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 Series ARSP/07 Set ~ 7
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/7/7
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 07 printed pages.

 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper
ontains
c 37 qustions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

Social Science

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All

questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 60 words.

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question

should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b

from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.

Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.

Section A
1. Which of the following associated with Cultural and Educational Right? [1]
i. Any section of citizens with a distinct language or culture have a right to conserve it.
ii. Admission to any educational institution maintained by the government or receiving government aid cannot
be denied to any citizen on the ground of religion or language.
iii. All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
iv. Right to profess, practice, and propagate the religion.

a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) b) Only (i) and (ii)

c) Only (iv) d) Only (ii) and (iii)

2. Women generally look after ________. [1]

a) Business b) Teaching

c) Domestic chores d) Fields

3. Read the following data that shows the production of Foodgrains in India (Million Tonnes) and select the [1]
appropriate option from the following.

[Source: Department of Agricultural, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Annual Report, 2018-19.]
What was the difference between the production of 2013-14 and 2012-13?

a) 20 b) 12.98

c) 6 d) 8
4. Read the statement and choose the correct answer. [1]
A. Lok Sabha is more powerful than the rajya Sabha
B. Both Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha have equal power.

a) Both A and B are false b) A is true but B is false

c) Both A and B are true d) A is false but B is true

5. The US entered the 2nd World War due to [1]

a) Japan bombed Pearl Harbor b) Aerial bombing on London

c) Annexation of Poland d) Trying to capture Bavaria

6. Name the leader who brought dictatorship in Germany? [1]

a) Hitler b) Carl Marx

c) General Parvez Musharraf d) Lenin

7. Assertion (A): The National Assembly was indirectly elected by the highest taxpayers. [1]
Reason (R): It was elected by a group of electors who were chosen by the passive citizens.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

8. Devilal and his family live in a slum area. It has very poor surroundings with no basic facilities. No rich family [1]
resides in such an area. Devilal is bound to live only in a poor surrounding with other poor people and denied
from enjoying social equality of better-off people in better surroundings. Find out what situation they are facing
there?

a) Vulnerable exclusion b) Political exclusion

c) Vulnerability d) Social exclusion

9. What is an office memorandum? [1]

a) Order issued by the president of India. b) Memorandum given by an office.

c) Order issued by the Government of India. d) Important Defense Documents.

10. Poet Roget de L’Isle composed a famous patriotic song. It was sung for the first time by the volunteers marching [1]
to Paris. It was named after the place marked as A on the given map of France from where they started. Identify
it from the following options.

a) Marseillaise b) Lyon

c) Toulouse d) Poitiers
11. Which of the following is true with reference to voter and the candidate ? [1]
A. Anyone who can be a voter can also become a candidate.
B. Anyone who can be a voter but has attained the age fo 25 years can become a candidate.

a) A is false but B is true b) Both A and B are false

c) Both A and B are true d) A is true but B is false

12. In which year, women of Saudi Arabia used their right to vote for the first time? [1]

a) 2013 b) 2015

c) 2014 d) 2016
13. Arrange the following in correct sequence with respect to the period in which the event occurred: [1]
i. The Allies, strengthened by the US entry.
ii. Germany surrendered to the Allies.
iii. Allies were joined by the USSR and the USA.
iv. The Allies defeated Germany and the Central Powers.

a) i, iii, iv, ii b) ii, i ,iv, iii

c) i, iv, iii, ii d) iii, iv, i, ii

14. Read the information given below and select the correct option [1]
Before the French Revolution, society was divided into three estates.
i. The 1st estate consists of the clergy
ii. The 2nd estate consists of the nobles
iii. The 3rd estate included big businessmen, merchants, court officials, lawyers, peasants, landless labourers,
servants and artisans
With reference to the given information, choose which of the following classes formed the privileged estates?
 a) Big businessmen and nobility b) Big businessmen and the peasants

c) Clergy and the nobility d) Clergy and the peasants

15. Which of the following is not a violation of the right to freedom? [1]

a) A dacoit of Chambal was not allowed to b) Government is not allowing the opposition
consult a lawyer after his arrest. to hold a rally.

c) A political leader was arrested when he d) Ban on use of loud speakers after 10 P.M.
criticize the government.
16. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a time lag of two hours. There is a standard time taken on a place of [1]
a state marked as A in the given map. Identify this place from the following options.

a) Chhattisgarh b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh d) Uttarakhand

17. The river Narmada has its source at: [1]

a) Slopes of the Western Ghats b) Brahmagiri

c) Amarkantak d) Satpura
18. What was budeonovka? [1]

a) The Russian army b) The secret police

c) A hat d) A bat
19. Which of the following is a tertiary economic activity? [1]

a) Manufacturing b) Agriculture

c) Fishing d) Trade
20. Which is the largest country in the world? [1]

a) USA b) Brazil

c) India d) Russia
Section B
21. Name the major physiographic divisions of India. [2]
22. Explain how investment in human resource helped the country in becoming a developed country. [2]
 OR
Classify various activities into primary, secondary and tertiary sectors.
23. What do you understand by room for correction? [2]
24. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items. [2]
Section C
25. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity? [3]
26. Highlight the main events of October Revolution. [3]
OR
What do you know about Stalin's Collectivisation Programme?
27. Differentiate between dependent and working population. [3]
28. How can you say that elections in India are free, fair and democratic? [3]
29. "The Constitution of India has made necessary provisions for ensuring independence of judiciary." Justify your [3]
answer by giving reasons.
Section D
30. What was the contribution of the French philosophers in the outbreak of the Revolution of 1789 in France? [5]
OR
Which was the important law that came into effect soon after the storming of Bastille in the summer of 1789? How
did it change the lives of the common people? Explain.
31. Evaluate spread of monsoon over the Indian sub-continent from Kerala to Jammu and Kashmir. [5]
OR
What is the role of western disturbances in the Indian climate?
32. What is unemployment? Name two types of unemployment prevailing in India. What are the disadvantages of [5]
unemployment?
OR
Describe the unfavourable effects of population growth in a country like India.
33. Explain the efforts made to form a new Constitution after attaining democracy in South Africa. [5]
OR
Who led the struggle against apartheid? State practices followed in the system of apartheid in South Africa.
Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The defeat of Imperial Germany and the abdication of the emperor gave an opportunity to parliamentary parties
to recast German polity. A National Assembly met at Weimar and established a democratic constitution with a
federal structure. Deputies were now elected to the German Parliament on the basis of equal and universal votes
cast by all adults including women. This republic, however, was not received well by its own people largely
because of the terms it was forced to accept after Germany’s defeat at the end of the First World War.
i. What is the German Parliament called? (1)
ii. Why was the peace treaty humiliating for Germany? (1)
iii. Why was the Weimar Republic not received well by its own people? (2)
35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
India is one of the ancient civilisations in the world. It has achieved multifaceted socio-economic progress
during the last five decades. It has moved forward displaying remarkable progress in the field of agriculture,
industry, technology, and overall economic development. India has also contributed significantly to the making
 of world history. India is a vast country. Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere the mainland extends
between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The Tropic of Cancer divides the
country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea respectively. The
southernmost point of the Indian Union was submerged under the seawater in 2004 during the Tsunami.
i. Name the southernmost point of the Indian Union that submerged under the seawater in 2004 during the
Tsunami. (1)
ii. Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts. What is the latitudinal value of the
Tropic of Cancer? (1)
iii. Give the names of India's two island groups. (2)
36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 aims to provide 100 days of wage
employment to every household to ensure livelihood security in rural areas. It also aimed at sustainable
development to address the cause of drought, deforestation and soil erosion. One-third of the proposed jobs have
been reserved for women. Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana is another scheme which was started in 1993. The aim
of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and
small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries. Rural Employment Generation
Programme was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural
areas and small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth
Five Year plan. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing
the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self help groups through a mix of bank
credit and government subsidy. Under the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana launched in 2000, additional
central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter,
rural drinking water and rural electrification. The results of these programmes have been mixed. One of the
major reasons for less effectiveness is the lack of proper implementation and right targeting. Moreover, there has
been a lot of overlapping of schemes. Despite good intentions, the benefits of these schemes are not fully
reached to the deserving poor. Therefore, the major emphasis in recent years is on proper monitoring of all the
poverty alleviation programmes.
i. Explain any one cause for the less effectiveness of poverty alleviation programmes? (1)
ii. Explain any two features of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005? (1)
iii. What objectives did SGSY have? (2)
Section F
37. i. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of the world. Identify them and write their [5]
correct names on the lines drawn near them
A. The allied power country of the second world war
B. The central power country of the first world war
ii. On the outline map of India locate and label ANY THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.
a. Chotta Nagpur Plateau - Plateau
b. Konkan - Coastal Plains
c. Tropical Evergreen Forest - Vegetation Type
d. c- Bird Sanctuaries