rather good at
____(49)____ new behaviours by watching each other”.

44. A. lead B. cap C. mount D. top


45. A. meet B. rise C. equal D. handle
46. A. take B. gain C. land D. hold
47. A. presentably B. suggestively C. seemingly D. externally
48. A. prove B. clinch C. stamp D. bear
49. A. bringing off B. picking up C. catching on D. making out

Part 3: Read the text and write the correct form of each of the bracketed words.
Is there anything more (50. REASSURE) ___________________ than the sound of rain
lashing against the windows? Or more (51. RESIST) ___________________ than a baby’s
laugh? According to some new research, these are some of our favourite sounds. But as you may
have guessed, (52. SURPRISE) ______________________, there is nothing we love more than
the (53. SOOTHE) ________________________ sound of waves crashing against rock.
Fireworks, walking on snow and cheerful screams from people on a rollercoaster were also high
in the rankings. The reason for the popularity of many of these sounds is that they are associated
with happy memories or the anticipation of something good to come. The sounds around us
create atmosphere and emotion as (54. POWER) ______________________ as any other sense
and that shared sense os exhilaration that comes from going to a football match or theme park
can be central to any memorable experience. The survey also revealed the sounds that we loathe.
(55. PREDICT) _______________________, the noise that makes us shudder the most is the
sound of nails being scraped down a chalkboard.

III. READING (60 points)


Part 1:
You are going to read a magazine article about dolphins. Six sentences have been removed
from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one which fits each gap (56-61). There is
one extra sentence which you do not need to use.
A. Not only do the dolphins understand the meaning of individual words but they also
understand the significance of word order in a sentence.
B. He then taught other calves, and bird-catching has now become a hot game among the
dolphins.
C. To keep track of the many different relationships within a large community of dolphins,
it helps to have an efficient communication system.
D. The next time a trainer passes she goes down to the rock, and tears off a piece of paper to
give to the trainer.
E. This seemed to give Kelly a new idea.
F. At one aquarium, a person standing by the pool’s glass window noticed that a dolphin
calf was watching him.
G. What they did was place markings in black ink on various parts of the dolphins’ bodies.

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Masters of the ocean
At the Institute for Marine Mammal Studies in Mississippi, Kelly the dolphin has built up
quite a reputation for herself. All the dolphins at the institute are trained to hold onto any litter
that falls into their pools until they see a trainer, when they can trade the litter for fish. In this
way, the dolphins help to keep their pools clean. But Kelly took the task one step further. When
people drop paper into the water, she hides it under a rock at the bottom of the pool. (56)_____

After the fish-reward, she goes back down, tears off another piece of paper, gets another fish
and so on. This behavior is particularly interesting because it shows that Kelly has a sense of the
future. She has realized that a big piece of paper gets the same reward as a small piece and so
delivers only small pieces to keep the food coming. She has, in effect, trained the humans. Her
cunning has not stopped there. One day when she was feeding, a bird flew into her pool. She
grabbed it, waited for the trainers and then gave it to them. It was a large bird so the trainers gave
her lots of fish. (57)_____ The next time she was fed, instead of eating the last fish, she took it to
the bottom of the pool and then hid it under the same rock where she has been hiding the paper.
When no trainers were present, she brought the fish to the surface and used it to attract more
birds, which she then caught in order to get even more fish in the same way. After mastering this
clever plan, she then taught her calf to do the same. (58)_____

This is not the first time dolphins have shown themselves to be quick learners. They often
seem to acquire new skills through imitation. Calves stay with their mothers for several years,
allowing the time and the opportunity for extensive learning to take place, particularly through
imitation. They do not only imitate their mothers. (59)_____ As he released a puff of smoke
from his cigarette, the dolphin immediately swam off to his mother, returned and released a
mouthful of milk, giving similar effect to his with the puff of smoke. Very interesting research is
going on not only into imitation but also into the dolphin’s ability to comprehend our language.
Scientists in Hawaii developed a sign language to communicate with the dolphins, and the results
were remarkable. (60)_____ One of their star dolphins has learnt a vocabulary of more than 60
words and can understand more than 2000 sentences. Particularly impressive is the dolphins’
relaxed attitude when new sentences are introduced. For example, the dolphins in the study
responded straight away to the new sentence “Touch the Frisbee with your tail and then jump
over it”. Such behavior has the characteristics of true understanding of language. It is not training
of the kind that enables dogs to do tricks.

A further test of awareness carried out in Hawaii comes from mirror experiments.
Researchers installed mirrors inside the dolphins’ aquarium to check whether two dolphins were
self-aware enough to recognize their reflections. (61)_____ The dolphins immediately swam to
recognize themselves in the mirrors shows self-awareness, a quality previously only seen in
people and the great apes.

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Part 2:
You are going to read an article. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best
according to the text.
SIMPLE – it’s all in the mind
Tony Buzan is his own best advertisement when he claims that his latest book can teach you
not only how to be brilliant with words, but also to be fitter, live longer and be happier. He has
transformed himself from a promising but not outstanding schoolboy into a man with an IQ at
genius level, who has contributed to more than 80 books on the brain and is consulted by
universities, business organizations and governments. Some 250 million people worldwide have
already benefited from his Mind Maps, a diagrammatic learning tool that helps the brain to store
and recall information.

In his latest book, Head First, subtitled, ’10 ways to tap into your natural genius’, he
redefines intelligence to include not only the familiar verbal, numerical and spatial benchmarks
measured by IQ tests, but other skills such as creative, social, spiritual and physical intelligence,
to which he gives equal weight. Developing these, he claims, will bring confidence, self-
awareness and personal fulfilment. And with this transformation will come physical benefits –
less stress, a stronger immune system and even a longer life. It is estimated that we use around
one percent of our brain, so there is plenty of scope for improvement. “I have fallen into the
usual traps of thinking that IQ was the be-all and end-all, that being academic was better than
being artistic and that art and music were untouchable gifts,” admits Buzan, 58. “Bit by bit, I
have come to know better. This book is a compact history of my revelations.”.

The first moment of truth came when Buzan was at primary school. After scoring 100
percent in a nature test, he found himself top of the A-stream. His best friend knew far more
about ecology than Buzan, but was bottom of the D-stream. “That started me wondering. Later, I
became aware that many of the so-called intelligent people I knew did not seem very bright at
all. They were brilliant at words and numbers, but not particularly interesting to be with, or
happy with themselves or even successful. I began working with children and found that many
were like my best friend. They were amazing, but they were not able to express their brilliance at
school. For instance, I spoke to a boy of eight who had been marked down in an “intelligence
test” for ticking a picture of the earth when asked which image was the odd one out – sun, moon,
lemon or earth. When I asked him why he had done this, he looked at me as if I were an idiot and
said: “Because the earth is the only one that was blue.” At that point I wondered who was the
fool – the eight-year-old ‘slow learner’ or the university lecturer. If we had measured the process
by which the child had reached his answer – instead of the expected response – we would have
realized the beautiful, sophisticated intelligence behind it.”

Identifying and developing this kind of undervalued intelligence is Buzan’s mission. His
starting point is that all people have the potential to excel if they can only get rid of themselves
the barriers placed in their way of upbringing, education and society’s belief systems and

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expectations. The first obstacle to overcome is lack of self-belief. Buzan describes how his marks
in maths soared at secondary school after he was told he was in the top one percent of the
population in the subject. “I realized that what I thought about my ability in a subject affected
how well I did.” The second hurdle is the conviction most of us have that certain skills – art,
music and numerical ability – are gifts from heaven, conferred only on the naturally talented few.
Buzan disputes this, claiming that all we have to do is learn the appropriate ‘alphabet’. If we can
learn to copy, he insists, we can learn to draw. “It is the same with music. The most sophisticated
musical instrument is the human voice. Many people think they cannot sing. But everybody sings
without realizing it. It’s called talking. Listen to somebody speaking a foreign language of which
you know no vocabulary; it is pure music.” Buzan’s third lesson is the recognition that we are all
intelligent; otherwise, we could not survive. “There is only one true intelligence test,” he says,
“and that is life on planet Earth. Sitting in a room answering question is not as difficult as
survival. Every day, we are confronted with new problems that we learn to handle.”

Head First offers a template for each of the 10 kinds of intelligence, including a definition,
an outline of its benefits and lots of exercises. “Think of each of your multiple intelligences as a
finger on a pair of wonderfully adept and agile piano-playing hands. You can play life’s music
with just two fingers, but if you use all 10 you can play a concerto where each one supplements
and enhances the others. The Moonlight Sonata will sound OK with two fingers. But it sounds
much better with 10.”

62. What is implied about Tony Buzan in the first paragraph?


A. His views have caused a certain amount of controversy.
B. Some of his claims he makes are rather exaggerated.
C. It is hard to understand why he has been so successful.
D. His theories are supported by his own life story.
63. What is said about the book Head First in the second paragraph?
A. Buzan accepts that some people may disagree with some of the views expressed in it.
B. In it Buzan argues against beliefs he previously held.
C. It suggests that IQ tests are of no real value.
D. Its main focus is on the relationship between intelligence and physical condition.
64. Buzan uses the boy who ticked a picture of Earth as an example of _________
A. people who are more interesting than many people considered to be intelligent.
B. people whose intelligence is not allowed to developed fully.
C. people with an attitude that prevents them from being considered intelligent.
D. people whose intelligent is likely to develop later in life.
65. Buzan thinks that one thing that prevents people from excelling is ________
A. their habit of focusing too much on trivial aspects of everyday life.
B. their belief that too much effort is required to acquire certain skills.
C. their failure to realize how much natural intelligence they have.
D. their tendency to be easily discouraged by the comments of others.

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66. Buzan uses the Moonlight Sonata to illustrate his beliefs that ________
A. his book can benefit everyone who reads it.
B. some things are not as difficult to learn as they may seem.
C. it is desirable but not essential for people to develop their intelligence.
D. his definitions of intelligence are simple enough for everyone to understand.
67. Which of the following best summarizes the view expressed by Tony Buzan in the article as
a whole?
A. Too much emphasis in life is placed on how intelligent people are.
B. Most people are inclined to underestimate their own intelligence.
C. Intelligence is something that it is unwise to generalize about.
D. Conventional views on what constitutes intelligence are inaccurate.

Part 3:
Read the article and choose from the paragraph A-G the one which fits each gap (68-73).
There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.
A: So what’s going on? Is there any reason why front vowels should be associated wth small,
thin, light things? By the same token, why do back vowels make us think of big, solid, heavy
things?

B: In each case, the participants in the study tended to choose those named by back vowels as
larger, heavier, thicker and darker, a finding with important implications for marketing
executives. Logically, it would be better for them to give their ice cream brands names with
these vowels and thus convey the idea that their products are heavy and rich.

C: It’s amusing to think that human language in some ways is a series of grunts, growls and
squeaks and that the smile a delicious ice cream will put on a child’s face is very much like the
purr of a cat or the wag of a dog’s tail.

D: But does this hold true for real brand names? Researchers came up with a clever way of
finding out whether it does or not.

E: Since larger animals naturally make deeper sounds and smaller animals naturally make
high-pitched sounds, the idea is that animals try to appear larger when they are competing or
aggressive, but they try to appear smaller and less threatening when they are not.

F: The theory is, thus, that smiling evolved as a way for mammals in competitive situations to
make the voice sound more high-pitched, so as to make the smiler appear smaller and less
aggressive, and hence friendlier.

G: Linguists have noted that these often occur in words that refer to big, fat, heavy things.
They do not, on the other hand, in words that refer to small, thin, light things. This is not
always true but it’s a tendency that researchers have found in many words in many different
languages.

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A product by any other name might not taste so sweet, creamy, rich or crunchy.
William Shakespeare’s Juliet was only partially correct when she observed ‘a rose by any
other name would smell as sweet’. Sounds don’t generally tell you what a word means but they
do influence how people perceive things. Known as ‘sound symbolism’, this phenomenon has
been most closely studied in relation to the difference between two kinds of vowels: front vowels
and back vowels. The vowels in words like cheese or bean, mint or slim are front vowels made
by holding the tongue high up in the front part of the mouth. By contrast, the vowels in large,
cold, poor and butter are back vowels.
68
In one study, for example, they created pairs of made-up product names that were identical
except for having front vowels or back vowels. People were then asked to say which of a number
of hypothetical products seemed bigger or smaller, or heavier or lighter.
69
In fact, it turns out that people do prefer ice creams with names including back vowels. In
another study researchers had participants read a description of a new ice cream. Half the
participants read a version where the ice cream was called Frish (front vowel) and the other half
read a version where it was called Frosh (back vowel), but the descriptions were otherwise
identical. Asked their opinions, ‘the Frosh people’ rated the ice cream as smoother, creamier and
richer than the ‘Frish people’, and were more likely to say they would buy it.
70
They downloaded a list of 81 ice cream flavours and a list of 592 cracker brands from a
dieting website. For each list, the total number of front vowels and the total bumber of back
vowels was counted. The result was that the ice cream names indeed had more back vowels and
cracker names had more front vowels.
71
The most widely accepted theory, the Frequency Theory, suggests that low frequencies (low
pitch) and high frequencies (high pitch) are associated with particular meanings. Mammals and
birds tend to use low-frequency sounds when they are aggressive or hostile but use high-
frequency sounds when frightened, appeasing or friendly.
72
This link of high pitch with deference or friendliness may also explain the origin of the
smile. We make a smile by retracting the corners of the mouth and this shrinks the size of the
front cavity in the mouth, just like the vowels in mint or bean. In fact, the similarity in mouth
position between smiling and the vowel “i” explains why we say cheese when we take pictures,
“i” is the smiling vowel.
73
Of course, smiling in humans has evolved into a mean of expressing many shades of
enjoyment and other emotional meanings, just as back vowels have become part of a rich system
for expressing complex meanings by combining sound into words. Something similarly beautiful
was created as saltpeter, snow, sherbet and salt were combined to create the sweet lusciousness
of ice cream, something that makes us all smile on a hot summer day.

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Part 4:
You are going to read a magazine article about bookshop managers. For questions 74-85,
choose from the four people. The people may be chosen more than once. Write the letter S, W,
H, D.
S: Mandy Stocks
W: Andrew Welson
H: Jane Harvard
D: James Darry

Which bookshop manager


74. _____ mentions a way of adapting to survive in the age of the Internet?
75. _____ believes the shop has another function apart from the selling of books?
76. _____ is unsure about the amount of money the bookshop makes?
77. _____ believes customers are attracted by the way the books are displayed?
78. _____ changed their mind about the chosen location of the bookshop?
79. _____ is doubtful about being able to obtain the funds needed to expand?
80. _____ spent some time finding out information before opening the shop?
81. _____ is critical of the customer service offered by some bookshops?
82. _____ explains why a previous job was given up?
83. _____ is proud of the shop’s stock of books for the very young?
84. _____ has some knowledge about the contents of all the books on sale?
85. _____ mentions the fact that local people prefer the shop to larger ones?

The bestsellers
Mandy Stocks: Saville Books
This shop is small and beautiful and it does not stock bestsellers, preferring to promote less
well-known young authors. The children’s section demonstrates the difference in philosophy
between this and most other shops. “We carry a vast range of books that reflect reality,” says
Mandy. “The vast majority of bookshops don’t show children the world the way it is.” You could
question the need to have CDs, tapes and so many other products in a bookshop, but Mandy says
buyers from the area are loyal and realise that her shop offers them a better service. Earlier this
month, Saville Books was named Bookseller of the Year in recognition of the effort and
imagination that Mandy has put into the shop. Mandy would like to enlarge the shop. “It’ll be
hard to find somebody willing to invest money in it,” she says.

Andrew Welson: Lonestar Bookshop


Andrew is a very experienced bookseller. He ran a second-hand bookshop for several years
until the need to increase his income made him apply for a position as manager of Lonestar.
“There is a huge disparity in quality among large bookshops,” he says. “The best are very good,
but others aren’t, because the people who are at the face of helping the customer don’t feel they
are valued and the managers tend to not have a history of bookselling. You need to be passionate
about the things you are selling.” The shop is modern and stylish. “We only have a certain
amount of space and what we are trying to do is stock the kinds of books that our customers –
mostly university students and young professionals – come to this shop for. But i also stock the
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popular books everyone’s talking about, like The Da Vinci Code, for example.” Andrew gives a
lot of attention to making his shop window eye-catching and interesting. “It is incredibly
important,” he says.

Jane Harvard: Brunswick Bookshop


Jane opened the Brunswick Bookshop last November, and it’s the sort of place that
captivates you as you go through the door. She says she is doing “fantastically”, though she
admits she does not know how fantastically because her accountant has not finished calculating
her profits. Jane has been in bookselling at three different shops, for fifteen years, and last year
she decided to take the plunge and set up on her own. She was planning to open a shop in a
fashionable part of the city, but then discovered a less well-off market area. “The moment I saw
it I knew it was right because it’s a community street. I came and sat in the cafes and listened to
conversations to see what kind of people lived here. Ther were well educated but didn’t
necessarily have much money.” Everything in her shop Jane wants to read herself. “Obviously
you don’t have time to read them all, but I’ve got a pretty good idea of what’s in most of them,”
she says.

James Darry: Darry Books


Darry Books is light, airy, modern and welcoming. It’s got a strong children’s section, a
coffee bar, and also a space upstairs for author talks and presentations of new books. James is a
former school head and left his job to start the bookshop. Why did he do it? “I was having a
conversation with a colleague one day, about what we could have done instead of teaching, and i
said I would have had a bookshop. I realised i wanted a change. A year later I opened this shop,
but it hasn’t been easy. The competition from larger chains of bookshops is horrendous, so I
offer lots of discounts, but not on a good-quality book that might be bought as a gift.” James has
four full-time employees. “We treat bookselling as a proper career and the staff are motivated,
interested and well-paid. Nowadays, you can buy any books on websites, the book trade is
changing fast and we have to change with it, by offering customers that special personal touch.”

IV. WRITING (40 points)


Part 1:
The graph below shows population figures for India and China since the year 2000 and
predicted population growth up until 2050.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

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Population in India and China, 2000-2050
1.8

1.6

1.4

1.2

0.8

0.6

0.4

0.2

0
2000 2010 2020 2030 2040 2050

India China

Part 2:
Write an essay of 250-350 words on the following topic:
It is important for children to learn the difference between right and wrong at an early age.
Punishment is necessary to help them learn this distinction.
In your opinion, what sort of punishment should parents and teachers use to teach good
behaviour to children? Give reasons for you answer and include any relevant example from your
own knowledge or experience.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH BÌNH DƯƠNG

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THCS CẤP TỈNH


MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
- Ngày thi: 22 /3/2018
- Thời gian thi: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
- Họ và tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... SBD: .................................

Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 10 trang. Thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh viết câu trả lời trên Phiếu trả lời (Answer Sheet).
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (50 points)


SECTION 1. Questions 1-10.
Questions 1-4. Choose the correct letters A, B or C to complete each of the sentences 1-4.
Example: The respondent is __________________
A. 20-33 years old. B. 34-54 years old. C. over 54 years old.
1. The respondent works in __________________
A. the professions. B. business. C. other
2. The respondent has a salary of __________________
A. 0 - £15,000 a year. B. £15,000 - £35,000 a year. C. over £35,000 a year.
3. The respondent watches TV for __________________
A. relaxation. B. entertainment. C. information.
4. Every day the respondent watches TV for __________________
A. 30 minutes-1 hour. B. 1 hour-2 hours. C. more than 2 hours.
Questions 5-7. Choose TWO letters A-E to complete the sentences 5-7.
5. The respondent mainly watches TV __________________
A. in the early morning. D. in the early evening.
B. around midday. E. at night.
C. in the afternoon.
6. On the new channel, the respondent would like to see more __________________
A. children's programmes. D. travel programmes.
B. documentaries. E. health programmes.
C. local service programmes.
7. The respondent would advise the new channel to __________________
A. spend more money on drama. D. broadcast interviews with famous people.
B. train their broadcasters to higher standards. E. talk more to customers.
C. improve sound quality.
Questions 8-10. Choose the correct letters A, B or C to complete each of the sentences 8-10.
8 The respondent feels that adverts should occur every __________________
A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes.
9 The respondent would like to attend special promotions if __________________
A. expenses are paid. B he is invited specially. C they are held locally.

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10 The respondent would like to receive __________________
A. no mail. B. requested mail. C. all mail.
SECTION 2: Questions 11-20.
Questions 11-14. Choose FOUR letters A-G.Which FOUR activities of the Union are mentioned by
the speaker?
A. raising money for good causes E. providing cheap tickets
B. political campaigning F. helping with accommodation
C. running a newsagent's G. providing catering services
D. running a supermarket
Questions 15 and 16 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following can you get advice
about from the Union?
A. immigration D. personal problems
B. grants E. legal matters
C. medical problems
Questions 17-20. Write the appropriate letters A-C against Questions 17-20.
What are the locations of the following places in Radford?
A. part of the Metro Tower building
B. in the main square in the centre of the town
C. some distance from the centre of the town
17. the hi-tech fitness centre __________________ 19. the new cinema ___________________
18. the ice rink ______________________ 20. the Theatre Royal _________________
SECTION 3: Questions 21-25.
Questions 21-23. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A
NUMBER for each answer.
DISSERTATION INFORMATION
Hand-in date: (21) ____________________________________________
Length: (22) ____________________ to _____________________ words
Extra programme offered on: (23) ________________________________
Questions 24-25. Complete the table below.
DISSERTATION TIMETABLE
Date Action
31st January Basic bibliography
7th February (24) ____________________
February-March (25) ____________________
March to May Write up work
21st May Hand in work
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (50 points)
Part 1.
For questions 26-40, choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following
sentences.
26. Many people enjoy _____________ shopping as it is convenient.
A. true B. virtual C. moveable D. visual
27. ___________ of confidence is the biggest problem of Paul.
A. Lack B. Slide C. Lock D. Deal
28. Go to see dentist to check if you have any ____________.
A. waste B. leisure C. cavities D. activities
29. If your son has Internet ___________, limit the time he spends online.
A. fan B. banner C. virus D. addition
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30. The cows ___________ the traffic for an hour this morning.
A. locked B. decorated C. blocked D. installed
31. My father always brings a few ___________ from his trips.
A. souvenirs B. holes C. villages D. researches
32. We have to make the best use of our scientific ____________.
A. form B. consumer C. knowledge D. bridge
33. Nathan is ____________ by nature, so he pays careful attention to everything.
A. careless B. absent C. basic D. meticulous
34. You had better ____________ in the meeting this time.
A. leave B. reward C. cancel D. participate
35. The members reached a ____________ after a long discussion.
A. quarrel B. decision C. top D. illusion
36. Brenda recognized that her daughter had a keen musicial ___________.
A. absence B prize C. sense D. fault
37. The little girl lied to _____________ punishment from her parents.
A. landscape B. glow C. escape D. waste
38. Open-mindedness is one of Sarah’s best _____________.
A. qualities B. quarters C. minds D. forms
39. The report says coffee and tea can _____________ the risk of heart disease.
A. reverse B. enjoy C. surround D. reduce
40. The boy will ____________ a week being grounded if his grades do not improve.
A. face B. enjoy C. depend D. trace
Part 2.
Questions 41-47. Complete the sentences with the correct preposition.
41. He refused to accept responsibility _____________ the mistake.
42. Police have issued warning after several attacks _____________ old people in the area.
43. Why don’t you try a new approach _____________ the advertising campaign?
44. The murder had a disturbing effect _____________ the inhabitants of the village.
45. Her reaction ____________ the offer surprised everyone.
46. There’s no need ____________ all this shouting; we can settle this calmly and sensibly.
47. Can you give me a good reason _____________ this sudden decision?
Part 3.
Questions 48-55. Choose the best sentence in each pair.
A. This is my brother’s wife.
48. This is the wife of my brother.
B.
A. The government should listen to the peoples’ problems.
49. The government should listen to the people’s problems.
B.
A. The roof of the house needs to be mended.
50. The house’s roof needs to be mended.
B.
A. Isn’t that the mother of Sylvia?
51. Isn’t that Sylvia’s mother?
B.
A. Buster is Steve’s and Liz’s dog.
52. Buster is Steve and Liz’s dog.
B.
A. Frances writes children’s books.
53. Frances writes childrens’ books.
B.
A. I love the Italian’s passion for good food.
54. I love the Italians’ passion for good food.
B.
A. Lady’s clothes are on the second floor.
55.
B. Ladies’ clothes are on the second floor.

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Part 4.
Questions 56-65. Match the main clauses 56-65 with the appropriate contrast clauses A-J.
56. The teacher heard us ____________________ A. despite the fact that we live in the same town.
57. She went to the party ____________________ B. although I hadn’t seen him for years.
58. I recognized him immediately _____________ C. she always got the best marks.
59. In spite of the fact that she was the youngest in D. even though they knew she was a vegetarian.
the class, _____________________________
60. He told her about the job ________________ E. in some ways she is the most mature.
61. In spite of the bad weather, ______________ F. even though we were talking very quietly.
62. They gave her meat for dinner ____________ G. despite the fact that her parents had forbidden
her to go.
63. In spite of being the youngest, ____________ H. although we heard it’s a beautiful country.
64. I hardly ever see my relatives _____________ I. they had the picnic as planned.
65. I’ve never been to France ________________ J. though it was supposed to be a secret.
Part 5.
Questions 66-70. Use the words in brackets and an appropriate infinitive to rewrite each of
these sentences, taking care to retain the original meaning.
Ex. The police didn’t find his story convincing. (His story/fail)
=> His story failed to convince the police.
66. The scientist’s efforts resulted in the completion of the experiment. (The scientist/manage)
67. I’d prefer if we didn’t see each other again. (I/not want)
68. He said he would give me his help if I needed it. (He/offer)
69. She won’t discuss the matter with anyone. (She/refuse)
70. It is essential that the company has full knowledge of your plans. (The company/need)
Part 6.
Questions 71-75. Circle the word in each list that does not have a similar meaning to the others.
A B C D E
71. career job hobby profession occupation
72. deadline limit goal target start
73. stress worry difficult pressure comfort
74. factory beach office shop workshop
75. employer boss owner worker manager
III. READING (50 points)
Part 1. Read the passage below.
Hi Lang,
I’m writing in English because I know we both need to practise. Thanks for your last email. I’m sorry
I didn’t write back sooner. I started school the day after we arrived in Boston and I’m very busy with
extra work. I hate it here. I can’t understand what anyone says to me. Their accents are very strange.
I miss Shanghai and I miss playing in the band with you. CRASH! were the best! I don’t know
anyone who plays rock music here. I try to practise the guitar, but the neighbour who lives opposite
complained yesterday. He was very angry. His daughter plays the violin and he said that my ‘horrible
noise’ disturbed her. Later, I saw her staring out of the window at me. I think she hates me too. She’s
really beautiful...
I’ve got to stop now. Mum is home from work and I haven’t finished my homework.
Please write back soon. I want to hear more about what you’re doing in London. Have you found
anyone to play music with? Can you understand the accent yet?
Deshi
PS: I think I’m in love!

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Deshi turned off the computer and opened his English book. He had lots of homework but it was
difficult to concentrate on irregular verbs. He couldn’t stop thinking about the girl in the building
opposite and her beautiful eyes. He opened his bedroom window and looked across the street. Her
window was open too and he could hear her practising a piece of classical music. It sounded sad.
“She’s really good,” thought Deshi, “and she probably hates rock music!” “Have you finished your
homework?” Deshi’s mum opened the door. “Hurry up, dinner will be ready in half an hour, and
please tidy your room!” Suddenly, Deshi didn’t feel hungry.
Deshi couldn’t sleep that night and he got up late the next morning. He ran out of the house in time to
see the bus leaving. Oh no! He was going to be late again. He looked around and there she was! She
was sitting in her dad’s car with the window open. He dropped his schoolbag and she turned to look at
him. He couldn’t move. Her eyes were green. He’d never seen anyone with green eyes before. He
smiled at her but she just stared at him as if he didn’t exist. Deshi could feel his face turning red. He
picked up his bag and ran off.
He had a terrible day at school. He failed another maths test and the English teacher shouted at him
for not concentrating in class. At lunch time, he couldn’t eat. The food in the cafeteria was horrible, it
just made him feel sick. And then, finally, he had to stay late after school for extra English, so he
missed the bus again. He decided to walk home. He was crossing the park near his street, thinking
about how he missed his school back in Shanghai and all his friends. He thought about his dad, who
had died three years ago, and that made him sad. Then he saw her. She was sitting on a bench with her
dog. “Oh no, she’s seen me,” he thought. He didn’t know what to do, so he smiled and waved at her
but she just ignored him again. “Idiot!” he said to himself. “Why did I wave? Now she really hates
me.”
Later that evening, Deshi was in his room, practising his guitar with the headphones on. His friends in
Shanghai thought he was very good. He had started a band with his friend Lang and they had played a
concert at school. But now he didn’t want anyone to hear him playing, especially her. He was thinking
about getting a classical guitar when his mum came into the room. She was holding a letter. “The
postman delivered this to the wrong building,” she said. “It’s for the building opposite. Can you take
it across while I’m making dinner? And please, tidy your room!” “OK, mum!” he said. Deshi felt bad.
Mum worked hard all day and then she had to look after him too. Maybe he should do more to help.
Deshi went down to the street feeling really unhappy. Life was difficult since dad died. Mum was
always working. School was really difficult and he had no friends in Boston. He was outside the
opposite building when suddenly the door opened. “Oh no, it’s her again,” he thought. The girl was
coming down the steps when she dropped something. It bounced down the steps and stopped at
Deshi’s feet.
Without thinking, he picked it up. “Hello?” she said, sounding frightened. “Who’s there?” Deshi was
confused. “Er, I live across the street. Are you OK?” “Oh, are you the boy who plays the guitar?” she
said. “Hi, I’m Helen. I wanted to tell you I really like your music and I’m sorry my dad complained.
He worries about me too much.” Deshi looked at what he was holding. It was a white stick. She was
blind.
Questions 76-85. Put the things A-K that Deshi does in the correct order from 76 to 85.
76. ______________ A. He drops his schoolbag.
77. ______________ B. He hears Helen practising a classical piece.
78. ______________ C. He tries to study irregular verbs.
79. ______________ E. He sees Helen in the park.
80. ______________ F. He can’t sleep and gets up late.
81. ______________ G. He picks up Helen’s white stick.
82. ______________ H. He doesn’t want lunch in the cafeteria.
83. ______________ I. He writes an email to his friend from Shanghai.
84. ______________ J. He practises the guitar with the headphones on.
85. ______________ K. He takes the letter across the street.

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Part 2. Read the passage and answer the questions 86-97.
Zoos are hugely popular attractions for adults and children alike. But are they actually a good thing?
Critics of zoos would argue that animals often suffer physically and mentally by being enclosed. Even
the best artificial environments can’t come close to matching the space, diversity, and freedom that
animals have in their natural habitats. This deprivation causes many zoo animals to become stressed
or mentally ill. Capturing animals in the wild also causes much suffering by splitting up families.
Some zoos make animals behave unnaturally: for example, marine parks often force dolphins and
whales to perform tricks. These mammals may die decades earlier than their wild relatives, and some
even try to commit suicide.
On the other hand, by bringing people and animals together, zoos have potential to educate the public
about conservation issues and inspire people to protect animals and their habitats. Some zoos provide
safe environment for animals which have been mistreated in circuses, or pets which have been
abandoned. Zoos also carry out important research into subjects like animal behaviour and how to
treat illnesses.
One of the most important functions of zoos is supporting international breeding programmes,
particularly for endangered species. In the wild, some of the rarest species have difficulty in finding
mates and breeding, and they may also be threatened by poachers, loss of habitat and predators. A
good zoo will enable these species to live and breed in a secure environment. In addition, as numbers
of some wild species drop, there is an increased danger of populations becoming too genetically
similar. Breeding programmes provide a safeguard: zoo-bred animals can be released into the wild to
increase genetic diversity.
However, opponents of zoos say that the vast majority of captive breeding programmes do not release
animals back into the wild. Surplus animals are sold not only other zoos but also to circuses or
hunting ranches in the US or South Africa where some people are willing to pay a lot of money for
the chance to kill an animal in a fenced enclosure. Often, these animals are familiar with humans and
have very little chance of escaping.
So, are zoos good for animals or not? Perhaps it all depends on how well individual zoos are
managed, and the benefits of zoos can surly outweigh their harmful effects. However, it is
understandable that many people believe imprisoning animals for any reason is simply wrong.
Questions 86-97. Are the sentences true or false?
86. Modern zoos can offer animals a living environment that is as good as their natural habitats.
True False
87. One of the reasons zoo animals become distressed is because they are separated from their
families.
True False
88. Dolphins and whales usually live longer in zoos than in the wild.
True False
89. People who have visited zoos are more likely to support animal conservation and protection.
True False
90. Zoos protect animals from being used for scientific research.
True False
91. Endangered animals kept in zoos are less likely to meet a mate and breed.
True False
92. In their natural habitats, animals suffer problems related to human activity.
True False
93. Endangered species often lack genetic diversity in their population.
True False
94. Zoos promote genetic diversity by breeding animals and then releasing them back into the wild.
True False
95. If zoos have more animals than they can look after, they always give them to another zoo or
release them back into the wild.
True False

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96. Animals that have been bred in captivity quickly adapt to life in hunting ranches.
True False
97. The author thinks that, on balance, zoos are generally a good thing.
True False
Questions 98-105. Fill the gaps with the correct words from the reading Part 2.
98. Even the best artificial environments cannot come close to an animal's natural _____________.
99. Whales and dolphins in zoos are often made to perform ______________.
100. Distressed and depressed zoo animals sometimes try to commit _______________.
101. Zoos can provide a safe ______________for animals that have been mistreated or abandoned.
102. Zoos carry out important research into how to treat ______________.
103. International breeding programmes are particularly important for endangered ______________.
104. In the wild, some of the rarest species have difficulty finding a ________________.
105. One criticism of breeding programmes is that they do not always release animals back into
the ______________.
Part 3
Green Wave Washes Over Mainstream Shopping
Research in Britain has shown that green consumers' continue to flourish as a significant group
amongst shoppers. This suggests that politicians who claim environmentalism is yesterday's issue may
be seriously misjudging the public mood. A report from Mintel, the market research organisation, says
that despite recession and financial pressures, more people than ever want to buy environmentally
friendly products and a “green wave” has swept through consumerism, taking in people previously
untouched by environmental concerns. The recently published report also predicts that the process
will repeat itself with “ethical” concerns, involving issues such as fair trade with the Third World and
the social record of businesses. Companies will have to be more honest and open in response to this
mood. Mintel's survey, based on nearly 1,000 consumers, found that the proportion who look for
green products and are prepared to pay more for them has climbed from 53 per cent in 1990 to around
60 per cent in 1994. On average, they will pay 13 per cent more for such products, although this
percentage is higher among women, managerial and professional groups and those aged 35 to 44.
Between 1990 and 1994 the proportion of consumers claiming to be unaware of or unconcerned about
green issues fell from 18 to 10 per cent but the number of green spenders among older people and
manual workers has risen substantially. Regions such as Scotland have also caught up with the south
of England in their environmental concerns. According to Mintel, the image of green consumerism as
associated in the past with the more eccentric members of society has virtually disappeared. The
consumer research manager for Mintel, Angela Hughes, said it had become firmly established as a
mainstream market. She explained that as far as the average person is concerned environmentalism
has not gone off the boil. In fact, it has spread across a much wider range of consumer groups, ages
and occupations. Mintel's 1994 survey found that 13 per cent of consumers are “very dark green”,
nearly always buying environmentally friendly products, 28 per cent are “dark green”, trying “as far
as possible” to buy such products, and 21 per cent are “pale green” - tending to buy green products if
they see them. Another 26 per cent are “armchair greens”; they said they care about environmental
issues but their concern does not affect their spending habits. Only 10 per cent say they do not care
about green issues.
Four in ten people are 'ethical spenders', buying goods which do not, for example, involve dealings
with oppressive regimes. This figure is the same as in 1990, although the number of'armchair ethicals'
has risen from 28 to 35 per cent and only 22 per cent say they are unconcerned now, against 30 per
cent in 1990. Hughes claims that in the twenty-first century, consumers will be encouraged to think
more about the entire history of the products and services they buy, including the policies of the
companies that provide them and that this will require a greater degree of honesty with consumers.
Among green consumers, animal testing is the top issue - 48 per cent said they would be deterred
from buying aproduct it if had been tested on animals followed by concerns regarding irresponsible

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selling, the ozone layer, river and sea pollution, forest destruction, recycling and factory farming.
However, concern for specific issues is lower than in 1990, suggesting that many consumers feel that
Government and business have taken on the environmental agenda.
Questions 106-111. Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer of Part 3?
In boxes 106-111 on your answer sheet write:
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer or
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.
106. The research findings report commercial rather than political trends.
107. Being financially better off has made shoppers more sensitive to buying “green”.
108. The majority of shoppers are prepared to pay more for the benefit of the environment according
to the research findings.
109. Consumers green shopping habits are influenced by Mintel's findings.
110. Mintel have limited their investigation to professional and managerial groups.
111. Mintel undertakes market surveys on an annual basis.
Questions 112-114. Choose the appropriate letters A, B, C or D and write them in boxes 112-114 on
your answer sheet.
112. Politicians may have 'misjudged the public mood' because ______________.
A. they are pre-occupied with the recession and financial problems.
B. there is more widespread interest in the environment agenda than they anticipated.
C. consumer spending has increased significantly as a result of 'green' pressure.
D. shoppers are displeased with government policies on a range of issues.
113. What is Mintel?
A. an environmentalist group C. an academic research team
B. a business survey organisation D. a political organisation
114. A consumer expressing concern for environmental issues without actively supporting such
principles is _______________
A. an “ethical spender”. C. an “armchair green”.
B. a “very dark green” spender. D. a “pale green” spender.
Part 4.
Questions 115-125. Choose the correct words from the table to complete the passage.
Mr. John worked in a bank on the (115) of London. Every morning, he got (116)
at seven o’clock, had breakfast with his pretty young wife at half past seven, read the (117)
paper, drank a cup of tea and left (118) at eight o’clock to go to catch his train.
However, one morning he was still (119) quite (120) at the table reading his newspaper at
five minutes past eight. He didn’t seem to (121) in a hurry and asked his wife for (122)
cup of tea. His wife looked (123) him and said: “Aren’t you going to the bank today? Are you
(124) holiday?”
“The bank?” her husband replied, very surprised. “I thought I (125) at the bank!”
115. A. outskirts B. suburbs C. center D. middle
116. A. out B. down C. up D. in
117. A. week B. morning C. day D. new
118. A. apartment B. flat C. home D. house
119. A. standing B. sat C. sitting D. sit
120. A. sadly B. sad C. happy D. happily
121. A. be B. have C. go D. do
122. A. more B. another C. other D. much
123. A. to B. on C. over D. at
124. A. to B. at C. in D. on
125. A. was B. were C. be D. being
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IV. WRITING.
Part 1. (8 points)
Questions 126-133. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first.
126. My brother swims better than him. => He doesn’t swim _______________________________ .
127. I don’t feel like playing tennis today. => I’d _________________________________________ .
128. Drinks can’t be taken into the football ground.
=> Drinks aren’t ____________________________________ be taken into the football ground.
129. “Who do you play with at school?” Roger asked me. => Roger asked me __________________ .
130. I don’t have any money, so I can’t buy a car. => If ____________________________________.
131. Leather goods aren’t sold in this shop. => You _______________________________________ .
132. I spend five hours paiting the living room. => It ______________________________________ .
133. I think you should move to a bigger house. => It’s better _______________________________ .
Part 2. (10 points)
Questions 134-143. Correct one mistake in each sentence. Write the full correct sentences on
your answer sheet.
134. Some big city suffer from overcrowding.
135. This is often due people coming to cities for work.
136. London has grow rapidly over the last 50 years and now has over 7 million people.
137. This means that moving around the city is difficult in rushing hour and house prices are very
expensive.
138. If I was the mayor of London, I will build more flats on park land, so that more people could
afford a place to live.
139. If London will grow bigger, more public transport will be needed for people who work.
140. The government needs to consider to reduce the number ofc ars coming into cities.
141. People may decide travelling by public transport if the system improves.
142. As the result, the roads will be clearer.
143. This would make transports in general easier.
Part 3. (8 points)
Questions 144-151. Find eight mistakes in this short essay and correct them.
The government should give more money to museums and art galleries and less money to
sport. How far do you agree with this statement?
All people think museums are more important than sport but other people do not agree. In my
opinion, art is much more important than sport.
Firstly, art shows of a country the culture so the government should give money to museums
and galleries. If we did not have museums, we would not have many culture in the world. However, it
is expensive to run a museum or art gallery because the government should help pay for this.
Sport is important too because it is fun and boring but people do not need many money to
enjoy it. People playing sport in the park or they like watch it on television. These activities are cheap
and they do not need money from the government.
Part 4. (4 points)
Questions 152-155. Put the paragraphs A-D of this essay in the correct order by matching them to
the headings 152-155 below.
In a family, both men and women should be employed outside the home and share childcare
equally. To what extent do you agree with this statement?
A. The economic benefits and the general benefits to children are the reasons why I believe that men
should work outside the home and women should not. These traditional roles have worked
successfully for a long time, so, in my opinion, they do not need to change now.
B. Also, women should be the main carers for their children. Although some people argue that women
should be able to work outside the home, this is hard when there are children. Women give birth to the
children and they need to be with them when they are small. It is also better for the children to grow
up with a parent who is always at home. Being looked after by a professional carer is not as good for
children.
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C. Nowadays, the traditional roles of men and women have changed. More men help in the home and
more women go out to work. Some people say that this is a good thing, while others say that this is a
negative thing. I believe that men should go out to work and women should stay at home. I believe
that this is more economically efficient, and it is also better for children.
D. The traditional structure of men working and women staying at home means that the family has
more economic benefits. A man working full-time is likely to earn more money than a man and
woman both working part-time. Also, it means that the woman can do things at home to save money,
like making clothes or growing food.
152. Paragraph 1 (Introduction) .....................
153. Paragraph 2 (Body) ................................
154. Paragraph 3 (Body) …………................
155. Paragraph 4 (Conclusion) ……...............
Part 5. (30 points)
Write an essay about the following topic:
“The Internet has as many disadvantages as it does advantages.” To what extent do you agree with
this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Your essay should be around 250 words long.
Part 6. (40 points)
Write an essay about the topic below.
“Most education systems rely on examinations to encourage children to study, but as a result, children
suffer from too much stress and they never learn to be creative. Therefore, exams should be abolished.
To what extend do you agree or disagree with this statement?”
You should write at least 350 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST

HSG Tỉnh – Tiếng Anh THCS – Trang 10 / 10


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH - VÒNG 1


MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
- Ngày thi: 24/8/2018
- Thời gian thi: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
- Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................................. SBD: ...............................

Ghi chú:
- Đề thi có 12 trang. Thí sinh nộp lại Đề thi và Phiếu trả lời khi hết giờ làm bài thi.
- Thí sinh ghi câu trả lời của mình trên Phiếu trả lời.
- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
- Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU


 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
 Bài nghe gồm 3 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Bài nghe kéo dài 30 phút.

I. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1:
You will hear people talking in different situations. Choose the best answer.
1. You hear someone introducing a programme on the radio. Where is he?
A. a swimming pool B. a sports hall C. a football ground
2. You hear this girl talking to her mother. What plan had her mother agreed to?
A. visiting a friend B. going to London C. staying in a hotel
3. You hear this advertisement for a concert. What is unusual about it?
A. It’s on a Saturday. B. It’s in a different place. C. There will be singers in it.
4. Listen to this teacher talking to a student. What is he giving?
A. some advice B. an opinion C. some information
5. You hear this woman talking to someone outside a block of flats. What is her job?
A. She sells property. B. She is a tourist guide. C. She inspects construction.

Part 2:
You will hear five people talking about journeys they have been on. Choose which of the
opinions (A-F) each speaker expresses. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter
which you do not need to use.
A. It was interesting.
6. Speaker 1
B. It was uncomfortable.
7. Speaker 2
C. It was a bit disappointing
8. Speaker 3
D. It was exhausting.
9. Speaker 4
E. It was risky.
10. Speaker 5
F. It was badly organised.
Part 3:
Listen and answer the questions.
11. What is the talk mainly about?
A. The shape of sea creatures B. How starfish divide
C. Animals without a brain D. The characteristics of jellyfish
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12. How does the jellyfish move around?
A. It uses its five tentacles as arms. B. It moves with the waves in the sea.
C. It divides itself to go forward. D. It uses its hands and mouth to move.
13. How does the speaker talk about brainless creatures?
A. He contrasts jellyfish with starfish. B. He explains why they do not have brains.
C. He lists brainless creatures on land. D. He gives examples of brainless creatures.

Part 4:
You will hear part of a radio programme about memory. Complete the sentences by writing
TWO WORDS in each blank.
14. People start to lose their power of memory when they are in _________________.
15. Keeping your brain mentally stimulated may _________________ the process of
memory loss.
16. People’s memories start to get worse as soon as they _________________.
17. You can get your brain working by coming home by a _________________.
18. Exercising for _________________ hour most days will help keep you physically fit.
19. You are more likely to suffer memory loss if you smoke and _________________.
20. Always put things that you keep losing in the _________________.
21. Writing things down _________________.
22. Creating a _________________ of someone will help you to remember their name.
23. You may find it difficult to remember what you know if you are _________________.
24. Don’t practise a formal speech wearing _________________.
25. Write down the main points of your speech and _________________ them.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)


Part 1:
Choose the correct answer to each of the following questions.
26. The men will have to wait all day ________ the doctor works faster.
A. since B. unless C. whether D. that
27. I’ve won a holiday for two to Florida. I ________ my mum.
A. am taking B. have been taken C. take D. will have taken
28. Unfortunately, their house ________ while they were at the restaurant celebrating
their anniversary.
A. had burgled B. went burgled C. got burgled D. burgled
29. You’d rather stay at home tonight, ________ you?
A. wouldn’t B. shouldn’t C. couldn’t D. hadn’t
30. If this dictionary is not yours, ________ can it be?
A. what else B. who else C. which else’s D. who else’s
31. ________ can you expect to get a pay raise.
A. Now that you work hard B. Working hard
C. Only with hard work D. With hard work
32. It was the extreme cold that finally did ________ him.
A. with B. out C. for D. off
33. By the time they ________ at the concert, the tickets were sold out.
A. got through B. filled in C. applied to D. turned up
34. I ________ some of my old drawings while I was clearing out the cupboard.
A. turned up B. came across C. caught up with D. looked for

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35. I borrowed a ________ bike and went into town in the lunch break.
A. friend of mine’s B. friend’s of mine C. friend’s of my D. friend of my’s
36. He escaped by ________.
A. a breadth of a hair B. a hair’s breadth
C. the breadth of hair D. the hair’s breadth
37. No offence intended ________ I think you haven’t understood the problem yet.
A. when B. as C. if D. but
38. I take great exception ________ the implication that I was not telling the truth.
A. against B. from C. to D. with
39. If you can win his attention, ________ for you.
A. the better so much B. so much the better
C. the so much better D. so the much better
40. I only touched his new car and he went crazy. He was overprotective of it and made
a real ________.
A. heavy weather of it B. port in a storm
C. brass monkey weather D. storm in a teacup
41. That boy has been ________ me with silly questions all week. Why doesn’t he go
and use the library?
A. dogging B. pigging C. fishing D. wolfing
42. Shakespeare is considered to be the writer who ________ more phrases than anyone
else.
A. chaired B. coined C. handed D. manned
43. Before we finish tonight, I would like to ________ the happy couple and wish them
all the best for the future.
A. screen B. log C. toast D. head
44. You really ________ me with that news. I just couldn’t believe it.
A. floored B. beached C. starred D. shouldered
45. I was about to give somebody my account number over the phone when I realized it
was a ________ attempt to get my personal information.
A. persistent B. turbulent C. belligerent D. fraudulent
46. Susan is ________ and can often overcome difficulties easily.
A. big-headed B. level-headed C. swelled-headed D. wooden-headed
47. Please just don’t ________ your feedback. I wouldn’t mind hearing the bitter truth.
A. sugarcane B. sugarplum C. sugarcoat D. sugarloaf
48. Most organisations have too many ________ and boring meetings and that needs to
change.
A. long-winded B. quick-witted C. sharp-edged D. pint-sized
49. Companies run by ________ business people wouldn’t be spending millions of
dollars on that project if it didn’t work.
A. heavy-footed B. single-breasted C. light-hearted D. hard-nosed

Part 2:
Read the text below. Write the correct form of the bracketed words. Number (0) has been
done for you as an example. Write the answer on your answer sheet.
Some people are (0.CARE) ___carefully___ preparing themselves for retirement a
long time before they actually reach it. Some people prefer to retire early. Early retirement
is usually (50.OPT) _________________________ and most companies don’t have any
(51.OBJECT) _________________________ to it. However, once the (52. FORMAL)
_________________________ are over and a person finds himself at home, projects such
_____________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 3/12
as home (53.MAINTAIN) _________________________ become a new speciality,
especially for men although their (54.ENTHUSE) _________________________ may not
match their (55.PERFORM) _________________________. Often accidents are caused by
someone’s (56.EAGER) _________________________ to save money as their lack of
(57.EXPERT) _________________________ causes more problems than it solves.

Part 3:
Read the following passage and use only ONE word that best fits each gap. Write the
answer on your answer sheet.
THE BIRTH OF YOUTUBE
In 2005, Chad Hurley and Steve Chen, two software designers from Silicon Valley
in California, were invited to a dinner party. Several people had brought their camcorders to
the party and these people were complaining about (0)____how____ difficult it was to
share home videos online. That was when Chad and Steve came up (58)______________
the idea for YouTube, the site which makes (59)______________ easy to upload home
videos onto the Internet. They formed a company, borrowed some money and
(60)______________ themselves up in business.
It turned (61)______________ that millions of people already had short home video
clips that they thought it would be fun to share with other enthusiasts around the world.
Launched in December 2005, YouTube soon contained more than a million short video
clips. People were uploading 8000 clips a day, and watching three million a day. They had
mostly heard about the site through word (62)______________ mouth, email and hyperlink,
and eighty percent of the clips had been made by amateurs.
So why was YouTube such an immediate success? Researchers found that,
(63)______________ average, people were spending fifteen minutes on the site during each
visit, (64)______________ was enough time to view several short funny clips. In
(65)______________ words, they were using YouTube to give them a little break from
their work or study.

III. READING (50 points)


Part 1:
The passage “First Aid for Snake Bites” explains what to do in the event of a snake bite.
Read the additional instructions (66-71) below and choose the section A-D to which each
instruction belongs.

66. never use a tight bandage


67. help the casualty to sit or lie down
68. wear stout shoes, walk-socks and jeans in areas where snakes could be present
69. pain or tightness in the chest or abdomen
70. do not try to catch the snake

FIRST AID FOR SNAKE BITES


A. Prevention
 leave snakes alone and do not collect snakes
 do not put your hands in hollow logs, under piles of wood, or in rubbish
 be noisy when walking in the bush
 look carefully when walking through thick grass
 use a torch around camps at night
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B. Symptoms and signs
 strong emotional reaction
 headache or double vision
 drowsiness, giddiness or faintness
 nausea and/or vomiting and diarrhoea
 bruising
 sweating
 breathing difficulties
C. Management
 reassure the casualty
 apply a pressure immobilisation bandage over the bitten area and around the limb
 seek medical aid urgently
D. Snakebite Warnings
 never wash the venom off the skin as this will help in later identification
 never cut or squeeze the bitten area
 never try to suck the venom out of the wound

Part 2:
Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each gap.
DON’T FORGET YOUR HAT
An important point to remember if you like spending time out in the (71)______ air
is that the human head doesn’t work very well outdoors if it becomes too hot, cold or wet.
That’s why a hat is a good investment, wherever you’re planning to go out and (72)______.
Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a brim will do the (73)______ adequately in most
conditions.
In cold climates, the problem is that the head is sending out heat all the time. As
(74)______ as fifty to sixty percent of your body’s heat is lost through the head and neck,
(75)______ on which scientist you believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to be prevented, but
it’s important to remember that hats don’t actually (76)______ you warm, they simply stop
heat escaping.
Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of (77)______
sunlight, and the brim of your hat will do this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (78)______
buying one that has a drop down “tail” at the back to stop your neck (79)______ sunburnt.
And in wet weather (80)______, hats are often more practical than pulling up the
hood of your waterproof coat because when you (81)______ your head, the hat goes with
you, (82)______ the hood usually does not.

71. A. open B. free C. clear D. wide


72. A. around B. about C. along D. above
73. A. job B. task C. role D. duty
74. A. soon B. long C. well D. much
75. A. according B. regarding C. depending D. relating
76. A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep
77. A. sharp B. keen C. bright D. deep
78. A. consider B. recommend C. advise D. suggest
79. A. suffering B. going C. having D. getting
80. A. occasions B. positions C. cases D. conditions
81. A. alter B. switch C. turn D. spin
82. A. instead of B. whereas C. rather than D. thereby
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Part 3:
You are going to read a magazine article about people who have taken up dangerous
sports. Choose from the people (A-D). The people may be chosen more than once.
Which person…
83. …was aware of making a mistake during training?
84. …expected the first day of training to be relatively easy?
85. …was confident of having the physical strength to succeed?
86. …improved their performance by following some useful advice?
87. …realised their co-trainees had had some experience in a related sport?
88. …mentions having gained considerable confidence since starting?
89. …was warned not to try to use skills acquired in other sports?
90. …believes the training venue used is the best available?
91. …is confident of overcoming any feelings of fear?
92. …felt nervous when preparing to try out the sport for the first time?
93. …mentions the feeling of joy that the sport gave?
94. …was told the sport was not as dangerous as people think?
95. …was more successful than somebody else in a first attempt?
96. …felt disappointed when the trainer gave an order to stop?
97. …felt uncomfortable with their appearance on arriving for a lesson?

ANYONE FOR EXTREME SPORTS?


Tired of going to the gym? Why not try something you might actually enjoy?
Here are four courageous people describing their own choices.

A. Brenda Gordon: FLYING TRAPEZE


I wanted to do something where I was having so much fun I wouldn’t even notice I
was exercising at all. I decided to try out a half-day circus-skills course. It all started with a
series of preparation exercises. Then I stood facing the flying trapeze, and all of a sudden I
noticed a slight fluttering in my stomach. Next I was shown the right way to grip the trapeze
and how to step off the platform without hitting my back. Then, suddenly, I was being
counted down from three. My heart was racing but I kept thinking I’d no doubt be able to
take my body weight in my very muscular arms. Then in a moment I’d stepped off and,
incredibly, I was swinging through the air. I was aware of a real feeling of regret when the
instructor told me to stop. That was a year ago, and I am now a fearless trapeze flyer,
though my muscles still hurt after each and every session.

B. Guy Stanton: ICE CLIMBING


I had my first ice-climbing lesson at an indoor climbing center which has an
enormous artificial ice cave. I turned up fully kitted-up in heavy climbing boots with sharp-
toothed metal crampons, and armed with two metal ice axes, which was embarrassing as my
co-trainees all expected to get their gear from the center. The instructor ran through a
demonstration. Then it was my turn. I buried the axes on the ice, kicked one boot at the
wall, then the other, and started climbing.
But I had forgotten my first important lesson: don’t bury your axes too deep. As my
desire not to fall increased, so I hammered them deeper until they got stuck. My arms were
aching and I stopped, utterly disappointed with myself. The trainer shouted some
encouragement: “You can do it, don’t grip the axes so hard!” I did so and my more relaxed

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HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 6/12
style meant less pressure on my arms, so I started enjoying it. I still feel frightened when
I’m high up, but I know I’ll feel completely at ease eventually.

C. Debbie Bridge: FREEDIVING


Freediving is a sport which consists of diving to great depths without an oxygen
tank. I took part in a freediving course organised by a leading subaqua website. This is
surely the best place in the world to learn this skill. My training took place in a 30-meter
high and 6- meter wide cylindrical water tank. Unlike me, who had never been deeper than
the swimming-pool floor, my co-trainees were all scuba divers. Our trainer was keen to
prove freediving is not so risky. “When practiced correctly, it is a very safe sport,” she said.
After a few lectures about safety, and suitably kitted with flippers and a diving mask, I was
ready to get into the water. With a partner, we were going to attempt to descend and ascend
by pulling on a rope. My partner dived first but had trouble and stopped at 5 meters. Then I
dived, pulling myself downwards on the rope and reached 15 meters easily, feeling more
and more at ease. This sport is not about adrenaline but about being calm.

D. Max Wainright: SNOWBOARDING


I’d always wanted to try snowboarding, so I went for a training day at an indoor
snow slope near my home – a 170-meter-long slope, all covered by 1500 tons of man-made
snow which is surprisingly like the real thing. Having had the pleasure of learning the
basics of snowboarding several years before in the French Alps, I’d hoped that returning to
the sport might be a bit like riding a bike, something you supposedly never forget.
But it seemed that most of what I’d learned had melted away just like snow. I knew I
shouldn’t use the techniques I’d learnt in years of surfing and skiing, and I didn’t. My
instructor had said they were not applicable to snowboarding at all. I started riding slowly at
first, and couldn’t get the balance right. It took hours before I could pick up speed and
successfully perform a neat turn. But I was getting the hang of this! What a thrill to feel the
cool air rushing by, what fun to crash into the snow!

Part 4:
You are going to read an article about the experience of running while listening to music.
Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one
which fits each gap. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

DOES MUSIC MAKE YOU RUN FASTER?


Runner Adharanand Finn took part in an unusual race in order to test the theory that music
can make you run faster.

An expert on the effects of music on exercise, Dr Costas Karageorghis, claims that


listening to music while running can boost performance by up to 15%. To put this theory to
the test, I took part in a special Rock n’ Roll half marathon, which had groups of musicians
playing at various points along the route.
As I lined up at the start with almost 4,000 other runners, a singer sang an inspiring
song for us. It may explain why I got off to a good start. I only came eighth in the end,
though, even though I’d just spent six months training hard. (98)_________ However, it
turns out that all the training may have affected my response to the music; according to the
research, the benefits of listening to music decrease with the level of intensity of the
running.

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HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 7/12
“Elite athletes,” says Karageorghis, “tend to focus inwardly when they are running.”
According to him, most other runners look for stimulus and distraction from what is going
on around them. “Judging by your time,” he says, “you are one of the former.” It is true.
Apart from the song at the start, when I was standing still, I can barely remember the music
played along the course. The first act I passed, a folk group, made me smile, and at one
point I found myself running in time to the beat of some hard rock. (99)_________ I can’t
say they helped my performance very much. But what did other runners make of the music?
Adam Bull usually runs marathons with no music and little crowd support.
“(100)_________ With the upbeat bands, you find yourself running to the beat, which
helps. It also brings out people to cheer you on.” Rosie Bradford was also a convert. “As we
ran past one band and they started playing These Boots Were Made for Walking, everybody
suddenly went faster.”
The only person I found who was less than happy with the music was Lois Lloyd.
“There wasn’t enough of it, and I found it wasn’t loud enough, so I ran with an MP3
player,” she said, “(101)_________” Karageorghis is not surprised when I tell him. “There
are many advantages to using your own player, rather than relying on the music on the
course,” he says. “It gives you a constant stimulus, rather than just an occasional one, and
you can tailor the playlist to your taste.”
One runner told me there was a direct correlation between the quality of the music
on the course and how much it helped. But quality, of course, is subjective. I remember
feeling annoyed as I ran past one band playing Keep On Running. (102)_________
Of course, the music was not only there to help runners break their personal bests
(although sadly it was unable to help me beat mine), but to provide a sense of occasion,
draw out the crowds and create a carnival atmosphere. (103)_________ As I left, people
were beginning to relax after the run, listening to an excellent rock band. It was a fitting
way to end the day.

A. I need my music all the time.


B. I think they knew why I found the music here so distracting.
C. I enjoyed that for a few moments, but both of them came and went in a flash.
D. Along with some spring sunshine, it certainly achieved that.
E. Someone else, though, may have found it uplifting.
F. I was, in fact, taking my running pretty seriously at that time.
G. The music here has been great for my performance.

Part 5:
Read the text and answer the questions.

The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in
Ancient Rome, where the emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome,
much of the knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic civilizations in the Middle Ages.
Arab and Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants of the
Indian peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol,
which allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process,
by which flower petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was carried back to
European monasteries during the Crusades.
At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic
alcoholic waters were ingested as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify

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the air, both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black Death, the bubonic plague
was thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant
fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water for
washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.
Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly
because it was an important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such
materials at hand was essential for the distillation process. In the late seventeenth century,
trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism and patronage
which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve of glove-
makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances.
Consequently, the gloves were scented before they were sold and worn. A glove and
perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it required 7 years of formal
training under a master perfumer.
The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-
and-perfume makers, particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal
court, where it is said that a different perfume was used each week. The perfumers
diversified into other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints and hair dyes.
They were not the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers, vinegar-makers and
wig-makers were all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple
shopkeepers were coming up with their own concoctions to sell.
During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to
emerge, particularly in Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France,
the revolution initially disrupted the perfume trade due to its association with aristocracy,
however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets were sought both in the
domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new
high-end perfumery shops to open in Paris.
Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance
which required perfumers to declare the ingredients of all products for internal
consumption. Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders concentrated on products for
external use. Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports
blockaded by the British during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to
dominate the markets for some time.
One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding.
Until then, trademarks had had little significance in the perfumery where goods were
consumed locally, although they had a long history in other industries. One of the pioneers
in this field was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857. He took
advantage of the spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he
built a brand which conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for.
He recognised the role of design in enhancing the value of his products, hiring a French
lithographer to create the labels for his perfume bottles.
Luxury fragrances were strongly associated with the affluent and prestigious cities of
London and Paris. Perfumers elsewhere tended to supply cheaper products and knock-offs
of the London and Paris brands. The United States perfume industry, which developed
around the docks in New York where French oils were being imported, began in this way.
Many American firms were founded by immigrants, such as William Colgate, who arrived
in 1806. At this time, Colgate was chiefly known as a perfumery. Its Cashmere Bouquet
brand had 625 perfume varieties in the early 20th century.

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104. The purpose of the text is to…
A. compare the perfumes from different countries
B. describe the history of perfume making
C. describe the problems faced by perfumers
D. explain the different uses of perfume over time
105. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries?
A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil.
B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire.
C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India.
D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials.
106. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?
During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad
odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.
A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death
B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease
C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease
D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes
107. What does putrid mean in paragraph 3?
A. Bad-smelling
B. Rare
C. Prestigious
D. Numerous
108. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?
A. Because it was an important trade route
B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry
C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws
D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves
109. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as medicine?
A. Louis XIV B. Louis XV C. Rimmel D. Napoleon
110. In paragraph 4, it is implied that…
A. Master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week.
B. Mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters.
C. The Royal Court only bought perfume from masters.
D. Cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts.
111. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?
A. The industry declined then rose again.
B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover.
C. The industry was greatly boosted.
D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers.
112. London came to lead the perfume industry because…
A. the French Revolution meant that there were fewer customers in France.
B. Napoleon’s new laws affected the profitability of perfume-making.
C. the production of perfume ceased during the Napoleonic wars.
D. the French were unable to export perfumes for a period of time.
113. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?
A. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks.
B. He created attractive packaging for his products.
C. His products were more expensive than other brands.
D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train.
_____________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 10/12
114. What is implied about the New York perfume industry?
A. It was the fastest-growing perfume industry in the world at that time.
B. It was primarily developed by immigrants arriving from France.
C. It copied luxury fragrances and sold them cheaply.
D. There was a wider range of fragrances available here than elsewhere.
115. Which city is being described in this sentence?
“The perfume industry developed here because the city produced materials and
equipment necessary for perfume production.”
A. Paris B. London C. Venice D. New York

IV. WRITING (40 points)


Part 1:
Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given in parentheses. Do not change the word given. Use no contractions.

Only write between THREE AND FIVE WORDS, including the word given, on the answer
sheet.

Example: Repairing that old computer is pointless in my view. (point)


→ I can ______________________ that old computer being repaired.
Answer: I can see no point in that old computer being repaired.

116. My passport needs renewing because I’m going abroad this winter. (get)
→ I need _____________________________ because I’m going abroad this winter.
117. Could I ask you if you’d mind looking after my fish while I’m away? (wondering)
→ I _____________________________ willing to look after my fish while I’m away.
118. It is so difficult to create new ideas for the festival every year. (come)
→ How difficult _____________________________ with new ideas for the festival
every year.
119. The ban on parking in the city centre is probably going to be very unpopular. (likely)
→ It _____________________________ ban in the city centre will be a very
unpopular move.
120. They put Roger in charge of coaching the kids here. (made)
→ Roger _____________________________ for coaching the kids here.
121. Simon ought to make a decision about his future. (mind)
→ It is time Simon _____________________________ about his future.
122. Most of the children ignored what the guide said. (notice)
→ Few of the children _____________________________ what the guide said.
123. I always hated pizza when I was a child but now I eat it regularly. (use)
→ I _____________________________ pizza when I was a child but now I eat it
regularly.
124. It is important to be well-prepared for an interview because if you make a mistake,
you may not get the job. (cost)
→ A mistake in an interview may _____________________________ so it is
important to be well-prepared.
125. If you don’t pay on time, your booking will be cancelled. (result)
→ Failure to _____________________________ your booking being cancelled.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 11/12
Part 2:
The chart below shows information about Heart Attacks by Ages and Genders in the USA.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.

Heart Attacks per year, USA (in thousands)

500
440
450 424
400 374
350
300
Men
250
Women
200
136
150 123
100
50 3
0
Age Groups: 29-44 45-64 65+

Part 3:
In some countries, young people are encouraged to work or travel for a year between
leaving high school and starting university.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages for young people who decide to do this.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge
or experience. You should write at least 300 words.

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
HSG Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 12/12
Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Bình Dương
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT CẤP TỈNH - VÒNG 1
Năm học 2018-2019
I. LISTENING (25 x 2 points = 50 points)
1. A 8. F 14. their twenties 20. same place
2. B 9. A 15. slow down 21. reinforces memory
3. C 10. D
16. leave school 22. visual image
4. C 11. C
17. different route 23. feeling anxious
5. A 12. B
6. C 13. D 18. half an 24. your pyjamas/pajamas
7. B 19. drink heavily 25. refer to

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 x 1 point = 40 points)


26. B 34. B 42. B 50. optional 58. with
27. A 35. A 43. C 51. objection 59. it
28. C 36. B 44. A 52. formalities 60. set
29. A 37. D 45. D 53. maintenance 61. out
30. D 38. C 46. B 54. enthusiasm 62. of
31. C 39. B 47. C 55. performance 63. on
32. C 40. D 48. A 56. eagerness 64. which
33. D 41. A 49. D 57. expertise 65. other

III. READING (50 x 1 point = 50 points)


66. D 73. A 80. D 87. C 94. C 101. A 108. C
67. C 74. D 81. C 88. A 95. C 102. E 109. D
68. A 75. C 82. B 89. D 96. A 103. D 110. C
69. B 76. D 83. B 90. C 97. B 104. B 111. A
70. D 77. C 84. D 91. B 98. F 105. A 112. D
71. A 78. A 85. A 92. A 99. C 106. D 113. A
72. B 79. D 86. B 93. D 100. G 107. A 114. C
115. C
IV. WRITING (40 points)
Part 1: (10 x 1 point = 10 points)
116. to get my passport renewed 121. made up his mind
117. was wondering if you were 122. took notice of
118. it is to come up 123. did not use to like/love/fancy
119. is likely that the parking 124. cost you the job
120. was made responsible 125. pay punctually will result in

HSG Cấp Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Đáp án – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 1 / 2


Part 2: (10 points)
 Is on topic
 Fully satisfies all the requirements of the task:
Task
1. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the
achievement 4
main features
and Content
2. Make comparisons
 Has strong supporting details and examples
Organization,  Logically organizes information and ideas
2
and cohesion  Appropriately uses a range of cohesive devices
Lexical  Uses a wide range of vocabulary
2
resource  Has few lexical errors
Grammatical  Uses a wide range of structures
range and 2  Has few grammatical errors (including capital letters and
accuracy punctuation)
Sample essay:
The chart compares the number of people (in thousands) having heart attacks per
year in the USA based on their age and gender. As a general trend, it is observed that more
men suffer from heart attacks compared to women in all age groups.
It is seen in the chart that risk of having a heart attack among men increases manifold
after the age of 45. As compared to 123,000 men having a heart attack in the age group of
29-44, there are 424,000 and 440,000 men who suffer from heart attacks in the age group of
45-64 and 65+ respectively. Only 3000 women suffer from heart attacks under the age of
45. The risk increases in the age group of 45-64 and reaches almost the similar rate as of
men after the age of 65.
(In summary, men are at a greater risk of having heart attacks in all age groups and
the risk increases for both men and women after the age of 65.)

Part 3: (20 points)


Off topic = 0 point.
Marking guidance for essays of more than 290 words: (20 points)
 Is on topic
Task  Fully satisfies all the requirements of the task:
achievement 10 1. Some advantages/benefits/gains of taking a gap year
and Content 2. Some disadvantages/dangers/drawbacks of taking a gap year
 Has strong supporting details and examples
Organization  Logically organizes information and ideas
2
and cohesion  Appropriately uses a range of cohesive devices
Lexical  Uses a wide range of vocabulary
4
resource  Has few lexical errors
Grammatical  Uses a wide range of structures
range and 4  Has few grammatical errors (including capital letters and
accuracy punctuation)

200 to 290 words: under 200 words:


Marking guidance for essays of
(12 points) (6 points)
Task achievement and Content 6 3
Organization and cohesion 2 1
Lexical resource 2 1
Grammatical range and accuracy 2 1

HSG Cấp Tỉnh Vòng 1 – Đáp án – Tiếng Anh THPT – Trang 2 / 2


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI
BÌNH DƯƠNG THPTQG
TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN HÙNG NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022
VƯƠNG
SỐ PHÁCH

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH


Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi thứ nhất:
Đề thi có 22 trang

 Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.


 Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.
____________________________________________________________
I. LISTENING (50 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
 Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây;
mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có nhạc hiệu. Thí sinh có 02 phút để hoàn chỉnh
bài trước nhạc hiệu kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a news report about virtual classes and
decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) according
to what you hear. Write your answers in the numbered boxes provided.
1. Nearly two thousand people a day at this school are now going online for virtual
lessons.
2. Students at schools everywhere have different feelings when their learning is
disrupted by Coronavirus.
3. Despite obvious obstacles, the school’s class schedules remain unchanged.
4. One of the speakers is really happy with all that the students are doing in the
period of Coronavirus.
5. People are trying their best to bring things back to normal.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to part of an interview about the new vaccine
for COVID-19 and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer.

Page 1 of 22 pages
6. What country is the first to approve the Pfizer and Bayern Tech vaccine?
__________________________________________________
7. According to the committee on vaccination and immunizations, what is age
considered?
__________________________________________________
8. Why does the vaccine need to be stored at extremely low temperatures?
__________________________________________________
9. What is the general description of the side effects of Pfizer vaccine?
__________________________________________________
10. When will the possible side effects of Pfizer vaccine become apparent?
__________________________________________________
Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of an interview with Colin Fraser, a
psychologist, about cultural identity and choose the answer A, B, C or D
which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What aspect does Colin reveal when talking about his own cultural identity?
A. His resilience to changing cultures. B. His unorthodox family background.
C. His ability to adapt. D. His feeling of alienation.
12. According to Colin, what is the defining aspect of a person's cultural identity?
A. The sense of birth right. B. The emotion it generates.
C. The physical proximity to heritage. D. The symbols of tradition.
13. What is the influence of a culture attributed to?
A. The dissemination of wisdom. B. Connection between societies.
C. Knowledge of one's background. D. The practice of archaic rituals.
14. According to Colin, the success of a culture on the global scene is attributed to
______.
A. its capacity for tolerance B. its isolation from the mainstream
C. its aptitude for resolving conflicts D. its ability to be self-effacing
15. What is Colin doing during the conversation?
A. Distinguishing between birthplace and residence.
B. Advocating the celebration of heritage.
C. Highlighting the differences in societies.
D. Addressing the issues raised by conflicting cultures.

Page 2 of 22 pages
Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a news report about the father of
personalized medicine and complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording in each blank.

Dr. Larry Smarr has recently directed his own surgery after examining his anatomy
in (16) _________________________________.

He is quickly recognised as the father of personalized medicine, a title that reflects


his (17) _________________________________ and innovative thinking.

Dr. Larry, who likened his approach to bringing video games into (18)
_____________________________, realized the potential of combining
breakthroughs in (19) _____________________________ and computer graphics
to produce transparent versions of people.

Using (20) _________________________ along with three-dimensional


visualizations gathered over nearly ten years, Dr. Larry created his own (21)
_____________________________ called “Transparent Larry”, thanks to which he
found out that he had a type of (22) _____________________________.

With (23) __________________________, both Larry and the team operating on


him gained more confidence.

Dr. Larry is optimistic about a future in which the current (24)


__________________________ will be transformed into holistic digital healthcare,
where we are responsible for (25) __________________________.

Page 3 of 22 pages
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (20 points)
Part 1. For questions 26-40, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each
of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
26. She ______ up a clenched fist in a gesture of defiance when her boss asked
her to run errands.
A. caught B. brought C. took D. held
27. We live in a ______ society where shopping is all-important.
A. consumer B. consumption C. procurement D. purchase
28. I ______ some friends and we went to the beach together.
A. rang off B. rounded up C. put on D. ran in
29. She ______ skirted around the topic of marriage with her forty-year-old son.
A. tactfully B. perceptively C. insightfully D. unselfishly
30. This hotel looked older and ______ in the name of the Lion's Cub.
A. desired B. relished C. envied D. rejoiced
31. Put a ______ of butter in the frying pan to make the steak taste better.
A. spring B. pile C. pinch D. knob
32. It’s Mum who ______ in our house, but she always consults Dad about every
major and minor thing.
A. sits on the fence B. rules the roost
C. talks through her hat D. makes her hackles rise
33. That Italian restaurant is nowhere near as good since it changed ______.
A. hands B. fingers C. minds D. heads
34. Being ______ in the subtleties of cookery, Anne was unsure about the amount
of sugar required.
A. uninitiated B. unversed C. unknowing D. unquoted
35. I knew that faking the tears would ______ her and end the punishment, but I
refused because it is against my personality.
A. insinuate B. ingratiate C. gratify D. pander
36. I ______ in this relationship and I make every decision.

Page 4 of 22 pages
A. pack my bags B. wear the trousers
C. tighten my belt D. knock my socks off
37. After lunch our host suggested, "Shall we ______ to the drawing room?”
A. retire B. retreat C. retract D. recede
38. After six months of stay-at-home orders, "COVID-19 Fatigue" is to be expected,
but it's important to remain ______.
A. circumspect B. frugal C. cagey D. vigilant
39. It didn’t take much to ______ the old animosity lurking beneath the surface of
their relationship.
A. regain B. recuperate C. rekindle D. revive
40. Our family ______ enjoyed our holiday in Vietnam – the places are beautiful
and the people are nice.
A. strongly B. thoroughly C. deeply D. significantly

Part 2. For questions 41-45, write the correct form of each bracketed word in
each sentence in the numbered space provided in the column on the right.
Your answers:
41. If homeowners can't keep up the payments, they face 41.
(CLOSE). __________________
42. A lot of the characters in the play have very trusting 42.
natures, and this (VARY) leads to their downfall. __________________
43. One of the duties of this post includes welcoming
visiting (DIGNIFY) from foreign countries. 43.
44. Hopefully, our discoveries will (ACT) the cynicism of __________________
those who say that humans are not destroying the
world. 44.
45. Some men feel (MASCULINE) if they work for a __________________
woman.
45.
__________________

Page 5 of 22 pages
III. READING (50 points)
Part 1. For questions 46-55, read the text below and think of one word that fits
each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
BEACONS
We have become accustomed to the sight of an untidy collection of masts and
antennas on just (46) ______ every high hill or mountaintop. They are all (47)
______ the most of high vantage points to transmit and receive things like television
programmes and mobile phone calls. However, in the event of a (48) ______
emergency, they will provide vital help.
Modern telecommunications networks have (49) ______ an ancient early-warning
system where beacons, or fires, were lit to form a chain of communication. In some
cases, the (50) ______ same vantage points we use today were (51) ______ used
for that purpose.
The first beacon would typically be lit at a high point on the coast if invading ships
were spotted. When this was seen from the next point some (52) ______ away, a
second beacon was lit, followed by others (53) ______ along the chain. Each
beacon would warn local communities, and the network could, within minutes, (54)
______ a whole country to the danger.
Of course, the message was not very sophisticated, (55) ______ in most cases it
was readily understood to mean, “We are under attack".

Part 2. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
LEARNING LESSONS FROM THE PAST
Many past societies collapsed or vanished, leaving behind monumental ruins
such as those that the poet Shelly imagined in his sonnet, Ozymandias. By collapse,
I mean a drastic decrease in human population size and/ or political/ economic/
social complexity, over a considerable area, for an extended time. By those
standards, most people would consider the following past societies to have been
famous victims of full-fledged collapses rather than of just minor declines: the
Anasazi and Cahokia within the boundaries of the modern US, the Maya cities in

Page 6 of 22 pages
Central America, Moche and Tiwanaku societies in South America, Norse
Greenland, Mycenean Greece and Minoan Crete in Europe, Great Zimbabwe in
Africa, Angkor Wat and the Harappan Indus Valley cities in Asia, and Easter Island
in the Pacific Ocean.
The monumental ruins left behind by those past societies hold a fascination for
all of us. We marvel at them when as children we first learn of them through pictures.
When we grow up, many of us plan vacations in order to experience them at first
hand. We feel drawn to their often spectacular and haunting beauty, and also to the
mysteries that they pose. The scales of the ruins testify to the former wealth and
power of their builders. Yet these builders vanished, abandoning the great
structures that they had created at such effort. How could a society that was once
so mighty end up collapsing?
It has long been suspected that many of those mysterious abandonments were
at least partly triggered by ecological problems: people inadvertently destroying the
environmental resources on which their societies depended. This suspicion of
unintended ecological suicides (ecocide) has been confirmed by discoveries made
in recent decades by archaeologists, climatologists, historians, paleontologists, and
palynologists (pollen scientists). The processes through which past societies have
undermined themselves by damaging their environments fall into eight categories,
whose relative importance differs from case to case: deforestation and habitat
destruction, soil problems, water management problems, overhunting, overfishing,
effects of introduced species on native species, human population growth, and
increased impact of people.
Those past collapses tended to follow somewhat similar courses constituting
variations on a theme. Writers find it tempting to draw analogies between the course
of human societies and the course of individual human lives – to talk of a society’s
birth, growth, peak, old age and eventual death. But that metaphor proves
erroneous for many past societies: they declined rapidly after reaching peak
numbers and power, and those rapid declines must have come as surprise and
shock to their citizens. Obviously, too, this trajectory is not one that all past societies

Page 7 of 22 pages
followed unvaryingly to completion: different societies collapsed to different degrees
and in somewhat different ways, while many societies did not collapse at all.
Today many people feel that environmental problems overshadow all the other
threats to global civilization. These environmental problems include the same eight
that undermined past societies, plus four new ones: human-caused climate change,
buildup of toxic chemicals in the environment, energy shortages, and full human
utilization of the Earth’s photosynthetic capacity. But the seriousness of those
current environmental problems is vigorously debated. Are the risks greatly
exaggerated, or conversely, are they underestimated? Will modern technology
solve our problems, or is it creating new problems faster than it solves old ones?
When we deplete one resource (e.g. wood, oil or ocean fish), can we count on being
able to substitute some new resource (e.g. plastics, wind and solar energy, or
farmed fish)? Isn’t the rate of human population growth declining, such that we’re
already on course for the world’s population to level off at some manageable
number of people?
Questions like this illustrate why those famous collapses of past civilizations
have taken on more meaning than just that of a romantic mystery. Perhaps there
are some practical lessons that we could learn from all those past collapses. But
there are also differences between the modern world and its problems, and those
past societies and their problems. We shouldn’t be so naïve as to think that study
of the past will yield simple solutions, directly transferrable to our society today. We
differ from past societies in some respects that put us at lower risk than them; some
of those respects often mentioned include our powerful technology (i.e. its beneficial
effects), globalization, modern medicine, and greater knowledge of past societies
and of distant modern societies. We also differ from past societies in some respects
that put us at greater risk than them: again our potent technology (i.e. its unintended
destructive effects), globalization (such that now a problem in one part of the world
affects all the rest), the dependence of millions of us on modern medicine for our
survival, and our much larger human population. Perhaps we can still learn from
the past, but if only we think carefully about its lessons.

Page 8 of 22 pages
Questions 56 - 58 Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D. Write your answers in
the numbered boxes provided.
56. When the writer describes the impact of monumental ruins today, he
emphasizes
A. the income they generate from tourism.
B. the area of land they occupy.
C. their archaeological value. D. their romantic appeal.
57. Recent findings concerning vanished civilizations have
A. overturned long-held beliefs.
B. caused controversy amongst scientists.
C. come from a variety of disciplines.
D. identified one main cause of environmental damage.
58. What does the writer say about ways in which former societies collapsed?
A. The pace of decline was usually similar.
B. The likelihood of collapse would have been foreseeable.
C. Deterioration invariably led to total collapse.
D. Individual citizens could sometimes influence the course of events.

Questions 59 – 65 Decide whether the following statements agree with the


views of the writer in the reading passage. Write your answer in the numbered
boxes provided.
Write YES if the statement agrees with the view of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the view of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about it
59. It is widely believed that environmental problems represent the main danger
faced by the modern world.
60. The accumulation of poisonous substances is a relatively modern problem.
61. There is general agreement that the threats posed by environmental problems
are very serious.
62. Some past societies resembled present-day societies more closely than
others.

Page 9 of 22 pages
63. We should be careful when drawing comparisons between past and present.

Questions 65 - 68 Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F below
64. Evidence of the greatness of some former civilizations
65. The parallel between an individual’s life and the life of a society
66. The number of environmental problems that societies face
67. The power of technology
68. A consideration of historical events and trends

A. is not necessarily valid.


B. provides grounds for an optimistic outlook.
C. exists in the form of physical structures.
D. is potentially both positive and negative.
E. will not provide direct solutions for present problems.
F. is greater now than in the past.

Part 3. In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For
questions 69-75, read the passage choose from the paragraphs A–H the one
which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which you do not need to
use. Write your answers in the numbered boxes provided.

PNEUMATICS IS MAKING A COMEBACK


Sometimes an email won't suffice, so it's time to breathe new life into an
antique messaging technology.
In a windowless room in a London basement, there's a device on the wall that
makes things disappear. Technicians file in, grasping large containers shaped like
capsules and stuff bags into them. One places his container into the device, taps a
code on a panel, and whoosh, it's gone. A few minutes later, the capsule reappears
a kilometer away.

69.

Pneumatic networks were once heralded as the future of communication and


delivery. Indeed, some think their history echoes the way current information
technology developed. Yet while today's pneumatic market may be modest by
comparison, it is now proving essential for a few types of organization such as this

Page 10 of 22 pages
one in London. In a digital age, why has this antique technology been embraced
once more?

70.

By the turn of the 20th century, entrepreneurs — and even the American postmaster
general — were predicting a 'pneumatic age', promising delivery of everything from
household goods to hot food. Some people even dreamed of pneumatic public
transport. 'We had this utopian discourse about the pneumatic subway; the crazy
notion that you'd be able to travel under the Atlantic,' says Holly Kruse of Rogers
State University in Oklahoma, who has studied the social impact of pneumatic
tubes.

71.

Tubes never formed a pneumatic internet, of course. One by one, citywide networks
fell into disuse. Surprisingly, perhaps, a few were still running in the late 20th
century, but the last postal example, in Prague, was eventually shut down in 2002
after a flood had damaged it beyond repair.

72.

In 2008, a UK-based organization called Foodtubes looked into the idea of


distributing food to supermarkets via networks of one-metre-wide underground
tubes. Pneumatic transport was one of the methods explored. The project attracted
interest from at least one supermarket, but the up-front cost meant it never got off
the ground. Therefore, it appears that if a large-scale demonstration could be put in
place to show that this form of transport is cost-effective, it might just snowball.

73.

Yet the real booming market for modern pneumatics is in hospitals. 'They are used
extensively in the healthcare sector,' says Robert Beardsley of the international
pneumatic tube firm Aerocom. The company has installed over 1000 hospital
systems in around 80 countries for transporting samples and medicines.

74.

Page 11 of 22 pages
These installations are not merely pipes connecting point A to point B. They are
highly complex networks with a multitude of junctions and computer-controlled
switches that serve to deliver the dispatched material to the appropriate destination.
Some are vast: Stanford Hospital in California, for example, has 124 stations.

75.

Pneumatic delivery has not revolutionized the world in the way its early advocates
hoped it would. However, it has found a niche because not everything can be
reduced to 1s and 0s. It has also evolved from steampunk brass systems to
computerized ones and will continue to adapt as new technologies are developed.

Missing paragraphs
A. However, while the electronic age delivered many of the benefits foreseen by
early tube enthusiasts, there are some that have not been realised. Wires cannot
transport physical goods, for example. You can order practically anything online
and have it delivered to your door, but until the 3D-printing revolution actually
happens, it must still be transported by road. Could tubes prove more efficient?
B. If the demand for pneumatic delivery systems increases, there is a chance that
they will become as indispensable as digital technology. They may even be used
to distribute food and medicine to those who cannot venture out on their own.
Although this would require huge investment, it would create a more caring
society.
C. In fiction, pneumatic technology is often associated with a creaking bureaucratic
dystopia, such as in George Orwell's 1984, or in the satirical film Brazil. From the
late 1900s, pneumatic tubes carried mail across the cities of the US and Europe.
They also carried cash, stock market messages and other objects inside
buildings. Tubes were the social network of their era. In 1890, pneumatic pipes
beneath Milan, Italy, allowed composer Giuseppe Verdi and his collaborator,
Arrigo Boito, to shuttle messages concerning the opera they were working on.
D. Pneumatic delivery of more limited proportions, though, has been embraced by
many modern organisations. In fact, in some places, it has never gone away.

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Banks and supermarkets use tubes to move money from cashiers to the back
office as cash collected by roving clerks has the potential to be lost or stolen.
E. The basic mechanics, though, are simple: fans blow air to push capsules one
way, and suck to pull them in the opposite direction. Air built up at the end of each
tube provides a cushioning for brake. The modern twist comes with computer-
controlled routing and motorized junctions that allow multiple capsules to be
transported at once. And each capsule has a radio tracking tag.
F. The researcher argues that historical pneumatic efforts and the surrounding
discussion echo facets of society today, particularly our use of information
technology. They foreshadowed the physical structure of computer networks
inside buildings. And as well as inspiring the same kind of hyperbole as the
internet does, tubes also prompted similar moral issues. In E.M. Forster's 1909
sci-fi story The Machine Stops, for instance, the 'pneumatic post' helps create a
dark future in which nobody converses face to face.
G. This particular contraption employs a technology that was supposed to have
faded away decades ago - pneumatic tubes. Hidden in the walls is a vast
computer-controlled network of pipes propelling capsules via air pressure and
vacuum. Installed in the early 2000s, it is present in one of many buildings
worldwide that boasts a high-tech pneumatic network. Some of them have
hundreds of stations fed by several kilometres of tubes and junctions.
H. The London basement houses one of those contemporary networks. There,
tubes deliver blood and tissue for testing to the pathology lab from about 50
stations on various wards. Sending capsules at 20 to 30 kilometres per hour
through an air-chute system is handy in a large hospital with dozens of patients
waiting for urgent treatment or diagnosis at any one time.

Part 4. For questions 76-85, read the passage on the nature of symbols and
choose the answer A, B, C or D which fits best according to the passage.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

Page 13 of 22 pages
One of the current definitions of a symbol is that it is “something that stands for
something else.” We can differentiate between three kinds of symbols: the
conventional, the accidental, and the universal symbol.
The conventional symbol is the best known of the three, since we employ it in
everyday language. If we see the word “table” or hear the sound “table,” the letters
t-a-b-l-e stand for something else. They stand for the thing “table” that we see,
touch, and use. What is the connection between the word “table” and the thing
“table”? Is there any inherent relationship between them? Obviously not. The thing
table has nothing to do with the sound table, and the only reason the word
symbolizes the thing is the convention of calling this particular thing by a name. We
learn this connection as children by the repeated experience of hearing the word in
reference to the thing until a lasting association is formed so that we don’t have to
think to find the right word.
There are some words, however, in which the association is not only
conventional. When we say “phooey,” for instance, we make with our lips a
movement of dispelling the air quickly. It is an expression of disgust in which our
mouths participate. By this quick expulsion of air we imitate and thus express our
intention to expel something, to get it out of our system. In this case, as in some
others, the symbol has an inherent connection with the feeling it symbolizes. But
even if we assume that originally many or even all words had their origins in some
such inherent connection between symbol and the symbolized, most words no
longer have this meaning for us when we learn a language.
Words are not the only illustration for conventional symbols, although they are
most frequent and best known ones. Pictures also can be conventional symbols. A
flag, for instance, may stand for a specific country, and yet there is no intrinsic
connection between the specific colors and the country for which they stand. They
have been accepted as denoting that particular country, and we translate the visual
impression of the flag into the concept of that country, again on conventional
grounds.
The opposite to the conventional symbol is the accidental symbol, although they
have one thing in common: there is no intrinsic relationship between the symbol

Page 14 of 22 pages
and that which it symbolizes. Let us assume that someone has had a saddening
experience in a certain city; when he hears the name of that city, he will easily
connect the name with a mood of sadness, just as he would connect it with a mood
of joy had his experience been a happy one. Quite obviously, there is nothing in the
nature of the city that is either sad or joyful. It is the individual experience connected
with the city that makes it a symbol of a mood.
The same reaction could occur in connection with a house, a street, a certain
dress, certain scenery, or anything once connected with a specific mood. We might
find ourselves dreaming that we are in a certain city. We ask ourselves why we
happened to think of that city in our sleep and may discover that we had fallen
asleep and may discover that we had fallen asleep in a mood similar to the one
symbolized by the city. The picture in the dream represents this mood, the city
“stands for” the mood once experienced in it. The connection between the symbol
and the experience symbolized is entirely accidental.
The universal symbol is one in which there is an intrinsic relationship between
the symbol and that which it represents. Take, for instance, the symbol of fire. We
are fascinated by certain qualities of fire in a fireplace. First of all, by its aliveness.
It changes continuously, it moves all the time, and yet there is constancy in it. It
remains the same without being the same. It gives the impression of power, of
energy, of grace and lightness. It is as if it were dancing, and had an inexhaustible
source of energy. When we use fire as a symbol, we describe the inner experience
characterized by the same elements which we notice in the sensory experience of
fire – the mood of energy, lightness, movement, grace, gaiety, sometimes one,
sometimes another of these elements being predominant in the feeling.
The universal symbol is the only one in which the relationship between the
symbol and that which is symbolized is not coincidental, but intrinsic. It is rooted in
the experience of the affinity between an emotion or thought, on the one hand, and
a sensory experience, on the other. It can be called universal because it is shared
by all men, in contrast not only to the accidental symbol, which is by its very nature
entirely personal, but also to the conventional symbol, which is restricted to a group
of people sharing the same convention. The universal symbol is rooted in the

Page 15 of 22 pages
properties of our body, our senses, and our mind, which are common to all men
and, therefore, not restricted to individuals or to specific groups. Indeed, the
language of the universal symbol is the one common tongue developed by the
human race, a language which it forgot before it succeeded in developing a
universal conventional language.

76. The passage is primarily concerned with ______.


A. refuting an argument B. describing a process
C. disproving a thesis D. refining a definition
77. According to the passage, “table” and “phooey” differ in that ______.
A. only one is a conventional symbol
B. “phooey” has an inherent link with its meaning
C. “table” is a better known symbol than “phooey”
D. only one is used exclusively by children
78. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT correct?
A. Children can learn the conventional link between a word and a thing.
B. The conventional symbol is the most widely known.
C. Only words can illustrate conventional symbols.
D. The conventional and accidental symbols have something in common.
79. The author argues that conventional symbols ______.
A. are less meaningful than accidental ones
B. necessarily have a link with an emotion
C. are less familiar than universal symbols
D. can be pictorial as well as linguistic
80. Which of the following would the author be most likely to categorize as a
conventional symbol?
A. a country road B. the Statue of Liberty C. a bonfire D. the city of London
81. According to the author’s argument, a relationship between the city of Paris and
the mood of joy can best be described as ______.
A. coincidental B. dreamlike C. elemental D. built-in
82. A major distinction of a universal symbol from conventional and accidental
symbols is ______.

Page 16 of 22 pages
A. its origins in sensory experience
B. its dependence on a specific occasion
C. the intensity of the mood experienced D. its unmemorable nature
83. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Accidental and conventional symbols are entirely different.
B. Accidental symbols can be both personal and communal.
C. A word can be both inherently and conventionally associated with its meaning.
D. A universal symbol developed accidentally from the human desire to
communicate.
84. According to the passage, universal symbols ______.
A. appeal to conventionally minded people
B. are shared only among a definite human community
C. are less familiar than conventional symbols
D. are shared by all human communities
85. The author contends that the language of the universal symbol ______.
A. restricts itself to those capable of comprehending symbolism
B. should be adopted as the common tongue for the human race
C. comes before the development of everyday conventional language
D. grew out of human efforts to create a universal conventional language
Part 5. The passage below consists of four paragraphs marked A, B, C, and
D. For questions 86-95, read the passage and do the task that follows. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A. Mark
Although there is quite a lot of guided learning while you are at university, the
element of individual research and initiative increases as you progress towards
earning your degree. A university education helps students to polish their writing
skills, thus enabling them to arrange, evaluate and summarize relevant material,
argue and justify points, and reach a conclusion. Another, and possibly even more
important, part of the university experience is meeting people from all sorts of
different backgrounds, hearing their opinions and discussing the relative merits of
your different points of view. To my mind, this experience is invaluable preparation

Page 17 of 22 pages
for success in any career. It is for this reason that many employers are happy to
take on a graduate regardless of what they actually studied for their degree. Such
employers appreciate the fact that the candidate has demonstrated the effort and
discipline to successfully graduate. Though you may not consider it essential to
have been awarded a degree in order to go on to a rewarding career, it is certainly
highly desirable.
B. Vince
It is important to remember that not everybody’s definition of achievement is tied to
the number of rungs on the corporate ladder that they have managed to scale. Many
highly desirable careers, in the arts, for example, require very little in the way of a
record of academic achievement. What counts is to make your mark and thus have
your talents recognized by the people who matter. Lots of people are talented, but
being self-assured can give you the edge on others. The same principle may apply
in the arena of entrepreneurship. Of course, a degree in business studies won’t
harm you, but many successful entrepreneurs have an innate aptitude for making
good deals. To some extent, it is a person’s character and personality that seals
their success. Such people are positive, optimistic and highly skilled at networking.
The fact that some of them may have failed to shine in secondary school is
irrelevant.
C. Fay
Nowadays, some fields of science are so advanced that even a postgraduate
degree may not be enough for you to get your foot in the door of your chosen career.
Occasionally, however, it is possible for the unthinkable to happen, enabling
someone with a poor start in academic terms to find an unseen route to a successful
career. My best friend, Susanna, is a classic example of what I mean. After an
unpromising and fairly miserable time at school, she more or less had to quit before
the end of her final school year. Her mother, however, managed to find her an
apprenticeship in a new industry. This was when the Siftex Company started
manufacturing the Siftex, which was the result of a completely new technological
breakthrough. From then on, there was no looking back for Susanna. She’s had a
great career, working all over the world, and she has been the company’s senior

Page 18 of 22 pages
troubleshooter for the last decade. And just think – she was told that she would
never have got her apprenticeship if she’d waited until the end of the academic
year!
D. Connor
Medicine, law, engineering, biotechnology – these are all fields where you need a
good degree in order to get your first job. Imagine, you even have to go to university
in order to become a nurse in some countries! Getting a degree would appear to be
an essential stage in nearly anyone’s education if they want to do something more
rewarding than manual labor or assembly line work. One great aspect of this type
of education is that, for a lot of careers, you need to complement the academic side
with a generous share of work experience. This is why there is very close
cooperation nowadays between businesses and universities. You can learn lots of
theory at university, but nothing in lectures can take the place of hands-on learning.
For this reason, degree courses with sandwich years for the non-academic side are
becoming more the norm.

Which person gives each of these opinions about education? Your


answers:
Good undergraduate qualifications are essential for immediately 86. _________
landing oneself a job.
Self-confidence can be greatly significant in personal success. 87. _________

Graduates should have developed the art of writing which 88. _________
demonstrates high-order thinking skills.
Even though you fail academically at university, it doesn’t mean that you 89. _________
can’t succeed in your career.
Learning to think from other people’s perspectives can be valuable. 90. _________
Success is not always defined by getting a promotion in an 91. _________
organization.
Luck can be an important factor in personal success. 92. _________

Page 19 of 22 pages
Extensive practical training should be added to improve university 93. _________
education.
Some employers value graduates irrespective of what their degree 94. _________
is in.
Some people succeed due to their ability to identify and cultivate 95. _________
useful contacts.

V. WRITING (60 points)


Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it.
Your summary should be between 100 and 120 words.
Alternative energy sources are resources that are constantly replaced and are
usually less polluting. They are not the result of the burning of fossil fuels or splitting
of atoms. The use of renewable energy is contributing to our energy supply. Some
alternative energy sources are: biomass energy, geothermal energy and
hydroelectric power.
Biomass is renewable energy that is produced from organic matter. Biomass
fuels include wood, forest and mill residues, animal waste, grains, agricultural
crops, and aquatic plants. These materials are used as fuel to heat water for steam
or processed into liquids and gases, which can be burned to do the same thing.
With more use of biomass at lower production costs and better technology, the
United States could generate as much as four-and-a-half times more biopower by
2020. It is estimated that biomass will have the largest increase among renewable
energy sources, rising by 80 percent and reaching 65.7 billion KW in 2020.
Geothermal energy uses heat from within the earth. Wells are drilled into
geothermal reservoirs to bring the hot water or steam to the surface. The steam
then drives a turbine-generator to generate electricity in geothermal plants. In some
places this heat is used directly to heat homes and greenhouses, or to provide
process heat for businesses or industries. Reykjavik, Iceland, is heated by
geothermal energy. Most geothermal resources are concentrated in the western
part of the United States. Geothermal heat pumps use shallow ground energy to

Page 20 of 22 pages
heat and cool homes, and this technique can be employed almost anywhere. With
technological improvements much more power could be generated from
hydrothermal resources. Scientists have been experimenting by pumping water into
the hot dry rock that is 3-6 miles below the earth's surface for use in geothermal
power plants.
Hydroelectric (hydropower) energy employs the force of falling water to drive
turbine-generators to produce electricity. Hydropower produces more electricity
than any other alternative energy source. It has been estimated that hydroelectric
power will decline from 389 billion KW in the US in 1999 to 298 billion KW in 2020.
This decline is expected because most of the best sites for hydropower have
already been developed and because of concerns about the adverse impact that
large-scale hydroelectric facilities may have on the environment.

Page 21 of 22 pages
Part 2. The chart below shows the percentages of species expected to lose
more than half their range by 2100 due to global warming.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

Impact of global warming on biodiversity


Percentages of species expected to lose
more than half their range by 2100

26%
+3.2oC
3.2oC 44%
49%

8%
+2.0oC
2.0oC 16%
18%

4%
+1.5oC
1.5oC 8%
6%

Vetebrates Plants Insects

Part 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic.

As for success in life, many of us think that our greatness lies in persistence, while
others believe that only realization of our limits in ability can bring true success.
Discuss both views and give your opinions.

– THE END –

Page 22 of 22 pages
START

1. A1 General _ (Thi HSG Lớp 4, 5 & Flyers)

2. A2 General _ Part 1/2 (Thi HSG L 5, 6 & KET)

3. A2 KET _ Part 2/2 (Giải 10 quyển KET, bổ trợ HSG L5, 6)

4. B1 PET_ Part 1/3 (Giải 10 quyển PET, bổ trợ HSG L6, 7)

5. B1 General _ Part 2/3 (Thi HSG Lớp 6, 7 & PET)

6. B1 Giải đề_Part 3/3 (Giải 40 đề thi HSG Lớp 6 & 7)

7. B2 (trừ)_Part 1/4 (Thi HSG Lớp 7, 8 & FCE)

8. B2 FCE _ Part 2/4 (10 quyển FCE, bỗ trợ chuyên & HSG)

9. B2 Giải đề_ Part 3/4 (Giải 43 đề chuyên & HSG)

10. B2 General _ Part 4/4 (Thi HSG Lớp 9 & Chuyên)

11. C1_HN _ Part 1/3 (Thi CAE, HSG & Chuyên khó)

12. C1_HCM _ Part 2/3 (Thi CAE, HSG & Chuyên khó )

13. C1_CAE_Part 3/3 (8 quyển CAE, bổ trợ chuyên, HSG)

14. C1C2_HSG cấp 3_Part 1/2 (thi CPE &HSG 10,11,12)

15. Giải đề HSG cấp 3_Part 2/2 (Thi HSG Lớp 10,11,12)

4 tháng / khóa

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