Network MCQs Updated
Network MCQs Updated
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1. Which device repeats information received from one host to all other
connected hosts?
a) Switch
b) Router
c) Hub
d) NIC
Answer: c) Hub
a) Repeating signals
b) Connecting devices within the same collision domain
c) Breaking up broadcast domains
d) Providing wireless connectivity
Answer: c) Breaking up broadcast domains
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
Answer: b) WAN
a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) Broadcast
d) Anycast
Answer: c) Broadcast
5. How many collision domains are created when a switch with 24 ports is
used?
a) 1
b) 12
c) 24
d) 48
Answer: c) 24
7. In a switched network, what domain are all hosts connected to the switch a
part of?
a) Collision domain
b) Broadcast domain
c) Multicast domain
d) Unicast domain
Answer: b) Broadcast domain
8. Which device operates only at the physical layer of the OSI model?
a) Router
b) Switch
c) Hub
d) Bridge
Answer: c) Hub
10. Which device can drop or forward packets based on certain criteria like their
source and destination?
a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Repeater
Answer: c) Router
11. Which OSI layer is responsible for data compression and encryption?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
Answer: b) Presentation
a) Data Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Session
Answer: b) Network
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Transport
Answer: c) Session
14. Which layer of the OSI model adds logical addressing to data?
a) Data Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Physical
Answer: b) Network
15. What is the primary function of the Transport layer in the OSI model?
a) Data encryption
b) Logical addressing
c) Error detection and recovery
d) Physical transmission of data
Answer: c) Error detection and recovery
16. Which OSI layer is responsible for data formatting and code conversion?
a) Application
b) Presentation
c) Session
d) Network
Answer: b) Presentation
17. What is the main purpose of the Physical layer in the OSI model?
a) Logical addressing
b) Error detection
c) Data encoding
d) Transmission of raw bits over a physical medium
Answer: d) Transmission of raw bits over a physical medium
18. Which OSI layer handles the routing of packets across networks?
a) Data Link
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Session
Answer: b) Network
19. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for flow control and reliable
data transfer?
a) Application
b) Transport
c) Network
d) Data Link
Answer: b) Transport
20. Which of the following protocols operates at the Application layer of the
OSI model?
a) TCP
b) IP
c) HTTP
d) Ethernet
Answer: c) HTTP
22. Which class of IP address has the highest number of host addresses
available by default?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
Answer: a) Class A
a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.255.255
Answer: c) 255.255.255.0
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
Answer: d) Class D
25. What is the range of the first octet for Class B IP addresses?
a) 1-126
b) 128-191
c) 192-223
d) 224-239
Answer: b) 128-191
26. How many bits are used for the network portion in a Class C IP address by
default?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 32
Answer: c) 24
27. What is the primary benefit of using Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM)?
28. Which IP address class is typically reserved for experimental or future use?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class E
Answer: d) Class E
a) 192.168.1.1
b) 192.168.1.255
c) 192.168.255.255
d) 192.255.255.255
Answer: b) 192.168.1.255
a) 14
b) 16
c) 30
d) 32
Answer: a) 14
a) 10.0.0.1
b) 172.16.0.1
c) 192.168.1.1
d) 224.0.0.1
Answer: a) 10.0.0.1
a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.255.255
Answer: b) 255.255.0.0
33. How many subnets are created with a /26 subnet mask in a Class C network?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
Answer: b) 4
a) 0.0.0.0
b) 127.0.0.1
c) 169.254.0.1
d) 192.168.0.1
Answer: b) 127.0.0.1
a) 192.168.0.0
b) 192.168.1.0
c) 192.168.10.0
d) 192.168.10.5
Answer: c) 192.168.10.0
a) 16
b) 32
c) 48
d) 64
Answer: b) 32
40. Which of the following represents the correct CIDR notation for a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.128?
a) /24
b) /25
c) /26
d) /27
Answer: b) /25
Ethernet, NAT, and STP:
1. What layer of the OSI model does Ethernet primarily operate on?
a) Network Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Application Layer
d) Transport Layer
a) 32 bits
b) 48 bits
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits
Answer: b) 48 bits
a) Binary format
b) Decimal format
c) Hexadecimal format
d) Octal format
a) 0000.0000.0000
b) FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
c) 0100.5exx.xxxx
d) 1111.1111.1111
Answer: b) FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
a) Crossover cable
b) Straight-through cable
c) Rolled cable
d) Fiber optic cable
a) Expensive
b) Not immune to external electromagnetic interference
c) Difficult to install
d) Low data transfer rate
Answer: b) RJ45
a) Straight-through cable
b) Crossover cable
c) Rolled cable
d) Coaxial cable
a) IP address conflicts
b) Broadcast storms
c) Data encryption
d) Unauthorized access
13. How is the root switch determined in STP if not manually assigned?
15. Which port is always in the forwarding state in the root switch?
a) Root port
b) Designated port
c) Blocking port
d) All ports
a) To assign IP addresses
b) To identify switches uniquely
c) To encrypt data
d) To prevent broadcast storms
20. Which switch becomes the root bridge in STP if all switches have the same
priority?
23. Which type of NAT allows for a one-to-one mapping between local and
global addresses?
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT (Source NAT)
24. In Static NAT, what is required for every host on the network?
a) A dynamic IP address
b) A registered public IP address
c) A private IP address
d) A subnet mask
a) One-to-one mapping
b) Mapping from a pool of registered IP addresses
c) Use of port numbers for translation
d) Provides high security
26. What happens if all inside global IP addresses are exhausted in Dynamic
NAT?
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) Overloading
d) SNAT
Answer: c) Overloading
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) Reverse NAT
29. How many ports are available for PAT to use in translation?
a) 256
b) 1024
c) 65535
d) 4294967296
Answer: c) 65535
33. In Dynamic NAT, what determines when an IP address can be removed from
the NAT table?
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT
35. What does PAT use to differentiate between multiple devices using the
same public IP address?
a) MAC addresses
b) IP addresses
c) Port numbers
d) Subnet masks
36. Which address range is used for Class A private IP addresses in NAT?
a) 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
b) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
c) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
d) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
38. Which address range is used for Class B private IP addresses in NAT?
a) 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
b) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
d) 200.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255
39. Which address range is used for Class C private IP addresses in NAT?
a) 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
b) 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
d) 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
Answer: c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
44. Which type of NAT provides the most efficient use of IP addresses?
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT
46. Which NAT type would be used if an organization needs to assign a specific
public IP address to each device inside the network?
a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT
a) Public to private
b) Private to public
c) Static to dynamic
d) IPv4 to IPv6
50. Why might an organization choose to use PAT over other types of NAT?
- a) Data segmentation
- c) Error recovery
- a) UDP
- b) TCP
- c) IP
- d) HTTP
- Answer: b) TCP
- a) Web browsing
- b) Emails
- c) Video streaming
- d) File transfers
- a) 8
- b) 16
- c) 32
- d) 64
- Answer: b) 16
- a) 0-255
- b) 0-1023
- c) 1024-49151
- d) 49152-65535
- Answer: b) 0-1023
- a) 21
- b) 25
- c) 53
- d) 80
- Answer: d) 80
- a) Web browsing
- b) Video streaming
- c) Emails
- d) File transfers
- a) 2-way handshake
- b) 3-way handshake
- c) 4-way handshake
- d) No handshake
- a) SYN
- b) ACK
- c) FIN
- d) NACK
- Answer: a) SYN
- a) SYN
- b) ACK
- c) FIN
- d) NACK
- Answer: b) ACK
- a) Establishing connections
- b) Error detection
- c) Preventing congestion
- d) Terminating connections
- a) UDP
- b) TCP
- c) HTTP
- d) FTP
- Answer: b) TCP
14. Which ARQ method sends multiple frames before requiring an acknowledgment?
- b) Go-Back-N ARQ
- a) 80
- b) 110
- c) 25
- d) 23
- Answer: c) 25
16. Which of the following protocols can use both TCP and UDP?
- a) HTTP
- b) FTP
- c) DNS
- d) SMTP
- Answer: c) DNS
- c) To initiate a connection
- d) To retransmit data
- a) To initiate a connection
- c) To terminate a connection
- d) To retransmit data
- a) IP address only
- a) UDP
- b) TCP
- c) HTTP
- d) DHCP
- Answer: b) TCP
Multiple Choice Questions on Routing Protocols and
OSPF
Routing Protocols
What is IP Routing?
B) The process of forwarding a packet from its source to its destination through a routed network.
Answer: B
C) A protocol that selects the best path to transfer information between routers.
Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: B
C) Used if multiple paths to the destination are available and with large networks.
Answer: C
What is the difference between Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) and Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)?
B) IGP works within an autonomous system, EGP works between multiple autonomous systems.
C) IGP is faster than EGP.
Answer: B
Answer: B
A) A protocol type.
B) A value that determines the best path to a destination network using a single protocol.
C) A measure of security.
Answer: B
A) Distance-vector
B) Link-state
C) Path-vector
D) Hybrid
Answer: B
A) Protocol maintains a map of the network describing the state of the links.
Answer: A
B) Hello, Database Description, Link State Request, Link State Update, Link State Acknowledgement
Answer: B
A) To terminate a connection.
C) To encrypt data.
D) To reset a router.
Answer: B
A) A unique identifier for each router in the OSPF domain, expressed as an IP address.
Answer: A
B) It can be manually configured, or it is the highest IP of the loopback interface, or the highest IP of a
physical enabled interface.
C) Randomly assigned at startup.
Answer: B
B) A virtual interface that becomes active immediately, providing stability to the router ID.
Answer: B
A) When OSPF routers have completed the exchange of routing information and have established
adjacency.
Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B
B) A logical segment within an OSPF network where routers have the same database.
Answer: B
Answer: C
A) A router that connects multiple OSPF areas, residing in both Area 0 and another area.
Answer: A
A) Link State Advertisement, a type of OSPF packet that describes the state of the router's links.
Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B
A) 1 Gbps.
B) 10 Mbps.
C) 100 Mbps.
D) 1 Mbps.
Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: B
What action is taken if no Hello packet is received within the Dead interval?
B) The router declares the neighbor down, removes it from the database, and floods the new link state.
Answer: B
What is the default priority value for OSPF routers in DR/BDR election?
A) 0
B) 100
C) 1
D) 10
Answer: C
B) A router that is neither the Designated Router (DR) nor the Backup Designated Router (BDR).
What are the intervals for Hello and Dead intervals in OSPF?
Answer: B
Answer: B
B) When master and slave roles are determined between two OSPF routers.
Answer: B
B) When routers exchange Link State Requests (LSRs), Link State Updates (LSUs), and Link State
Acknowledgements (LSACKs).
Answer: B
Answer: B
A) 1
B) 10
C) 100
D) 1000
Answer: B
B) By router configuration.
A) To reset a connection.
C) To encrypt data.
D) To compress data.
Answer: B
B) To terminate a connection.
C) To request data.
D) To compress data.
Answer: A
Answer: A
A) A router with which another router has established a bidirectional communication using the OSPF
protocol.
B) To divide the OSPF network into smaller, manageable sections, reducing database size and improving
efficiency.
Answer: B
What is the default Hello interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point networks?
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 10 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Answer: C
What is the default Dead interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point networks?
A) 30 seconds
B) 40 seconds
C) 50 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Answer: B
A) Point-to-point networks
D) Dial-up networks
Answer: B
Answer: C
B) It indicates that a Hello packet has been received from another router.
Answer: B
Answer: A
A) To terminate a connection.
C) To encrypt data.
D) To reset a router.
Answer: B
A) Every 5 seconds
B) Every 10 seconds
C) Every 20 seconds
D) Every 30 seconds
Answer: B
A) To encrypt data.
B) To describe the contents of the LSDB and ensure synchronization between routers.
C) To terminate a connection.
D) To compress data.
Answer: B
What happens in OSPF if two routers have the same priority for DR election?
Answer: B
A) 0
B) 100
C) 1
D) 10
Answer: C
What is the OSPF 'Exstart' state?
A) The state where master and slave roles are determined for database exchange.
Answer: A
A) The final state where routers have fully exchanged databases and are synchronized.
Answer: A
What type of OSPF packet is used to request specific LSAs from a neighbor?
A) Hello packet
Answer: B
B) By maintaining a complete map of the network topology and using Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate
the shortest path.
Answer: B