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Network MCQs Updated

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
44 views43 pages

Network MCQs Updated

Uploaded by

Ahmed Hossam
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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From "1 Devices.

pptx"

1. Which device repeats information received from one host to all other
connected hosts?

 a) Switch
 b) Router
 c) Hub
 d) NIC
 Answer: c) Hub

2. What is the primary function of a router in a network?

 a) Repeating signals
 b) Connecting devices within the same collision domain
 c) Breaking up broadcast domains
 d) Providing wireless connectivity
 Answer: c) Breaking up broadcast domains

3. Which type of network covers a large geographical area such as multiple


cities or a country?

 a) LAN
 b) WAN
 c) MAN
 d) PAN
 Answer: b) WAN

4. What type of communication involves one host sending information to all


other hosts in the network?

 a) Unicast
 b) Multicast
 c) Broadcast
 d) Anycast
 Answer: c) Broadcast

5. How many collision domains are created when a switch with 24 ports is
used?

 a) 1
 b) 12
 c) 24
 d) 48
 Answer: c) 24

6. What does a switch do to manage network traffic?

 a) Repeats all signals to all ports


 b) Breaks up collision domains
 c) Breaks up broadcast domains
 d) Converts digital signals to analog
 Answer: b) Breaks up collision domains

7. In a switched network, what domain are all hosts connected to the switch a
part of?

 a) Collision domain
 b) Broadcast domain
 c) Multicast domain
 d) Unicast domain
 Answer: b) Broadcast domain

8. Which device operates only at the physical layer of the OSI model?

 a) Router
 b) Switch
 c) Hub
 d) Bridge
 Answer: c) Hub

9. What is one of the main problems associated with hubs?

 a) They are expensive


 b) They create multiple collision domains
 c) They repeat information to all hosts
 d) They can filter traffic based on MAC addresses
 Answer: c) They repeat information to all hosts

10. Which device can drop or forward packets based on certain criteria like their
source and destination?

 a) Hub
 b) Switch
 c) Router
 d) Repeater
 Answer: c) Router

From "2 OSI model (2).pdf"

11. Which OSI layer is responsible for data compression and encryption?

 a) Application
 b) Presentation
 c) Session
 d) Transport
 Answer: b) Presentation

12. At which OSI layer do routers operate?

 a) Data Link
 b) Network
 c) Transport
 d) Session
 Answer: b) Network

13. Which OSI layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions?

 a) Application
 b) Presentation
 c) Session
 d) Transport
 Answer: c) Session

14. Which layer of the OSI model adds logical addressing to data?

 a) Data Link
 b) Network
 c) Transport
 d) Physical
 Answer: b) Network

15. What is the primary function of the Transport layer in the OSI model?

 a) Data encryption
 b) Logical addressing
 c) Error detection and recovery
 d) Physical transmission of data
 Answer: c) Error detection and recovery

16. Which OSI layer is responsible for data formatting and code conversion?

 a) Application
 b) Presentation
 c) Session
 d) Network
 Answer: b) Presentation

17. What is the main purpose of the Physical layer in the OSI model?

 a) Logical addressing
 b) Error detection
 c) Data encoding
 d) Transmission of raw bits over a physical medium
 Answer: d) Transmission of raw bits over a physical medium

18. Which OSI layer handles the routing of packets across networks?

 a) Data Link
 b) Network
 c) Transport
 d) Session
 Answer: b) Network

19. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for flow control and reliable
data transfer?

 a) Application
 b) Transport
 c) Network
 d) Data Link
 Answer: b) Transport

20. Which of the following protocols operates at the Application layer of the
OSI model?

 a) TCP
 b) IP
 c) HTTP
 d) Ethernet
 Answer: c) HTTP

From "3 IP addresses and subnetting (2).pdf"

21. What is the primary purpose of subnetting in IP networks?

 a) Increase the number of available IP addresses


 b) Reduce the number of hosts per network
 c) Create multiple smaller networks from a larger network
 d) Simplify routing tables
 Answer: c) Create multiple smaller networks from a larger network

22. Which class of IP address has the highest number of host addresses
available by default?

 a) Class A
 b) Class B
 c) Class C
 d) Class D
 Answer: a) Class A

23. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?

 a) 255.0.0.0
 b) 255.255.0.0
 c) 255.255.255.0
 d) 255.255.255.255
 Answer: c) 255.255.255.0

24. Which IP address class is used for multicast addresses?

 a) Class A
 b) Class B
 c) Class C
 d) Class D
 Answer: d) Class D

25. What is the range of the first octet for Class B IP addresses?

 a) 1-126
 b) 128-191
 c) 192-223
 d) 224-239
 Answer: b) 128-191

26. How many bits are used for the network portion in a Class C IP address by
default?

 a) 8
 b) 16
 c) 24
 d) 32
 Answer: c) 24

27. What is the primary benefit of using Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM)?

 a) Simplifies network design


 b) Allows more efficient use of IP addresses
 c) Reduces the need for routers
 d) Eliminates the need for subnetting
 Answer: b) Allows more efficient use of IP addresses

28. Which IP address class is typically reserved for experimental or future use?

 a) Class A
 b) Class B
 c) Class C
 d) Class E
 Answer: d) Class E

29. What is the broadcast address for the network 192.168.1.0/24?

 a) 192.168.1.1
 b) 192.168.1.255
 c) 192.168.255.255
 d) 192.255.255.255
 Answer: b) 192.168.1.255

30. How many host addresses are available in a /28 subnet?

 a) 14
 b) 16
 c) 30
 d) 32
 Answer: a) 14

31. Which of the following is a valid Class A IP address?

 a) 10.0.0.1
 b) 172.16.0.1
 c) 192.168.1.1
 d) 224.0.0.1
 Answer: a) 10.0.0.1

32. What is the default subnet mask for a Class B IP address?

 a) 255.0.0.0
 b) 255.255.0.0
 c) 255.255.255.0
 d) 255.255.255.255
 Answer: b) 255.255.0.0
33. How many subnets are created with a /26 subnet mask in a Class C network?

 a) 2
 b) 4
 c) 8
 d) 16
 Answer: b) 4

34. What is the purpose of a default gateway in a network?

 a) To act as the DNS server


 b) To forward packets to remote networks
 c) To assign IP addresses to hosts
 d) To provide security for the network
 Answer: b) To forward packets to remote networks

35. Which of the following IP addresses is reserved for loopback testing?

 a) 0.0.0.0
 b) 127.0.0.1
 c) 169.254.0.1
 d) 192.168.0.1
 Answer: b) 127.0.0.1

36. What is the network address for the IP 192.168.10.5/24?

 a) 192.168.0.0
 b) 192.168.1.0
 c) 192.168.10.0
 d) 192.168.10.5
 Answer: c) 192.168.10.0

37. Which IP address range is designated for Automatic Private IP Addressing


(APIPA)?
 a) 0.0.0.0 to 0.255.255.255
 b) 127.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
 c) 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
 d) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
 Answer: c) 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255

38. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

 a) 16
 b) 32
 c) 48
 d) 64
 Answer: b) 32

39. What is the purpose of Network Address Translation (NAT)?

 a) To provide local IP addresses


 b) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses
 c) To route packets between different networks
 d) To assign IP addresses dynamically
 Answer: b) To convert private IP addresses to public IP addresses

40. Which of the following represents the correct CIDR notation for a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.128?

 a) /24
 b) /25
 c) /26
 d) /27
 Answer: b) /25
Ethernet, NAT, and STP:

1. What layer of the OSI model does Ethernet primarily operate on?

a) Network Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Application Layer
d) Transport Layer

Answer: b) Data Link Layer

2. What is the length of a MAC address?

a) 32 bits
b) 48 bits
c) 64 bits
d) 128 bits

Answer: b) 48 bits

3. How is a MAC address represented?

a) Binary format
b) Decimal format
c) Hexadecimal format
d) Octal format

Answer: c) Hexadecimal format

4. What is the purpose of the Organization Unique Identifier (OUI) in a MAC


address?

a) To identify the network segment


b) To identify the manufacturer of the LAN card
c) To identify the user
d) To identify the IP address
Answer: b) To identify the manufacturer of the LAN card

5. Which of the following is the broadcast MAC address?

a) 0000.0000.0000
b) FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
c) 0100.5exx.xxxx
d) 1111.1111.1111

Answer: b) FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

6. What type of Ethernet cable is used to connect a PC to a switch?

a) Crossover cable
b) Straight-through cable
c) Rolled cable
d) Fiber optic cable

Answer: b) Straight-through cable

7. Which type of Ethernet cable provides protection against external


electromagnetic interference?

a) UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair)


b) STP (Shielded Twisted Pair)
c) Coaxial cable
d) Fiber optic cable

Answer: b) STP (Shielded Twisted Pair)

8. What is the main disadvantage of UTP cables?

a) Expensive
b) Not immune to external electromagnetic interference
c) Difficult to install
d) Low data transfer rate

Answer: b) Not immune to external electromagnetic interference

9. Which connector type is used for Ethernet cabling?


a) RJ11
b) RJ45
c) BNC
d) SC

Answer: b) RJ45

10. Which type of cable is used to connect two switches together?

a) Straight-through cable
b) Crossover cable
c) Rolled cable
d) Coaxial cable

Answer: b) Crossover cable

11. What does STP stand for in networking?

a) Spanning Tree Protocol


b) Secure Transfer Protocol
c) Standard Transport Protocol
d) Simple Transfer Protocol

Answer: a) Spanning Tree Protocol

12. What problem does STP primarily address in a LAN?

a) IP address conflicts
b) Broadcast storms
c) Data encryption
d) Unauthorized access

Answer: b) Broadcast storms

13. How is the root switch determined in STP if not manually assigned?

a) Highest priority value


b) Lowest MAC address
c) Highest MAC address
d) Random selection
Answer: b) Lowest MAC address

14. What is the function of a root port in STP?

a) It connects directly to the root switch


b) It is always blocked
c) It forwards all data
d) It is used for backup

Answer: a) It connects directly to the root switch

15. Which port is always in the forwarding state in the root switch?

a) Root port
b) Designated port
c) Blocking port
d) All ports

Answer: d) All ports

16. What is the primary role of the designated port in STP?

a) Connect directly to the root switch


b) Handle all data forwarding in its segment
c) Remain in a blocking state
d) Serve as a backup connection

Answer: b) Handle all data forwarding in its segment

17. How does STP prevent loops in the network?

a) By using dynamic routing


b) By blocking certain ports
c) By encrypting data
d) By reducing IP conflicts

Answer: b) By blocking certain ports

18. Which port state does not forward frames in STP?


a) Root port
b) Designated port
c) Blocking port
d) Forwarding port

Answer: c) Blocking port

19. What is the purpose of the Bridge ID (BID) in STP?

a) To assign IP addresses
b) To identify switches uniquely
c) To encrypt data
d) To prevent broadcast storms

Answer: b) To identify switches uniquely

20. Which switch becomes the root bridge in STP if all switches have the same
priority?

a) The one with the highest IP address


b) The one with the lowest MAC address
c) The one with the highest MAC address
d) The one with the lowest IP address

Answer: b) The one with the lowest MAC address

21. What does NAT stand for?

a) Network Address Translation


b) Network Allocation Table
c) Network Access Technology
d) Network Administration Tool

Answer: a) Network Address Translation

22. What problem does NAT help to solve?

a) Slow network speeds


b) IP address depletion
c) Network security
d) Data encryption

Answer: b) IP address depletion

23. Which type of NAT allows for a one-to-one mapping between local and
global addresses?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT (Source NAT)

Answer: a) Static NAT

24. In Static NAT, what is required for every host on the network?

a) A dynamic IP address
b) A registered public IP address
c) A private IP address
d) A subnet mask

Answer: b) A registered public IP address

25. What is a key characteristic of Dynamic NAT?

a) One-to-one mapping
b) Mapping from a pool of registered IP addresses
c) Use of port numbers for translation
d) Provides high security

Answer: b) Mapping from a pool of registered IP addresses

26. What happens if all inside global IP addresses are exhausted in Dynamic
NAT?

a) New requests are queued


b) New requests are discarded
c) New requests are forwarded
d) New requests are encrypted
Answer: b) New requests are discarded

27. What is PAT also known as?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) Overloading
d) SNAT

Answer: c) Overloading

28. Which type of NAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a


single public IP address using different ports?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) Reverse NAT

Answer: c) PAT (Port Address Translation)

29. How many ports are available for PAT to use in translation?

a) 256
b) 1024
c) 65535
d) 4294967296

Answer: c) 65535

30. What is the primary benefit of PAT?

a) Conserves public IP addresses


b) Increases network speed
c) Enhances security
d) Simplifies configuration

Answer: a) Conserves public IP addresses

31. Which address is assigned to inside devices in NAT?


a) Inside local address
b) Inside global address
c) Outside local address
d) Outside global address

Answer: a) Inside local address

32. What is the Inside Global address in NAT?

a) The public IP address assigned to a device inside the network


b) The private IP address assigned to a device inside the network
c) The public IP address assigned to a device outside the network
d) The private IP address assigned to a device outside the network

Answer: a) The public IP address assigned to a device inside the network

33. In Dynamic NAT, what determines when an IP address can be removed from
the NAT table?

a) When a timeout value is reached


b) When the network admin manually removes it
c) When a new device requests access
d) When the IP address lease expires

Answer: a) When a timeout value is reached

34. Which NAT type is most commonly used in small to medium-sized


businesses?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT

Answer: c) PAT (Port Address Translation)

35. What does PAT use to differentiate between multiple devices using the
same public IP address?
a) MAC addresses
b) IP addresses
c) Port numbers
d) Subnet masks

Answer: c) Port numbers

36. Which address range is used for Class A private IP addresses in NAT?

a) 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
b) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
c) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
d) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

Answer: b) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

37. What is the primary purpose of using private IP addresses in NAT?

a) To increase network speed


b) To reduce the need for public IP addresses
c) To encrypt data
d) To improve network security

Answer: b) To reduce the need for public IP addresses

38. Which address range is used for Class B private IP addresses in NAT?

a) 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
b) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
d) 200.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

Answer: b) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

39. Which address range is used for Class C private IP addresses in NAT?

a) 0.0.0.0 to 127.255.255.255
b) 128.0.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
d) 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
Answer: c) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

40. What is the role of a NAT router?

a) To route packets between different subnets


b) To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses
c) To encrypt data
d) To assign MAC addresses

Answer: b) To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses

41. What is the main security benefit of using NAT?

a) It hides the internal IP addresses from the outside world


b) It encrypts all data
c) It increases network speed
d) It provides redundancy

Answer: a) It hides the internal IP addresses from the outside world

42. In NAT terminology, what is an 'outside local' address?

a) The public IP address of an external device as it appears to the internal


network
b) The private IP address of an internal device as it appears to the external
network
c) The public IP address of an internal device as it appears to the external network
d) The private IP address of an external device as it appears to the internal
network

Answer: a) The public IP address of an external device as it appears to the


internal network

43. What is an 'outside global' address in NAT?

a) The public IP address of an external device as it appears to the external


network
b) The private IP address of an internal device as it appears to the external
network
c) The public IP address of an internal device as it appears to the internal network
d) The private IP address of an external device as it appears to the external
network

Answer: a) The public IP address of an external device as it appears to the


external network

44. Which type of NAT provides the most efficient use of IP addresses?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT

Answer: c) PAT (Port Address Translation)

45. How does NAT help with network scalability?

a) By increasing the number of available public IP addresses


b) By allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address
c) By reducing network congestion
d) By improving data encryption

Answer: b) By allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address

46. Which NAT type would be used if an organization needs to assign a specific
public IP address to each device inside the network?

a) Static NAT
b) Dynamic NAT
c) PAT (Port Address Translation)
d) SNAT

Answer: a) Static NAT

47. What is the main difference between NAT and PAT?

a) NAT translates IP addresses, while PAT translates port numbers


b) NAT is used for IPv4, while PAT is used for IPv6
c) NAT is used for internal networks, while PAT is used for external networks
d) NAT uses a pool of addresses, while PAT uses a single address with different
ports

Answer: a) NAT translates IP addresses, while PAT translates port numbers

48. In which scenario is dynamic NAT most useful?

a) When there is a need for one-to-one address mapping


b) When multiple devices need to share a single IP address
c) When there is a pool of public IP addresses available
d) When internal devices need to be hidden from the outside world

Answer: c) When there is a pool of public IP addresses available

49. What type of IP addresses does NAT translate?

a) Public to private
b) Private to public
c) Static to dynamic
d) IPv4 to IPv6

Answer: b) Private to public

50. Why might an organization choose to use PAT over other types of NAT?

a) To conserve public IP addresses


b) To simplify network management
c) To enhance security
d) To increase network speed

Answer: a) To conserve public IP addresses


Transportation Layer 20 Multiple Choice Questions:

1. What is the primary function of the transport layer?

- a) Data segmentation

- b) Adding port numbers

- c) Error recovery

- d) All of the above

- Answer: d) All of the above

2. Which protocol is known for being reliable and connection-oriented?

- a) UDP

- b) TCP

- c) IP

- d) HTTP

- Answer: b) TCP

3. Which of the following uses a connection-less protocol?

- a) Web browsing

- b) Emails

- c) Video streaming

- d) File transfers

- Answer: c) Video streaming

4. How many bits is a port number?

- a) 8

- b) 16

- c) 32

- d) 64
- Answer: b) 16

5. What is the range of well-known port numbers?

- a) 0-255

- b) 0-1023

- c) 1024-49151

- d) 49152-65535

- Answer: b) 0-1023

6. Which port number is associated with HTTP?

- a) 21

- b) 25

- c) 53

- d) 80

- Answer: d) 80

7. What type of applications typically use UDP?

- a) Web browsing

- b) Video streaming

- c) Emails

- d) File transfers

- Answer: b) Video streaming

8. What does ARQ stand for?

- a) Automatic Repeat Query

- b) Automatic Repeat Request

- c) Automated Request Queue

- d) None of the above

- Answer: b) Automatic Repeat Request


9. What does TCP use to establish a connection?

- a) 2-way handshake

- b) 3-way handshake

- c) 4-way handshake

- d) No handshake

- Answer: b) 3-way handshake

10. Which TCP flag is used to initiate a connection?

- a) SYN

- b) ACK

- c) FIN

- d) NACK

- Answer: a) SYN

11. Which TCP flag is used to acknowledge receipt of data?

- a) SYN

- b) ACK

- c) FIN

- d) NACK

- Answer: b) ACK

12. What is the primary function of flow control in TCP?

- a) Establishing connections

- b) Error detection

- c) Preventing congestion

- d) Terminating connections

- Answer: c) Preventing congestion


13. Which transport layer protocol is used by Telnet?

- a) UDP

- b) TCP

- c) HTTP

- d) FTP

- Answer: b) TCP

14. Which ARQ method sends multiple frames before requiring an acknowledgment?

- a) Stop and Wait ARQ

- b) Go-Back-N ARQ

- c) Selective Repeat ARQ

- d) None of the above

- Answer: b) Go-Back-N ARQ

15. Which port number is used by SMTP?

- a) 80

- b) 110

- c) 25

- d) 23

- Answer: c) 25

16. Which of the following protocols can use both TCP and UDP?

- a) HTTP

- b) FTP

- c) DNS

- d) SMTP

- Answer: c) DNS

17. What is the role of the SYN flag in TCP?


- a) To terminate a connection

- b) To acknowledge data receipt

- c) To initiate a connection

- d) To retransmit data

- Answer: c) To initiate a connection

18. In a TCP connection, what is the purpose of the FIN flag?

- a) To initiate a connection

- b) To acknowledge data receipt

- c) To terminate a connection

- d) To retransmit data

- Answer: c) To terminate a connection

19. What is the socket number composed of?

- a) IP address only

- b) Port number only

- c) IP address and port number

- d) Protocol and port number

- Answer: c) IP address and port number

20. Which transport protocol is typically used for file transfers?

- a) UDP

- b) TCP

- c) HTTP

- d) DHCP

- Answer: b) TCP
Multiple Choice Questions on Routing Protocols and
OSPF
Routing Protocols
What is IP Routing?

A) The process of encrypting a packet.

B) The process of forwarding a packet from its source to its destination through a routed network.

C) The process of converting a packet from IPv4 to IPv6.

D) The process of compressing a packet.

Answer: B

What is a Routing Protocol?

A) A protocol that creates IP packets.

B) A protocol that encrypts data.

C) A protocol that selects the best path to transfer information between routers.

D) A protocol that compresses data.

Answer: C

What is a Routed Protocol?

A) Protocols that create dynamic routing tables.

B) IP packets routed between routers.

C) Protocols that manage network security.

D) Protocols that handle error checking.

Answer: B

Define Autonomous System (AS).

A) A group of routers with different administrative authorities.


B) A single router within a network.

C) A collection of devices under the same administrative authority.

D) A protocol used for dynamic routing.

Answer: C

What are the two main types of routing?

A) Static and Dynamic Routing.

B) Manual and Automated Routing.

C) Direct and Indirect Routing.

D) Local and Remote Routing.

Answer: A

What is Static Routing?

A) Routing that changes automatically.

B) Routing that builds the table manually with fixed paths.

C) Routing that uses AI to find paths.

D) Routing that compresses data.

Answer: B

What is Dynamic Routing?

A) Used for small networks.

B) Manually updates routing tables.

C) Used if multiple paths to the destination are available and with large networks.

D) Always follows the shortest path.

Answer: C

What is the difference between Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) and Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)?

A) IGP works with encrypted data, EGP does not.

B) IGP works within an autonomous system, EGP works between multiple autonomous systems.
C) IGP is faster than EGP.

D) IGP is older than EGP.

Answer: B

What is Administrative Distance (AD)?

A) A metric to determine the speed of a protocol.

B) A metric to determine the trustworthiness of a protocol.

C) A metric to calculate the bandwidth.

D) A metric to measure latency.

Answer: B

What is Metric in routing?

A) A protocol type.

B) A value that determines the best path to a destination network using a single protocol.

C) A measure of security.

D) A type of error detection.

Answer: B

OSPF (From 8.pptx and 9.pdf)

What type of routing protocol is OSPF?

A) Distance-vector

B) Link-state

C) Path-vector

D) Hybrid

Answer: B

What does a Link-State Routing Protocol mean?

A) Protocol maintains a map of the network describing the state of the links.

B) Protocol encrypts all network traffic.


C) Protocol compresses data for faster transmission.

D) Protocol dynamically changes IP addresses.

Answer: A

Name the five OSPF packet types.

A) Hello, Goodbye, Update, Request, Acknowledge

B) Hello, Database Description, Link State Request, Link State Update, Link State Acknowledgement

C) Init, Two-way, Exchange, Loading, Full

D) Start, Stop, Pause, Resume, Terminate

Answer: B

What is the purpose of the OSPF Hello packet?

A) To terminate a connection.

B) For neighbor discovery and building neighbor adjacency.

C) To encrypt data.

D) To reset a router.

Answer: B

What is an OSPF Router ID?

A) A unique identifier for each router in the OSPF domain, expressed as an IP address.

B) A unique identifier for each interface in the network.

C) An encrypted key for router communication.

D) A measurement of router speed.

Answer: A

How is the OSPF Router ID determined?

A) Automatically by the network.

B) It can be manually configured, or it is the highest IP of the loopback interface, or the highest IP of a
physical enabled interface.
C) Randomly assigned at startup.

D) Based on the router's MAC address.

Answer: B

What is a Loopback Interface and its advantage in OSPF?

‫محمد حسن‬, [5/23/2024 10:39 PM]

A) A physical interface with high priority.

B) A virtual interface that becomes active immediately, providing stability to the router ID.

C) An interface used only for testing.

D) A temporary interface for backup purposes.

Answer: B

What is the OSPF state 'Full'?

A) When OSPF routers have completed the exchange of routing information and have established
adjacency.

B) When OSPF routers have just started.

C) When OSPF routers are inactive.

D) When OSPF routers are offline.

Answer: A

What is a Designated Router (DR) in OSPF?

A) The router elected in multi-access networks to collect and distribute LSAs.

B) The router with the least bandwidth.

C) The router responsible for encrypting data.

D) The router that acts as a backup.

Answer: A

What happens if the Designated Router (DR) fails?

A) The network stops working.


B) The Backup Designated Router (BDR) becomes the DR, and a new BDR is elected.

C) All routers restart.

D) The failed router automatically becomes the BDR.

Answer: B

What is OSPF Area?

A) A physical segment within an OSPF network.

B) A logical segment within an OSPF network where routers have the same database.

C) A type of encrypted data.

D) A backup segment for data recovery.

Answer: B

What is the significance of OSPF Area 0?

A) It is the test area.

B) It is the default area for all OSPF configurations.

C) It is the backbone area to which all other areas must connect.

D) It is the area with the highest priority.

Answer: C

What is an Area Border Router (ABR) in OSPF?

A) A router that connects multiple OSPF areas, residing in both Area 0 and another area.

B) A router that encrypts data between areas.

C) A router that acts as a backup in case of failure.

D) A router that only works within one area.

Answer: A

What is an LSA in OSPF?

A) Link State Advertisement, a type of OSPF packet that describes the state of the router's links.

B) Link Status Acknowledgement, a type of packet for confirmation.


C) Link Service Agreement, a contractual term.

D) Link Security Announcement, a type of security protocol.

Answer: A

What are the different types of LSAs in OSPF?

A) Router LSA, Network LSA, and Summary LSA.

B) Hello LSA, Data LSA, and Request LSA.

C) Start LSA, Stop LSA, and Pause LSA.

D) Encryption LSA, Decryption LSA, and Update LSA.

Answer: A

What metric does OSPF use and how is it calculated?

A) Speed, calculated as Bandwidth divided by Latency.

B) Cost, calculated as Reference Bandwidth divided by Actual Bandwidth.

C) Distance, calculated as Hop Count.

D) Time, calculated as Transmission Delay.

Answer: B

What is the reference bandwidth used by OSPF for cost calculation?

A) 1 Gbps.

B) 10 Mbps.

C) 100 Mbps.

D) 1 Mbps.

Answer: C

What is the OSPF Neighbor state 'Down'?

A) When no OSPF neighbors are detected.

B) When a neighbor is detected but not fully connected.

C) When a neighbor is fully connected.


D) When a neighbor is in standby mode.

Answer: A

What must be equal in both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency?

A) IP address and Subnet mask.

B) Hello interval, Dead interval, and Network type.

C) Encryption type and Key.

D) Bandwidth and Latency.

Answer: B

What action is taken if no Hello packet is received within the Dead interval?

A) The router resets the connection.

B) The router declares the neighbor down, removes it from the database, and floods the new link state.

C) The router increases the Dead interval.

D) The router sends a warning message.

Answer: B

What is the default priority value for OSPF routers in DR/BDR election?

A) 0

B) 100

C) 1

D) 10

Answer: C

What is DRother in OSPF?

A) A router that is not part of the OSPF network.

B) A router that is neither the Designated Router (DR) nor the Backup Designated Router (BDR).

C) A router that has failed.

D) A router that is not connected.


Answer: B

What are the intervals for Hello and Dead intervals in OSPF?

‫محمد حسن‬, [5/23/2024 10:39 PM]

A) Hello interval: 5 seconds, Dead interval: 20 seconds.

B) Hello interval: 10 seconds, Dead interval: 40 seconds.

C) Hello interval: 20 seconds, Dead interval: 60 seconds.

D) Hello interval: 15 seconds, Dead interval: 45 seconds.

Answer: B

What is the OSPF state 'Two-way'?

A) When routers are sending data.

B) When a router's own ID is found in a received Hello packet.

C) When routers are encrypting data.

D) When routers are not connected.

Answer: B

What is the OSPF state 'Exstart'?

A) When routers are initializing.

B) When master and slave roles are determined between two OSPF routers.

C) When routers are exchanging data.

D) When routers are disconnecting.

Answer: B

What is the OSPF state 'Exchange'?

A) When routers are synchronizing their clocks.

B) When Database Description packets (DBD) are sent.

C) When routers are verifying security keys.

D) When routers are compressing data.


Answer: B

What is the OSPF state 'Loading'?

A) When routers are initializing their interfaces.

B) When routers exchange Link State Requests (LSRs), Link State Updates (LSUs), and Link State
Acknowledgements (LSACKs).

C) When routers are encrypting data.

D) When routers are in standby mode.

Answer: B

Why are Loopback Interfaces preferred for OSPF Router IDs?

A) Because they provide faster data transmission.

B) Because they are virtual and cannot fail, ensuring stability.

C) Because they use less bandwidth.

D) Because they are easier to configure.

Answer: B

In OSPF, what is the metric value for a 10 Mbps Ethernet link?

A) 1

B) 10

C) 100

D) 1000

Answer: B

How can the OSPF reference bandwidth be changed?

A) By physical adjustment of the router.

B) By router configuration.

C) By changing the subnet mask.

D) By updating the firmware.


Answer: B

What is the role of the OSPF LSU packet?

A) To reset a connection.

B) To send updated link-state information to other routers.

C) To encrypt data.

D) To compress data.

Answer: B

What is the purpose of the OSPF LSACK packet?

A) To acknowledge the receipt of an LSU packet.

B) To terminate a connection.

C) To request data.

D) To compress data.

Answer: A

What happens during the OSPF 'Loading' state?

A) Routers exchange LSRs, LSUs, and LSACKs to synchronize their databases.

B) Routers initialize their interfaces.

C) Routers encrypt their data.

D) Routers verify security keys.

Answer: A

What is an OSPF 'Neighbor'?

A) A router with which another router has established a bidirectional communication using the OSPF
protocol.

B) A router that is not connected.

C) A router that has failed.

D) A router that only encrypts data.


Answer: A

What is the main purpose of OSPF areas?

A) To increase the security of the network.

B) To divide the OSPF network into smaller, manageable sections, reducing database size and improving
efficiency.

C) To compress data for faster transmission.

D) To encrypt the network traffic.

Answer: B

What is the default Hello interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point networks?

A) 5 seconds

B) 15 seconds

C) 10 seconds

D) 20 seconds

Answer: C

What is the default Dead interval for OSPF on broadcast and point-to-point networks?

A) 30 seconds

B) 40 seconds

C) 50 seconds

D) 60 seconds

Answer: B

What type of OSPF network elects a DR and BDR?

A) Point-to-point networks

B) Multi-access networks, such as Ethernet

C) Virtual private networks

D) Dial-up networks
Answer: B

In OSPF, what determines the priority of a router in DR election?

A) The router's IP address

B) The router's bandwidth

C) The configured priority value, ranging from 0 to 255

D) The router's security settings

Answer: C

What is the significance of the OSPF 'Init' state?

A) It indicates that a router is initializing its interfaces.

B) It indicates that a Hello packet has been received from another router.

C) It indicates that a router is encrypting its data.

D) It indicates that a router is in standby mode.

Answer: B

In OSPF, what is a summary LSA?

‫محمد حسن‬, [5/23/2024 10:39 PM]

A) An LSA generated by an ABR, used to summarize routes for other areas.

B) An LSA that encrypts data.

C) An LSA that verifies security keys.

D) An LSA that compresses data.

Answer: A

What is the function of an OSPF Hello packet?

A) To terminate a connection.

B) To discover and maintain neighbor relationships.

C) To encrypt data.

D) To reset a router.
Answer: B

How often are OSPF Hello packets sent?

A) Every 5 seconds

B) Every 10 seconds

C) Every 20 seconds

D) Every 30 seconds

Answer: B

What is the role of the OSPF DBD packet?

A) To encrypt data.

B) To describe the contents of the LSDB and ensure synchronization between routers.

C) To terminate a connection.

D) To compress data.

Answer: B

What happens in OSPF if two routers have the same priority for DR election?

A) The router with the lower OSPF Router ID is elected.

B) The router with the higher OSPF Router ID is elected.

C) A new priority is assigned randomly.

D) The election is restarted.

Answer: B

What is the default OSPF priority value?

A) 0

B) 100

C) 1

D) 10

Answer: C
What is the OSPF 'Exstart' state?

A) The state where master and slave roles are determined for database exchange.

B) The state where the routers initialize their interfaces.

C) The state where the routers encrypt their data.

D) The state where the routers verify security keys.

Answer: A

What is the OSPF 'Full' state?

A) The final state where routers have fully exchanged databases and are synchronized.

B) The state where routers are initializing.

C) The state where routers are compressing data.

D) The state where routers are encrypting data.

Answer: A

What type of OSPF packet is used to request specific LSAs from a neighbor?

A) Hello packet

B) LSR (Link State Request)

C) LSU (Link State Update)

D) LSACK (Link State Acknowledgment)

Answer: B

How does OSPF prevent routing loops?

A) By using a Distance-vector protocol.

B) By maintaining a complete map of the network topology and using Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate
the shortest path.

C) By using a random path selection algorithm.

D) By compressing data to reduce transmission time.

Answer: B

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