FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

JEE (Advanced)-2024
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 01-05-2024
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
 The test consists of total 51 questions.
 Each subject (PCM) has 17 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section – A (01 – 04, 18 – 21, 35 – 38): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –07, 22 – 24, 39 – 41): This section contains NINE (09) questions. Each question has FOUR
options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (08 – 13, 25 – 30, 42 – 47): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) numerical based questions.
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.
Section – C (14 –17, 31 – 34, 48 – 51): This section contains SIX (06) paragraphs. Based on each
paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Section – C: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : 0 In all other cases.

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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 2

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

1. A very long current carrying wire is placed along z-axis having i2 y

current of magnitude i1 towards negative z-axis. A semicircular
R
wire of radius R and having current i2 is placed in x-y plane, such i1
 R x
that line joining two end points of the semicircular wire passes
through long wire as shown in figure. Nearest distance of
semicircular wire from long wire is R. Net magnetic force on
semicircular wire will be
 0 i1i2  0 i1i2 3
(A) ln 3 (B) ln
2 2 2
 0 i1i2
(C) zero (D)
2
2. A non-conducting thin spherical shell of radius R has uniform surface charge density . The shell
rotates about a diameter with constant angular velocity . Calculate magnetic induction B at the
centre of the shell.
2
(A) µ0 R (B) µ0 R
3
2 2
(C) µ0R (D) R
3 3
3. A current of 1.0 ampere is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5 × 10–2 m. Find the
magnetic field at the centroid of the triangle. (Permeability constant 0 = 4 × 10–7 V–s/A–m).
(A) 8 × 10–5 Tesla (B) 4 × 10–5 Tesla
–10
(C) 4 × 10 Tesla (D) 4 × 10–20 Tesla
5 2
4. Two moles of an ideal gas is initially in state A having pressure 1.01 × 10 N/m and
temperature 300 K. Keeping pressure constant, the gas is taken to state B. Temperature at B is
500 K. The gas is then taken to state C in such a way that its temperature increases and volume
dT
decreases. Also from B to C the magnitude of increases. The volume of gas at C is equal to
dV
volume of gas at A. Now the gas is taken to initial state A keeping volume constant. A total of
1200 J of heat is with drawn from the sample in the cyclic process. The T – V graph for the cyclic
process and work done in path B to C are respectively (Take R = 8.3 J/k/mol).
T C T C
B B
(A) and – 4520 J (B) and – 460 J
A A
V V
T C T C
B B
(C) and – 4520 J (D) and – 460 J
A A
V V
 3 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

5. Consider the circuit shown in figure. C 3C

3CE
(A) Charges on capacitor 3C is A
4 2C B 4C
E
(B) Potential deference between A & B is
12 S
2
25CE
(C) Heat generation in circuit is E
24
2E
(D) Potential deference across capacitor 2C is
3

6. A particle mass m charge q is moving on a circular path on

vo
the surface of a frictionless table with speed v o where a P
magnetic field Bo exists uniformly over the whole region. It r
is attached by a string which passes through a hole in the
table to a spring as shown.
The spring is stretched by xo. If now the magnetic field is
increased slowly to 2Bo,
(A) The extension in the spring will increase
(B) The speed of the particle will increase Bo
(C) The speed of the particle will decrease
(D) The kinetic energy of the particle will decrease

7. A ball of mass 2 kg moving horizontally with velocity 10 m/s hits a

wedge of mass 5 kg placed on a horizontal surface as shown in the
10 m/s
figure. Just after collision velocity of wedge is 3.2 m/s. There is no
friction at any contact surface. Then (take sin 37 = 3/5)
(A) Speed of ball just after collision is 210 m/s 53
(B) Impulse applied by ball on the wedge is 20 N-s
(C) Coefficient of restitution for the collision is approximately 0.68
(D) If the time of contact between ball and wedge during collision is 0.05 sec, the average force
exerted by the horizontal surface on the wedge during collision is 260 N.

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

 2
8. A particle moves is x, y plane. The position vector of particle at any time t is r  2tiˆ  2t ˆj. If the
n
rate of change of  with time at t  2 sec is rad/sec (  is angle which velocity vector makes
17
with x axis) then find the value of n.

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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 4

9. Two particles A and B are separated from each other by a distance l. At time t = 0, particle A
starts moving with uniform acceleration a along line perpendicular to initial line joining A and B. At
the same moment, particle B starts moving with acceleration of constant magnitude b such that
particle B always points towards the instantaneous position of A. (b > a). Find the distance (in m)
2 2
travelled by B till the moment B converges with A. (Take b = 3 m/s , a = 1 m/s and l = 8 m)
10. A particle is moving along a vertical circle of u
radius 20 m with a constant speed of 31.4m/s. 
Straight line ABC is horizontal and passes 20m
through the centre of the circle. A shell is fired   C
A B
from point A at the instant when particle is at C. If
distance AB is 20 3 m and shell collides with
the particle at B,
the smallest possible value of the angle (in degree) of projection,
–2
is 10 x, then find x. (  = 3.14 and g = 10 ms )
11. Let us assume that sun radiates like a black body with surface temperature at Ts = 6000 K and
earth absorbs radiations coming from sun only. If both earth and sun are consider as perfect
sphere with distance between centre of earth and centre of sun to be 200 times the radius of sun.
Find the temperature (in Kelvin) of surface of earth in steady state (assume radiations incident on
earth to be almost parallel)
12. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is increased from 10 kV to 20 kV the wavelength
interval between the K line and the short wave cut off of the continuous X-ray spectrum
increases by a factor 3. Find the atomic number of element of which the tube anti-cathode is
made. (Rydberg’s constant = 107 m–1)

13. The axle of a circular wheel of radius R is held horizontally by two D

identical strings of equal lengths separated by a distance D. The
tension in each string is T0. The rim of the wheel carries a total
charge + Q distributed uniformly on it. The wheel is vertical and is

kept in a uniform vertical magnetic field B. It is now rotated at an R
angular speed . The string break at a tension of 3T0 / 2. If the

maximum possible value of  at which the wheel can be rotated
B
KT0D
without breaking a string is . Then find the value of K.
QR2B
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 and 15
Two slits S1 and S2 lie on the x-axis and symmetric with respect to y-
axis are illuminated by a parallel monochromatic light beam of
wavelength  as shown. The distance between slits is d (>> ). Point
O is the mid point of the line S1S2 and this point is considered as the x
O
origin. The slits are in horizontal plane. The interference pattern is S1 S2
observed on a horizontal plate (acting as screen) of mass m which is
connected to one end of a vertical massless spring of spring constant m
plate
k. The other end of the spring fixed to ground. At t = 0, the plate is at
a distance D (>> d) below the plane of slits and spring is in its natural k
length. The plate is released from rest from its initial position.
 5 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

g m
14. The rate by which fringe, width will increase when acceleration of plate is zero, is , find the
nd k
value of n

4mg
15. The difference between two fringe widths when plate is at rest for a moment is , find the
ndk
value of n

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 and 17

A container of square base of side l and height H is completely

filled with a liquid of density . And it is closed with the help of a h a=g/2
square plate AD of side l. This plate has a vertical tube of radius
A D
r and height h (volume of the tube is negligible as compared to H
volume of the liquid) at its centre and a small hole at D. Just after
giving a horizontal acceleration a = g/2 (towards right), find out B C
l

 
16. Velocity of the liquid flowing out though the tube, if h < l/5 is 2g   h  , then n is (neglect
 n 
surface tension of the liquid)

17. Force exerted by the liquid on the bottom if tube is closed. (P0 is atmospheric pressure) is
 l  2
 P0  g   H   l . Find the value of n.
 n 

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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 6

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

11 me 4
18. In unit of 2
, the difference between energy levels corresponding from 4 to 5 total
1152 0  
nodes present in wave function  for a hydrogen like atom is
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.05
(C) 0.06 (D) 0.07
19. Choose the correct answer from given statements (T= True and F= False)
I. Ion dipole forces are Vander Waals force.
II. London forces are always attractive and internal energy is inversely proportional to the sixth
power of the distance between two interacting particles (1/r6).
III. Dipole-Dipole interaction energy between stationary polar molecules (solid) is proportional to
1/r3
IV. Dipole-Dipole interaction energy between rotating polar molecules is proportional to 1/r6
(A) FTTT (B) TTFF
(C) TFTF (D) FTFT

20. Choose the correct answer from given statements (T= True and F= False)
I. Standard boiling point of the liquid is slightly higher than normal boiling point because more
and more molecules go to vapour phase and density of vapour rises.
II. Dimension of surface energy is Jm–2 and surface tension has Nm–1
III. Surface tension decreases as the temperature is raised
IV. Glass is an extremely viscous liquid.
(A) FTTT (B) TTTF
(C) FFFT (D) FFFF
21. Choose the correct answer from given statements (T= True and F= False)
I. Pressure exerted by saturated water vapour is called aqueous tension.
II. In kinetic molecular theory of gases (KTG), At Any particular time, different particles in the
gas have different speed and different kinetic energies.
III. In KTG, the distribution of speeds remain constant at a particular temperature.
IV. In KTG, particles of gas did not move in all possible direction in straight lines.
V. Liquefaction of H2 and He is difficult due to Critical temperature are too low.
(A) TTTTT (B) TTTFF
(C) TFTFF (D) TFTFT
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

22. Two moles of an ideal gas  C v,m  1.5R  is subjected to the following changes in states:
Re versible Isothermal
(A) (500 K, 5 bar) 
Expansion

Isochoric Cooling Single statge adiabatic
(B)      (C) (250 K, 1 bar) 
compression
D (3 bar)
The correct statement(s) is/are
(A) The pressure at B is 2.0 bar. (B) The temperature at D is 450 K.
(C) HCD  1000R (D) UBC  375R
 7 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

23. A volume of 100 ml of 0.5 N-H2SO4 solution of neutralized with 200 ml of 0.2 M-NH4OH in a
constant pressure calorimeter which resulted 1.4ºC rise in temperature. The heat capacity of the
calorimeter system is 1.5 kJ/ºC. Some useful thermochemical equations are
HCl + NaOH  NaOH + H2O + 57 kJ
CH3COOH + NH4OH  CH3 COONH4 + H2O + 48.1 kJ
Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Enthalpy of neutralization HCl vs. NH4OH is –52.5 kJ/mol.
(B) Enthalpy of dissociation (ionization) of NH4OH is 4.5 kJ/mol
(C) Enthalpy of dissociation (ionization) of CH3COOH is 4.4 kJ/mol
+ –
(D) H for 2H2O(l)  2H (aq) + 2OH (aq) is 114 kJ.

24. Which ions produces green colour on Bunsen flame?

(A) BO33  (B) Ba 2 
(C) Ca2  (D) Li+

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

25. Define the oxidation states of Mn in product of the given reaction

3K 2MnO 4  2H2 O  4CO  2X  Y  4KHCO3
If the oxidation state of Mn in product X and Y are n1 and n2 respectively. Then find out the value
of (n1 + n2)

26. How many alcohol products will be obtained in above reaction? (excluding stereoisomerism)

27. How many compounds can give cannizaro reaction?

28. Equimolar mixture of two gases, A2 and B2 is taken in a rigid vessel at constant temperature 300
K. The gases achieve equilibrium as:
A 2  g   2A  g  ,K P  x atm
B 2  g   2B  g  , K p  y atm
A 2  g   B2  g   2AB  g , K P  2
If the initial pressure in the container was 2 atm and the final pressure at equilibrium is 2.75 atm
in which the partial pressure of AB(g) is 0.5 atm, the value of y:x is {y:x is INTEGER value}

29. How many number of active hydrogen atoms are present in a compound (mol. Mass 90), 0.45 g
of which when treated with Na metal liberates 112 ml of the H2 gas at STP?

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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 8

30. How many of the following will give isocyanide (carbylamine) test positive:
(a) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (b) CH2 = CH – NH2

(c) (d) Ph – NH2

(e) (f)

(g) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3 (d) (i)

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 and 32

A glass tube AD of uniform cross section of length 100 cm contains two columns of air (assume
ideal behaviour) AB and CD, separately by a column of mercury (BC) of length 20 cm. When the
tube is horizontal, AB = 20 cm and CD = 60 cm. When the tube is held vertically with the end ‘A’
up, the mercury column down 10 cm. Let assume that both end of tube are closed.

31. What is the pressure of air in the air columns, when the tube was horizontal?

32. What will be the length of the gas column AB when the tube is held vertically with the end D up?

Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 and 34

Potassium crystallizes in BCC lattice, with a unit cell length, a = 5.0 Å. (K = 39)

33. What is the distance (in Å) between nearest neighbours?

34. Find the value of Y/6 where Y= Nearest neighbours does each K atom have?
 9 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D).
ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.

 x  2  x  4 
35. Let f : R – {3, 5}  R, f  x   then which of following is correct
 x  3  x  5 
(A) f(x) = k has two distinct positive solutions  k  (0, )
(B) y = f(x) changes its concavity in the interval (3, 5)
(C) y = f(x) increases in some interval
(D) f(x) is into function


1  n(n  1)  1
36. If  cot
n 1
 2  2   tan a, then ‘a’ is equal to
 
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

37. Let 100! = N.10n. If N is relatively prime with 10 and unit digit of N is d, then n + d is equal to
(A) 26 (B) 28
(C) 30 (D) 32

38. For f(x) = mx the area of the triangle formed by (0, 0) the first quadrant point P(a, f(a)) and the
reflection of the that point P about y = x is 1000. If m and a are positive integers, then m is
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 4 (D) 7

SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains THREE (03) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

39. Let (x) = max. {|2x-1|, |x-1|}, (x) = max. {|x-3|, 3} and f(x) = min. {(x),(x)} then
1
(A) the minimum value of f(x) is
3
(B) the number of points where f(x) is not differentiable is 4
(C) f’ (x) = 0  x  (2, 6)
 1
(D) f min = f  
3

40. If, S1, S2, S3, S4, S5 are sets formed using all the roots of zn = 1 as shown (n N, z  complex
number)
S1  z : z12  1, z  C
S2  z : z15  1, z  C
S3  z : z16  1, z  C
S4  z : z18  1, z  C
S5  z : z24  1, z  C

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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024 10

If, n  Si  S j   3[i  j, 1  5] then number of such ordered pairs of Si and Sj is

(A) less than 5 (B) less than 10
(C) less than 15 (D) less than 20


1 
41. Let a function f: R  R is defined by f(x) = x + sin x and f x  dx  l, then
0
1 1
1 2
(A) l   1  x 3 dx (B) l   e x dx
0 0
 
(C) 2 < l < 3 (D)  l 
4 2

SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains SIX (06) Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER VALUE.

xy yk
42. The solution of x2dy – y2dx + xy2 (x – y)dy = 0 is ln   c, then the value of k is
xy 2

43. Tangents drawn from the point P(2, 3) to the circle x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y + 1 = 0 touch the circle at the
points A and B. The circumcircle of the PAB cuts the director circle of ellipse
2
 x  5  2  y  3  b2 
  1 orthogonally. Then the value of   is __________
9 b2 9

 u 2 1
 11 
44. If A   1 1 2  , where  u    and det(adj(adjA)) = (23)4, then the value of u is
 3
 2 1 1 

1 x x2 x3  1 0 x  x4
2 4
45. If x x 1  3 then the value of 0 xx x 3  1 is ________
x2 1 x x  x4 x3  1 0

46. If a tetrahedron bounded by planes x = 0, y = 0, z = 0, x + y + z = 6 there exists a point Q which

is equidistant from faces of tetrahedron. Now, a point P(x, y, z) moves such that its locus is
2k
inscribed in the tetrahedron and PQ  cosntant. If PQ  then k can be
k k
      
47. If a  ˆi  2 ˆj  3k,
ˆ b  2 ˆi  7 ˆj  2k,
ˆ x.a  0, and x.c  0 for some non-zero vector x, then value of
  
a.  b  c  is
 11 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2024

SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions of
numerical answer type. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE (XXXXX.XX). If the
numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 48 and 49

  px n r 2  e  x  r  1 
nlim    x0
   n r 1 r  r  1 


Let f(x) =  q, x 0

  n  r 2  r  ex  1 
 lim    x0
 n
 r 1 r  r  1 
is differentiable in R(the set of all real number) (where [y] and {y} denote greatest integer function
and fractional part function of y respectively)

48. The value of p + q +  is

1  3 
49. The value of f '  ln 2   f '  ln   f '  ln  2    ....... is
 2   2 

Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 and 51

Let h(x) = f(x) – g(x) where f(x) = sin4x and g(x) = ln x. Let x 0, x1, x2,…..xn + 1 be the roots of f(x) =
g(x) in increasing order.

50. In the above question the value of n is

51. The whole area bounded by y = f(x), y = g(x) and x = 0 is

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