KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL

WORKSHEET
CLASS XII SUBJECT- PHYSICS
UNIT – 02 CHAPTER – 03 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of emf together dissipate 9 W of power.
What would be the power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same
source?
(a) 9 W (b) 1 W (c) 81 W (d) 27 W
2) Which are the correct statements given below:
A. Kirchhoff's junction rule is based on the conservation of charge
B. Current is a vector quantity.
C. Current density is a vector quantity.
D. Resistance doesn't depend on the dimension of the conductor.
E. Resistivity depends on temperature.
(a) A, D, E Only (b) B, C, D Only (c) A, C, E Only (d) A, B Only.
3) A metallic wire of resistance R and resistivity p is cut into six equal parts. Now each part is stretched
to six times its length. The new resistance and resistivity of each part will be, respectively:
(a) 6 R and 6 p (b) 36 R and 6 p (c) 6 R and p (d) R and p.
4) Nichrome wire of length 10 m is used to make a heating coil. This coil consumes power of 160W
when there is a potential difference of 40 V across it. Find the diameter of this wire. Resistivity of
Nichrome is 10-6 ohm-m.
(A) 1.128 mm (B) 0.564 mm (C) 0.10 mm (D) 1.128 x 10-4 m.
5) Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Two major types of resistors are wire bound resistors and carbon resistors.
B. Mobility is the drift velocity per unit electric field.
C. The internal resistance of dry cells is much lower than the common electrolytic cells.
D. In electrolytic liquids, electrons carry the electric current.
E. Potentiometer is unaffected by the internal resistance of the source.
(a) A, B and E Only (b) B, C, D and E Only
(c) C, D and E Only (d) D and E Only.
6) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
When a steady current flows in a metallic conductor of the non-uniform cross-section. Which of
these quantities is constant along the conductor?
A. Current B. Electric field C. Drift speed
D. Current density E. Potential gradient
(a) D Only (b) A, B and D Only (c) C and E Only (d) A Only.
7) Choose the wrong statement:
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of the cell in a closed circuit is less than its emf.
(b) Internal resistance of the cell decreases with a decrease in the temperature of the electrolyte.
(c) Terminal potential difference versus the current graph for a cell is a straight line with a negative
slope.
(d) Terminal potential difference when the cell is being charged V=E+Ir.
8) The resistance of the platinum wire of a platinum resistance thermometer at the ice point is 5ohm
and at the steam point, it is 5.23ohm. When the thermometer is inserted in a hot bath, the
resistance of the platinum wire becomes 5.795. Find the temperature of the bath.
(a) 27°C (b) 172.8°C (c) 345.65°C (d) 691.24°C.
9) A constant voltage is applied across a wire of a non-uniform area of cross-section. Which of the
followings quantity is independent of the cross-section?
(a) Drift speed
(b) Current density
 (c) Drift speed and free electron density
(d) Free electron density and the charge crossing per unit time.

10) Three resistors of resistances 2ohm, 3ohm, and 5ohm are connected in parallel and this
combination is then connected to a battery of 10 V with negligible internal resistance. The potential
difference across 3ohm resistance will be:
(a) 2V (b) 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 10 V.
11) When a current of 5 A flows through an ammeter, it gives full deflection. The resistance of the
ammeter is 20ohm. If the same ammeter is to be used for measuring a maximum current of 10 A,
then the ammeter must be connected to a resistance of:
(a) 40ohm in series (b) 40ohm in parallel
(c) 20ohm in series (d) 20ohm in parallel (e) NOTA.
12) Which of the following statements best describes the temperature dependence of resistances of Cu
and Si in the temperature range 27° to 127°C?
(a) Linear decrease for both Cu and Si
(b) Linear increase for both Cu and Si
(c) Linear decrease for Cu and exponential increase for Si
(d) Linear increase for Cu and exponential decrease for Si.
13) Which of the following options is incorrect?
(a) Alloys of metals usually have greater conductivity than that of their constituent metals.
(b) Ohm's law is universally applicable for all conducting elements.
(c) The resistivity of the typical insulator is greater than that of metal by a factor of the order 102
(d) The drift velocity will be changed when a steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-
uniform cross-section.
14) Which of the following statements are correct?
A. The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with increasing temperature,
B. The potentiometer is unaffected by the internal resistance of the source.
C. In ionic crystals and electrolytic liquids electrons carry the electric current.
D. Ohm's law fails if V depends on I non-linearly.
E. Kirchhoff's rules are used for the analysis of electric circuits.
(a) B, C, and E only (b) A, B, D, and E only
(c) C, D, and E only (d) A, C, and D only.
15) The number of electrons flowing through a conductor per second is 3.3 x 10 19. The current flowing
through the conductor is
a) 2A b) 3.4A c) 4.8A d) 5.3A
16) A current of 0.8A flows in a conductor of 40ohm for 1 minute. The heat produced in the conductor
will be
a) 1445J b) 1356J c) 1569J d) 1640J.

Short Answer Type Question

17) Define the term resistivity of a conductor. Give its SI unit. Show that the resistance of a conductor is
given by R = 𝑚𝑙/𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏𝐴 where the symbols have their usual meanings.
18) Use Kirchhoff’s rule to obtain the balance condition in Wheatstone Bridge.
19) What do you mean by a series combination of cells? Two cells of different EMFs and internal
resistances are connected in series. Find expressions for the equivalent emf and equivalent internal
resistance of the combination.
20) A 10 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a 200 V battery and a resistance
of 38 ohms. Find the value of the current in the circuit.
21) A wire of 10-ohm resistance is stretched to thrice its original length. What will be its new resistivity
and new resistance.
 22) Derive the relation between electric current and drift velocity. Hence deduce Ohm’s law.
23) A copper wire has a resistance of 10 ohm and an area of cross-section 1 mm2. A potential difference
of 10 V exists across the wire. Calculate the drift speed of electrons if the number of electrons per
cubic meter in copper is 8 X 1028 electrons.
24) What is the internal resistance of a cell? On what factors does it depend?
25) For driving a current of 3 A for 5 minutes in an electric circuit, 900 J of work is to be done. Find the
emf of the source in the circuit.

Long Answer Type Question

26) (a) Define the term drift velocity and relaxation time, giving their physical significance
(b) A conductor of length L is connected to a DC source of emf E. If this conductor is replaced by
another conductor of the same material and the same area of cross-section but of length 5L,
how will the drift velocity change?
27) (a) Define the term conductivity of a metallic wire. Write its SI unit.
(b) Using the concept of free electrons in a conductor, derive the expression for the conductivity of
a wire in terms of number density and relaxation time. Hence obtain the relation between
current density and the applied field E.
28) (a) Derive an expression for the drift velocity of electrons in a conductor. Hence deduce Ohm’s law.
(b) A wire whose cross-sectional area is increasing linearly from its one end to the other, is
connected across a battery of V volt. Which of the following quantities remains constant in the
wire?
(i) Drift speed (ii) current density
(ii) Electric current (iv) electric field
29) Two cells of emf E1 and E2 and internal resistance r1 and r2 are connected in parallel with their
terminals of the same polarity connected together. Obtain an expression for the equivalent emf of
the combination.
30) If R1 = 2Ω, R2 = 4Ω, R3 = 6Ω, determine the electric current flows in the circuit below.
 Kanha Makhan Group of Schools
CLASS-12
Chapter- Solution Subject-
Chemistry Worksheet-1

Multiple Choice questions:-

1. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is proportional to the ratio of number of
(a) solute molecules to solvent molecules
(b) solvent molecules to solute molecules
(c) solute molecules to the total number of molecules in solution
(d) solvent molecules to the total number of molecules in solution
2. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved in
the process is
(a) lowering in vapour pressure of snow
(b) depression in freezing point of snow
(c) melting of ice due to increase in temperature by putting salt
(d) increase in freezing point of snow
3. The osmotic pressure of a solution can be increased by
(a) increasing the volume (b) increasing the number of solute molecules
(c) decreasing the temperature (d) removing semipermeable membrane
4. Low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of people living at high altitude is due to _.
(a) low temperature (b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) high atmospheric pressure (d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
5. For carrying reverse osmosis for desalination of water the material used for making
semipermeable membrane is
(a) potassium nitrate (b) parchment membrane
(c) cellulose acetate (d) cell membrane
6. Vapour pressure of a pure liquid X is 2 atm at 300 K. It is lowered to 1 atm on dissolving 1 g of Y
in 20 g of liquid X. If molar mass of X is 200, what is the molar mass of Y?
(a) 20 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 200
7. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour
pressure?
(a) Mole fraction (b) Parts per million
(c) Mass percentage (d) Molality
8. A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in a
(a) hypotonic solution (b) hypertonic solution
(c) isotonic solution (d) pure water
9. When a solute is present in trace quantities the following expression is used
(a) Gram per million (b) Milligram percent
(c) Microgram percent (d) Parts per million
10. . 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q are mixed, what will be their total vapour pressure in the solution
if their partial vapour pressures are 80 and 60 torr respectively?
(a) 80 torr (b) 140 torr
(c) 72 torr (d) 70 torr
Assertion -Reason based questions:-
1. Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.1. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
2. Assertion : If one component of a solution obeys Raoult’s law over a certain range of composition, the other
component will not obey Henry’s law in that range.
Reason : Raoult’s law is a special case of Henry’s law.
3. Assertion : When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases.
Reason : When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent elevation in boiling point is observed.
4. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.
Short Answer questions:- (2 Marks)
1. What is meant by ‘reverse osmosis’?
2. A 1.00 molal aqueous solution of trichloroacetic acid (CCl3COOH) is heated to its boiling point. The
solution has the boiling point of 100.18°C. Determine the van’t Hoff factor for trichloroacetic acid. (Kb for
water = 0.512 K kg mol-1)
3. Calculate the mass of compound (molar mass = 256 g mol-1) to be dissolved in 75 g of benzene to lower its
freezing point by 0.48 K (Kf = 5.12 K kg mol-1).
4. Differentiate between molality and molarity of a solution. What is the effect of change in temperature of a
solution on its molality and molarity?
5. Define the terms, ‘osmosis’ and ‘osmotic pressure’.
What is the advantage of using osmotic pressure as compared to other colligative properties for the
determination of molar masses of solutes in solutions?
6. Explain why aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water rather than in warm water.
7. An aqueous solution of sodium chloride freezes below 273 K. Explain the lowering in freezing points of
water with the help of a suitable diagram?
8. State Raoult’s law for the solution containing volatile components. What is the similarity between Raoult’s
law and Henry’s law?
Short Answer questions:- (3 Marks)
1. 45 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 600 g of water. Calculate
(i) the freezing point depression and
(ii) the freezing point of the solution
(Given : Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
2. 100 mg of a protein is dissolved in just enough water to make 10.0 mL of solution. If this solution has
an osmotic pressure of 13.3 mm Hg at 25°C, what is the molar mass of the protein?
(R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1 and 760 mm Hg = 1 atm.)
3. A solution prepared by dissolving 1.25 g of oil of winter green (methyl salicylate) in 99.0 g of benzene
has a boiling point of 80.31°C. Determine the molar mass of this compound. (B.P. of pure benzene =
80.10°C and Kb for benzene = 2.53°C kg mol-1)
4. 15 g of an unknown molecular substance was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution freezes
at -0.34° C. What is the molar mass of the substance?
Long Answer questions:- (5 Marks)
1. (a) Define the terms osmosis and osmotic pressure. Is the osmotic pressure of a solution a colligative
property? Explain.
(b) Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by adding 15.00 g of NaCl to 250.0 g of water.
(Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol-1, Molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g)
2. (a) When 2.56 g of sulphur was dissolved in 100 g of CS2, the freezing point lowered by 0.383 K.
Calculate the formula of sulphur (Sx).
(Kf for CS2 = 3.83 K kg mol-1, Atomic mass of Sulphur = 32 g mol-1)
(b) Blood cells are isotonic with 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens if we place blood cells
in a solution containing
(i) 1.2% sodium chloride solution?
(ii) 0.4% sodium chloride solution?
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL
CLASS XII SUBJECT- PHYSICS
UNIT – 01 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS WORKSHEET
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 8 x 10-10C. What is the number of
electrons transferred?
(a) 2 x 1010; polythene to wool (b) 5 x 109; polythene to wool
10
(d)2x 10 ; wool to polythene (c) 5 x 109; wool to polythene
2. A positively charged glass rod attracts an object. The object must be
(a) negatively charged (c) either negatively charged or neutral
(b) Neutral (d) a magnet
3. The number of electrons in one coulomb of electric charge is:
(a) 6.25x10-18 (b) 6.25x1018 (c) 1.6x10-19 (d) 1.6x1019
4. Two point charges +4 uC and -2 uC are placed at a certain distance in air. They experience an
attractive force F. If they are brought in contact with each other and then separated to the same distance, the
new repulsive force between them will be
(a) 8F (b) 4F (c)F/8 (d)F/4
5. Which of the following is not a property of charges?
(a) Quantisation (b) Additive
(c) Scalar (d) affected by frames of reference
6. Charged bodies are considered as point charges if the linear size of the charged bodies is
(a) Much smaller than the separation between them (b) Greater than the separation between them
(c) Equal to the separation between them (d) Independent of separation between them
7. The magnitude of the electric force exerted by a proton on an electron in hydrogen atom is (Given the distance
of separation between charges, 1A0)
(a) 2.3 x 10-10 N (b) 2.3 x 10-8N (c)2.3x 10-9N (d)2.3 x 10-7N
8. Magnitude of electric field due to a point charge + Q experienced by a test charge q at a distance r from point
charge +Q is equal to:
(a) Magnitude of electric force experienced by the point charge/Q
(b) Magnitude of electric force experienced by the test charge/q
(c) Magnitude of the repulsive force between the point charge and the test charge
(d) Magnitude of electric force experienced by point charge Q multiplied by the magnitude of charge
on the test charge
9. The magnitude of the electric field due to a point charge object at a distance of 4.0 m is 9 N/C. From the same
charged object, the electric field of magnitude, 16 N/C will be at a distance of
(a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3 m (d) 6 m
10. An isolated point charge particle produces an electric field E at a point 3 m away from it. The
distance of the point at which the field is E/4 will be
(a) 2 m (b) 3 m (c) 4 m (d) 6 m
11. Select the most appropriate option from those given below each question :
If a positive charge is displaced against the electric field in which it was situated, then
(a) work will be done by the electric field on the charge.
(b) the intensity of the electric field decreases.
(c) energy of the system will decrease.
(d) energy will be provided by external source displacing the charge.
12. The point charges 5 x 10-11 C and - 5 x 10-11 C are placed along x-axis at x = 3 cm and x =-3 cm
respectively. What will be the electric field intensity at a point (0, 4) cm?
(a) 2.16 x 10-5 N/C (b) 2.16 x 102 N/C (c) 2.16 x 10-2 N/C (d) Zero
13. Statement I: Speed of a negatively charged particle decreases while moving in the direction of an electric field.
Statement II: A positively charged particle moving in the direction of an electric field experience
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true (b) Both statement I and statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false (d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
14. Two point charges qa = 3uC and qb =-3uC are located 2m apart in vacuum. The electric field at midpoint of the
line joining the two charges is
(a) 5.4 x 104 N/C (b) 1.35 x 104 N/C (c) 2.7 x 104 N/C (d) Zero
15. A point charge +q, is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting plane. The field at a point P on the other
side of the plane is
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.
 (b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane.
(c) directed radially away from the point charge.
(d) directed radially towards the point charge.
16. If +σ and -σ are the uniform surface charge densities of two parallel infinite thin plane sheets, then the net
electric field at the mid-point of the two sheets will be given by
σ σ σ
a) 2εo b) – εo c) εo d) Zero
17. Gauss theorem states that ∮ ⃗⃗⃗ E. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ds = 0. It means that
a) E is zero on the surface b) E is perpendicular to the surface
c) The total flux through the closed surface is zero d) The flux is only going out of the surface
18. Electric field at the surface, of a conducting shell of radius r is measured as X. Electric field at a distance 3r from
the centre of the shell is
a) X/3 b) X/6 c) X/9 d) X
19. Three point charges 4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length l as shown. The net force on charge q is
zero when value of q is –
a) –Q b) -2Q c) -Q/2 d) NOTA.
20. The electric flux through the surface

a) In fig. (iv) is the largest. b) In fig. (iii) is the least.

c) In fig. (ii) is same as fig.(iii)but is smaller than fig.(iv) d) Is the same for all the figures
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
21. Write Coulomb’s law in vector form.
22. Explain why two electric field lines can’t intersect each other.
23. Draw the pattern of field lines due to a positive and a negative charge.
24. Draw the pattern of the field lines around a system of two equal positive charges separated by a small distance.
25. An arbitrary surface encloses a dipole. What is the electric flux through this surface?
26. Derive an expression for the intensity of an electric field due to a point charge.
27. Derive an expression for the torque on an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field. Find the angle at
which torque is (i) maximum, (ii)minimum.
28. Define electric flux and state Gauss's theorem.
29. Derive an expression for an electric field due to a system of charges by the superposition principle.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
30. Two point charges q1 = 1 x 10-6 C and q2 = 4 x 10-6 are placed 2 m apart in air. At what distance from q1 along
the line joining the two charges, will the net electric field be zero?
31. Three identical positive charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle with side length a. What is
the net force acting on any one charge due to the other two?
32. A charge of 17.7 X 10-4 C is distributed uniformly over a large sheet of area 200 m2. Calculate the electric field
intensity at a distance of 20 cm from it in the air.
33. Two point charges of 2 x 10-7 C and 1 x 10-7 C are 1 cm apart. What is the magnitude of the field produced by
either charge at the site of the other?
34. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges of magnitude 1/3 X 10-7 C, separated by 2 cm. The dipole is
placed in an external field of 3 X 107 N/C. What maximum torque does the electric field exert on the dipole?
35. The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 µC due to another small sphere of charge -0.8 µC in air is
0.2 N. What is the distance between two spheres?
36. Use Gauss' law to obtain an expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long thin straight wire with
uniform linear charge density 𝜆.
ii. An infinitely long positively charged straight wire has a linear charge density 𝜆. An electron is revolving in a
circle with a constant speed v such that the wire passes through the centre,
and is perpendicular to the plane, of the circle. Find the kinetic energy of the electron in terms of magnitudes of
its charge and linear charge density 𝜆 on the wire.
iii. Draw a graph of kinetic energy as a function of linear charge density.
37. Use Gauss’s theorem to find the electric field due to a uniformly charged infinitely large plane thin sheet with
surface charge density σ.
(b) An infinitely large thin plane sheet has a uniform surface charge density + σ. Obtain the expression for the
amount of work done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point, distance r, in front the charged plane
sheet.
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL
CLASS-XII BIOLOGY
WORKSHEET 2
CHAPTER-HUMAN REPRODUCTION

Q1 The human testes are located outside the abdominal cavity. Give reason.
Q2 Write the location and function of sertoli cells in humans.
Q3 Mention the location and function of Leydig cells in humans.
Q4 Mention the difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Q5 List the changes that the primary oocyte undergoes in the tertiary follicular stage in thehuman ovary.
Q6 Identify the figure given below and the labeled part ‘A’
Q7 Name the embryonic stage that gets implanted in the uterine wall of a human female.
Q8 What stimulate pituitary to release the hormone responsible for parturition ? Name thehormone.
Q9 Explain the function of umbellical code.
Q10 How is the entry of only one sperm and not many ensured into an ovum duringfertilization in
humans?
Q11 Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of human. Label the following cells in the
seminiferous tubule :
a) Cells that divide by mitosis to increase their number
b) Cells that undergo meiosis-1
c) Cells that undergo meiosis-2
d) Cells that help in the process of spermiogenesis.
Q12 Study the given figure :
i) Pick out and name the cells that undergo spermiogenesis
ii) Name ‘a’ and ‘b’ cells. What is the difference between them with reference to thenumber
of chromosomes
iii) Pick out and name the motile cells.
iv) What is ‘f’ cell ? Mention its function.
v) Name the structure of which the given diagram is labeled.
Q13 Spermatogenesis in human male is a hormone regulated [Link].
Q14 Draw a diagram of human microscopic sperm. Label the following parts and write their
functions:
a) Structure that help the sperm to enter the ovum
b) Structure caring genetic material
c) Structure that provide motility.
Q15 Mention the fate of corpus luteum and its effect on the uterus in the absence of
fertilization of ovum in human female.
Q16 Differentiate between menarche and menopause stage.
Q17 Draw a diagram of the structure of a human ovum surrounded by corona radiate.
Label the following parts: a) ovum b) plasma membrane c) zona pellucid
Q18 Draw a sectional view of human ovary and label :
a) Primary follicle b) Graffian follicle
c) Corpus luteum. Mention the role of pituitary hormone on these structures.
Q19 Draw the following diagrams related to human reproduction and label them:
a) zygoteafter the first cleavage division b) Morula stage c) blastocyst stage (sectional view)
Q20 Study the figure and answer the following questions :
a) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represent
b) Identify ‘a’ in the figure and mention its function
c) Mention the fate of inner cell mass after implantation
d) Where are stem cells located in this embryo?
Q21 A sperm has just fertilized a human egg in the fallopian tube. Trace the events that thefertilized egg
undergo up to the implantation of the blastocyst in the uterus.

Q22 Mention the target cells of lutenising hormone in human males and female. Explain theeffect and the
changes which the hormone induce in each case.
Q23 Name the hormones produced only during pregnancy in human female. Mention theirsource
organ.
Q24 Name the source of gonadotropin in human female . Explain the change brought about inthe
ovary by these hormones during menstrual cycle.
Q25 Where do the signal for parturition originate from in humans? Why is it important to feedthe new
born babies on colostrums?
Q26 Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans andlabel
the parts:
i) Where the secondary oocyte develop
ii) Which help in collection of ovum after ovulation
iii) Where fertilization occur
iv) Where implantation of embryo occurs.
b) Explain the role of pituitary and ovarian hormone in menstrual cycle in human female.Q27
Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of human seminiferous tubule, label sertoli cell,
primary spermatocyte , spermatogonium, and spermatozoa.
b) Explain the hormonal regulation of the process of spermatogenesis in humans.
Q28 Describe the events of spermatogenesis with the help of schematic representation. Writetwo
differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Q29 Study the illustration given and answer the questions that follow :
i) Identify ‘a’
ii) Name and state the function of ‘c’
iii) Identify ‘d’
iv) Explain the role of hormone in the formation and release of ‘a’
v) Draw the diagram of ‘b’ separately and label the parts :
That helps its entry into ‘a’
That carry genetic material
That help in its movement
Q30 Explain the different stages of oogenesis in human starting from foetal life till its completion.
When and where in the body is oogenesis completed? How do gonadotropinsinfluence this
development process.
Q31 Describe the post zygotic events leading to implantation and placenta formation in humans
Mention any two functions of placenta.
Q32 Study the flow chart . Name the hormones involved at each stage . Explain their functions
Q33 Study the graph given below and answer the questions that follow:
a) Name the hormone ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
 b) Identify the ovarian phase during menstrual cycle:
i) 5th day to 12th day of cycle
ii) 14th day of cycle
iii) 16th to 25th day of the cycle
Explain the ovarian events (i), (ii) and ( iii) under the influence of hormone ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Q34 The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (a-i) in a human female:
i) Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of oogenesis it
represents
ii) Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the above
mentioned event.
iii) Explain the changes that occur in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.
iv) Write the differences between ‘c’ and ‘h’.
v) Draw a labeled sketch of the structure of a human ovum prior to fertilization.
Q35 Describe the process of parturition in humans.
Q36 During the reproductive cycle of human female , when , where and how does a placenta develop ?
What is the function of placenta during pregnancy and embryo development?
Q37 Name the stage of human embryo at which it gets implanted. Explain the process of
implantation.
Q38 Describe the changes that occur in ovaries and uterus in human female during thereproductive cycle.
Q39 Briefly explain the events of fertilization and implantation in an adult human female.
Comment on the role of placenta as an endocrine gland.
Q40 Why is breast feeding recommended during the initial period of n infant’s growth? Give
reasons.
Q41 Explain the importance of syngamy and meiosis in a sexual life cycle of an organisms.
Q42 Draw a diagram of a mature human sperm. Label any three parts and write their functions.
Q43 Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breastfeeding is the best for their
newborn babies. Do you agree? Give reason in support of your answer.
Q44 Explain menstrual cycle in human females. How can the scientific understanding of the
menstrual cycle of human females help as a contraceptive measures?
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
Class-12 Maths
Chapter-Relation And Function,
Inverse Trigonometric Function
Worksheet 1

Multiple Choice Questions:-

1. Let A = {3, 5}. Then number of reflexive relations on A is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 8
𝝅 𝟏
2. sin [ + sin-1( ) ] is equal to
𝟑 𝟐

(a) 1 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14

𝟗𝝅
3. The principal value of tan-1(tan ) is
𝟖

(a) (b)3π/8 (c) − (d) −3π/8

4. Let X = {x2 : x ∈ N} and the function f : N → X is defined by f(x) = x2, x ∈ N. Then this function
is
(a) injective only
(b) not bijective
(c) surjective only
(d) bijective
5. A function f : R → R defined by f(x) = 2 + x2 is
(a) not one-one
(b) one-one
(c) not onto
(d) neither one-one nor onto
6. 𝐑: 𝐍 → 𝐍, R={(a,b) : a=b-2,b > 6 } choose
(a) (2, 4) ∈ 𝑅 (b) (3, 8) ∈ 𝑅 (c) (6, 8) ∈ 𝑅 (d) (8, 7) ∈ 𝑅
7. F:N→N, F(x)=x2 the given function
(a) Only injective (b) Only surjective
(c) bijective (d) Manyone- onto
8. F:N→N, f(x) = x then pre image of 4 is\
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) N (d) None of these.
9. The principal value of tan-1(tan 3π/5) is
(a) 2π/5 (b) -2π/5 (c) 3π/5 (d) -3π/5
–1
10. The domain of sin (2x) is
(a) [0, 1] (b) [– 1, 1] (c) [-1/2, 1/2] (d) [–2, 2]
Short Answer Type:-
11. Find the value of
1 1
𝑡𝑎𝑛 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 − + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 −
2 2
12. Prove:-
3𝜋
𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛 3=
4
13. find:-
(i) sin(𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥) (ii) cos(𝑐𝑜𝑡 𝑥)

14. Draw the graph of all inverse trigonometric function.

15. A relation R is defined from set A to B [Link] element present in Set A= {1,2,3} and set B={4,5} find
the total no. of possible relation.
16. Prove that Greatest integer function 𝑓(x) =[x] is neither one-one nor onto.
17. Find the inverse of the given f(x) = 8x+3 F: R→R
18. Find composition of given Function f(x) =3x, g(x) in |x+4| then gof.
19. The value of tan-1 √3 – sec-1(–2) is equal to:
20. Prove that sin-1 (3/5) – sin-1 (8/17) = cos-1 (84/85).

Long Answer Type Question:-

21. A relation R Is defined on a set of real numbers such that R={ (x,y): x.y is an irrational no.} check
wheathe the R is reflexive symmetric transitive or not
22. A function f : [-4, 4] → [0, 4] is given by f (x) = √16 − x . Show that f is an onto function but not a
one-one function. Further, find all possible values of ‘a’ for which f (a) =√7.
23. Check whether the relation R in R (real no's) define by 𝑅 = (𝑎, 𝑏): 𝑎 ≤ 𝑏 is reflexive, symmetric or
transitive.
24. Solve
√ √
𝑡𝑎𝑛 = + Cos-1x52
√ √

25. Simplify :( i) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜋

4 < 𝑥 < 𝜋 4,

(ii) 𝑡𝑎𝑛
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
CLASS-XII
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY
Worksheet – 2
Electrochemistry and Chemical Kinetics
Multiple choice questions:
1. Which of the following reaction is used to make fuel cell?

2. The emf of the cell: Ni /

2+ 3+ 2+
Ni (1.0 M) // Au (1.0 M) / Au (E° = -0.25 V for Ni /Ni; E° =
1.5 V for Au3+/Au) is:
(a) 1.25 V (b) -1.25 V (c) 1.75 V (d) 2.0 V
3. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of?
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloro acetic acid
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoro acetic acid
4. If 96500 Coulomb electricity is passed through CuSO4 solution, it will liberate:
(a) 63.5 gm. of Cu (b) 31.67 gm of Cu
(c) 96500gm of Cu (d) 100 gm. of Cu
5. Which of the following is a secondary cell?
(a) Leclanche cell (b) Lead storage battery
(c) Concentration cell (d) All of these
6. In a dry cell, which of the following is the electrolyte?
(a) Potassium hydroxide (b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Ammonium chloride (d) Manganese dioxide
7. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration
(a) 0.004 M (b) 0.002 M (c) 0.005 M (d) 0.001 M
8. When water is added to an aqueous solution of an electrolyte, what is the change in?
Specific conductivity of the electrolyte?
(a) Conductivity decreases (b) Conductivity increases
(c) Conductivity remain same (d) Conductivity does not depend on number of ions
9. Faraday’s second law of electrolysis is related to:
(a) Atomic number of cation (b) Speed of cation
(c) Speed of anion (d) Equivalent weight of electrolyte
10. A catalyst alters which of the following in a chemical reaction?
(a)Entropy (b) Enthalpy
(c) Internal energy (d) Activation energy
11. A substance ‘A’ decomposes by a first-order reaction starting initially with [A] = 2.00M and after
200min, [A] becomes 0.15M. For this reaction t 1/2 is
(a) 53.72 min (b) 50.49 min
(c) 48.45 min (d) 46.45 min
12. In the reaction 2A + B → A2B, if the concentration of A is doubled and that of B is halved, then the rate of
the reaction will
(a) Increase 2 times (b) increase 4 times
(c) decrease 2 times (d) remain the same

Page 1 of 4
13. The rate constant of zero-order reactions has the unit
(a) s-1 (b) mol L-1 s-1
(c) L2 mol-2 s-1 (d) L mol-1 s-1
14. The reaction NO2 + CO → NO + CO2 takes place in two steps. Find the rate law.
2NO2 → NO + NO3 (k1) – slow NO3 + CO → CO2 + NO2 (k2) – fast
(a) R = k1 [NO2]3 (b) R = k2 [NO3] [CO] (c) R = k1 [NO2] (d) R = k1 [NO2]2
15. A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order kinetics. If
concentration of R is increased by four times, what will be the increase in the rate of formation of P?
(a) 9 times (b) 4 times (c) 16 times (d) 8 times
16. Half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. What percentage of the reaction will be completed in
100 min?
(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 99.9% (d) 75%
17. The activation energy in a chemical reaction is defined as
(a) The difference in energies of reactants and products
(b) The sum of energies of reactants and products
(c) The difference in energy of intermediate complex with the average energy of reactants
and products
(d) The difference in energy of intermediate complex and the average energy of reactant
18. Instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction is
(a) rate of reaction in the beginning (b) rate of reaction at the end
(c) rate of reaction at a given instant (d) rate of reaction between two specific
time intervals
19. Rate of which reaction increases with temperature?
(a) Exothermic reaction (b) Endothermic reaction
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of the above
Assertion- Reason based questions:
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1. Assertion: The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one meter long and its area of cross
section is one square meter.
Reason: The SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre (m).
2. Assertion: On increasing dilution, the specific conductance keeps on increasing.
Reason: On increasing dilution, degree of ionisation of weak electrolyte increases and molality of ions also
increases.
3. Assertion: Conductivity decreases with dilution.
Reason: The number of ions per unit volume decreases on dilution
4. Assertion: The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one meter long and its area of cross-
section is one square meter.
Reason: The SI units of resistivity is ohm meter (m)
5. Assertion: Molecularity greater than three is not observed.
Reason: The overall molecularity of complex reaction is equal to molecularity of the slowest step
6. Assertion: The order of reaction can be zero or fractional.
Reason: The order of a reaction cannot be determined from a balanced chemical reaction.
Page 2 of 4
7. Assertion: The order and molecularity of a reaction are always the same.
Reason: Order is determined experimentally whereas molecularity by a balanced elementary reaction.
8. Assertion: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction has the same unit as the rate of a reaction.
Reason: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction does not depend upon the concentration of the reactant.

9. Assertion: For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10∘ the rate constant is nearly doubled.
Reason: At t + 10, the fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater than activation energy gets
doubled
Short- Answer questions:
1. What is meant by ‘limiting molar conductivity’?
2. Express the relation between conductivity and molar conductivity of a solution held in a cell?
3. The chemistry of corrosion of iron is essentially an electrochemical phenomenon. Explain the reactions
occurring during the corrosion of iron in the atmosphere.
4. Determine the values of equilibrium constant (Kc) and ΔG° for the following reaction:
Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Ni2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s),E° = 1.05 V (1F = 96500 C mol-1)
5. Express the relation among cell constant, resistance of the solution in the cell and conductivity of the
solution. How is molar conductivity of a solution related to its conductivity?
6. The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity?
7. What is the effect of catalyst on?
(i) Gibbs energy (ΔG) and (ii) activation energy of a reaction
8. Given that the standard electrode potentials (E°) of metals are: K+/K = -2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V, Cu2+/Cu =
0.34 V, Mg2+/Mg = -2.37 V, Cr3+/Cr = -0.74 V, Fe2+/Fe = -0.44 V. Arrange these metals in increasing order of
their reducing power?
9. The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M solution of an electrolyte is found to be 138.9 S cm2 mol-1. Calculate the
conductivity of this solution.
10. The standard electrode potential (E°) for Daniel cell is +1.1 V. Calculate the ΔG° for the reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s) (1 F = 96500 C mol-1).
11. Define the following:
(i) Order of a reaction (ii) Activation energy of a reaction
12. A reaction is of first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B. How is the rate of this reaction
affected when
(i) the concentration of B alone is increased to three times
(ii) the concentrations of A as well as B are doubled?
13. Distinguish between ‘rate expression’ and ‘rate constant’ of a reaction?
14. The thermal decomposition of HCO2H is a first order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10-3 s-1 at a
certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three-fourths of initial quantity of HCO2 H to
decompose. (log 0.25 = -0.6021)
15. (a) For a reaction A + B → P, the rate law is given by, r = k [A]1/2 [B][Link] is the order of this reaction?
(b) A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. Find the half-life of the reaction
Short- Answer questions: (3 Marks)
1. The cell in which the following reaction Occurs:
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I– (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 (s) has E0cell = 0.236V at 298K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy
and the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.
(Antilog of 6.5 = 3.162 × 106; of 8.0 = 10 × 108; of 8.5 = 3.162 × 108)
2. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K: Fe(s) | Fe2+ (0.001 M) || H+ (1M) | H2(g) (1 bar), Pt(s)
(Given E°cell = +0.44V)

Page 3 of 4
3. (a) What are fuel cells? Explain the electrode reactions involved in the working of H 2 – O2 fuel cell.
(b) Represent the galvanic cell in which the reaction
Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s) takes place
4. (a) State and explain Kohlrausch law.
(b) How much electricity in terms of Faradays is required to produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl 2?
5. (a) Calculate ΔrG0 for the reaction
Mg (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + Cu (s) (Given: E0cell = + 2.71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol-1)
(b) Name the type of cell which was used in Apollo space programme for providing
electrical power.
6. Calculate emf of the following cell at 25°C:
Fe | Fe2+ (0.001 M) || H+ (0.01 M) | H2 (g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)E0 (Fe2+ | Fe) = -0.44 V E0(H+ | H2) = 0.00V
7. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 0.0051 min-1. If we begin with 0.10 M concentration of the
reactant, what concentration of reactant will remain in solution after 3 hours?
8. (a) A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.
(i) Write differential rate equation.
(ii) How is rate affected when concentration of B is tripled?
(iii) How is rate affected when concentration of both A and B is doubled?
(b) What is molecularity of a reaction?
9. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60s-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concentration of the reactant to its l/10th value?
Long- Answer questions:
1. (a) Define molar conductivity of a substance and describe how for weak and strong electrolytes, molar
conductivity changes with concentration of solute. How is such change explained?
(b) A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half cells:
Ag+ (0.001 M) | Ag and Cu2+ (0.10 M) | Cu .What would be the voltage of this cell? (E0cell = 0.46 V)
2. (a) What type of a cell is the lead storage battery? Write the anode and the cathode reactions and the
overall reaction occurring in a lead storage battery while operating.
(b) A voltaic cell is set up at 25 °C with the half-cells, Al | Al3+ (0.001 M) and Ni | Ni2+ (0.50 M). Write the
equation for the reaction that occurs when the cell generates an electric current and determine the cell
potential.
(Given: E∘Ni2+/Ni=−0.25V,E∘Al3+/Al=−1.66V)
3. (a) State Faraday’s first law of electrolysis. How much charge in terms of Faraday is required for the
reduction of 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu.?
(b) Calculate emf of the following cell at 298 K: Mg(s) | Mg2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (0.01) | Cu (s)
[Given E0cell = +2.71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol-1]
4. (a) What are the two classifications of batteries? What is the difference between them?
(b) The resistance of 0.01 M NaCl solution at 25°C is 200 Ω. The cell constant of the conductivity cell is unity.
Calculate the molar conductivity of the solution.
5. (a) For a reaction A + B → P, the rate is given by Rate = k[A] [B]2
(i) How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of B is doubled?
(ii) What is the overall order of reaction if A is present in large excess?
(b) A first order reaction takes 30 minutes for 50% completion. Calculate the time required for 90%
completion of this reaction.
6. (a) A reaction is second order in A and first order in B.
(i) Write the differential rate equation,
(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of A three times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled?
(b) A first order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate t 1/2 for this reaction. (Given log
1.428 = 0.1548)

Page 4 of 4
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
Class-12 Maths
Chapter-Matrices, Determinants
Worksheet 2

Multiple Choice Questions:-

1. If A is a square matrix such that A2 = A, then (I – A)3 + A is equal to

(a) I (b) 0 (c) I – A (d) I + A
2. If A and B are two matrices of the order 3 × m and 3 × n, respectively, and m = n, then
the order of matrix (5A – 2B) is
(a) m × 3 (b) 3 × 3 (c) m × n (d) 3 × n
1 0 0
The matrix 0 2 0 is a
0 0 4
(a) identity matrix
(b) symmetric matrix
(c) skew symmetric matrix
(d) none of these
3. If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then (AB′ –BA′) is a
(a) Skew symmetric matrix
(b) Null matrix
(c) Symmetric matrix
(d) None of these
𝟏 𝟑
4. IF A = and A2 – KA – 5I = 0, then K =
𝟑 𝟒
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) None of these
𝟐𝒙 𝟓 𝟔 −𝟐
5. If = , then find the value of x is
𝟖 𝒙 𝟕 𝟑
(a) 3 (b) ±3 (c) ±6 (d) 6
6.. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = 5, then the value of |2A′| is
(a) -10 (b) 10 (c) -40 (d) 40
–1
7. If A is an invertible matrix of order 2, then det (A ) is equal to
(a) det (A) (b) 1/det (A) (c) 1 (d) 0
8. If the points (3, -2), (x, 2), (8, 8) are collinear, then find the value of x.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
9. Using determinants, find the equation of the line joining the points (1, 2) and (3, 6).
(a) y = 2x (b) x = 3y (c) y = x (d) 4x – y = 5
10. Determinant of unit matrix is always
(i) 0 (ii) I (iii) 1 (iv) None of these

Short Answer Type Questions:-

11. Determine the value of K , If the area of triangle is 4 Square unit the vertices are : (k,0),(4,0) and (0,2).
2 −3 5
12. Aij is the cofactor of the element a of the determinant 6 0 4 then write the value of a32 . A32.
1 5 −7
13. Find the equation of line passing through point, (1,2), and (3,6) using determinant.
14. Find the inverse of the given matrix( If it is exists).
2 1 3
4 −1 0
−7 2 1
15. If A and B are invertibale matrices then prove that (AB) -1 = B-1 A-1.
16. If A and B are symmetric metrices, prove that AB-BA is a skew symmetric matrix.
3 1
17. If A = Show that A2-5A + 7I = o.
−1 2
18. Find X and Y, if
2 3 2 −2
(i) 2X + 3Y= and 3X + 2Y = .
4 0 −1 5
19. The number of all possible matrices of order 3 x3 with each entry 0 ,1 and 2
20. Construct a 3 x 4 matrix, whose elements are given by:
(i) aij = | − 3𝑖 + 𝑗|

Long Answer Type Questions:-

0 −𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑎 −𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑎
21. If A= and I is the identity matrix of order 2, show that I+A = (I-A)
𝑡𝑎𝑛 0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑎
2 −2 −4
22. Express the matrix B = −1 3 4 as the sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix.
1 −2 −3
2 −1 −1
3 2 -1
23. If A = −1 2 −1 verify that A -6A +9A -4I= O and hence find A .
1 −1 2
24. Solve the system of the following equations:

+ + =4

- + = 1
+ - =2

1 −2 1
25. Let A = −2 3 1 . verify that
1 1 5

(i) [adj A]-1 = adj (A-1) (ii) (A-1) -1= A

 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
CLASS – XII (MAY MONTH WORKSHEET)
SUBJECT - COMPUTER

FUNCTIONS IN PYTHON
Short Answer Type Questions

1. Name the built-in mathematical function/method that is used to return an absolute value of a number.
2. Find and write the output of the following python code:
def myfunc(a):
a=a+2
a=a*2
return a
print(myfunc(2))
3. What is the default return value for a function that does not return any value explicitly?
4. Name the keyword use to define function in Python.
5. Predict the output of following code snippet:
def function1(a):
a=a+‟1‟
a=a*2
function1(„Hello‟)
6. Variable defined in function referred to _________variable.
7. Name the argument type that can be skipped from a function call.
8. Positional arguments can be passed in any order in a function call. (True/False)
9. Which of the following is function header statement is correct.
a. def fun(x=1,y) b. def fun(x=1,y,c=2) c. def fun(a,y=3)
[Link] the output of following code snippet.
def printDouble(A):
print(2*A)
print(3,end=” ”)
print(printDouble(4))

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Observe the following Python code very carefully and rewrite it after removing all syntactical errors
with each correction underlined.
DEF result_even( ):
x = input(“Enter a number”)
if (x % 2 = 0) :
print (“You entered an even number”)
else:
print(“Number is odd”)

even ( )
2. Ravi a python programmer is working on a project, for some requirement, he has to define a function
with name CalculateInterest(), he defined it as:
def CalculateInterest (Principal, Rate=.06,Time): # code
But this code is not working, Can you help Ravi to identify the error in the above function and what is
the solution.
3. Predict the output of the following python code:
def guess(s):
n = len(s)
m=""
for i in range(0, n):
if (s[i] >= 'a' and s[i] <= 'm'):
m = m +s[i].upper()
elif (s[i] >= 'n' and s[i] <= 'z'):
m = m +s[i-1]
elif (s[i].isupper()):
m = m + s[i].lower()
else:
m = m +'#'
print(m)
guess("welcome2kv")

4. Find and write the output of the following Python code:

def Show(str):
m=""
for i in range(0,len(str)):
if(str[i].isupper()):
m=m+str[i].lower()
elif str[i].islower():
m=m+str[i].upper()
else:
if i%2==0:
m=m+str[i-1]
else:
m=m+"#"
print(m)
Show('HappyBirthday')

5. Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax errors. Underline each correction done
in the code:
Def func(a):
for i in (0,a):
if i%2 =0:
s=s+1
elseif i%5= =0
m=m+2
else:
n=n+i
print(s,m,n)
func(15)
Application Based Questions

1. Write a function listchange(Arr)in Python, which accepts a list Arr of numbers , the function will
replace the even number by value 10 and multiply odd number by 5 .
Sample Input Data of the list is:
a=[10,20,23,45]
listchange(a,4)
output : [10, 10, 115, 225]

2. Write a function LShift(Arr,n) in Python, which accepts a list Arr of numbers

and n is a numeric value by which all elements of the list are shifted to left.
Sample Input Data of the list
Arr= [ 10,20,30,40,12,11], n=2
Output
Arr = [30,40,12,11,10,20]

3. Write a function REP which accepts a list of integers and size of list and replaces elements having even
values with its half and elements having odd values with twice its value. eg: if the list contains
3, 4, 5, 16, 9
then the function should rearranged list as
6, 2,10,8, 18
4. Write a function which accept the two lists, and returns a list having only those elements that are
common between both the lists (without duplicates) in ascending order.
Make sure your program works on two lists of different sizes. e.g.
L1= [1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34,55,89]
L2= [20,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13]
The output should be:
[1,2,3,5,8,13]

5. Write a user defined function countwords() to accept a sentence from console and display the total
number of words present in that sentence.
For example if the sentence entered by user is:
“Living a life you can be proud of doing your best.” then the countwords() function should display the
output as:
Total number of words : 11
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
CLASS-XII (MAY MONTH WORKSHEET)
SUBJECT - ENGLISH

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-

Q1- Who is the author of The Tiger King?

A) Ramaswamy Aiyer Krishnamurthy
B) Charles Dickens
C) Kamladas
D) None

Q2- What is this plays featuring?

A) an old man and a small boy meeting in old man’s garden
B) gossip of old man
C) old man’s woes
D) brave acts of a small boy

Q3- Who is the author of Poets and Pancakes?

A) Asokamitran (1931), a Tamil writer
B) Charu Nivedita
C) Jayakanthan
D) Balakumaran

Q4- What unites Mr. Lamb and Derry?

A) their age
B) their woes
C) their life stories
D) their physical impairment

Q5- What is author’s pen name?

A) chalki
B) Balki
C) Kalki
D) None

Q6- Who has written On The Face Of It?

A) Susan Hill
B) William Sydne
C) Salman Rushdie
D) Chetan Bhagat

Q7- What does his book “My Years with Boss” talk of ?
A) his job
B) explain the nature of his boss
C) explains his environment
D) impact of movies on every aspect of life in India.
Q8- How does Mr. Lamb keep himself busy?
A) by reading books
B) by chatting with people
C) by pulling down the ripe crab apples of his garden
D) All these

1. Read the extracts and answer the questions that follow.

1.‘…..The make-up department of the Gemini Studios was in the upstairs of a building that was believed
to have been Robert Clive’s stables. A dozen other buildings in the city are said to have been his
residence. For his brief life and an even briefer stay in Madras, Robert Clive seems to have done a lot of
moving, besides fighting some impossible battles in remote corners of India and marrying a maiden in St.
Mary’s Church in Fort St. George in Madras … ”
(a) Who was Robert Clive?
a) A makeup man
b) The writer
c) The Major General who of East India Company
d) The Actor
(b) What was his connection with the Gemini Studios?
It was believed that Gemini studio is built on Robert Clive’s Stable
He is the owner of the studio
He was receiving rent of it
None of above
(c) What was his connection with Madras?
a) He was born in Madars
b) He has many buildings in his name.
c) He has conquered Madras
d) He Owns Gemini studios
(d) Where did Robert Clive fought the battles?
a) In Urban region.
b) In Remote corners
c) In. Hyderabad
d) In. Delhi
(e) Where did Robert Clive got married?
a) St. Maiden Church
b) B. St. Marry Church
c) C. St. Mary’s church
d) D. St. Michal Church

2. Read the extracts and answer the questions that follow.

His success in films overshadowed and dwarfed his literary achievements-or so his critics felt. He composed
several truly original ‘story poems’ in folk refrain and diction and also wrote a sprawling novel Thillana
Mohanambal with dozens of very deftly etched characters. He quite successfully recreated the mood and
manner of the Devadasis of the early 20th century. He was an amazing actor-he never aspired to the lead
roles-but whatever subsidiary role he played in any of the films, he performed better than the supposed main
players. He had a genuine love for anyone he came across and his house was a permanent residence for dozens
of near and far relations and acquaintances.

1 Which of these statements is NOT TRUE about Subbu?

A) His literary accomplishments stole the limelight from his films.
B) He was a gifted poet and writer and his literary works were noteworthy.
C) He was selfless in nature and was empathetic towards others.
D) He never hankered after lead roles and performed minor roles in films.
2 The word ‘sprawling’ has been used with the word ‘novel’. Pick the option with which the word
‘sprawling’ CANNOT be used.
A) metropolis
B) handwriting
C) campus
D) portrait

3 The phrase ‘deftly etched’ shows that Subbu

A) created the roles delicately.
B) was skilful in creating the characters.
C) pondered beyond necessity about the characters.
D) gave very little thought to the characters

4 Pick the option that best describes Subbu according to the extract
1. benevolent
2. powerful
3. accomplished
4. witty
5. generous
6. temperamental
A) 4, 5 & 6
B) 2, 3 & 4
C) 1,3 & 5
D) 3 ,4 & 6

5 who is the writer of the chapter? (poets and pancakes)

A. Susane hill
B. Alphonse Daudet
C. Asokamiotran
D. None of these

4. Short answer type questions. (40-50 words)

a) Who was Subbu’s enemy? Why?
b) Account for Subbu’s importance in Gemini Studios.
c) How did the hundredth tiger take its revenge on the king?
d) When and why did the Maharaja decide to get married?
e) How does Mr Lamb try to remove the baseless fears of Derry?

5. Long answer type questions.(120-150)

a) What benefits did Derry reap from his associations with Mr Lamb?
b) How did the Tiger King meet his end? What is ironical about his fate?
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
CLASS 12Th ENGLISH
THE LAST LESSON (WORKSHEET)
Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct option.
1. But he had the courage to hear every lesson to the very last. After the writing, we had a lesson in history,
and then the babies chanted their ba, be, bi, bo, bu. Down there at the back of the room old Hauser had
put on his spectacles and, holding his primer in both hands, spelled the letters with them. You could see
that he, too, was crying; his voice trembled with emotion, and it was so funny to hear him that we all
wanted to laugh and cry .
(a) Who is ‘he’ here?
(i) M. Hamel (ii) Franz (iii) Old man (iv) Soldier
(b) What did they have after the lesson in writing? -
(i) History (ii) Grammar (iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) Neither (i) nor (ii)
(c) Which of the following word is the synonym of ‘wobble’?
(i) Trembled (ii) Emotion (iii) Courage (iv) Chanted
(d) “You could see that he, too, was crying”. Who was crying?
(i) M. Hamel (ii) Franz (iii) Old Hauser (iv) Author
(e) What made Franz laugh?
(i) Leaving of his teacher (ii) Old Hauser’s spelling the letters
(iii) Prussian soldier’s drilling (iv) Encroachment of Prussian soldiers
(f) The scene in the classroom was:
(i) humorous (ii) emotional (iii) grief-stricken (iv) tragic
2. All at once the church-clock struck twelve. Then the Angelus. At the same moment the trumpets of the
Prussians, returning from drill, sounded under our windows. M. Hamel stood up, very pale, in his chair. I
never saw him look so tall.
(a) What happened when the church-clock struck twelve?
(i) M. Hamel stood up. (ii) Angelus sound could be heard.
(iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) Neither (i) nor (ii)
(b) What had the speaker never seen?
(i) That M. Hamel looks so tall (ii) That M. Hamel has put on Sunday clothes
(iii) M. Hamel’s chair (iv) None of these
(c) How was M. Hamel looking? '.
(i) Active (ii) Handsome
(iii) Weak (iv) Pale
(d) Which word from the following is the antonym of ‘radiate’?
(i) Angelus (ii) Pale (iii) Drill (iv) None of these
(e) What is Angelus?
(i) A prayer offered by Roman Catholics
(ii) A prayer offered by Germans
(iii) A prayer offered by everyone
(iv) None of these
(f) What does ‘look tall’ signify?
(i) To look to the future with worry and despair
(ii) To be mindful what the situation is going to be like in future
(iii) To look out of the window and see the tall Prussians doing drill
(iv) Symbolic of the pride M. Hamel has and feels for the language he teaches
Short Answer Questions (40-50 Words)
1. Why were some elderly persons occupying the back benches that day?
2. How did M. Hamel say farewell to his students and the people of the town?
3. Why is the order from Berlin called a thunderclap by Franz?
4. Why was M. Hamel kind to Franz even though he was late for school?
5. What shows M. Hamel’s love for the French language? -
Long Answer Questions (120-150 Words)
1. “When people are enslaved as long as they hold fast to their language, it is as if they had the key to their
prison.” justify the statement.
2. The attitude of Franz towards school as well as M. Hamel changes when he comes to know about the
takeover of his village by the Prussians. Do you agree? Discuss with I reference to the ‘The Last Lesson’.
 KANHA MAKHAN GROUP OF SCHOOLS
CLASS 12Th ENGLISH
MY MOTHER AT SIXTY SIX (Worksheet)

1 The poem is made up of

(a) twenty lines
(b) a single sentence
(c) ten stanzas
(d) five stanzas
2 Kamala Das was an
(a) Bengali
(b) Punjabi
(c) Keralite
(d) Gujarati
3 The theme of the poem is
(a) separation from friends
(b) separation from relatives
(c) fear of separation from the mother
(d) love and hatred
4 Smile and smile and smile is
(a) alliteration
(b) repetition
(c) simile
(d) metaphor
5‘Trees sprinting’ is a poetic device. It is
(a) personification
(b) alliteration
(c) repetition
(d) simile
6 Which Rhyming scheme is used in the poem?
(a) coupled rhyme
(b) monorhyme
(c) Alternate rhyme
(d) free verse
7 Quote an example of a simile used in the poem.
(a) familiar ache
(b) like that of a corpse
(c) wan and pale
(d) the merry children
8 In which languages has Kamala Das written stories and novels?
(a) English and Tamil
(b) English and Hindi
(c) English and Urdu
(d) English and Malayalam

EXTRACT BASED QUESTIONS

Read the extract given below and answer the following questions by choosing the correct option.
“....... but soon put that thought away and looked out at young trees sprinting, the merry children spilling out of
their homes .........”

(i) Which thought did the poet put away?

(a) Mother was ageing
(b) Due to age, she may die any time
(c) Will not be able to meet her again
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(ii) What do ‘sprinting trees’ signify?
(a) Running against time
(b) Time does not wait for any one
(c) Tree sprinting used as contrast to mother not moving much
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(iii) What is ‘merry children spilling’ symbolic of?
(a) Reminder of mother’s young age
(b) Youth-full of life and energy
(c) Mother-life and energy missing
(d) Used as contrast to mother’s old age
(iv) Choose the correct synonym of ‘sprinting’.
(a) Walking
(b) Relaxing
(c) Dashing fast
(d) Shooting
(v) What were the poet’s parting words?
(a) Take care Amma
(b) Get well soon, Amma
(c) Go back, Amma
(d) See you soon, Amma

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (Answer the following questions in 40-50 words.)
1 What is the central idea of the poem?
2 Bring out the contrasting images in the poem.
3 What is the poet’s familiar ache and why does it return?
4 Explain ‘face ashen like that of a corpse’.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (Answer the following questions in 120-150 words.)
1 What kinds of contrasts can you find in the poem?
2 What means did the poet employ throughout the poem to forget the pain of the poet’s expected separation
from her mother?
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL
CLASS-XII SUBJECT-PHYSICS
UNIT – 01 CHAPTER – 02 ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE WORKSHEET
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The work done in moving a 1 C charge over an equipotential surface in X-direction through a
distance of 20 cm is:
a) 1J b) Zero c) 2J d) 5J
2) A charge Q is divided into two parts, q and (Q-q). The repulsion between them is maximum when
Q:q is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
3) The separation between an electron and a proton in a hydrogen atom is 0.83 A. Find the electric
force of attraction between them.
a) 52.63 x 10-10 N. b) 23.48 x 10-09 N.
c) 33.39 x 10-09 N. d) 43.82 x 10-10 N.
4) On an equipotential surface:
a) Work done by the electric field in moving a charge is positive.
b) The electric field is perpendicular to the surface.
c) Electric field is tangential to the surface.
d) Work done by the electric field in moving a charge is negative.
5) Equipotential surfaces at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is not zero
are approximately
a) Spherical b) Planes c) Paraboloidal d) Ellipsoidal
6) A uniform electric field of 20 Vm exists in the vertically downward direction. What will be in the
electric potential as one goes up through a height of 60 cm?
a) 30V b) 33V c) 120V d) 12V.
7) Statement I: Electric potential at every point inside a uniformly charged conducting sphere is equal
to that on its surface.
Statement Il: Work done by an electrostatic field in moving a charge from one point to another
depends on the length of the path taken to go from one point to the other. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
8) The electrostatic potential on the surface of a charged conducting sphere is 100V. Two statements
are made in this regard
S1: At any point inside the sphere, electric intensity is zero.
S2: At any point inside the sphere, the electrostatic potential is 100V.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) S1 is true but S2 is false.
(b) Both S1 & S2 are false.
(c) S1 is true, S2 is also true and S1 is the cause of S2.
(d) S1 is true, and S2 is also true but the statements are independent.
9) Eight identical spherical drops, each having a potential of 9 V are combined to form a single large
drop. The potential of this large drop will be:
(a) 4.5 V (b) 18 V (c) 36 V (d) 72 V
10) Choose the correct statements from the following:
(A) For a point charge, concentric spheres centered at the location of the charge are equipotential
surfaces
(B) For practical purposes the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in an electrical circuit
(C) In a cavity within a conductor without charges, the electric field is zero
 (D) During charging by rubbing, the insulating material with higher work function becomes
positively charged
(E) Dielectric polarisation means the formation of an electric dipole inside the dielectrics
(a) (B) and (D) only (b) (A), (D), and (E) only
(c) (C), (D), and (E) only (d) (A), (B), (C) and (E)
11) Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
If a conductor has a potential V# 0 and there are no charges anywhere else outside, then
(a) there must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) there must be charges inside the surface.
12) Dimension of Permittivity is:
(a) [ML2 TA} (b) [M’LTA’] (c) [M° L0 T° A] (d) [M’LTA] (e) NOTA.
13) A 300 microfarad capacitor is charged by 90 volts. Once it is charged battery is removed. Now
another uncharged capacitor of capacitance 600 F is connected across it (in parallel). The value of
common potential is
(a) 30 volt (b) 60 volt (c) 120 volt (d) O volt.
14) Two slabs placed in a series of dielectric constants 2K and K fill the space between the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d as shown in the figure. Find an
expression for the capacitance of the system.
a) 3K b) 2K c) K d) NOTA.
15) Work done in moving q coulomb charge along a closed path of length l by an electric field E is given
by
(a) qE l b) 2qĒ l c) 2qE d) Zero e) NOTA.

Short Answer Type Questions

16) A parallel plate capacitor (A) of capacitance C is charged by a battery to voltage V. The battery 1S is
disconnected and an uncharged capacitor (B) of capacitance 2C is connected across A. Find the
ratio of (i) Final charges on A and B.
(ii) Total electrostatic energy stored in A and B finally and that stored in A, initially.
17) Distinguish, with the help of a suitable diagram the difference in the behavior of a conductor and a
dielectric placed in an external electric field. How does polarised dielectric modify the original
external field?
18) Define electron volt. How is it related to joule?
19) Derive an expression for the electric potential at any point along the axial line of an electric dipole
20) Obtain an expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole placed with its axis at an angle 𝜃
to an external field 𝐸⃗ . What is the minimum value of the potential energy?
21) Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
22) What is a capacitor? Explain its principle.
23) Obtain the expression for the resultant capacitance when the three capacitors C 1, C2, and C3 are
connected (i) in series and (ii) in parallel
24) Derive an expression for the potential at any general point due to a dipole.
25) Find the electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus(Z=50) of radius 9 X 10 -13 cm.
26) To what potential we must charge an insulated sphere of radius 14 cm so that the surface density is
equal to 1 µ Cm-2?
27) Twenty-seven drops of the same size are charged at 220 V each. They coalesce to form a bigger
drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
28) A spark passes in the air when the potential gradient at the surface of a charged conductor is 3 X
106 Vm-1. What must be the radius of an insulated metal sphere that can be charged to a potential
of 3 X 106 V before sparking into the air?

29) Derive an expression for the potential energy of a system of two-point charges in an external field.
Long Answer Type Question
30) A capacitor is a system of two conductors separated by an insulator. The two conductors have equal
and opposite charges with a potential difference between them. The capacitance of a capacitor
depends on the geometrical configuration (shape, size, and separation) of the system and also on
the nature of the insulator separating the two conductors. They are used to store charges. Like
resistors, capacitors can be arranged in series or parallel or a combination of both to obtain the
desired value of capacitance.
(ii) A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. The electric field
between the plates decreases. Explain.
(iii) A capacitor A of capacitance C, having charge Q is connected across another uncharged
capacitor B of capacitance 2C. Find an expression for (a) the potential difference across the
combination and (b) the charge lost by capacitor A.
31) Sketch equipotential surfaces for
(i) A positive point charge
(ii) A negative point charge
(iii) Two equal and opposite charges separated by a small distance
(iv) Two equal and positive charges separated by a small distance.
32) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged fully by connecting it to a battery of emf E. It is then
disconnected from the battery. If the separation between the plates of the capacitor is now
doubled, how will the following change?
(i) charge stored by the capacitor
(ii) field strength between the plates
(iii) Energy stored by the capacitor. Justify your answer in each case.
33) Determine the electrostatic potential energy of a system consisting of two charges 7 µC and -2 µC
placed at (9cm,0,0) respectively.
(b) How much work is required to separate the two charges infinitely away from each other?
(c) suppose the same system of charges is now placed in an external electric field E = A(1/r2); A = 9 X
105 Cm-2. What would the electrostatic energy of the configuration be?
34) (a) A parallel plate capacitor (C) having charge Q is connected, to an identical uncharged capacitor
C; in series. What would be the charge accumulated on the capacitor C2?
(b) Three identical capacitors each of capacitance 3 uF are connected, in series and in parallel
combination to the common source of V volt. Find out the ratio of the energies stored in two
configurations.
35) A parallel plate capacitor (A) of capacitance C is charged by a battery of voltage V. The battery is
disconnected and an uncharged capacitor (B) of capacitance 2C is connected across A. Find the
ratio of
(i) final charges on A and B.
(ii) Total electrostatic energy stored in A and B finally and that stored in A initially.