Polity

2016 (I)
1. Which of the following is/are constitutional body/bodies?
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
2. National Commission for Women
3. National Commission for Minorities
4. National Human Rights Commission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements
1. The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of LokSabha.
2. The Speaker has to discharge the functions ofhis office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his
functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or
During his illness.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission(2005) was concerned with
(a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good governance
(b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal JusticeSystem
(c) creating an ombudsman mechanism for reduction ofcorruption in public life
(d) devising new measures for urban governance and management
4. As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order
1. issued against judicial and quasi-judicialauthority
2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceedingin à particular case where it has no jurisdiction
to try.
3. to restrain a person from holding a publicoffice to which he is not entitled.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Who among the following Prime Ministers ofIndia were defeated by a vote of No Confidence?
1. Morarji Desai 2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh 3. HD Deve Gowda 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
6. Which of the following statement(s) regardingRajya Sabha is/are correct?
1. The maximum permissible strength of RajyaSabha is 250.
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the States and UnionTerritories.
3. It shares legislative powers equally with LokSabha in matters such as creation of All India
Services. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
7. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?
1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in special cases.
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session.
3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency.
4 The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
8. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth inArticle-44 of the Constitution of India.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given more extensive powers than the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for the country, was set-up under the
Constitution of India in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) only 3
9. Which one of the following Articles/Schedules in the Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District
Councils?
(a) Eighth Schedule
(b) Article-370
(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Article-250
10. Which of the following statement(s) aboutComptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is/are correct?
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of sixyears from the date he assumes the office. He shall vacate office
on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years
term.
2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India.
3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Prime Minister
and the Council of Ministers.
4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the
grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
11. In which one of the following judgments of theConstitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the
'rarest of rare' principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?
(a) Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab (1980)
(b) Gopalanachari Vs State of Kerala (1980)
(c) Dr. Upendra Baxi Vs State of Uttar Pradesh (1983)
(d) Tukaram Vs State of Maharashtra (1979)
12. Consider the following statements about the President of India:
1. The President has the right to address and send message to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific
information.
2. The President can call for information relatingto proposals for legislation.
3. All decisions of the Council of Ministersrelating to administration of the Union mustbe communicated to the
President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. In which one of the following cases, the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights
of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum
(b) Danial Latifi Vs Union of India
(c) Mary Roy Vs State of Kerala
(d) Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India
14. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention in India is/are correct?
1. The detenue has no rights other than thosementioned in Clauses (4) and (5) of Article-22
Of Constitution of India.
2. The detenue has a right to challenge thedetention order on the ground that he was
Already in jail when the detention order was 32.11 passed.
3. The detenue can claim bail on the ground thathe has been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an
order of the Magistraté.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
15. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a Member of the House if the member
(a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected (b) is expelled
by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the House
(c) joins a political party after being elected as an independentcandidate
(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party
16. Which one of the following languages is not recognised in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) English
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Urdu
(d) Nepali
17. The category of 'Overseas Citizens of India' wasentered in the Citizenship Act of India through an
amendment in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1992
(c) 1996
(d) 2003
18. The Right to Education was added to theFundamental Rights in the Constitution of India through the
(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005
(c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003
(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011
19. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s)of Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
1. Hindi in Devanagari script shall be thenational language of the Union.
2. The official language of the Union shall beHindi in Devanagari script.
3. English language shall continue to be used forofficial purposes within states.
4. If two or more states agree, Hindi languageshould be the official language ofCommunication between the
states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 2
20. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is
(a) Elected by the Lok Sabha
(b) Appointed by the President of India
(c)Appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) the seniormost member of the Lok Sabha
21. Match List with List II and select the correctanswer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Leader) List II (Party)
A. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 1. Communist Party of India
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
22. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s)of the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds ofreligion.
2. Gives official status to certain religions.
3. Provides freedom to profess any religion.
4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious to communities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
23. Who is the current Vice-Chairperson of NITIAayog?
(a) Raghuram Rajan
(b) Arvind Panagariya
(c) Bibek Debroy
(d) VK Saraswat
24. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution ofIndia is subject to
1. Public order, morality and health.
2. À law providing for social welfare and reform.
3. opening Hindu religious institutions of apublic character to all Hindus.
4. defamation or incitement to an offence.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 1 (d) 1 and 2
25. Which of the following Fundamental Right(s)is/are available to non-citizens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Right against Discrimination
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
26. Which of the following statement(s) about the formation of the Constituent Assembly is/are correct?
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the basis of the Provincial
Elections of 1946.
2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the princely states.
3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not influenced by opinions
Expressed by the public.
4. In order to create a sense of collective or participation, submissions were solicited from
The public.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
27. Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
3. The Abolition of Privy Council JurisdictionAct, 1949.
4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
28. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a personcan be issued
1. Where the arrest or detention has taken placein contravention of the procedure established
by law.
2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned ona criminal charge.
3. Where the arrest has taken place for contemptof court or the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2
29. Which one of the following changes has not beenmade to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in
2015?
(a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the OverseasCitizens of India cardholders (b) The Non-
Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections inIndia
(c) The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at par with theOverseas Citizens of India
(d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to lifelong visa tovisit India
30. Name the French revolutionary who wroteDeclaration of the Rights of Woman and the Female Citizen.
(a) Olympe de Gouges (b) Nancy Ruhling (c) Maximilien Robespierre
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft
31. Which one of the following statements aboutelectoral government in India is not correct?
(a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections arevested in the Election Commission of India
(b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorialconstituency
(c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to thedelimitation of constituencies
(d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinise thevalidity of a law relating to
delimitation of constituencies
32. The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) aredeveloped jointly with
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited.
2. Bharat Electronics Limited.
3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited.
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
33. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and expression to all its citizens subject to
1. Implementation of Directive Principles.
2. Fundamental Duties.
3. Right to Equality.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel Kant's theory of perpetual peace'?
(a) Republican constitutionalism (b) Federal contract among states to abolish wart
(c) World government (d) Transformation of individual consciousness
35. Which one of the following statements about theprocess of the Parliament to make new states is not correct?
(a) The Parliament may by law form a new state and alter theboundaries or names of existing states
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliamentexcept on the recommendation of the President
(c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to thelegislature of the affected state
(d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368
36. Which of the following statements with regard tocitizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are
correct?
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtueof Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of
Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship
of any foreign state.
2. The Parliament has power to make anyprovision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship
and all othermatters relating to citizenship.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. The protection against arrest and detention underArticle 22 of the Constitution of India is not available to
1. an enemy alien. 2. a person detained under a preventivedetention law.
3. a foreigner.
4. An overseas citizen of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
38. In which of the following cases did the SupremeCourt rule that Constitutional Amendments were also laws
under Article-13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for beinginconsistent with
Fundamental Rights?
(a) Keshavanand Bharati Case (b) Golaknath Case (c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are notcorrect for the 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in1951.
2. It includes those laws which are beyond thepurview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the 9th Schedule are primarilythose which pertain to the matters of national
security.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 3
40. Which one of the following categories of personsis not treated at par so far as the availability of
Fundamental Rights is concerned?
(a) Members of the armed forces
(b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility ofmaintenance of public order
(c) Members of the forces employed in connection with thecommunications systems set-up in the country
(d) Members of the forces employed in connection with thecommunication systems set-up for maintenance of
public order
41. Which of the following is not true about theConvention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination
Against Women (CEDAW)?
(a) It defines what constituteds discrimination against women andsets-up an agenda for national action
(b) It was adopted in 1979 by the United Nations
(c) It commits States to undertake measures to enddiscrimination in their legal system
(d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not legallybound to put its provisions into practice
42. The 6th Schedule of the Indian Constitutioncontains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which
of the following States is not covered under this Schedule?
(a) Asom (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
43. The Supreme Court guidelines issued in theVishaka Case pertain to
(a) Domestic violence
(b) rape and sexual violence
(c) sexual harassment at the work place
(d) Trafficking in women
44. Which one of the following statements is IT incorrect?
(a) India does not have a Chief of Defence Staff
(b) India does not have a Permanent Chairman, Chiefs of StaffCommittee
(c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee whofunctions as Chief of the Defence Staff
(d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who doesnot function as Chief of the Defense Staff
45. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in respect of
(a) National Security Council Secretariat
(b) Assam Rifles
(c) Border Road Development Board
(d) Border Road Organisation
46. Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of StaffCommittee?
(a) The President of India in his capacity as the Commander-in Chief
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Defence Minister
(d) The seniormost Chief of Stall
47. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a CourtMartial
(b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Unionvests in the President, but its exercise has to
be regulaled by law
(c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelledto do hard work as this would amount to
violation of Article-23 ofthe Constitution of India
(d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers ofthe High Courts under Article-226 of the
Constitution of India inrelation to service matters of persons in the armed forces
48. Which of the following is not a laid down principleof the Panchsheel?
(a) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity
(b) Mutual non-aggression
(c) Mutual support for each other in world forum
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs
49. Which one of the following statements is notcorrect?
(a) The Central Government is empowered to issue a notification tospecify any service in a state as a service of
vital importance tothe community
(b) Such a notification remains valid for 6th months
(c) Every command given by a superior officer casts a duty on allpersons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air
Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the command when such a
Notification is in force
(d) The provision of the Armed Forces (Emergency Duties) Act,1947 are applicable in connection with vital
services imposed ina emergency on the armed forces
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are nottrue for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI)
inserted by the amendment the Citizenship Act of India in 2003?
1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons on IndiaOrigin (PIO), who are citizens another country. 2. It gives Persons
of Indian origin (PIO), whoare citizens of another country, are OCI card
Without citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in generate lections in India.
4. It allows the OCI to travel to Indian withoutvisa.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4
51. Which of the following statement(s) with regardto the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are
correct?
1. The Act is applicable only to the States ofManipur, Tripura and Nagaland.
2. A person taken into custody under the aboveAct must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the nearest
police stationwith least possible delay.
3. An area can be declared as a disturbed areaunder the above Act only when the State
Government is of the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary to contain a
dangerous condition in
the concerned area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 2 (6) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of those
52. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the (a) President of
India (b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Parliament
53. A Parliamentary Democracy is one where
1. a balance of popular participation and eliterule takes place.
2. the government is responsible not to the publicbut to the elected representatives.
3. the parliamentarians are delegated theresponsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
54. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannotmake law in respect of which one of the following matters?
(a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him inconnection with the maintenance of order in the
area wheremartial law in force
(b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed whenmartial law was in force in the area
(c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martiallaw was in force in the area (d) Any act
done under martial law can be validated by Parliament bylaw
55. Which among the following features of a federalsystem is not found in the Indian Political System?
(a) Dual citizenship Apple
(b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the StateGovernments
(C) Supremacy of the Constitution
(d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
56. Which of the following is not true of Article-32 ofthe Indian Constitution?
(a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Court the power to issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights
(b) it is included in Part Ill of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right (c) Dr
Ambedkar called it the very soul of the Indian Constitution
(d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain underArticle-32 where a Fundamental Right has not been
violated
57. Consider the following statements about localgovernment in India:
1. Article-40 of Indian Constitution providesfor the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with
such powers and authority as may be necessary to make them
function as units of self-government.
2. The 73rd and 74th ConstitutionAmendments inserted Part-IX and IX A in
the Constitution.
3. The provisions in Part-IX and IX A of IndianConstitution are more or less parallel andanalogous. W
4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is in applicable to all States irrespective of size of
population.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
58. Consider the following statements about StateElection Commission:
1. The State Election Commissioner shall beappointed by the Governor of the State.
2. The State Election Commission shall havethe power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of
superintendence, direction and control of clection to the
panchayats.
3. The State Election Commissioner cannot beremoved in any manner from his office until
he demits himself or completes his tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
59. Which of the following statements about IndianJudiciary is not correct?
(a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double systemof courts as in the United States.
(b) The organisation of the subordinate judiciary in India variesslightly from State to State.
(c) Every State in India has separate High Court.
(d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an AllIndia Judicial Service to bring about uniformity
in designationof officers in criminal and civil side.
60. Consider the following statements about world'sfirst Modern Slavery Bill, published in June, 2014 by the
British House of Commons :
1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europewhich specifically addresses slavery and
trafficking in the 21st century.
2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentenceavailable for the most serious offenders up to
14 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Which of the following about the principles ofPanchsheel are correct?
1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between States.
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newlyindependent States after decolonisation would be able to
develop a new and more principledapproach to international relations.
3. The first formal codification in treaty form wasdone in an agreement between China and
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
62. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceededwith unless the recommendation of the President is received.
However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such
recommendation is not required?
(a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating tofinancial matters
(b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or ofalternation of areas of existing states
(c) For moving of an amendment making provision for thereduction or abolition of any tax o (d) For
introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which states are interested
63. “The Draft Constitution as framed only provides amachinery for the government of the country. It is not a
contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power
is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy'. The above
passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru SEB (b) Dr BR Ambedkar
(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) Acharya J B Kriplani
64. Which of the following statements are correctregarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in
India?
1. It is an enabling provision, empowering thePresident to take steps for resolving deadlock
between the two I louses.
2. It is not obligatory upon the President tosummon the I louses to meet in a joint sitting,
3. It is being notifically the President.
4. It is frequently resorted to establish thesupremacy of the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
65. Consider the following statements about democracy
1. It consists with the formation of governmentelected by the people.
2. In democracy, those currently in power have afair chance of losing.
3. Each vote has one value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
66. Which one of the following statements regardingthe Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on
the empowerment of women is correct?
(a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only
(b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
(c) The term of office of the members of the Committee shall notexceed two years
(d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women
67. Match the following
List I (Person) List II (Role in making of the Constitution of India)
A. Rajendra Prasad 1. Member, Drafting Committee
B. TT Krishanamachari 2. Chairman, Constituent Assembly
C. HC Mukherjee 3. Chairman, Drafting Committee
D. BR Ambedkar 4. Vice Chairman, Constituent
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
68. Consider the following statements
1. Forming a cooperative society is a FundamentalRight in India
2. Cooperative societies do not fall within theambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. The legislative power of the Parliament includesmaking laws
1. on matters not enumerated in the ConcurrentList and State List.
2. in respect of entries in the State List if two ormore State Legislatures consider it desirable
3. for implementing any treaty agreement orconvention with any country even if it falls in
the State List.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 2
(b) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
70. Which of the following statement(s) in thecontext of structure of the Parliament is/are
Correct?
1. The Parliament of India consists of thePresident, the Council of States and the
House of the People.
2. The President of India is directly elected by anelectoral college consisting of the elected members of both the
Houses of the Parliament only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. There are provisions in the Constitution of Indiawhich empower the Parliament to modify or annual the
operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating toadmission or establishment of new states).
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating toformation of new states).
3. amendment of First Schedule and FourthSchedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
72. The Annual Financial Statement of theGovernment of India in respect of each financial year shall be
presented to the House on such day as the
(a) Speaker may direct (b) President of India may directin
(c) Parliament may decide (d) Finance Minister may decide
73. Which of the following principles is/are takeninto consideration by the Speaker while recognising a
parliamentary party or group?
1. An association of members who have anorganisation both inside and outside the
House.
2. An association of members who shall have atleast one-third of the total number of
Members of the House.
3. An association of members who have adistinct programme of parliamentary work. Select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
74. Which one among the following was not aproposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on thedemocratic principle of population strength
(b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States
(c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were to beIndians
(d) British Government was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly
75. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of theParliament, it is presented to the President who may either
give assent to the Bill or withhold his assent. The President may
(a) Assent within six months (b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
(c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented tohim with a message requesting the
House to reconsider the Bill
(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by theHouses
76. Which of the statements relating to the DeputySpeaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct?
1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired amore prominent position after the enforce
More of the Constitution of India in 1950.
2. He/She is elected from amongst the members.
3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be amember of the House.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
77. The citizenship means
1. Full civil and political rights of the citizens.
2. The right of suffrage for election to the House of the people (of the Union) and the
Legislative Assembly of every state.
3. the right to become a Member of theParliament and Member of Legislative
Assemblies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
78. The Committee on Public Accounts under theConstitution of India is meant for
1. the examination of accounts showing theappropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of
the Government ofIndia.
2. Scrutinising the report of the Comptroller andAuditor-General.
3. Suggesting the form in which estimates shallbe presented to the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
79. The principle of 'collective responsibility' underparliamentary democracy implies that
l. a motion of no-confidence can be moved inthe Council of Ministers as a whole as well as
an individual minister.
2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinetexcept on the advice of the Prime Minister,
3. no person shall be retained as a member of theCabinet if the Prime minister says that he
shall be dismissed.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
80. Which of the following statements relating toComptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct?
1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament butan officer under the President.
2. He/She is an independent constitutionalauthority not directly answerable to the House.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. The Departmental Committee of the Parliamentof India on the welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall
1. Examine whether the Union Government hassecured due representation of the SCs and the
STs in the services and posts under its control.
2. Report on the working of the welfareprogrammes for the SCs and the STs in the
Union Territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. The subject matter of an adjournment motion inthe Parliament
1. must be directly related to the conduct of theUnion Government.
2. may involve failure of the Government ofIndia to perform its duties in accordance with
the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. Political theory
1. deals with the ideas and principles that shapeConstitutions.
2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality andjustice.
3. probes the significance of principles of rule oflaw, separation of power and judicial review.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2(b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
84. The functions of the committee on estimates, asincorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to
1. Report what economies, improvements inorganisation, efficiency or administrative
Reform may be effected.
2. suggest alternative policies in order to bringabout efficiency and economy in
administration.
3. examine whether the money is well laid outwithin the limits of the policy implied in
the estimates
4. examine the reports, if any, of theComptroller and Auditor General on the
public undertakings.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
85. The Planning Commission of India has beenconstituted
(a) under constitutional provision with specific mention for it
(b) through an Act of Parliament
(c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
(d) through constitutional amendment
86. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case,which one among the following features of the Constitution of
India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure?
(a) Liberalism(b) Secularism (c) Dignity of the human person (d) Freedom of religion
87. Which of the following freedoms is notspecifically mentioned in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental
Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such?
(a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business
(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country w
(c) Freedom of association and union
(d) Freedom of the press
88. Match the following
List I (Commission/ Committee) List II (Mandate)
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riols, 1984
B. Srikrishna Commission 2. Socio-economic and educational
Conditions of Muslims in India
C. Ranganath Misra Commission 3. Bombay Communal Riots 1992
D. Nanavati 4. Linguistic and religious minorities Commission
in India
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
89. The Judge of the High Courts in India isadministered oath of office by
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) the Governor of the State
(c) the President of India
(d) the Chief Justice of India
90. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identifythose enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India.
1. Sovereign democratic republic.
2. Socialism and secularism.
3. Capitalism and free trade.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
91. Which of the following pairs of constitutionalauthority and procedure of appointment is/are correctly
matched?
1. President: Elected by an electoral collegeconsisting of elected MLAs and MPs.
2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoralcollege consisting of MLAs and MP's.
3. Speaker: The House of People chooses afterits first sitting
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
92. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States
(b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend aMoney Bill
(c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of thePeople and not to the Council of States
(d) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of
States
93. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential andVice-Presidential Elections are settled by
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
94. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decidethe dispute between centre and state falls under
(a) Advisoryjurisdiction (b) original jurisdiction(c) appellate jurisdiction
(d) Constitutional jurisdiction
95. The Governor may recommend the imposition ofthe President's rule in the state
(a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature (b) on the recommendation of the President (c) on the
recommendation of the Chief Minister
(d) if he is convinced that the Government of the State cannot becarried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution of India
2013 (1)
96. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts, launched recently in India
1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via videoconferencing
2. They will follow the same procedures that arelaid out for the bench for hearing appeals in an
Open court.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Besides representation, the Parliament of India isalso a deliberative body with diverse functions. Which one
among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India?
(a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(b) Executing major policy decisions
(c) Holding the government accountable for its actions andexpenditure
(d) Amending the Constitution
98. Which one among the following statements is notcorrect?
(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended exceptby virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution
of India
(b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation foroffences under Part III of the Constitution of
India
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by theParliament with regard to members of the
forces charged withthe maintenance of public order
99. The Government of India Act, 1919
1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre.
2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincialexecutive.
3. Introduced a Federal System of Governmentin India.
Select the correct ansiver using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935, introduced a Federal System of Government in India.
100. Which one among the following is a FundamentalDuties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of theneighbouring countries
(b) To visit the monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when calledupon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the religions of India
101. India's Look East Policy was conceived in theearly 1990s at a time when India was in the process of
adjusting to the post-Cold War watershed changes in the international geostrategic environment. The Look East
Policy
1. Reflects both historical imperatives andcontemporary compulsion of the post-Cold
War new world order.
2. seeks to optimise India's synergies in theextended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood.
3. has led to India's participation in Asia-Pacificforums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit,
BIMSTEC and other institutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
102. Which one among the following committees ofthe Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya
Sabha?
(a) Pubic Accounts Committee (b) Estimates Committee
(C) Public Undertakings Committee
(d) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance
103. Which one among the following is not aconstitutional body in India?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
(b) National Commissioner for Religious and Linguistic Minorities
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(d) National Human Rights Commission
104. Consider the following statements
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an electedmember from voting against the explicitmandate of his/her party.
2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply ifone-third of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the
party and constitutethemselves as a separate party.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
105. The Constituent Assembly of India convened toprepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-
committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the
committee?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier(Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
2. Constitution of District Councils in allautonomous districts of Asom.
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier(Asom) Tribal and Excluded Areas.
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
106. How does participatory budgeting seek to makethe functioning of local governance institutions more
transparent and accountable?
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiateover the distribution of public resources.
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be
spent.
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens withaccess to important decision-making venues.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
107. The Parliament of India passed the PanchayatsExtension to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as
PESA law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA law is not correct?
(a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the scheduledareas
(b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
(d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights ofthe tribals
108. Which one among the following countries redefined the principles of 'Panchasħila' for the purpose of
domestic politics?
(a) Ghana (b) China (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
109. Which one among the following is not included inthe Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of
India?
(a) Right to Equality(b) Right to Freedom (c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Information
110. Consider the following statements relating to theprocedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on suchdate as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General
shall send to every membernotice of this date.
2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be heldon such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General
shall send to every membernotice of this date.
3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding en in the date so fixed, any member may give noticein writing
of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the
House.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3(b) Only 2 n (C) 1 and 3(d) All of these
111. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court
(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding itsjurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules
of natural justice
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasi-judicialfunctions to transfer the record to
proceedings in a case for itsreview
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what authorityhe/she is holding the office
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person beforethe court for trial
112. Which one among the following is not afundamental duty of the citizen of India?
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit ofinquiry and reform
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence o
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity ofIndia
(d) To practice family planning and to control population
113. Which one among the following writs literallymeans you many have the body?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Quo Warranto
114. Which one among the following is not arecommendation of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment
of the Governor in a state?
(a) He/She must not have participated in active politics at leastfor some time before his/her appointment as
Governor
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be consultedby the President in selecting a Governor
(c) The Governor's term of office of five years should not bedisturbed except very rarely
(d) The Governor should not be the native of the state
115. Which one among the following statementsabout the functioning of political parties in a democracy is not
correct?
(a) Political parties give political education to the people DUP
(b) Political parties serve as a link between the government andthe people
(c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the maximumnumber of their candidates elected
(d) None of the above
116. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled 'Tribes are done by
(a) Election Commission (b) Delimitation Commission
(C) Planning Commission (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation
Commission
117. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one amongthe following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at prelitigative state and not those matters pending
before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminalin nature
(c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so far
(d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat
118. Which among the following provisions of theConstitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
119. Consider the following statements
1. In India, only two Union Territories haveLegislative Assemblies.
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the threeNorth-Eastern States of India, have only one
Seat each in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2
120. The Rights to Information means and includes:
1. Inspection of documents. 2. Taking out files from office to any placedesired by the applicant. 3. Taking
photograph of files.
4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
121. The Instrument of Instructions contained in theGoverment of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the
Constitution of Ir tia in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of Executive Power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
122. Match the following

123. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removedfrom office by

(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no-confidencemotion
(b) a resolution passed by not less than hall of the totalmembership of the house
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the totalmembership of the house
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of thehouse
124. What is/are the major difference/differencesbetween a written and an unwritten Constitution?
1. A written Constitution is the formal source ofall Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten
Constitution is not the formalsource.
2. A written Constitution is entirely codifiedwhereas an unwritten Constitution is not.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats
(a) in accordance with their population
(b) equally
(c) on the basis of population and economic position
(d) on the basis of present economic status
126. The Preamble is useful in constitutionalinterpretation because it
(a) Uses value loaded words
(b) Contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitutionMakers
(c) Is a source of power and limitation
127. Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model?
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns
(b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s
(c) Regular elections in the centre and stales since 1950s
(d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure
128. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
129. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help?
(a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislatures
(b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect
(c) Women in democracies are not subjected sex discrimination in most aspects of social life
(d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee
their freedom and dignity
130. The Constitution of India is republican because it
(a) Provides for an elected Parliament (b) provides for adult franchise
(c) Contains a bill of rights(d) has no hereditary elements
131. Which among the following conditions arenecessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 1. The office
must be public and must be createdby a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and notmerely the function or employment of a servant at the will and
during the pleasure ofanother.
3. There has been a contravention of theConstitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such
person to thatoffice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
132. Under which law it is prescribed that allproceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English
language?
(a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
(b) A Legislation made by the Parliament
(c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
133. Consider the following statementsAccording to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as
1. A contract2. A sacrament 3. Mutual understanding 4. Indissoluble
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
134. Which one among the following statements isnot correct? The word 'socialist in the Preamble of the
Constitution of India read with
(a) Article 39 (d). would enable the court to uphold theconstitutionality of nationalisation laws (b) Article 14,
would enable the court to strike down a-statutewhich failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
(c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedomguaranteed under that Article (d) Article 23, and would
enable the court to reduce inequality inincome and status
(d) Article 23, of the Indian Constituion says that traffic in human beings and beggar and other similar
forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be anoffence
punishable in accordance with law.
135. Suppose a Legislation was passed by theParliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These
included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the
Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom of Press
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonablerestrictions under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen underArticle 19 of the Constitution
136. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha,which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend amoney bill
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual FinancialStatement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands forGrants
137. While a proclamation of emergency is in operationthe duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for
aperiod
(a) Not exceeding three months (b) not exceeding nine-months (c) of one year at a time
(d) Of two years at a time
138. Which one among the following is thedistinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political partiesinvolve larger number of people
(b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, politicalparties do
(c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while politicalparties do
(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups donot bother about political issues
139. Which one among the following pairs of level ofgovernment and legislative power is not correctly
matched?
(a) Central Government : Union List
(b) Local Governments : Residuary Powers
(c) State Governments : State List
(d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List
140. There are different arguments given in favour ofpower sharing in a democratic political system. Which one
of the following is not one of them?
(a) It reduces conflict among different communities
(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government, theyshould be consuled in the governance of the
country
(d) It speeds up the decision-making process and improves thechances of unity of the country (b) Power sharing
is the very spirit of democracy.
141. The purpose of Directive Principles of StatePolicy is to
(a) Lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policyat all levels
(b) Implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralised stato
(c) Check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) Promote wellare of the backward sections of the society
142. Which of the following condition/conditions mustbe fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections
in India?
1. They must be physically present in their placeof origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenshipof other countries or not are eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling upform 6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
143. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963by then
(a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution for theIndian National Congress was proposed
(b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior ministers wereasked to leave government and work to
rejuvenate the party
144. The Constitution of India divided the states ofIndia in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this
context which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category Astates. The Rajpramukh was the executive
head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A stalesThe Chiel Commissioner was the executive
head of categorie B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the
Category D states
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A staleThe Rajpramukh was the executive head of
calegory B slate The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categorieC and D slates
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A statesThe Chief Commissioner was the executive head
of categon B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head ofcategories C and D stales
145. Which one among the following is not guaranteedby the Constitution of India?
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere inthe country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
146. Which of the following statement(s) is/arecorrect?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by thestate legislature.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislaturefor consideration of the President.
3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, forreconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
147. Which of the following are envisaged as being parof the 'Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of
India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings andforced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children infactories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
148. In which one of the following cases the SupremeCourt of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing
on the Centre-State relations?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case (b) Vishakha case (C) SR Bommai case
(d) Indira Sawhney case
149. Consider the following statements about thepowers of the President of India
1. The President can direct that any matter onwhich decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed
before the Council ofMinisters.
2. The President can call all information relatingto proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and sendmessages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministersrelating to the administration of the Union
must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
150. With reference to the conduct of governmentbusiness in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to
(a) Suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of theParliament
(b) A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on amotion can be halted
(c) The termination of a Parliamentary session
(d) Refusal on the part of the Government to have the opposition look at important documents
151. According to the Administrative Tribunal A1985, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes
and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are
(a)Appointed to public services and posts in connoction with theallairs of the Union except mombers of
the Dolenco cervicos
(b) Official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts
(c) Members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or any statelegislatures
(d) Members of the Defence services
152. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India is/are correct?
1. Unlike in the United States, India has notprovided for a double system of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India, there is asingle integrated system of courts for the
Union as well as the states.
3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciaryvaries slightly from state to state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
153. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
154. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holdsoffice for a period of
(a) six years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
155. Which of the following provisions of theConstitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of
not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?
1. The manner of election of the President of India.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Unionand the states.
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and HighCourts.
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Directions (Q. No. 156-159) The following questionsconsist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these questions using the codes
given below.Codes
(a) Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correctexplanation of Statement
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the correctexplaination of Statement (c) Statement is
true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement is false, but Statement li is true
156. Statement Adjournment is a short recess withinthe session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding
Officer of the House. Statement Il When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or
time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die.
(b)
157. Statement i By virtue of a law passed by theParliament of India in the year 2003, the people of Indian
origin residing in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status. Statement II This law enables them to participate in
economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to various legislative bodies in India.
(C)
158. Statement I The Fundamental Rights protect therights and liberties of the people against encroachment by
the legislative and executive wings of the government. Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the
rights of the citizens.
(C)
159. Statement I The principle of equality before thelaw is not applicable to the President of India. Statement II
The President of India enjoys some special privileges under the Constitution of India
(a)
160. Which one among the following statementsregarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right toEducation in
India is correct?
(a) This right covers both child and adult iteracy and therefore,universally guarantees education to all citizens of
India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14years and becomes operational from the year
2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution whichwas the first Welfare State in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between theages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th
ConstitutionalAmendment Act
161. Which of the following statements regarding writof certiorari is/are correct?
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer y havinglegal authority to determine the
questions of deciding Fundamental Rightswith a duty to act judicially.
2. Writ of certiorariis available during thetendency of proceedings before a subordinate
Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
162. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill,passed in the Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make
provision for
(a) establishment of claims commission and appointment ofclaims commissioner
(b) a liability cap of 1500 crore on an operator in case of anaccident
(c) A liability cap ol 1500 crore also on the Government ofIndia in case of an accident
(d) Liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional
(C) Under section - 7
163. Which of the following features is/are contraryto the norms of a federal polity?
1. Common All India Service
2. Single integrated judiciary
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
164. Which among the following statements 1 regarding Lord Ripon's plan for localself-government in India
is/are correct?
1. The district should be the maximum areaserved by one Committee or Local Board.
2. The Local Boards should consist of a largemajority of nominated official members and be presided over by
an official member asChairman.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
165. Which one among the following is not true ofthe Planning Commission?
(a) It is an advisory body and makes recommendations to theCabinet
(b) It is responsible for the execution of developmentprogrammes and plans
(c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the mosteffective and balanced utilisation of the country's
resources
(d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic development
166. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five yearsfrom the date of
(a) its first meeting
(b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat
(c) declaration of the election results
(d) taking oath of office by the elected members
167. Despite being a Republican State, India is amember of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the
British Monarch. This is because
(a) this membership does not affect the sovereign nature of theIndian Republic
(b) this membership only shows that the British ruled over India
(c) members of the association are sovereign and independent
(d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association
168. Which one among the following is not correct?
A special category state invariably
(a) is a border State
(b) has harsh terrain
(c) has low literacy rate
(d) has poor infrastructure
169. The President of India is elected by a proportionalrepresentation system through single transferable vote.
This implies that
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
(b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes
(c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
(d) MPs and MLAs of different states have different numbers of Votes
170. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court ofIndia extends to
(a) Treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
(b) Disputes between the Government of India and one or moreStates
(c) Disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles ofState Policy
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of theConstitution
171. Which one among the following is a function of thePro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Conduct of the
proceedings of the house in the absence of theSpeaker
(b) To check if the election certificates of the members of the houseare in order
(c) Swear in the members of the house and hold the charge till regular Speaker is elected
(d) Give his assent lo the bills passed by the house
2010 (II)
172. Which of the following statements with regard toInter-State Council is/are correct?
1. It was established under the provisions of theConstitution of India.
2. The Council is a recommendatory body.
3. There is a standing corimittee of the Councilunder the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to process
matters for consideration of theCouncil.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
173. In India the right to 'freedom of speech andexpression' is restricted on the grounds of
1. The sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. Contempt of court.
3. Friendly relation with foreign states.
4. Protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
174. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article32 is available only in case of Fundamental e n Rights, not in
the case of rights which followfrom some other provision in the Constitution. 2. Both the Supreme Court and
High Courts canissue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for
the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
175. Why is political power sharing throughdifferent levels of government desirable in a democracy?
1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflictbetween various social groups.
2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrarydecision-making.
3. It prompts people's participation atdifferent levels of government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
176. Which of the following statements is/arecorrect?
1. A registered voter in India can contest anelection to Lok Sabha from any
constituency in India.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act,1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an
imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
177. Formal or procedural democracy does not byany means guarantee
(a) Political and civil rights (b) constitutionalism (c) the rule of law
(d) absence of caste discrimination
178. The impeachment of the President of India can beinitiated in
(a) Either house of the Parliament
(b) a joint siling of both houses of the Parliament
(c) the Lok Sabha alono
(d) the Rajya Sabha alone
(Q. Nos. 179-184) The next five questions are based on the following passage.
A government in a democratic country has to respond to on-going priorities in public criticism and political
reproach and to the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long standing deprivations of the
disadvantaged people of our country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political pressure, in particular
when the bulk of the social agitation is dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy
discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the politically active threats are concentrated only on
some specific new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of consumer goods for the relatively
rich, or the fear that India's political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal with the USA),
rather than on the terrible general inheritance of India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical
attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (especially of children and also of young women),
then the pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards giving priority to only those particular
new issues rather than to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so much inequity and
injustice in India. The perspective of realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are central not
only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice of
democracy.
179. What are the 'new issues that dominate themiddle class led social agenda today?
(a) Price rise, progressive taxation and the Indo-USA nuclear deal
(b) Acute deprivation, malnourishment and famines
(c) Dowry deaths, gender inequalles and price rise
(d) Illiteracy, poverty and infant mortality
180. What is the minimum mandate of a democraticgovernment?
(a) Respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and threats tosurvival by decisive public action
(b) Respond to demands of middle class pressure groups on anurgent basis
(c) Preempt social agitations by enacting sensitive laws
(d) Attend to severity threats that threaten national sovereignty
181. What does the author mean by nyaya?
(a) Judiciary and judicial processes
(b) The rule of law and the Constitution
(c) A concept of justice that combines theories of Justice with thepractice of democracy
(d) Universal theories of justice that are applicable as standardsin all societies
182. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at
(a) first hour of the sitting (b) last hour of the sitting (C) 12:00 noon
(d) no fixed timings
183. The core of political democracy lies in the basicaxiom of electoral democracy which is based on
(a) Right to education (b) Freedom of speech (c) Right to equality
(d) Universal adult franchise
184. Which one of the following statements regardingjudiciary in India is not correct?
(a) District Courts in India are presided over by a Judge
(b) The District and Session Judge is the principal court of civiljurisdiction
(c) The Munsiff's Court has both civil and criminal jurisdiction
(d) The District and Session Judge has the power to imposecapital punishment
Directions (Q. Nos. 185-189)
The next three questions are based on the following passage.Civil society has become the leitmotif of
movements struggling to free themselves from unresponsive and often tyrannical post-colonial elites. If the first
wave of liberation took place along with decolonisation, the second wave comes up against those very elites
who had taken power after decolonisation. I see the beginning of an authentic civil society in the voice of those
outside the ambit of norms laid down by the state-ecology, gender, clasy-in the resistance of those who refuse to
let the state site its projects wherever it places, in the voice of those who reject corrupt elites in the political
passions of those whose nerves are not numbed by consumer capitalism, in the letters to the newspapers, in oral
communication. These are people who do not opt out of civil society, but who demand that the state deliver
what it has promised in the Constitution and the law, who demand State accountability, who expand the sphere
of rights to encompass those which has arisen out of the struggles of the people.
185. What does the author mean by 'authentic civilsociety'?
(a) People who have lost faith in parliamentary system
(b) Citizens who are not corrupt but do notvote
(c) Citizens who passionately advocate the cleansing ofinstitutional malpractice and societal injustices through
nonparliamentary methods
(d) Activists who want moral accountability and judicial rodross of all wrong doings in society
186. What are the demands not generated by people'sstruggle?
(a) Good delivery of public services (b) Rule of law (c) Slate accountability
(d) Uniform civil code
187. What are the methods adopted by civil societyactivists?
(a) Written and oral communication (b) Social movements
(c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively
(d) Collective people's struggles
188. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights isalso available to a foreigner on Indian soil?
(a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,caste, sex or place of birth
(b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to procedureestablished by law
(d) To practice any profession or to carry on any occupation,trade or business
189. Which of the following statements regarding theFundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India
are correct?
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced throughwrit jurisdiction. Die
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the 59 Constitution since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties became a part of theConstitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran
Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to thecitizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

2010 (1)
190. For which one of the following Judgements of theSupreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharati i's
State of India case is considered a landmark?
(a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
(c) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined in thePreamble, cannot be changed
(d) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance
191. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministersresigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the
Lok Sabha?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) VP Singh
192. Consider the following statements
1. The total elective membership of the LokSabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population
and the area of theState.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitutionof India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies
imposed by the 42ndAmendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
193. Which one of the following is a human right aswell as a Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of
India?
(a) Right 10 Information (b) Right to Education (c) Right to Work (d) Right to Housing
194. Under which of the following conditions cancitizenship be provided in India? 1. One should be born in
India.
2. Either of whose parents was born in India
3. Who has been a resident of India for not lessthan five years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of these
195. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makesmention of the
(a) Composition of the National Development Council
(b) Structure of the Planning Commission of India
(c) Functions of the State Finance Commission
(d) Functions of the Kaveri Water Authority
196. Which one of the following InternationalHuman Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet
ratified ?
(a) Convention on the rights of the child
(b) Convention on the Elimination of all forms of discriminationagainst women
(c) Convention on the political rights of women
(d) Convention on the nationality of married women
197. Consider the following statements with respectto the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
1. He shall only be removed from office in likemanner and on the ground as a Judge of the
Supreme Court.
2. He shall not be eligible for further officeeither under the Government of India or under the Government of
any State after hehas ceased to hold his office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Article-148 (1) States that Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall only be removed from office in
like manner and on