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The primary purpose of writing this article is to target competitive exams and interviews. Here, we will cover all the frequently asked Software Engineering questions with the correct choice of
answer among various options.
1. System Design
2. Coding
3. System Testing
4. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Explanation: The first phase of the software development life cycle is the requirement analysis, in which the software engineer analyzes the software requirement based on the user's
outlook.
1. Details of DFD
2. Feasibility Study
3. System Analysis
4. System Planning
3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
1. Sizing
2. Parallel run
3. Specification freeze
4. All of the above
Explanation: None.
Explanation: RAD stands for Rapid Application Development is categorized as an agile development method, which is meant to accomplish a quick turnaround and high-end
outcomes.
5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model?
1. Domain Prototype
2. Vertical Prototype
3. Horizontal Prototype
4. Diagonal Prototype
Explanation: There is nothing as such called Diagonal Prototype; however, the rest other options do make sense.
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision, which may result in a team over or under-develop functionality. Besides, it is not easy to hire highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers.
1. Incremental Model
2. Concurrent Development Model
3. WINWIN Spiral Model
4. All of the above
Explanation: The evolutionary process model is designed for rapid software development, which starts from scratch with raw specifications and modifies as per the user requirement.
Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a combination of the waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the Spiral model are
as follows:
Expensive
1. Requirements
2. Development team & users
3. Project type & associated risk
4. All of the above
Explanation: None.
11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase, which involves Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses
customer communication activities such as defining objectives.
12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the desired output?
Explanation: The Prototyping model necessitates user participation as when a prototype is created or designed, whereas, in the case of RAD, user participation is required in all four
phases.
13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
1. Spiral
2. Iterative Enhancement
3. RAD
4. Both (b) and (c)
Explanation: None.
14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT.
I. Design strategy
III. Implementation
1. 4, 1, 3, 2
2. 4, 3, 2, 1
3. 1, 2, 3, 4
4. 1, 4, 2, 3
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: a) 4, 1, 3, 2
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT) Model.
15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing?
Explanation: Functional processing or testing is commonly known as black-box testing, where the existing contents are almost unknown, so anything could be demonstrated as a black
box. Hence the functionality of a black box can be defined in terms of inputs and outputs.
1. Unix shell
2. C++
3. COBOL
4. FORTRAN
1. True
2. False
Answer: b) False
Explanation: The fourth-generation programming languages are more programmer-friendly and helpful in augmenting the program's efficiency as it uses English words and phrases. It
increases the programmer's productivity by enabling them to engage in the software development life cycle.
18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing small-scale products, programs, and applications?
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators, proponents claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.
19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in terms of the coding phase?
1. 4GT Model
2. Waterfall Model
3. RAD Model
4. Spiral Model
20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products?
1. Firmware, CAD
2. Embedded, CAM
3. Customized, Generic
4. CAD, Embedded
1. True
2. False
Answer: a) True
Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of the software development cost.
22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report?
1. Deployment
2. Planning
3. Modeling
4. Construction
Answer: a) Deployment
Explanation: The deployment phase is the last phase of the software development life cycle in which the software product is delivered to its end-user, who further assesses its
performance and revert back with the feedback if anything is required or missing as per the formulated evaluation.
1. Scalability
2. Reusability
3. Reliability
4. Usability
Answer: b) Reusability
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice. What is the purpose of static perspective?
1. It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the process.
2. It displays all the enacted process activities.
3. It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time.
4. All of the above.
Explanation: None.
26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software engineering?
1. Software Evolution
2. Software Verification
3. Software Testing & Validation
4. Software designing
Explanation: Software verification is mainly considered for implementing and testing activities.
27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model.
I. Manufacture
II. Maintain
III. Test
IV. Install
V. Design
VI. Specification
1. 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
2. 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5
3. 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
4. 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4
Answer: a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
Explanation: None.
1. Linear Development
2. Incremental Development
3. Iterative Development
4. Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Explanation: In agile software development, the software is usually developed in increments with the customer specifying necessary requirements in each increment. Here the main
aim of a developer is to meet customer satisfaction at the earliest by providing a valuable software product. It is known as iterative because it chooses to work on one particular
increment and make the improvement in other iteration.
29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process?
Explanation: In software engineering, a plan-driven approach is based on several development stages that result in the output at each of these stages, which are already planned in
advance.
30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development?
Explanation: Testing can never be avoided as it plays a significant role in the software development life cycle.
31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software Development (ASD)?
Explanation: An Adaptive Software Development approach is an empirical process control model, which is based on observations. It continuously adjusts the design of the solution and
the process involved to create the solution based on observation throughout the project.
32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior.
1. Object Model
2. Context Model
3. Behavioral Model
4. Data Model
Explanation: To represent the system's dynamic behavior, Behavioral models are used. The behavioral model is modeled from the perspective of the system's processed data or the
events that stimulate responses from a system.
33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be transmuted into a working/executable code.
1. True
2. False
Answer: b) False
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is a software development approach that represents the system as a set model, which can be easily altered into an executable code.
34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral model.
1. Diagonal, Perpendicular
2. Perpendicular, Radial
3. Angular, diagonal
4. Radial, Angular
35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems?
1. Reengineering
2. Forward engineering
3. Reverse engineering
4. Reverse engineering and Reengineering
Explanation: The process involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems relies on Reverse engineering and Reengineering.
36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged as?
1. System failure
2. Human error or mistake
3. System error
4. System fault
Explanation: None.
37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a problem?
1. An Algorithm
2. A Plan
3. A List
4. Sequential Structure
Answer: a) An Algorithm
Explanation: An algorithm is a precise step-by-step technique that takes an input instance (of the given problem) as input(s) and produces output for the problem instance.
38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?
1. Quality
2. Complexity
3. Efficiency
4. Accuracy
Answer: a) Quality
Explanation: The quality of a functional software functional depicts how well it can conform with or adapts to a given design based on functional requirements or specifications.
Explanation: None.
40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).
Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
1. Data Flow
2. Data Process
3. Data Stores
4. None of the above
Explanation: In the business information system, the data flow diagram is used to epitomize the flow of the data.
42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify?
1. Logical File
2. Physical File
3. Data Structure
4. All of the above
Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or physical file on the disk or vice versa.
1. Effort
2. Cost
3. Efficiency
4. All of the above
Answer: c) Efficiency
Answer: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks.
Explanation: None.
Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
Explanation: A project metric refers to a quantifiable measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process owns a certain trait.
46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics data.
Explanation: A control chart is a method used to keep track of the variability of traits of interest.
47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost?
Explanation: Estimation cost works out on assessing the amount of effort required to complete each activity, followed by calculating the total cost of activities.
48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
1. Change management
2. System management
3. Internship management
4. Version management
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record, and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how
to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software functions, which is known as
1. Planning process
2. Decomposition
3. Association
4. All of the mentioned
Answer: b) Decomposition
Explanation: None.
50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort estimation?
1. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
2. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates.
3. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
4. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
Answer: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
Explanation: None.
51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth?
Explanation: In computer software, the estimation model uses empirically derived formulas for guessing the effort as a function of LOC or FP.
52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost?
1. Parkinson's Law
2. Expert judgment
3. Algorithmic cost modeling
4. Estimation by analogy
Explanation: The algorithmic cost modeling utilizes the basic regression formula with such parameters that have been derived from the data of a historical project and current as well as
characteristics of a future project.
54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing reusable components, scripts, and database programs?
55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP?
1. COCOMO
2. FP-based estimation
3. Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation
4. Process-based estimation
Hide Answer Workspace
Explanation: Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation is used to calculate the effort by utilizing the empirically derived formulas.
56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be established. Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement?
Explanation: None.
57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software?
1. Business risks
2. Potential risks
3. Technical risks
4. Known risks
Explanation: Technical risks detect the possible design, enactment, interface, authentication, and preservation problems.
58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain the threats to any project plan?
1. Performance risk
2. Risk identification
3. Risk projection
4. Support risk
Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid them when required and control them.
1. CTRADO-172B
2. RTCADO-178B
3. RTRADO-178B
4. CTCADO-178B
Answer: b) RTCADO-178B
Explanation: RTCADO-178B is the most popular aviation standard, which has been altered to a defacto standard.
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