01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)

1 If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab to correct it?
○ Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
○ Up
○ Down
2 Slats form part of the
○ leading edge lower surface
○ leading edge upper surface
○ trailing edge upper surface
3 If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?
○ To the left
○ To the centre
○ To the right
4 A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect wing) will have
○ higher stall speed
○ poor control qualities at low air speeds
○ increased drag at high angles of attack
5 In a turn, induced drag is increased
○ Induced drag is not affected by lift
○ only on the wing with the down going aileron and with an increase in profile drag
○ on both wings but more so on the wing with the up-going alieron
6 As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure
○ moves aft
○ moves forward
○ is unaffected
7 Flaps at landing position
○ decrease take off and landing speeds
○ decrease take off speed
○ decrease landing speed
8 Spoilers and flaps, when extended, give more
○ downwash
○ upwash
○ drag
9 Sweepback on the wing will
○ reduce tendency to tip stall
○ increase tendency to tip stall
○ cause stall to occur at lower angles of attack
10 When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept wing, the swept wing has the advantage of
○ lower stalling speed
○ increased longitudinal stability
○ higher critical mach number
11 On descent with constant mach and weight, the operational limit that is in danger of being exceeded is
○ Vne
○ Vd
○ Vmo
12 Spoiler deflection causes
○ an increase in lift and drag
○ a decrease in lift and drag
○ an increase in drag and decrease in lift
13 What does a trim tab do?
○ Allows the CofG to be outside the normal limit
○ Provides finer control movements by the pilot
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ Eases control loading for pilot
14 To improve airflow over an aerofoil at high angles of attack
○ vortex generators are fitted to the upper surface trailing edge
○ spoilers are extended on the upper surface
○ a slot is introduced to the leading edge to introduce airflow to the upper surface
15 Aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when
○ induced drag is lowest
○ profile drag equals twice the induced drag
○ profile drag equals induced drag
16 Aerodynamic damping on a control surface
○ increases with air density
○ is not affected by air density
○ decreases with air density
17 Lowering of the flaps
○ increases drag
○ increases lift
○ increases drag and lift
18 The directional axis
○ perpendicular to the horizontal axis
○ acts through the C of G, perpendicular to the longitudinal axis and lateral axis
○ perpendicular to the longitudinal axis
19 When ailerons are moved, induced drag
○ increases
○ only increases on wing with down going aileron
○ stays the same, only friction drag increases
20 Deploying a secondary flight control surface will
○ decrease the angle of attack of the aerofoil
○ increase the angle of attack of the aerofoil
○ not affect the angle of attack
21 Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with
○ elevators
○ rudder
○ ailerons
The pressure difference between top and bottom of a wing is 2 PSI. Calculate the wing area required for
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an aircraft of 5000 lbs
○ 1/2,500 square inch
○ 2,500 square inch
○ 10,000 square inch
23 The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to
○ reduce the wing loading
○ cause venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer
○ slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing
An advantage of locating engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing
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is
○ a wing is less sensitive to flutter
○ less influence on longitudinal control on thrust changes
○ lighter wing construction
25 When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
○ To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts
○ To increase the lift
○ To re-energise the boundary layer
26 The best angle of attack for the max L/D ratio is
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ increases with increase in altitude
○ the same for all altitudes
○ decreases with increase in altitude
27 What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?
○ Ailerons
○ Elevators
○ Elevons
28 How does a balance tab move?
○ In the same direction a small amount
○ In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
○ In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
29 What do ruddervators do?
○ Control yaw and roll
○ Control pitch and roll
○ Control pitch and yaw
30 If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?
○ It moves back
○ It is not effected
○ It moves forward
31 How do vortex generators work?
○ Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
○ Re-direct slantwise flow
○ Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
32 Using the High Lift Devices reduces
○ speed of both takeoff and landing
○ speed of landing only
○ speed of takeoff only
33 With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
○ The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
○ The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron
○ The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron
34 Moving trim tab up does what?
○ Counters tail heaviness
○ Assists tail heaviness
○ Counters nose heaviness
35 Large flap deployment
○ causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
○ has no effect on spanwise flow
○ causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
36 In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer
○ there is an increased tail plane up-force
○ the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increased tail plane down force
○ there is an increased tailplane down-force
37 Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?
○ Either side of the Fuselage
○ On the wing
○ Under the Fuselage
38 When the trailing edge flap is extended
○ the CP moves forward but the CG does not change
○ CP moves rearward
○ the CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up
39 The stall margin is controlled by
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)

○ angle of attack and flap position

○ EPR limits
○ speed bug cursor
40 A device used to dump lift from an aircraft is the
○ leading edge flaps
○ trailing edge flaps
○ spoiler
41 During deployment of Flaps and Slats the lift vector
○ remains the same
○ moves rearwards
○ moves forwards
42 High lift devices will
○ cause stalling speed to decrease
○ have no effect on stalling speed
○ cause stalling speed to increase
43 With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts, what will happen to the angle of attack?
○ Stay the same
○ Tend to decrease
○ Tend to increase
44 The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
○ only when the rudder is moved
○ if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement
○ only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw
45 The purpose of a slot in a wing is to
○ act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
○ speed up the airflow and increase lift
○ provide housing for the slat
46 During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
○ right wing low
○ left wing low
○ nose up
47 When Flap is raised, what happens to aircraft to achieve equilibrium?
○ Nose down
○ Neither nose up nor down
○ Nose up
48 Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?
○ Both stall together
○ Tip stalls first
○ Root stalls first
49 With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
○ not be affected
○ rise
○ lower
50 As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in a particular configuration wi
○ decrease as the true airspeed decreases
○ remain equal to the calibrated airspeed
○ remain the same regardless of altitude
51 With an increase in angle of attack, what happens to drag?
○ Decreases
○ Remains the same
○ Increases
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit
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would be
○ moved up causing the left aileron to move up
○ moved down causing the left aileron to move down
○ moved up causing the left aileron to move down
53 An elevator tab moves down
○ to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy
○ to make the nose go down
○ to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
54 What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?
○ Decrease
○ Increase then remain constant
○ Remain the same
55 If angle of attack increases, what happens to the centre of pressure?
○ It does not move
○ Moves forwards
○ Moves rearwards
56 Geometric washout means that
○ the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
○ the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root
○ there is an airflow along the wing that keeps it clean
57 Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the
○ rudder remains in the centre
○ rudder moves left
○ rudder moves right
58 During acceleration in level flight
○ the lift coefficient reduces
○ the wing stagnation point moves aft
○ the transition point on the wing moves forward
When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift
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as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be
○ 59%
○ 130%
○ 77%
60 Winglets
○ create an elliptical lift distribution
○ decrease the induced drag
○ decrease the static lateral stability
61 In a turn, the wing stalling angle
○ remains unchanged
○ increases
○ decreases
62 Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?
○ Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
○ Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
○ Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
63 The most common stall sensing devices are normally located
○ on the lower surface of the wing
○ at or near the wing leading edge
○ on the upper surface of the wing
64 The centre of pressure is in its most forward position
○ when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of attack
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ when the angle of attack is equal to the stalling angle of attack
○ when the angle of attack exceeds the stalling angle of attack
65 If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be
○ 140 kts
○ 119 kts
○ 100 kts
If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level
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flight?
○ 0.5
○ 4
○ 0.25
67 What effect does an increased load have on an aircraft?
○ The aircraft will suffer immediate structural failure
○ The aircraft will have a tendency to roll and yaw
○ The aircraft will stall at a higher speed
68 Servo tabs
○ provide artificial feel
○ move in such a way as to help move the control surface
○ enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
69 The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor
○ 2
○ 1
○ 1.41
70 Spring Tabs
○ move in such a way as to help move the control surface
○ enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
○ provide artificial feel
71 Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
○ Swept back wing
○ T-tail
○ Swept forward wing
How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS is held
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constant?
○ The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease
○ The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain constant
○ The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling angle will reduce

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○ Plain flap
○ Split flap
○ Fowler flap
If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the stagnation
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point moves...
○ increases; rearward
○ decreases; rearward
○ decreases; forward
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level tur
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with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
○ 141 kt
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ 122 kt
○ 82 kt
76 The following factors increase stall speed:
○ a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting
○ a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift
○ an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust
77 A wing stalling angle is
○ decreased in a turn
○ increased in a turn
○ unaffected by a turn
78 When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be affected?
○ The stalling angle will increase with increasing altitude
○ The stalling angle will remain the same, regardless of altitude
○ The stalling angle will reduce with increasing altitude
79 Stall speed in a turn is proportional to
○ the square root of the load factor
○ weight
○ lift
80 Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
○ Laminar boundary layer
○ No difference
○ Turbulent boundary layer
81 The stall speed
○ increases with an increased weight
○ does not depend on weight
○ decreases with an increased weight
82 On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the pitch up phenomenon
○ never occurs, since a swept wing is a remedy to pitch up
○ is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices
○ is caused by wingtip stall
83 Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
○ Low speed stall
○ Deep stall
○ High speed stall (shock stall)
As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will reach its most forward position on
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the wing
○ just before the wing stalls
○ after stall recovery
○ when the aircraft is stalling
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall
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can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
○ Low speed stall
○ Shock stall
○ Accelerated stall
86 To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be
○ increased
○ reduced
○ increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases
87 One disadvantage of the swept back wing is its stalling characteristics. At the stall
○ wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
○ tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment
○ tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
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88 In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
○ increases; increases; decreases
○ increases; decreases; decreases
○ decreases; increases; remains constant
89 The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls
○ varies with gross weight and density altitude
○ increases with an increase in gross weight
○ remains constant regardless of gross weight
90 Increase of wing loading will
○ increase the stall speed
○ decrease take off speeds
○ decrease the minimum gliding angle
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when th
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weight is 5.000 lbs?
○ 78 KCAS
○ 67 KCAS
○ 91 KCAS
92 Which of the following is the speed in level flight that would activate the stall warning?
○ 1.05VS1G
○ 1.2VS1G
○ VS1G + 15kts
93 The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?
○ Will increase with increased load factor, less flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when
○ the c.g. moves forward
○ Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft.
94 Stalling speed in a 15° bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45° bank level turn will be
○ 60 kts
○ 70 kts
○ 50 kts
95 The critical angle of attack
○ increases if the CG is moved forward
○ remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
○ changes with an increase in gross weight
96 Load factors has the following meaning:
The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
○ forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic and
○ inertia forces
The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
○ forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
97 The following take place at the transition point on a wing
○ the total dynamic and static pressure comes to a standstill
○ the boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer
○ the airflow separates completely from the wing surface
98 Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when
○ the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category
○ the aircraft is directional unstable
○ the aircraft has no yaw damper installed
99 What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall?
○ Rearward movement of the CP
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○ Spanwise flow
○ Separated airflow at the root
Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data is:
A: W=1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 130 kt
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B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20° TAS= 200 kt
Which of the following statements is correct?
○ The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B
○ The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
○ The load factor A is larger than the load factor B
101 Vso is defined as the
○ stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration
○ stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
○ stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
102 The speed range between high and low speed buffet
○ decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number
○ increases during climb
○ increases during a descent at a constant IAS
103 The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
○ wing tip stalling first
○ forward movement of the centre of gravity
○ wing root stalling first
104 With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be
○ the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
○ higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
○ lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
105 What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45 degree banked turn?
○ 10%
○ 19%
○ 45%
106 Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an increasing critical angle of attack?
○ Trailing edge flaps extended, clean wing, slats extended
○ Clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended, slats extended
○ Slats extended, clean wing, trailing edge flaps extended
107 In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by
○ 50%
○ 40%
○ 10%
108 Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
○ Decreasing weight
○ Increasing load factor
○ Increasing air density
109 The boundary layer of a wing is caused by
○ suction at the upper wing side
○ a turbulent stream pattern around the wing
○ a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction
When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal
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axis is
○ nearly vertical
○ vertical
○ horizontal from side to side
111 Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ Decrease the angle of attack
○ Increase the angle of attack
○ No effect on angle of attack
112 The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors
○ increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
○ increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine
○ located forward of the wing
113 A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced)
○ increases stalling speed
○ increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed
○ decreases stalling speed and landing speed
114 The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to
○ reduce the landing distance required
○ prevent the wing from stalling at the root
○ ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
115 When an aircraft wing stalls
○ a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward
○ a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards
○ a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft
An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre
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of gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this aeroplane would b
○ a longer takeoff run
○ difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
○ stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed
117 The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
○ increase in drag
○ reduction in CLmax
○ increase in weight
118 At the same weight, with the CG at its forward limit
○ VS is higher, the stalling angle is greater
○ VS is lower, the stalling angle is unchanged
○ VS is higher, the stalling angle is unchanged
119 When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases when
○ pulling out of a dive
○ weight decreases
○ spoilers are retracted
120 How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
○ It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases
○ It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects
○ It remains constant
121 How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
○ It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor
○ It decreases inversely with the square root of the load factor
○ It decreases inversely with the load factor
122 The input to a stick shaker comes from
○ the angle of attack only
○ angle of attack, and sometimes the rate of change in angle of attack
○ the airspeed, and sometimes the rate of change in airspeed
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
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efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is
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○ Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: slats
○ Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L.E. flaps
○ Wing roots: L.E. flaps Wing tips: no devices
When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure will reach i
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most forward position
○ at the optimum angle of attack of the wing
○ at the maximum lift coefficient (Clmax)
○ when the aircraft has stalled
125 Vortex generators
○ change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer
○ transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
○ reduce the span wise flow on swept wing
126 The load factor is
○ the ratio of thrust to weight
○ the ratio of lift to drag
○ the ratio of lift to weight
127 Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight wing (1) and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will
○ (1) move aft, (2) move forward
○ (1) move aft, (2) not move
○ (1) not move (2) move forward
128 If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
○ 81 kts
○ 122 kts
○ 150 kts
129 The angle of attack at which a wing stalls will
○ increase if the centre of gravity is moved forward
○ remain the same regardless of centre of gravity position
○ increase if the centre of gravity is moved aft
130 A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will
○ improve the high speed characteristics
○ improve the low speed characteristics
○ increase the critical Mach Number
131 The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the
○ stagnation point
○ transition region
○ centre of lift
132 Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
○ decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
○ decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
○ increase the shock wave induced separation
133 The function of the stick pusher is
○ to vibrate the controls
○ to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack
○ to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker
134 The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as
○ the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed
○ there is a nose-down attitude
○ the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs
135 Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack?
○ lower side leading edge
○ upper side leading edge
○ upper side trailing edge
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be
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triggered is
○ less than VS
○ greater than VS
○ VS
137 Krueger flaps make up part of the
○ wing upper surface leading edge
○ wing lower surface trailing edge
○ wing lower surface leading edge
138 Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
○ Deep stall
○ Shock stall
○ Low speed stall
139 Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
○ Friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
○ Separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer
○ Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
140 It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by
○ trailing edge vortex generators
○ wing fences
○ increased anhedral
141 In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed
○ to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
○ in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
○ to assist the up going aileron
142 The effect of Winglets is
○ elliptical pressure distribution increases
○ decrease in stall speed
○ reduction in induced drag
143 When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found
○ near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces
○ towards the wing trailing edge
○ towards the wing root to act as a stall inducer
The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about..., and the actual angle of attack will be close t
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this optimum angle during...
○ 16°, a stall
○ 4°, cruise
○ 4°, a stall
145 Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?
○ The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer
○ The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer
○ The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall
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characteristics include:
○ excessive wing drop and deep stall
○ pitch down and increase in speed
○ pitch down and minor wing drop
147 As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall
○ becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves forward
○ becomes progressively more difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft.
○ is unaffected by centre of gravity position
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148 To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
○ installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
○ installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root
○ installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
149 After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
○ the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
○ the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
○ the mean speed and friction drag increases
150 When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
○ (i) move aft, (ii) move aft
○ (i) move aft, (ii) not move
○ (i) not move, (ii) not move
151 The transition point located on the wing is the point where
○ the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
○ airflow starts separating from the wing
○ the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
152 When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack
○ decreases
○ remains the same
○ increases
153 If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable
○ aircraft becomes too sensitive
○ C of P moves back
○ aircraft returns to trimmed attitude
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most
154
critical?
○ During climb with all engines operating
○ The last part of the rotation
○ All phases of the take-off are equally critical
155 The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is
○ a layer of air which is moving at free stream speed
○ a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary
○ a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity
156 At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a
○ small increase in lift and drag
○ large increase in lift and drag
○ large increase in lift and small increase in drag
157 Dutch roll is movement in
○ pitch and roll
○ yaw and pitch
○ yaw and roll
158 What are ground spoilers used for?
○ To slow the aircraft
○ To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
○ To dump lift
159 What is aileron droop?
○ The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
○ The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
○ One aileron lowered
160 When the flaps are lowered
○ there is no effect on the lift vector
○ the lift vector moves forward
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ the lift vector moves rearward
161 Earths atmosphere is
○ 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
○ 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
○ 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
162 What is the main purpose of a frise aileron?
○ Increase drag on the up going wing
○ Decrease drag on the up going wing
○ Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
163 What effect does lowering the flaps for take-off have?
○ Increase lift only
○ Increases lift & reduces drag
○ Increases lift and drag
164 How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?
○ Spoiler to aileron
○ Spoiler to elevator
○ Spoiler to flap
165 What is a slot used for?
○ Increase the speed of the airflow
○ To reinforce the boundary layer
○ Increased angle of attack during approach
166 What effect does lowering flaps to take-off position setting have?
○ Reduces take-off and landing speeds
○ Reduces take-off speeds only
○ Reduces landing speed only
167 Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?
○ To delay boundary layer separation
○ To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on the extrados
○ To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the intrados
168 If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
○ not be affected
○ decrease
○ increase
169 The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent
○ between the transition and separation points
○ just aft of the separation point
○ just in front of the transition point
170 If an aircraft moves in yaw, what axis is it moving about?
○ Longitudinal
○ Lateral
○ Normal
171 Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
○ relative air flow
○ horizontal axis
○ tip path plane
172 A high lift device is used for
○ landing only
○ take-off only
○ take-off and landing
173 With reference to differential aileron control
○ drag decreases on the outer wing
○ drag increases on the inner wing
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ drag increases on the outer wing
174 A laminar boundary layer is... and has... drag than a turbulent layer.
○ thicker; less
○ thicker; more
○ thinner; less
175 An anti-balance tab is used
○ to relieve stick loads
○ for trimming the aircraft
○ to give more feel to the controls
176 Mass balance weights are used to
○ counteract flutter on control surfaces
○ balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces
○ balance the tabs
177 The fin helps to give
○ directional stability about the normal axis
○ longitudinal stability about the normal axis
○ directional stability about the longitudinal axis
178 The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is
○ less tendency to separate
○ thinner
○ decreases energy
179 If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the
○ lateral axis
○ normal axis
○ longitudinal axis
180 Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
○ nose up
○ nose down
○ go one wing down
181 The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the
○ elevator
○ rudder
○ ailerons
182 On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
○ right spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted
○ left spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted
○ left and right spoilers extending
183 Differential aileron control will
○ cause a nose up moment
○ cause a nose down moment
○ prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
184 Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
○ nose should be raised, increasing AoA
○ nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA
○ nose should be lowered, reducing AoA
185 If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
○ Up to move elevator up
○ Up to move elevator down
○ Down to move elevator up
186 Dutch Roll effects
○ yaw and roll simultaneously
○ pitch and roll simultaneously
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ pitch and yaw simultaneously
187 An anti-servo tab
○ moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist the pilot
○ moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assist the pilot
○ assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutral
188 Elevons combine the functions of both
○ rudder and aileron
○ elevator and aileron
○ rudder and elevator
189 An elevator provides control about the
○ horizontal stabilizer
○ lateral axis
○ longitudinal axis
190 The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the
○ elevator
○ ailerons
○ rudder
191 Slats
○ increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
○ keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
○ act as an air brake
192 Aerodynamic balance
○ will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability
○ will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance
○ will reduce aerodynamic loading
193 A split flap
○ forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
○ forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
○ forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
194 The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft
○ are isolated at low speeds
○ are isolated to improve sensitivity
○ are isolated at high speeds
195 Wing tip vortices are strongest when
○ flying high speed straight and level flight
○ flying into a headwind
○ flying slowly at high angles of attack
196 A split flap increases lift by increasing
○ the surface area
○ the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
○ the camber of the top surface
197 Dutch roll is
○ a combined yawing and rolling motion
○ a type of slow roll
○ primarily a pitching instability
198 Flight spoilers
○ can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed
○ can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
○ can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn
199 Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?
○ Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more
○ Both wings have an equal increase in drag
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more
200 The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the
○ elevator
○ rudder
○ ailerons
201 A balance tab
○ is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft
○ assists the pilot to move the controls
○ effectively increases the area of the control surface
202 Flutter can be reduced by using
○ mass balancing
○ servo tabs
○ a horn balance
203 Ruddervators when moved, will move
○ opposite to each other only
○ together only
○ either opposite each other or together, depending on the selection
204 Wing spoilers can be used
○ as ground spoilers on landing
○ to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
○ to assist the elevators
205 Which flap will increase wing area and camber?
○ Slot
○ Split
○ Fowler
206 Wing loading of an aircraft
○ decreases with density
○ is independent of altitude
○ varies with dynamic loading due to air currents
207 In aileron control
○ the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron
○ it is assisted by the rudder
○ the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron
208 When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
○ pitch nose down
○ sink
○ pitch nose up
209 An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is
○ high or low
○ high
○ low
210 Which of the following are primary control surfaces?
○ Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs
○ Elevators, ailerons, rudder
○ Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
211 The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to
○ fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces
○ allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow
○ attach weights forward of the hinge line
212 The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a
○ split flap
○ Fowler flap
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)

○ plain flap
213 When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with
○ elevators
○ rudder
○ ailerons
214 Changes in aircraft weight
○ will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
○ cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
○ will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant
215 Which of the following is not a primary flying control?
○ Rudder
○ Tailplane
○ Elevator
216 Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed
○ roll will not occur
○ pitch trim is not affected
○ no yaw takes place
217 A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called a
○ slot
○ flap
○ slat
A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically from the opposite direction
218
to the control surface is called a
○ trim tab
○ geared balance tab
○ servo tab
219 The aircraft stalling speed will
○ be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack
○ only change if the MTWA were changed
○ increase with an increase in weight
The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the airflow
220
is known as
○ camber layer
○ boundary layer
○ none of the above are correct
221 On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by
○ increasing tailplane incidence
○ decreasing tailplane incidence
○ up movement of the elevator trim tab
222 When an aircraft stalls
○ lift decreases and drag increases
○ lift increases and drag decreases
○ lift and drag increase
223 As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit
○ the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability
○ the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability
○ the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high
224 An anti-balance tab is moved
○ hydraulically
○ when the C.G. changes
○ via a fixed linkage
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence,
225
or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed' limit?
○ Wheel brakes
○ Lift dumpers
○ Air brakes
226 A flying control mass balance weight
○ tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
○ ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load
○ keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
227 An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure
○ rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance
○ rearwards, resulting in too much assistance
○ forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance
228 Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
○ Fowler flap
○ Split flap
○ Slotted flap
229 What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?
○ Trim tabs
○ Spring tabs
○ Balance tabs
230 Control surface flutter may be caused by
○ incorrect angular movement of trim tabs
○ excessive play in trim tab attachments
○ high static friction in trim tab control tabs
231 A servo tab is operated
○ automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
○ by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
○ directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
232 Asymmetric flaps will cause
○ the aircraft to ascend
○ the aircraft to descend
○ one wing to rise
233 A Krueger flap is
○ a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower
○ a leading edge flap which hinges forward
○ a leading edge slat which extends forward
234 When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?
○ Pressure increases, lift increases
○ Pressure decreases, lift increases
○ Pressure increases, lift decreases
235 What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?
○ Rudder
○ Aileron
○ Elevator
236 What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?
○ Aspect ratio
○ Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
○ Fineness ratio
237 In a bank and turn
○ extra lift is not required if thrust is increased
○ extra lift is required
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ extra lift is not required
238 A leading edge slat is a device for
○ increasing the stalling angle of the wing
○ decreasing the stalling angle of the wing
○ decreasing wing drag
239 When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by
○ moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops
○ operating the cabin controls until the system is against the primary stops
○ moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops
240 What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?
○ Absolute humidity
○ Relative humidity
○ Dew point
241 A horn balance is
○ a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end
○ a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached
○ a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line
You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of the
242
trim tab?
○ The elevator trim tab has moved down
○ The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
○ The elevator trim tab has moved up
243 Krueger flaps are on
○ the trailing edge
○ the leading edge
○ either the leading or trailing edge
244 The angle of attack at which stall occurs
○ can be varied by using flaps and slats
○ depends on the weight of the aircraft
○ cannot be varied, it is always constant
245 Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane
○ will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
○ may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load
○ will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch
246 Instability giving roll and yaw
○ is longitudinal stability
○ is dutch roll
○ is lateral stability
247 Vortex generators are fitted to
○ move transition point rearwards
○ move transition point forwards
○ advance the onset of flow separation
248 Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved
○ by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface
○ by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line
○ by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line
249 A differential aileron control system results in
○ aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements
○ aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn
○ aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn
250 A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to
○ a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)
○ a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators
○ a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons
251 Downward displacement of an aileron
○ increases the angle at which its wing stalls
○ has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing
○ decreases the angle at which its wing will stall
252 A plain flap
○ does not increase the wing area on deployment
○ forms part of lower trailing edge
○ is attached to the leading edge of the wing
253 A control surface is mass balanced by
○ the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line
○ the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line
○ fitting a balance tab
254 Leading edge flaps
○ increase stalling angle of the wing
○ decrease stalling angle of the wing
○ do not change the stalling angle
255 With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
○ decreases
○ remains the same
○ increases
256 Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by
○ providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point
○ placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface
○ placing a weight ahead of the hinge point
257 The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface
○ operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls
○ operating automatically to provide 'feel' to the controls
○ operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied
258 The tropopause exists at about
○ 36,000 ft.
○ 30,000 ft.
○ 18,000 ft.
Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it
259
would be necessary to
○ raise the nose
○ lower the nose
○ keep the pitch attitude constant
260 Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
○ Flap and slat
○ Flap
○ Slat
261 The primary function of a flap is
○ to alter the position of the centre of gravity
○ to trim the aircraft longitudinally
○ to alter the lift of an aerofoil
262 Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is
○ no change in gradient with wing speed
○ decrease in gradient with wing speed
○ an increase in gradient with wing speed
263 Sweepback will
 01a theory of flight Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls(273)

○ increase lateral stability

○ not affect lateral stability
○ decrease lateral stability
264 The stalling speed of an aircraft
○ is increased when it is lighter
○ does not change
○ is increased when it is heavier
265 A differential aileron control is one which gives
○ the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one
○ equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement
○ a larger aileron up travel than down
266 A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to
○ assist the pilot in moving the control
○ increase stability
○ decrease the drag when the control is deflected
267 The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to
○ relieve stick loads
○ give more feel to the control column
○ trim the aircraft
268 If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
○ to the right, moving the rudder left
○ to the left, moving the rudder right
○ to the centre
269 Aerodynamic balance is used to
○ make the flying controls easier to move
○ reduce the control load to zero
○ prevent flutter of the flying controls

270

○ provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder
○ make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control
○ prevent control surface flutter
271 A split flap, when deployed
○ increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down
○ increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag
○ is used only on high speed aircraft
272 A flying control mass balance weight
○ tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
○ keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
○ tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line
273 An elevator controls the aircraft motion in
○ yaw
○ roll
○ pitch
01b High Speed Flight (75)
 01b High Speed Flight (75)

1 Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from the

○ IRS
○ CADC
○ vertical gyro
2 The purpose of sweepback on a wing is to
○ decrease Mcrit
○ decrease drag
○ increase Mcrit
3 The critical Mach number is
○ the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
○ the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft
○ the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound
To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region,
4
fuel is pumped
○ sideways
○ forwards
○ backwards
5 Critical Mach No. may be increased by
○ using a higher thickness/chord ratio wing
○ sweeping back the wing
○ using more powerful engines
6 Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
○ Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
○ Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
○ Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
7 Tuck-under is caused by
○ tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
○ tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
○ root stall on a swept wing aircraft
8 Sweepback increases Mcrit by
○ decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
○ increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
○ decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section
9 Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will
○ remain the same
○ start to decrease
○ start to increase
10 Tuck-under is
○ the tendency to nose-down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime
○ the tendency to nose-up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime
○ the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back
11 To increase critical mach number
○ the wings are swept
○ elevons are fitted
○ tailerons are fitted
12 The transonic region is a region of
○ all subsonic
○ mixed airflow
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ all supersonic
13 For increased Mcrit
○ decrease true airspeed
○ decrease sweepback
○ decrease thickness/chord ratio
14 Air above Mach 0.7 is
○ compressible
○ incompressible
○ compressible only when above the speed of sound
15 Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is
○ sonic upstream and downstream
○ sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
○ subsonic upstream, sonic downstream
16 On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
○ 10,000 ft
○ 20,000 ft
○ Sea level
A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will
17
form
○ on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
○ on the upper and lower surface and will move aft
○ on the upper surface only and move aft
18 As you approach supersonic speed
○ thrust is reduced
○ lift is reduced
○ total drag is increased
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
19
○ remain the same
○ decrease
○ increase
20 Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always
○ the same as upstream
○ supersonic
○ subsonic
21 Mach trim usually operates between
○ 0.7 and 0.8 mach
○ 0.6 mach 0.7 mach
○ 0.9 mach and 0.99 mach
22 The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
○ decrease boundary layer
○ decrease wave drag
○ enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
23 Mach trim prevents
○ the nose dropping in a low speed turn
○ the nose dropping at high speed
○ the nose lifting at high speed
24 Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the
○ pressure to increase, velocity to decrease
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ pressure to increase, velocity to increase
○ pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
25 Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient
○ increases
○ decreases
○ remains the same
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
26
○ not change
○ increase
○ decrease
27 What is a high speed stall?
○ A stall caused by increasing the load factor (g) during a manoeuvre
○ Separation of the airflow due to shockwave formation
○ A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high speed during a manoeuvre
28 Increase in mach requires the angle of tailplane incidence to
○ remain constant
○ be decreased
○ be increased
29 What causes tuck‐under?
○ Flap‐back effect
○ Aileron reversal
○ Shock stall
30 Mach trim operation is enabled by
○ a mach trim actuator
○ an electric Motor
○ an autopilot trim motor
31 Downstream of a normal shock wave
○ pressure and temperature decrease
○ pressure decreases temperature increases
○ pressure and temperature increase
32 Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
○ increase temperature and decrease density
○ increase temperature and increase density
○ decrease temperature and increase density
33 Shock stall
○ occurs at low speeds
○ occurs at high speeds
○ is a flap down stall and occurs at high speeds
An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
34
○ decrease
○ increase
○ remain the same
35 Aerodynamic heating
○ decreases with altitude
○ increases as a function of airspeed
○ increases with skin friction
36 Shock induced separation results in
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ increasing lift
○ decreasing lift
○ decreasing drag
37 For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical mach number will be
○ lower than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
○ higher than wing of high thickness-chord ratio
○ the same as a wing of high thickness-chord ratio
38 Mach number is
○ the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
○ the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
○ the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea level
An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what
39
would be the most probable cause?
○ Atmospheric conditions
○ Severe head winds
○ Aircraft reached its critical mach number
40 Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally
○ supersonic
○ subsonic
○ sonic
41 Speed of sound varies with
○ temperature
○ pressure
○ altitude
42 In the transonic speed range
○ the centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back
○ the position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant
○ the centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory
43 When approaching the speed of sound the
○ pressure above the wing exceeds the pressure below the wing in places
○ pressure above the wing can never exceed the pressure below the wing
○ pressure above the wing equals the pressure below the wing
44 To make flying controls more effective at high speed
○ wing fences are used
○ area rule is used
○ vortex generators are used
45 Symptoms of shock stall are
○ buffet, loss of control, and instability
○ decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure
○ compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
46 What happens if you reduce the curvature of the leading edge?
○ Delay the shock wave formation
○ Advance the shock wave formation
○ It will have no effect on shock wave formation
47 Tuck-under can be counteracted by
○ trim tabs
○ mach trim
○ aileron reversal
48 What causes a shock stall?
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ Angle of attack
○ Speed
○ Altitude
49 The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will
○ remain constant
○ decrease
○ increase
50 A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced
○ root stall on a delta wing aircraft
○ tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
○ tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
51 With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere
○ remains constant
○ increases
○ decreases
52 As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to
○ turn into a shock wave
○ move forward
○ move rearward
53 A Mach Trimmer is a device which
○ prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No
○ automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region
○ switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range
54 An increase in mach number will cause the
○ C of P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
○ C of P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane
○ C of P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
55 To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region
○ an all moving tailplane may be used
○ Frise ailerons may be used
○ hydraulic powered elevators may be used
56 At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals
○ lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
○ will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved
○ such as aluminium, become brittle
57 Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
○ increase the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
○ decrease the shock wave induced separation
○ decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
58 Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of sound are
○ hypersonic
○ supersonic
○ hyposonic
59 Mach Number is defined as
○ speed of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound
○ TAS divided by local speed of sound
○ IAS divided by the local speed of sound
60 Mach number equals the ratio of
○ true airspeed to local sonic speed
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ sonic speed to indicated airspeed
○ altitude to airspeed
61 A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be
○ lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
○ the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
○ higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
62 Increased sweepback
○ raises Mcrit
○ improves tip stall characteristics
○ decreases stability
63 Wave drag
○ increases in the supersonic region
○ increases at the low speed stall
○ increases in the transonic region
64 Mach trim in some aircraft assists
○ vertical stability
○ lateral stability
○ longitudinal stability
65 An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience
○ a nose down pitch
○ an oscillation in pitch
○ a nose up pitch
66 Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always
○ the same as upstream
○ supersonic
○ subsonic
67 As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially
○ at the leading edge
○ near the point of maximum curvature
○ at the trailing edge
68 A shock wave is a very thin region in which there is a sudden decrease of
○ temperature
○ velocity
○ pressure
69 Mach trim counters
○ longitudinal instability
○ lateral instability
○ vertical instability
70 When does a shock stall occur?
○ When the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive
○ At the critical Mach number of the aeroplane
○ When the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One
71 At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
○ at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
○ at the trailing edge
○ at the leading edge
72 Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
○ the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward
 01b High Speed Flight (75)
○ the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
○ the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
73 Critical Mach Number is defined as
○ that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
○ that number at which the airflow becomes supersonic
○ the minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic
74 Mach trim operates
○ along the longitudinal axis
○ along the lateral axis
○ to reduce Dutch roll
75 Tip stalling of high speed swept wing aircraft may be prevented by
○ thinning the trailing edge of the inner wing
○ fitting wing fences and using sawtooth leading edges
○ increasing the fineness ratio
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
1 When OAT increases, what happens to a helicopter operating ceiling?
○ Decrease
○ Increase
○ No effect
2 In forward flight, if a helicopter had no flapping hinges it would tend to
○ roll towards the side of the retreating blade
○ roll towards the side of the advancing blade
○ pitch nose up
3 With the helicopter in forward flight, parasitic drag will cause the helicopter to
○ pitch nose down with a decrease in forward airspeed
○ pitch nose down with an increase in forward airspeed
○ pitch nose up with an increase in forward in airspeed
4 An Elastomeric bearing requires
○ no Lubrication
○ bi-annular inspection
○ boots and seal to maintain the lubrication within
5 How do you measure HUMS Gearbox Vibration?
○ Accelerometer
○ RVDT
○ Strain gauge
6 When a blade moves about the flapping hinge
○ the pitch angle of the blade always reduces
○ the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes
○ the drag forces on the blade change
7 Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the
○ relative airflow and the pitch
○ aircraft airspeed and angle of attack
○ relative airflow and the angle of attack
o
Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90 and the control advance angle is 15 degrees, then
8
the pitch operating arm must be at the highest point of the swash plate:
○ o
105 ahead of the highest flapping position
○ 75o ahead of the highest flapping position
○ 90o ahead of the highest flapping position
9 What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?
○ No effect
○ Increases thrust
○ Increases lift
10 Ground effect is ONLY apparent
○ in low speed translational flight up to one times the disc diameter from the ground
○ in the transition from the hover to translational flight
○ in the hover
In a NOTAR system air is ducted down the tail boom to produce a predetermined amount of
11
lift
○ over both sides of the boom to counteract changing torque from the main rotor
○ over the horizontal stabilizer to help maintain nose down attitude in the cruise
○ over one side of the boom to counteract changing torque from the main rotor
12 When will the needle split in a joint rotor/engine RPM instrument?
○ When the freewheel unit sticks
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ On clutch slip
○ When the tail rotor fails
As a helicopter accelerates in level forward flight above approximately 15 knots, it will be
13
necessary to:
○ increase power because rotor RPM is increasing
○ reduce power because rotor profile drag is reduced
○ reduce power because of the additional lift due to translational flight
14 On a helicopter, what is blade dragging?
○ Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge
○ Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges
○ Contact of the blade tips on the ground
15 How many rotor blades are on a helicopter?
○ 2
○ Depends on helicopter design
○ 4
16 On a helicopter, the rotor disc is
○ the combined surface area of the blades
○ the swept area of the hub and blade roots
○ the swept area between the blade tips
17 The cyclic stick controls a helicopter in
○ pitch and roll
○ pitch
○ roll
To maintain the position of the helicopter with a decrease in air density, the pilot must increase
18
○ collective pitch
○ cyclic pitch
○ main rotor RPM
19 The angle of attack of a blade is the
○ angle between the chord line and plane of rotation
○ angle between the chord line and relative airflow
○ angle between the spin axis and relative air flow
20 What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?
○ Fineness ratio
○ Weight of blade
○ Engine and gearbox
A helicopter with anti-clockwise rotating rotor, when moving backwards, will have its rotor
21
blade pitch at maximum at
○ 90° to the left of longitudinal
○ forward the right of longitudinal
○ 90° to the right of longitudinal
22 The forces which govern the coning angle are
○ lift and thrust
○ thrust and centrifugal force
○ lift and centrifugal force
A helicopter is hovering and the pilot applies right pedal. Assuming the main rotor rotates anti
23
clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter will
○ descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open
○ ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ descend, unless the pilot applies more collective pitch
24 Relative velocity of a helicopter rotor
○ increases at forward travelling blade
○ is equal for all blades
○ increases at retreating blade
25 A helicopter's horizontal stabiliser assists in
○ pitch stability
○ roll stability
○ horizontal stability and relieves the load on the tail rotor
26 During the flare in autorotation the rotor RPM
○ reduces to zero
○ reduces
○ increases
For a helicopter in autorotation, what forward speed will achieve the maximum glide distance?
27
○ Less than minimum glide speed
○ The same as the minimum glide speed
○ Greater than minimum glide speed
28 What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
○ Scissor levers
○ Bifilar damper
○ Swashplate
With a fixed collective pitch, as an auto-rotating helicopter loses its forward velocity, the rotor
29
RPM
○ increases
○ decreases
○ stays the same
30 A co-axial helicopter rotor utilises
○ two shafts, one in front of the other
○ two intermeshing shafts side-by-side
○ counter rotating shafts, one inside the other
If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above, where would a pitch
31
input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards?
○ Right of the longitudinal axis
○ Left of the longitudinal axis
○ In front of the lateral axis
32 Tracking is carried out to_____________the main rotor blade tip path
○ restore
○ balance
○ align
If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when viewed from above,
33 and a hovering left turn is required, the following movements of the controls are selected:

○ Rudder pedal to the left, and increase throttle

○ Rudder pedal to the right, and increase throttle
○ Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle
34 When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover position
○ forward thrust is decreased
○ altitude is increased
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ vertical lift is reduced
35 With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will be
○ positive
○ neutral
○ negative
As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward, what happens to the rearward travelling blade's
36
pitch angle?
○ Increases
○ Decreases
○ No change
37 On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
○ Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
○ Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
○ Tip vortex build-up during hover
38 The rotor cone is formed by
○ centrifugal force and lift
○ centrifugal force only
○ blade alignment
39 The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving
○ one moving forward into relative airflow
○ one moving in direction of relative air flow
○ highest blade
40 A helicopter hovering 2m above the ground subject to a strong cross wind will
○ increase lift due to ground cushion effect
○ lose lift due to the removal of the ground cushion effect
○ lose lift due to recirculation
41 With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
○ lower
○ not be affected
○ rise
42 Lift is generated by
○ low pressure above the blade
○ high pressure above the blade
○ down-wash below the blade
43 Ground cushion effect is produced by
○ recirculating air giving additional lift
○ increased pressure under the main rotor disc
○ increase in density above the fuselage
44 Helicopter derives its lift from
○ air is pushed downward
○ rotor acts as a airscrew
○ the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
45 The main rotor drive shaft is tilted laterally on some helicopters to correct tail rotor
○ torque
○ drift
○ roll
46 Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by
○ flapping
○ centrifugal force
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ dragging
47 The tail rotor
○ is not subject to dissymmetry of lift
○ produces a force opposing torque reaction
○ produces a force in the same direction as torque reaction
Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing. This problem can be overcome by
48
placing the tail rotor thrust
○ in line with the main rotor hub
○ below the line of the main rotor hub
○ above the line of the main rotor hub
49 Helicopter blade sections are usually
○ reverse cambered
○ highly cambered
○ symmetrical
50 Autorotation
○ is the production of lift from freely rotating rotor blades
○ leaves the aircraft with no directional control
○ results in a loss of power
51 The best design of a rotor blade is where the C of P
○ does not move
○ moves freely along the length of the blade
○ is insignificant
52 Forward velocity causes the advancing blade to
○ give increased lift due to blade flapping
○ flap up to reduce lift
○ flap down to increase lift
A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anti-clockwise viewed from above, and is fitted
53
with an anti-torque tail rotor. It will tend to drift sideways to
○ port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the right side of the aircraft
○ starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted
○ port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft
54 Autorotative force is the
○ force required to turn in a hover
○ force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a controlled descent
○
component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag
55 A helicopter hovering near a tall building will
○ drift away from it
○ drift towards it
○ be unaffected by it
56 Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs, because of
○ translational lift
○ increased inertia
○ forward momentum
57 Translational flight is
○ achieved by tilting the rotor disc in the direction of flight
○ achieved by raising or lowering the collective lever
○ when the helicopter changes from one steady flight condition to another
58 Static stability of a helicopter is
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ the tendency to move back toward neutral after disturbance
○ the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved
○ the stability of the helicopter when hovering
59 During decent with power-on, on a helicopter
○ lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
○ lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
○ lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter
60 A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called
○ fully articulated rotor
○ rigid rotor
○ semi rigid rotor
To maintain the position of the helicopter, when hovering with a decrease in air density, the
61
pilot must
○ increase rotor RPM
○ increase the collective pitch
○ increase the cyclic pitch
62 As the angle of attack of a rotor blade increases, it affects the
○ dragging forces
○ dragging and the flapping forces
○ flapping forces
63 After a change in collective pitch the Rotor RPM will rise and fall. This is called
○ transient droop
○ under swing
○ static droop
64 What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?
○ Control of the speed of the rotor blades
○ Control of the flap of the rotor blades
○ Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
65 Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the
○ blade area to disc area
○ all up weight to disc area
○ all up weight to blade area
66 When the helicopter moves from the hover to translational flight, the lift vector will
○ move aft
○ remain vertical
○ move forward
67 The rotor disc is
○ the ground cushion
○ the distance between tip to tip
○ the rotor head hub
68 The difference between transient droop and static droop is
○ underswing
○ overswing
○ a hole in one
69 In forward flight, the advancing blade would be expected to
○ increase pitch
○ lag
○ flap up
70 The RPM of the rotor blades is constant, within small limits to
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ prevent blades folding up during flight
○ prevent blades over-speeding
○ reduce torque loading
71 What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?
○ The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation
○ The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
○ The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
72 After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would
○ continue to roll further
○ roll back to the horizontal
○ remain at the position that it had rolled to
73 With an increase in its angle of attack, the drag acting on a rotor blade
○ increases
○ decreases
○ remains constant
74 During forward flight the advancing blade will
○ lag
○ flap down
○ flap up
75 A helicopter fin helps to give
○ longitudinal stability about the normal axis
○ directional stability about the normal axis
○ directional stability about the longitudinal axis
76 The bell stability augmentation system is based on
○ flapping hinges
○ gyroscopic forces
○ offset hinges
77 When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary to
○ increase the engine power
○ decrease the engine power
○ maintain constant engine power
78 After a change in pitch of a rotor blade, the blade will be at maximum flap at
○ 90°
○ 180°
○ 0°
79 The purpose of an off-set vertical stabilizer is to
○ relieve some of the load on the tail rotor during forward flight
○ provide stability during vertical flight
○ provide lift during forward flight
80 The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by
○ engine power
○ the shape of the fuselage
○ retreating blade stall and the forward speed of the advancing blade
81 Upwash on a helicopter would result in
○ increase in lift without an increase in power
○ decrease in lift
○ decrease in speed
82 After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter, the helicopter would
○ continue to roll
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ increases roll
○ come back to level flight
83 Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during autorotation?
○ Upwards
○ Parallel to the rotor chord line
○ Downwards
84 If the blade angle of attack increases
○ lift and drag increases
○ drag increases only
○ lift increases only
85 Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
○ increases at the tip
○ is unaffected by blade position
○ increases at the root
86 During autorotation, the rudder pedals
○ would need to be backed off due to the loss of torque
○ would have no effect on directional control
○ would need to be advanced to counteract the increased torque
87 What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?
○ Flapping actuators
○ Offset hinges
○ Triangular pitch change lever
88 Forces on a helicopter, in a power-on descent are
○ lift, drag, thrust, weight
○ weight, drag, lift
○ lift, drag, thrust
89 What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?
○ Going to the lowest point
○ Increasing in drag
○ Increasing in lift
90 The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to
○ maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during forward flight
○ to reduce rotor head loads during translational flight
○ to stabilize the aircraft in the hover
91 Vortex ring state requires
○ advancing blade stall
○ power on descent
○ retreating blade stall
92 Rotor tip vortices are strongest when
○ flying high speed in straight and level flight
○ hovering with high weight
○ flying into a headwind
93 Movement of the collective control will
○ tilt the disc and increase engine power
○ increase the pitch of the tail rotor
○ increase the pitch of the main rotor blades
94 Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by
○ moving a large mass of air downwards quickly
○ moving a small mass of air downwards slowly
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ creating a lower pressure above the blade than below
95 A blade of a Helicopter Main Rotor is
○ reverse cambered
○ highly cambered
○ symmetrically cambered
96 During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to
○ no change
○ flap up
○ flap down
97 Rotor blade sailing is a problem at
○ low rotor RPM at engine shut down
○ normal rotor RPM in gusty conditions
○ high rotor RPM at engine start up
When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes
98
place?
○ Pressure increases, lift decreases
○ Pressure decreases, lift increases
○ Pressure increases, lift increases
99 Helicopters in forward flight are usually
○ laterally stable
○ longitudinally stable
○ directionally stable
100 Ground effect will be most apparent when
○ taxiing on the ground
○ taxiing in the hover
○ hovering close to the ground
101 The blade stalling speed will
○ increase with an increase in helicopter weight
○ be unaffected by helicopter weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack
○ only change if the MTWA were changed
102 During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be
○ higher than in powered flight
○ approximately the same as in powered flight
○ lower than in powered flight
103 On a helicopter, rotor disc lift happens
○ 90° later
○ immediately
○ 180° later
104 Tail rotor effects the helicopter in
○ vertical axis
○ pitch and roll
○ horizontal axis
105 What forces are acting on the helicopter during descent?
○ Lift only
○ Weight only
○ Lift and weight
106 Lift in a helicopter is a result of
○ angle of attack x velocity squared
○ pitch x square root of speed
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ angle of attack x velocity squared and forward speed
107 When a blade is flapping up
○ lift and drag both increase
○ pitch will decrease
○ pitch will increase
108 Autorotative force attempts to pull the rotor blade
○ against the direction of normal rotation
○ in the direction of normal rotation
○ both in and against the direction of normal rotation
With an increase in forward velocity of a helicopter, the increase in parasitic drag will cause the
109
fuselage attitude to
○ pitch up
○ remain level
○ pitch down
110 The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling
○ the length of the fuselage
○ twice the diameter of the rotor disc
○ the diameter of the rotor disc
The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of
111
the airflow, is known as
○ camber layer
○ none of the above are correct
○ boundary layer
112 In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade
○ is greatest for the retreating blade
○ is greatest for the advancing blade
○ is equal at all blades due to compensation
113 When an aerofoil stalls
○ lift decreases and drag increases
○ lift increases and drag decreases
○ lift and drag increase
114 Changes in aircraft weight
○ will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant
○ will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
○ cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
115 When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack, the centre of pressure
○ does not move
○ moves rearwards
○ moves forward
116 When entering into a stable autorotative state, the main rotor RPM will initially
○ decrease
○ increase
○ be unaffected
When a helicopter rotor disc is tilted forward, what happens to the pitch of the retreating
117
blade?
○ Remains constant
○ Decreases
○ Increases
118 Airflow through the main rotor disc in autorotation is
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ always up through the rotor disc
○ may be either up or down
○ always down through the rotor disc
119 Stability of a helicopter is its
○ ability to hover at a fixed point above the ground
○ ability to move in all 3 axis where and when required
○ ability to return to original attitude after displacement
120 The stalling speed of a helicopter blade
○ does not change
○ is increased when the helicopter is heavier
○ is increased when the helicopter is lighter
121 The ground cushion effect is apparent
○ on the ground only
○ in the hover only
○ in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground
122 The rotor blades operate at the best Lift/Drag ratio when their
○ angle of attack is about +3 degrees
○ angle of attack is 0 degrees
○ pitch angles closely approach the stall angle
A helicopter has a main rotor which rotates anticlockwise viewed from above. What happens if
123
a loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in flight?
○ No appreciable change
○ Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to left
○ Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right
124 Over pitch causes
○ a reduction in RPM
○ blades to cone up
○ an increase in RPM
125 A helicopter main rotor blade is twisted from root to tip to
○ equalise lift along the blade
○ give the blade additional strength
○ permit the blade to straighten under aerodynamic load
The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to make the blade have
126
○ the highest possible lift co-efficient when hovering
○ the best possible autorotative characteristics
○ a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack
In a helicopter with its main rotor turning anti-clockwise, which way does the aircraft tend to
127
drift?
○ Port if tail rotor is mounted on the right
○ Starboard, irrespective of which side the tail rotor is mounted on
○ Port if tail rotor is mounted on the left
128 The choice of aerofoil section for a rotor blade is such that
○ it has a stable centre of pressure
○ the C of P moves very slowly
○ the C of P moves rapidly in response to pitch changes
129 The main rotor assembly of a helicopter provides
○ lift, a component of which is horizontal so thrust is obtained
○ both lift and horizontal thrust
 01c Theory of Flight Rotary Wing Aerodynamics(140)
○ lift, but an unbalanced component in the direction of flight moves the aircraft forward
130 A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip to
○ equalise lift along the blade
○ reduce the blade weight
○ reduce induced drag
131 Aspect ratio is the ratio of the
○ blade chord to the disc area
○ disc diameter to the chord
○ blade span to the chord
132 Disc loading is defined as the
○ ratio of gross weight to total blade area
○ ratio of blade area to disc area
○ ratio of gross weight to disc area
133 When the rotor blade is flapping down, the pitch angle
○ is less than the angle of attack
○ remains the same
○ is greater than the angle of attack
134 Translational drift is
○ the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally
○ the tendency for the aircraft to pitch nose up
○ the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port
135 Which part of the rotor disc produces the most lift during forward flight?
○ The rear portion
○ The mid-span portion
○ The front portion
136 The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the chord line
○ which moves most, with changes in angle of attack, if the section is symmetrical
○ at which the highest pressure is said to act
○ at which the lift forces resultant is said to act
137 A shrouded tail rotor
○ reduces need for cyclic feathering
○ gives control in pitch and yaw
○ has increased airflow so yaw can be controlled by the rudder
138 An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters is that
○ the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the angle of attack is greater than that of a
fixed wing
○ the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide, providing
stability
○ the centre of pressure moves forward with changes in angle of attack
139 When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack
○ is less than the pitch angle
○ is greater than the pitch angle
○ remains the same as the pitch angle
140 If the angle of attack is increased on a main rotor blade
○ there is a reduction in drag
○ there is an increase in drag
○ there is no change in drag
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
1 The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is
○ Notice 79
○ Notice 89
○ Notice 65
2 What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?
○ None is required
○ Fire-proof grommets
○ Soft rubber
The parts of the structure which run the length of the fuselage from nose to tail are
3
○ longerons
○ spars
○ intercostals
4 What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
○ Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
○ Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
○ Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
5 A loss of strength resulting from cyclic loading is known as
○ metal fatigue
○ age hardening
○ fail safe
6 Semi-monocoque construction
○ offers good damage resistance
○ utilizes the safe-life design concept
○ is used only for the fuselage
Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?
7
○ Monocoque
○ Semi-monocoque
○ Truss type
8 ATA Chapter for Stablizers is
○ 54
○ 53
○ 55
9 Ultimate loads are
○ limit loads times safety factor
○ limit loads
○ maximum loads times safety factor
10 How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
○ Special grease on the hinges
○ Diverter strips
○ Special paint
11 The normal axis of a helicopter passes through
○ through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis
○ a line parallel to rotor axis
○ the centre of rotor disc
12 An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
○ too much kinetic energy on landing
○ an excessive fuel load on take-off
○ a missplaced centre of gravity on landing
13 Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
○ solvent etch
○ acid etch
○ alkaline etch
14 What load is a tie rod designed to accept?
○ Torsion
○ Tensile
○ Bending
15 A structural member intended to resist compression is a
○ tie
○ strut
○ web
16 What is the minimum occupant weight that a passenger seat must withstand?
○ 79 kg
○ 77 kg
○ 65 kg
17 Intercostals are
○ longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames
○ vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane
○ compression ribs in cantilever wings
18 A modern large transport aircraft fuselage would be normally constructed from
○ warren truss structure
○ semi monocoque structure
○ geodetic structure
An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward
19
facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to
○ to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above
236 kg.
○ to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and
if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion
(HIC)
○ test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity
20 A fuselage construction where the skin carries all of the loads is known as
○ semi-stressed
○ semi-monocoque
○ monocoque
21 Structure with built‐in redundancy is called
○ double safe
○ safe life
○ failsafe
When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by
22
fitting
○ an inner plate
○ webs
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
○ an outer plate
23 If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add
○ an internal doubler
○ an intercostal
○ external doubler
24 A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
○ bulkheads
○ frame
○ longerons
25 A semi-monocoque structure is one which has
○ an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure
○ an external load bearing skin with no internal load bearing structure
○ a tubular internal structure fabric covered
26 Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the
○ operator
○ maintenance engineer
○ manufacturer
27 What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
○ Frames
○ Stringers
○ Bulkheads
28 The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is
○ 1 in 600
○ 1 in 400
○ 1 in 200
29 A plain flap
○ when deployed increases the camber of the wing
○ when stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surface
○ when stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surface
30 A redundant structure is
○ a failsafe structure
○ a safe-life structure
○ on-condition structure
31 Primer and wash primer are
○ used to wash aircraft bare metal prior to paint
○ allow a smooth, shiny, speed friendly finish
○ allow bonding of top coat
32 Why is a joggle joint used?
○ Smooth contour of surface
○ So countersunk rivets do not need to be used
○ Added strength
33 Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
○ stringers
○ bulkheads
○ longerons
34 What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?
○ Landings
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
○ Flying Hours
○ Pressure Cycles
35 The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are
○ 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
○ 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%
○ 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%
36 When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate
○ humidity
○ temperature
○ toxic gases
37 A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as
○ tertiary
○ primary
○ secondary
38 The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is
○ to prevent corrosion
○ to provide external streamlining
○ to seal the cabin
39 What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?
○ Drag Strut
○ Shock Absorber
○ Drag Wire
40 What are the types of true bonded joints?
○ Mechanical and specific
○ Mechanical and cemented
○ Cemented and specific
41 What is a fairlead?
○ A guard to prevent control cables coming off pulleys
○ A guide for control cables running through bulkheads etc
○ An extension to a control cable
If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary,
42
what action should you adopt?
○ Upgrade it to primary
○ Grade it as secondary
○ Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary
43 What is the normal form of construction of a spar?
○ Two webs separated by a boom
○ Two booms separated by a web
○ One boom mounted under a web
44 With regard to extraneous spilt fluids
○ they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft
○ they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
○ they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
45 Which of the following is primary structure?
○ Stringer
○ Skin
○ Frame
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
46 The life of the structure is counted by
○ landings
○ flying hours
○ pressurization cycle
47 The main forces on an aircraft structure are
○ tension, compression, torsion and strain
○ tension, compression, twisting and shear
○ tension, compression, torsion and shear
An extruded or rolled aluminium sheet channel section that runs normally the length of
48
the fuselage is known as
○ cleat
○ stringer
○ intercostal
49 Stress
○ is the deformation of a material caused by applied load
○ is the load per unit area acting on a material
○ is the property of a material to resist fracture
50 A false rib is usually used to
○ allow the fitment of aileron control tubes through a wing
○ support and give aerodynamic shape to the wing leading edge
○ lose a torsion box structure
51 An example of primary stress is
○ shear
○ tension
○ bending
52 Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?
○ These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft
and loss of life
○ These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets
etc.
○ These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the
aircraft
53 A cargo bay must have signs stating
○ maximum loadings
○ maximum dimensions
○ no hazardous cargo
54 Battery trays are
○ metal for earthing purposes
○ absorbent to soak up electrolyte
○ metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
55 Cantilever construction is structure supported at
○ each end and in the centre
○ one end only
○ each end
56 Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?
○ Control surfaces
○ Wings
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
○ Pressure cabin
57 Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in
○ JAR 25
○ ANO 25
○ CS 25
58 Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates
○ sagging
○ hogging
○ shedding
59 Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have
○ slight shrinkage due to age
○ smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
○ larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
60 If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be
○ red
○ green
○ yellow
61 Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?
○ Determine the fuel tanks are empty
○ Remove all optional equipment
○ Install critical stress panels or plates
62 Bending stresses are a combination of
○ tension and compression stresses
○ tension and shear stresses
○ torsional and compression stresses
63 A failsafe structure
○ prevents any failure of structure
○ distributes loads to other structures for a limited period
○ allows damage to primary structure for an unlimited period
64 Panels that are attached to the aircraft by quick release fasteners are:
○ primary structure
○ tertiary structure
○ secondary structure
65 Skin panels may be strengthened by
○ cleats
○ stringers
○ struts
66 The purpose of a primer is to
○ provide flexible surface for the top coat
○ provide shiny surface for the topcoat
○ help bonding of the topcoat
67 What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
○ To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
○ To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
○ To provide a balance for CofG
68 In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the
○ skin
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
○ longerons
○ frames
69 Paint remover substances
○ are not damaging to any aircraft parts
○ should only be used once
○ are damaging to some aircraft parts
70 In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
○ Stringers
○ Longerons
○ Skin
71 A member taking a compression load is called a
○ beam
○ cable
○ strut
When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
72
○ 50 milliohms
○ 0.005ohms
○ 1/50 ohms
73 Aluminium is prepared for bonding by
○ Solvent Etch
○ Alkali Etch
○ Acid Etch
74 One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it
○ takes all the loads in the skin
○ is easier to manufacture
○ shares the loads
75 The optimum atmospheric conditions for painting aircraft is
○ between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity
○ between 65oF and 75oF with less than 75% relative humidity
○ between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity
76 Safe-life is
○ the sharing of loads between adjacent members
○ the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure
occurs
○ the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure
occurs
77 Symmetry checks should be carried out
○ in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
○ in the hangar with the aircraft on jacks
○ on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
78 A crack stopper is fitted
○ before a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
○ before a crack starts, to prevent its initiation
○ after a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours
79
or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?
○ Fail-safe
○ Safe-life
○ Condition monitored
Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting the skin between
80
longerons are called
○ frames
○ stringers
○ ribs
81 Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to
○ provide access for depressurising the aircraft
○ provide access for pressurising the aircraft
○ provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor
82 If a redundant structure fails it becomes
○ failsafe
○ safe-life
○ fatigued
83 Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding is best for
○ high strength high ductility
○ low strength high toughness
○ high strength high toughness
84 In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by
○ stringers
○ frames
○ bulkheads
85 Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided because
○ it makes the titanium soft
○ it makes the titanium brittle
○ there is no effect
What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the
86
structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
○ Bulkhead
○ Stringer
○ Frame
87 Tension is the stress of
○ elongating or stretch
○ crush or compression
○ twisting
88 What force is an I-Beam subjected to?
○ Tension
○ Bending
○ Shear
89 Which loads do longerons resist?
○ Torsional only
○ Bending, compression, tensile and torsion
○ Bending, compression and tensile
 02a Structures — General Concepts(100)
90 Composite materials are bonded by
○ aluminium wire
○ copper wire
○ special paint
91 A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a
○ shear tie
○ tear stopper
○ jury strut
92 A member designed to take mainly compressive loads is called a
○ beam
○ strut
○ tie
93 The 5 forces acting on an aircraft structure are
○ compression, tension, torsion, shear, strain
○ compressio, tension, torsion, shear, twisting
○ compression, tension, torsion, shear, bending
94 Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as
○ failsafe joints
○ secondary joints
○ crack limiting joints
95 Damage tolerant design
○ is applied only to secondary structure
○ allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure
○
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance

96 The normal axis on a helicopter is

○ at 90° to the rotor head
○ at 90° to the C of G
○ straight down the rotor head
97 The ground cable must be
○ copper stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area
○ single strand 18 AWG
○ single conductor copper 0.5 in. cross sectional area
98 Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing
○ leading edge lower surface
○ leading edge upper surface
○ trailing edge
99 If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
○ aluminium alloy
○ plastic
○ stainless steel
100 An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a
○ fail-safe design
○ safe-life design
○ monocoque design
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)

1 In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

○ at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead
○ at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead
○ in the undercarriage bay including the doors
2 What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?
○ Bonding and insulation tests
○ Shielding of all sensitive equipment
○ Check of aircraft structure
3 Paint stripper
○ should never be used
○ may affect seals, composites, acrylic windows
○ is only applied once
When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is
4
○ full scale deflection
○ zero
○ centre scale
5 A Fuselage Station is a
○ lateral point on aircraft fuse
○ longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
○ lateral point on aircraft wing
6 Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in
○ inches
○ feet and inches
○ feet
7 What is tested when testing mechanical bonded joints?
○ shear strength and peel strength
○ peel strength and fatigue
○ shear strength and impact resistance
8 Engine mounts provide for
○ torsional movement
○ lateral movement
○ longitudinal movement
The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom
9
of the fuselage is
○ butt line
○ water line
○ fuselage station
10 ATA zone 500 is the
○ engine
○ right wing
○ left wing
11 The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is
○ 50 milliohms
○ 1 ohms
○ 1M - 100,000 ohms
12 ATA zone 330 is the
○ left horizontal stabiliser
○ right horizontal stabiliser
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)
○ vertical stabiliser
13 A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
○ conductive paint
○ bonding strips
○ special conductive grease
14 Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?
○
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
○ 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
○ 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing
15 A firewall bulkhead is usually made from
○ titanium
○ tungsten
○ steel
16 Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by
○ the use of special conductive paint
○ bonding strips
○ special conducting or non-conducting grease
17 Where is zone 320 on an aircraft according to the ATA100 system?
○ Fuselage
○ Fin
○ Horizontal Stabilizer
The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
18
○ earthing
○ bonding
○ static wicks
19 When doing a bonding check on annodised aluminium
○ ignore coating
○ remove anodised coating
○ measure resistance and adjust reading taking into account resistance of coating
20 What is the bonding value between parts of a secondary structure?
○ Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms
○ 1 ohm
○ 0.5 ohms
21 Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 is the
○ left wing
○ right wing
○ door
22 The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by
○ automatically by an altitude switch
○ manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch
○ manual selection from cockpit
Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?
23
○ CMC fault indications
○ Visual inspections
○ Insulation testing
24 The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)
○ 22 SWG x 0.5
○ 18 SWG for a single wire
○ 22 SWG x 0.25
When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?
25
○ Thicker material
○ A waffle plate
○ A tripler plate
26 Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by
○ non-conductive paint
○ conductive paint
○ bonding
What is used in order to add additional strength to the fuselage when fitting an aerial?
27
○ External Doubler
○ Internal Doubler
○ Both internal and external doubler
28 When using a bonding tester, you
○ use the 6ft lead for testing different points
○ use either leads for the testing
○ use the 60ft lead for testing different points
29 How is the radome protected from lightning strike?
○ Diverter strips
○ Special paint
○ Special grease on the hinges
30 Stringers
○ run the full length on all aircraft
○ do not pass through bulkheads
○ are attached to the frame
31 To identify a Zone Location on an aircraft there are
○ Numbers only
○ Combinations of Letters and Numbers
○ 3 Letters
32 To remove a rivet you should
○ drill half way through
○ drill it all the way through
○ drill to the depth of the head
33 Fuselage station minus 16.5 is located
○ behind the aircraft nose
○ forward of the aircraft nose
○ forward of the datum
If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the expected resistance value when
34
carrying out a check should be
○ 1.5 milliohms
○ 0.5 milliohms
○ 2.5 milliohms
35 If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester
○ tester reads zero
○ tester reads full scale
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)
○ tester would be zero centred
How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?
36
○ Earthing Strap
○ Bonding Strip
○ Special paint
37 The faying surfaces of a repair are
○ the edges of a repair that can be seen once the repair is finished
○ the side of the repair which will be in contact with the airflow
○ the surfaces that are riveted together
38 Lateral stations have station zero at the
○ centre line
○ left wing tip
○ nose
39 When carrying out a bonding test of a component with anodic coating
○ use charts to compensate the meter readings
○ you do not need to penetrate the coating
○ you must penetrate the coating
40 What is the water line?
○ A line below which redux bonding can not be used
○ The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
○ The datum from which vertical locations refer
Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?
41
○ Visual inspections
○ Insulation testing
○ CMC fault indications
42 Composite materials are bonded by
○ special paint
○ aluminium wire
○ copper wire
43 Most radio aerials are
○ insulated from the fuselage
○ bonded
○ not bonded
44 A structure which if it failed would cause aircraft to crash is
○ integral
○ essential
○ primary
The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a component is
45
○ stations
○ zones
○ datum
46 Where is Zone 323?
○ Between rear spar and trailing edge
○ Tip of vertical stabiliser
○ Between front and rear spar
47 For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)
○ a thick metallic bonding strip
○ a corrugated bonding jumper
○ a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
48 ATA chapter for Nacelles/Pylons is
○ 55
○ 53
○ 54
49 Wing stations are measured
○ outboard from the fuselage centreline
○ outboard from the wing root
○ inboard from the wing upper surface
What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure?
50
○ 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
○ 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
○ No smaller than 18AWG
When carrying out an insulation resistance test of a pitot probe you would expect
51
○ 1 megohm when cold
○ 3 megohm when hot and when cooled down
○ 5 megohm
If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable, you must
52
○ replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
○ splice the broken lead
○ defer the defect until correct spares are available
53 Secondary bonding is usually provided with
○ 18 AWG
○ single strand 0.25 inch
○ stranded copper 0.25 inch
What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be
54 subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system?

○ 0.5 ohm
○ 1 ohm
○ 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less
55 A panel at STN+88/WL-12 is located 88 units
○ rearward of the aircraft datum and 12 units above the water line datum
○ rearward of the datum and 12 units below the waterline
○ forward of the aircraft vertical centre and 12 units below the water line datum
56 With a bonding meter
○ the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
○ the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead to item
○ it does not matter which lead goes where
Using the following:
57 FS 345, RWS 45,
where is this located?
○ 345 inches back from the nose, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing
○ 345 inches back from the nose and 45 inches along the right wing
 02b Structures — General Concepts(64)
○ 345 inches back from the datum line, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing
58 Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a
○ vertical line
○ horizontal line
○ wing line
59 What are buttock lines?
○ Vertical measurement lines
○ Measurements from the centre line
○ Horizontal measurement lines
When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to structure with a single fastener
60
○ install the largest terminal nearest the structure, with the others, to a maximum of four, stacked and fanned
in decreasing size
○ place the smallest terminal nearest the structure, covered by a spacer, with the others, to a maximum of six,
stacked in increasing size
○ connect the largest terminal nearest the structure with the others, to a total of three, stacked symmetrically in
any order
A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences
61
would be
○ bonded to the primary structure
○ painted in a non-conductive paint
○ painted in a conductive paint
62 ATA Zone 100 is
○ lower fuselage
○ upper fuselage
○ left-hand wing
63 Zone 320 under the ATA system is
○ horizontal stabiliser
○ central fuselage
○ vertical stabiliser
64 Fibreglass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by
○ earth primary conductors
○ conductive paint
○ non conductive paint
 03 Autoflight (260)
1 Selecting a profile for VNAV for autothrottle speed control
○ the F/D or the autopilot must be engaged
○ can only be done when the aircraft is in a clean configuration
○ can be done at any time
2 When pitch angle limit is used, it is applied during altitude hold mode to the
○ surface position feedback signal
○ pitch attitude signal
○ height error signal
In flight with the pitch channel engaged to the autopilot, the signal from the vertical gyro will
3
○ always oppose the pitch command signal
○ be integrated with the pitch command signal
○ always aid the pitch command signal
4 VOR signals are sent to the
○ roll channel
○ yaw channel
○ pitch channel
5 Touchdown mode is usually initiated by
○ speed bug cursor
○ EPR limits
○ AoA and flap position sensors
6 An autopilot servo motor is often fitted to a mounting plate to
○ allow electrical measurements to be taken from test points
○ enable easy access
○ enable motor replacement without disturbing flight control system
7 A category 2 landing RVR is
○ 800 m
○ 200 m
○ 400 m
8 A failure during automatic landing with a fail passive system results in
○ below decision height the aircraft will continue with the automatic landing
○ below alert height the aircraft will continue with the automatic landing
○ system disconnect and the approach must be flown manually
9 Alpha range is applicable to
○ anti-skid system
○ high speed flight
○ auto-throttle
10 Torque is limited by the clutch in the servo motor to
○ allow the pilot to over-ride the autopilot
○ limit control surface movement at low speed
○ allow manual control when the autopilot is disengaged
11 Autopilot servo brake is energised
○ to actuate on
○ to actuate off
○ at the same time as the clutch
12 Minimum operating speed of the autothrottle is derived from the
○ altitude
○ angle of attack
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ pitch angle
13 In a servo loop, an LVDT provides
○ position feedback
○ rate feedback
○ either rate or position feedback
14 A yaw damper adds to its signal chain, aileron and spoiler inputs
○ to help counteract adverse yaw
○ so the rudder can be used to generate lift to offset the lift reduction in a turn
○ to allow a commanded turn
15 In autothrottle EPR mode, the actual EPR is obtained from
○ throttle position
○ EPR transmitter/transducer
○ performance data computer
16 Autopilot clutches are energised
○ never, they are magnetic
○ on
○ off
17 In a simple vertical speed hold circuit the clutch is
○ disengaged when the aircraft is climbing or descending
○ engaged only when the VS mode is engaged
○ engaged whenever the autopilot is selected
Autopilot ‘Go-around’ mode is normally engaged by actuating a switch mounted on the
18
○ Mode selector panel, designation as ‘GA’
○ Control wheel
○ engine power lever
19 A fail-operational autopilot system will ensure that
○ the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected
○ the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected
○ the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure
20 A yaw damper gain
○ can be modified by rudder position
○ decreases with speed
○ increases with speed
21 Helicopters with automatic flight control, static droop is
○ change in stabilised RPM
○ initial fall in RPM
○ RPM under-swing value
With heading mode selected, and in a coordinated turn, the roll channel responds to the
22
heading error signal
○ opposed by a vertical gyro signal
○ opposed by a heading rate signal
○ aided by a vertical gyro signal
With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the pilot, the course will
23
be corrected by the
○ normal flight control
○ autopilot panel
○ flight director input
 03 Autoflight (260)
24 When the autothrottle is selected to 'Airspeed' mode, the throttles will maintain the
○ speed selected on the thrust select panel
○ vertical speed as selected on the autopilot control panel
○ speed selected at engagement
25 Feedback is
○ 1/4 phase of the demand
○ the same phase as the command
○ the reverse phase of the command
26 When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
○ ALT Hold
○ VOR
○ Heading Hold
27 To ensure an aircraft attains the glideslope track
○ the aircraft is pitched up by an input from the CADC altitude rate to slow down the aircraft rate of
descent
○ there is a glideslope capture bias applied 10 seconds after the system is switched on
○
there is a glideslope capture bias applied for 10 seconds after the system switches to capture mode
28 Failure of Autopilot in flight will be indicated by
○ A rapid 'pitch up' attitude
○ Operation of the stick shaker
○ A failure light and an aural signal
29 Autopilot controls roll an aircraft between
○ 6 - 8 degrees
○ 10 - 12 degrees
○ 3 - 5 degrees
In a helicopter the Rate Gyro and 'Leaky Integrator' inputs which are fed to the computer
30
form part of the
○ SAS channel auxiliary circuit
○ inner loop control system
○ outer loop control system
31 Autotrim is
○ a pitch function
○ used independent of the autopilot
○ a roll function
32 In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect
○ all channels
○ the failed system and carry on with an autoland
○ the failed system and continue with a manual approach
In an AFCS whose control channels can be engaged with PCUs, the appropriate command
33
signals control the operation of a transfer valve which
○ positions of autopilot select valve to supply hydraulic fluid to the main actuator
○ positions a spool valve to supply hydraulic fluid to the main actuators
○
positions a spool valve and autopilot select valves to supply hydraulic fluid to the main actuator
34 The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is
○ operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
○ operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
35 An autopilot synchronisation loop circuit must ensure that the trim system
○ disengages if hard over is detected
○ engages upon coupling the channel
○ disengages upon coupling the channel
36 On the ground, failure of the autopilot servomotor rate feedback will cause
○ oscillations of the control surface about its datum position
○ control surface move to the end stop
○ control surface sluggish response
Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of
37
operation. Operation at high speed is used during
○ flaps down
○ aircraft at altitude and straight and level
○ mach trim
38 In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode, the throttles are used for
○ maintaining a computed EPR
○ controlling to a maximum thrust
○ correction of minor speed deviations
39 Which modes are incompatible?
○ VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
○ HDG + V/S HOLD
○ G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
40 The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
○ CAIPs
○ BCARs
○ JAR AWO
41 FAIL PASSIVE means
○ system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue in autoland mode
○ system self monitors, and the system has the ability to withstand a failure without endangering
passenger safety, and without producing excessive deviations from the flight path
○ system self monitors, but the system does not have the ability to withstand a failure without
endangering passenger safety, and without producing excessive deviations from the flight path
42 The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
○ roll errors
○ heading errors
○ localiser deviation errors
43 Bank angle limiting is applied in which modes?
○ Heading mode, LOC mode
○ LOC mode only
○ All modes
44 To carry out an autopilot check, first
○ switch off all power
○ ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
○ switch on NAV receivers
45 Stand-off errors on a localiser approach are washed out by
○ integrating deviation signal
○ integrating course error
○ differentiating deviation signal
 03 Autoflight (260)
In a triplex system, loss of one ILS receiver signal BEFORE Alert Height would result in
46
○ a downgrade to Cat II
○ a full Autoland continued
○ a go-around initiated
47 An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control
○ the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
○ the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
○ the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
48 Loss of course wash-out signal whilst on LOC approach would result in
○ continued flight on course but with scalloping or bracketing
○ aircraft flying off centreline
○ a continued heading correction being applied to the aircraft causing it to fly in a circle
A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment with fail operational
49
control and roll out guidance will have
○ a decision height depending upon the RVR
○ a decision height of about 50 feet
○ no decision height
50 In a triplex system, loss of one ILS receiver signal AFTER Alert Height would result in
○ a downgrade to Cat II
○ a full Autoland continued
○ a go-around initiated
51 A course washout is used for
○ intercept angle
○ mix summate
○ crosswind
To prevent an aircraft standing-off from a selected radio beam due to cross wind, it is usual to:
52
○ introduce an inverting integrator in series with the course error signal
○ introduce an inverting integrator in parallel with the course error signal
○ introduce an integrator in parallel with the course error signal
53 On the approach, the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would
○ fly parallel to the beam
○ increase its drift angle
○ fly a circle
54 The GA mode is usually initiated by
○ pressing a button on the control wheel
○ pressing a button on thrust levers
○ making a selection on the mode control panel
55 Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
○ one set of instruments on the threshold of the runway
○ information obtained the local Meteorological Office
○ three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
56 With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE, compatible autopilot modes are
○ IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
○ V/S and ALT ARM
○ VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
57 The autostab is for
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ removing standing loads
○ controlling glideslope rate
○ prevention of loss of pitch at high speeds
58 Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure
○ that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
○ that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions on engagement
○
that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged

59 Bank angle limiting in heading mode is via

○ servo position feedback
○ the rate gyro
○ gain control
60 The autopilot will automatically disengage if the
○ VG fails
○ roll angle exceeds the roll limit
○ bank angle exceeds the bank limit
61 An autopilot PFCU servo brake is
○ energised on
○ energised off
○ energised at the same time as the clutch
62 When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle?
○ With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged
○ Only with the Flight Director selected
○ Only after take off
63 Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
○ at any time after autoland has been engaged
○ only when the autopilot is engaged
○ at any time
The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated, after the selection of
64
autoland
○ IAS and glideslope
○ IAS and steering or heading
○ ILS localiser and IAS
65 Versine is attenuated with
○ Mach
○ IAS
○ Altitude
66 The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point
○ where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals
○ the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
○ where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
On receipt of a radio signal, which type of circuit would be used to 'washout' the information?
67
○ Decoding Circuit
○ Integrating Circuit
○ Differentiating Circuit
68 A category II facility performance ILS has an intersect height of
○ 15 m
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ 0m
○ 60 m
69 Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the
○ ILS system must be working
○ ground radio aids must be at CAT III
○ ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
70 Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?
○ Localizer capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold
○ Localizer capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
○ Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
71 Autothrottle is controlled by what?
○ Flap position
○ Angle of attack and flap position
○ Angle of attack
The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater
72
than
○ -7
1 x 10
○ 1 x 10-8
○ 1 x 10-6
73 An automatic pilot cut-out will
○ remove the servo load
○ not remove the servo load but will remove the electrical signal
○ cage the vertical gyro and trip the electrical supply
74 If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will
○ rotate nose up
○ increase speed and rotate nose up
○ increase speed
75 The autopilot disconnect annunciator is
○ a red caption
○ a amber caption
○ an aural warning only
76 The ICAO weather category 3A is
○ operation down to 60 m and 800 m
○ operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m
○ operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
In a triple autopilot system, failure of the ILS receiver before alert height will result in what?
77
○ Continued autoland
○ No autoland
○ Initiation of a G/A
78 Operation of the yaw damper test switch in the cockpit will cause the
○ system to carryout the BITE check
○ pointer in the trim indicator to move
○ the test light to illuminate indicating system serviceability
79 For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is
○ mandatory
○ a matter of choice for the operator
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
80 Reverse thrust is selected
○ after disengagement of the auto-throttle
○ automatically, as long as reverse thrust is armed and serviceable
○ automatically, as long as auto-brake is armed and serviceable
81 When the autothrottle is selected to Airspeed mode the throttles will maintain the
○ speed selected at engagement
○ speed selected on the thrust select panel
○ vertical speed as selected on the autopilot control panel
82 Torque is limited by the clutch in the servo motor to
○ allow the pilot to over-ride the autopilot
○ limit control surface movement at low speed
○ allow manual control when the autopilot is disengaged
83 The overshoot or go around mode is initiated
○ by a selector on the throttle control panel
○ automatically
○ by pushing the throttles forward to maximum
84 Fail passive system fails. What will happen?
○ Produce no out of trim and autoland is not completed
○ Produce out of trim and autoland is not completed
○ Produce no out of trim and autoland is to continue
85 Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by
○ aileron to rudder crossfeed
○ yaw rate gyro signals
○ aileron to elevator crossfeed
86 The autopilot is instructed by the
○ FMC
○ Flight Director
○ GPS
The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to
87
continue the approach to a landing is known as the
○ decision height
○ intercept height
○ alert height
88 What class of amplifier processes less than 180 degrees of a signal?
○ Class C
○ Class A
○ Class B
89 The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at
○ the decrab phase
○ start of flare phase
○ 300 ft
90 On selection of the Turbulence Mode
○ the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
○ the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
○ the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
91 Alert Height is when
○ a decision of whether to land is made
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ an alert of the ground proximity is made
○ an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
92 An aircraft will capture the autoland system at
○ 1500 ft
○ 3500 ft
○ 2500 ft
93 When is autothrottle disengaged?
○ On selection of thrust reverse
○
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency
○ On landing
94 If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
○ aircraft moves in a circle
○ aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
○ aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift
95 What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?
○ Radio altimeter
○ Glideslope signal
○ Decision height
96 The two parameters used for category classification are
○ localiser and glideslope
○ decision height and runway visual range
○ radio height/runway visual range
97 On touchdown, the autothrottle
○ remains engaged ready for G/A
○ disconnects after a short time
○ drives the throttles forward
98 During flare mode, autothrottle will
○ disconnect autothrottle
○ select reverse thrust
○ retard throttles to idle
99 The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from
○ the localiser receiver
○ the glide slope receiver
○ radio altimeter
100 A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a
○ simplex system
○ dual-dual system
○ duplex system
101 CAT-3b allows
○ approach, land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
○ approach, land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
○ approach, land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters
102 If during autoland, the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
○ the system degrades to CAT II
○ the autoland is continued
○ a go-around is initiated
103 When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ Placards in the cockpit
○ An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
○ Crew retraining
104 In autopilot, the control column
○ does not move
○ moves in pitch and roll
○ moves in pitch
105 An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
○ the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of single failure
○ the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected
○ the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected
106 Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by
○ the area navigation system
○ the runway localiser
○ the airfield marker beacon
107 The order of autoland approach is
○ LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
○ GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
○ LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
108 During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
○ pitch rate gyros
○ radio altimeters
○ vertical accelerometers
109 The effective gain of the glide path receiver
○ is decreased as the aircraft descends
○ is increased as the aircraft descends
○ remains constant as the aircraft descends
110 VNAV can be selected
○ alone
○ only if autopilot and flight-director is selected
○ only if autothrottle is selected
111 What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?
○ No signal
○ Nose up bias
○ Nose down bias
112 With a fail passive system, in the event of failure it will
○ produce no significant out of trim condition
○ ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
○ produce a significant out of trim condition
113 A triplex system loses one channel. The system is now,
○ fail operational
○ fail passive
○ fail redundant
114 The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to
○ disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim
○ continue to control after any first fault
○ disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
115 Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ assist with glideslope tracking
○ assist with localiser tracking
○ point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown
116 The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is
○ to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway
○ to limit the range of control movement
○ to allow the pilot to override
117 An autopilot interlock circuit is to
○
both disconnect the system if a fault appears and prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
○ disconnect the system if a fault appears
○ prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
118 An autopilot with two separate power supplies is
○ fail operational
○ fail passive
○ fail redundant
If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a
119
○ Triplex system
○ Duplex system
○ Simplex system
120 When will the decision height aural warning sound?
○ After D.H.
○ At D.H.
○ Before D.H.
121 Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
○ below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
○ below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
○ below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
122 Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct sequence?
○ Attitude, flare, rollout
○ Rollout, attitude, flare
○ Flare, attitude, rollout
123 In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of
○ 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
○ carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
○ 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
124 During takeoff, if an input to autothrottle fails
○ autothrottle disengages
○ throttle hold is annunciated
○ fail light illuminates
125 When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
○ the maximum roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
○ maximum rudder deflection
○ the maximum aileron angle that can be commanded
In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is
126
prevented by
○ a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ synchros attached to the control
○ a lock on the cockpit control
127 Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
○ All are continuously available
○ Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
○ No other pitch modes are available
128 In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
○ column will not move and trim system will move
○ column to move but trim system not to move
○ column to move and trim system to move
129 An autoland system displays Land 2. Another failure will make the system
○ simplex
○ fail-passive
○ fail-operational
130 What is B-RNAV?
○ Ability to store 6 waypoints
○ Indicates true airspeed
○ Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
131 Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of
○ 15 degrees per millisecond
○ 30 degrees per millisecond
○ 20 degrees per millisecond
132 A radio coupled approach is
○ localiser first, followed by glideslope
○ in any order
○ glideslope first, followed by localiser
133 Stand-off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
○ integrating course error signals
○ integrating deviation signals
○ differentiating deviation signals
134 Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to
○ prevent slip and skid in yaw
○ prevent aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
○ assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
135 In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged
○ after a fixed period of the time after landing
○ manually after landing
○ after reverse thrust is applied
136 In a helicopter, Altitude Hold uses a signal from
○ the barometric alt capsule
○ a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
○ a rad alt output
137 Glideslope controls autopilot in
○ roll
○ yaw
○ pitch
138 On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost
○ aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle
○ the aircraft flies in a circle
An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based
139
transmitters
○ VOR, ILS
○ DME, ILS, ADF
○ RA, ADF, ILS
140 An autopilot computer
○ is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
○ is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
○ is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
141 On an autoland, during auto flare it will
○ control throttle for a IAS
○ reverse thrust
○ retard the throttle
142 When GA is initiated
○ autothrottle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles
○ autothrottle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level
○ autothrottle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
143 A triplex system loses one channel
○ pilot must make a full manual approach and land
○ pilot can continue with autoland
○ pilot can use auto approach
144 In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?
○ Localizer
○ Glideslope
○ VOR
145 The controlling signals in pitch channel in the Flare mode, are
○ integrated pitch and radio altitude.
○ G/S deviation and radio altitude.
○ integrated pitch and G/S deviation
146 DH is based on
○ experience of the crew
○ aircraft characteristics
○ RVR transmitted by ATC
147 The purpose of a force trim release system in a helicopter is to permit the
○ pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
○ pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing
forces of the artificial feel system forces
○ appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
148 The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is
○ +/- 35 degrees
○ +/-60 degrees
○ +/-40 degrees
149 Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
○ not less than 100 ft.
○ below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.
○ not less than 200 ft.
 03 Autoflight (260)
150 Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel
○ for yaw damping compensation
○ for turn coordination
○ for turn command back-up
151 What is the glideslope frequency range?
○ 108 - 112 Ghz
○ 108 - 112 Mhz
○ 329 - 335 Mhz
152 If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation alone
○ it will fly in circles
○ it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
○ it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
153 What is the maximum sweep angle of an MLS installation?
○ +/-42°
○ +/-20°
○ +/-62°
154 What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?
○ Indicate the voltage activity in the servo amp
○ Control surface position
○ Trim tab position
155 Basic monitoring is a function of
○ signal comparison
○ signal summing
○ voting
156 Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
○ 1000 ft.
○ 500 ft.
○ 750 ft.
157 If the localiser signal only is applied to the A/P roll channel
○ aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
○ aircraft flies along the runway centre line
○ aircraft flies in circles
158 Rollout guidance after touch down is by
○ visual indication and nosewheel steering
○ visual indication and rudder control
○ automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
159 High and low signal to voter are
○ removed
○ added
○ averaged
160 On a coupled approach, what happens to the aircraft if it loses the localiser signal?
○ It will fly in circles
○ It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
○ It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
161 Alert Height is when
○ an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
○ an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
○ a decision of whether to land is made
 03 Autoflight (260)
162 A helicopter autopilot uses
○ radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold
○ barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold
○ barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
163 During autoland, failure of one channel is detected.
○ All channels will disconnect in duplex system.
○ All channels will disconnect in triplex system.
○ All channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
164 Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct sequence?
○ Flare, attitude, rollout
○ Attitude, flare, rollout
○ Rollout, attitude, flare
165 Versine is used in which channel?
○ Yaw
○ Roll
○ Pitch
If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter, what effect will an
166
autopilot input have?
○ The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
○ The flight director bars only will move
○ The cyclic lever will not move
167 During an autopilot controlled turn
○ ailerons and rudder will move
○ ailerons, rudder and THS will move
○ ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
168 During the flare mode, the autothrottle will
○ disconnect autothrottle
○ retard throttle to idle
○ select reverse thrust
169 Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
○ Roll out
○ Touchdown
○ Flare
170 Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
○ continued pitch input
○ C of G movement
○ pitch of aircraft in cruise
171 On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
○ Radio deviation
○ Course deviation
○ Height Deviation
172 When can other autopilot modes be selected once Go-Around has been selected?
○ Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
○ When reached a desired altitude
○ When aircraft has reached 5000ft
173 A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
○ VOR
○ ADF
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ glideslope
174 The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to
○ damp the system oscillation
○ protect the servo motor
○ prevent control surface runaway
175 In triplex autoland system, failure of one channel will
○ disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
○ disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach
○ disconnect all channels
An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What
176
happens to autothrottle?
○ Advances throttles
○ Stays armed for go around in an emergency
○ Automatically switches off
177 With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate
○ that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
○ a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
○ the trim system is out of datum
The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is
178
○ DC
○ DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
○ AC
179 Which signal would be integrated to get onto localiser centreline?
○ Course error
○ Heading error
○ Radio deviation
180 Roll-out mode occurs
○ at alert height
○ before flare
○ after flare
181 Signals used during the flare are
○ Rad alt and integrated pitch
○ GS and rad alt
○ GS and integrated pitch
182 How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?
○ Fast/Slow indication
○ Reduce flap deployment
○ Autothrottle applying more power
183 Glideslope gain programming is based on
○ radio altitude
○ altitude above MSL and radio altitude
○ pressure altitude
184 In ILS, the glideslope provides
○ vertical steering
○ lateral steering
○ distance checks
 03 Autoflight (260)
When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is deselected. The aircraft will enter MCP
185
SPD mode when
○ the aircraft captures the glideslope
○ the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
○ APP switch is pressed
186 Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually
○ 100%
○ dependent on aircraft altitude
○ chosen as a compromise
187 Cat 2 RVR, if the alert height is 100 feet, will be
○ 300m
○ 400m
○ 800m
188 Go-around mode can be initiated
○ after glideslope capture
○ below 2,000 ft
○ at any time
189 MLS azimuth range is normally
○ +/- 62
○ +/- 30
○ +/- 42
190 The integrity of an autopilot must be increased when the aircraft is flying at
○ lower speeds
○ approach and landing phases
○ higher speeds
191 The components of an ILS are:
○ A localizer and a glide slope
○ A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
○ A localizer and the marker beacons
192 3 autopilot computers are considered
○ Fail Passive
○ Fail Operable
○ Fail resistant
193 API trim pointers are fed by
○ a synchro
○ an RVDT
○ an LVDT
194 The glideslope signal integrator
○ increases the glide-slope signal
○ maintains the glide-slope signal
○ decreases the glide-slope signal
195 In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
○ During either manual or automatic control
○ During automatic control only
○ During manual control only
196 How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave landing system?
○ Note scan cycle start time
○ Reverse the phases
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ TO/FRO
197 How do the crew select decision height?
○ Selected on the radio altimeter display
○ selecting a switch on the control panel
○ selected on the main altimeter
198 In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
○ autopilot must be engaged
○ autopilot need not be engaged
○ operation of the trim controls is required
199 An autoland is carried out in which sequence?
○ GS capture, LOC capture, Attitude hold, Flare
○ LOC capture, GS capture, Flare, Attitude hold
○ LOC capture, GS capture, Attitude hold, Flare
200 In autopilot with THS in motion, the
○ Auto Trim is inhibited
○ Mach trim is inhibited
○ elevator is inhibited
If a fault is detected during an autoland approach, the system will totally disconnect if it is a
201
○ duplex system
○ triplex system
○ dual/dual system
202 In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver fails before localizer capture
○ autoland continues
○ it reverts to cat II
○ there is no autoland
203 Rollout guidance by the rudder is effective to about
○ 80 knots
○ 30 knots
○ 110 knots
204 Airspeed hold is a
○ lateral mode
○ pitch mode
○ heading mode
An integrated autoland system has been selected to Go-around during the autoland phase, the
205
aircraft will
○ increase speed
○ rotate nose up
○ increase speed and rotate nose up
206 Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
○ use of a tachogenerator
○ feedback from the control surface
○ feedback from the servo motor
207 The AFCS remains in control:
○ until disengaged by flight crew
○ until 2 seconds after touchdown
○ until reverse thrust is selected
208 What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ Variable DC
○ Switchable AC
○ Switchable DC
209 The decision height on the Radio Altimeter system is adjusted by
○ moving a bug on the Barometric altimeter
○ selecting a switch on the control panel
○ moving a bug on the Radio Altitude indication
The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How
210
does it operate?
○ Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or
UP and DOWN
○ It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS
○ It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies
211 When the rotor of an AC tachogenerator is stationary, the rotor has
○ no magnetic field
○ circulating currents
○ no circulating currents
212 Altitude hold mode, what signal is washed out?
○ Pitch angle
○ Altitude
○ Rate of climb
When the autopilot is engaged, moving the control column forward will cause the pitch CWS
213
sensor
○ to produce a significant signal which has a pitch up sense
○ to produce only a small pitch down signal
○ to produce a significant signal which has pitch down sense
214 To increase the gain of an amplifier it is necessary to
○ increase the position feedback
○ reduce the tachogenerator feedback
○ increase the tachogenerator feedback
215 When a 'dead zone amplifier' is used, a CWS circuit
○ limits the CWS signal to a safe level
○ passes only signals above a certain magnitude
○ passes only signals below a certain magnitude
216 Which of the following is correct ?
○ demand = feedback - error
○ error = demand - feedback
○ feedback = error - demand
The purpose of using altitude rate signal to develop the capture point in the altitude acquire
217
mode is
○ as a backup
○
to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude earlier if the vertical speed is high
○ to allow the aircraft to start flaring on to the selected altitude later if the vertical speed is high
218 Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?
○ Within reach of the Captain
○ Within reach of the First Officer
○ Within reach of both pilots
 03 Autoflight (260)
219 Rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system
○ indicates control surface feedback
○ provides proportional response to commanded inputs
○ prevents oscillations of the control surfaces
220 An AC tachogenerator stator has
○ two windings 90° apart
○ three windings 120° apart
○ two windings 180° apart
221 On a Cat 3B landing, the localizer signal is used at which phase?
○ Flare
○ Touchdown
○ Rollout
222 A position servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to
○ damp out oscillations of a control movement
○ assist the demand applied to servo-motor
○ ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal
223 What is the main operating principle of MLS?
○ Phase shift between Tx and Rx
○ Signal strength (mV) difference between left and right beam
○ Time difference between TO and FRO pulse
In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and dual roll-frame actuator,
224
when there is zero command output from the autopilot servo amplifier
○ both valves will be open for an equal period of time
○ both roll frame actuators will fully retract
○ both valves will be closed
225 The outputs of a slaved directional gyro to an autopilot consist of
○ azimuth rate signals
○ pitch and roll angles
○ azimuth direction information
226 Altitude hold, when engaged, provides a washout input to the
○ autopilot pitch servo
○ roll channel
○ vertical gyro
227 How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?
○ It is not possible
○ By deselecting auto-throttle first
○ Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
228 If only radio deviation is fed to the autopilot roll channel, what will happen?
○ Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline
○ Aircraft will drift from centreline
○ Aircraft will fly in circles
229 The sense of a control surface feedback signal will
○ reverse when the control surface limit is reached
○ displacing assist the signal displacing the servo
○ oppose the signal causing the displacement of control surface
230 The autothrottle system at touchdown will
○ apply reverse thrust
○ go to idle
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ go to idle and disconnect
Capture of a localiser beam is normally dependent on a change of bank angle command based
231
on
○ airspeed, deviation and altitude
○ attitude, distance from transmitter and runway heading
○ ground speed, intercept angle and distance from beam
232 When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals used are
○ cross track distance and track angle error
○ beam deviation and course error
○ drift angle and cross track distance
The type of amplifier used to overcome difficulty in amplifying DC or very low frequency
233
signals and to prevent drift is
○ chopper amplifier
○ integrator amplifier
○ buffer amplifier
234 One basic requirement of a synchronizing loop is that it must
○ disengage on A/P engagement
○ disengage as soon as hard over is detected
○ be engaged at all times
235 How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?
○ Pitch Trim
○ Electric Trim
○ Mach/Speed Trim
During take off with autothrottle engaged, the autothrottle sensor fails, THR CLP is annuciated
236
on the mode annunciator panel when
○ aircraft leaves ground
○ V2, as determined by the autothrottle computer
○ a predetermined rad alt setting
237 When DC motors are used as servomotors, they are usually
○ split field type
○ high current low voltage type
○ high torque heavy armature type
238 Which modes are incompatible?
○ VOR & ALT hold
○ VOR & G/S
○ HDG hold & speed hold
239 A rate servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to
○ damp out oscillations of a control movement
○ ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal
○ assist the demand applied to servo-motor
240 Throttle hold will occur
○ at a predetermined take-off speed
○ at the beginning of the take-off run
○ with weight on wheels
241 With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will
○ drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position
○ disconnect the autothrottle
○ drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position
 03 Autoflight (260)
242 An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause
○ a red warning light to illuminate
○ an aural warning only
○ a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning
243 On replacement of an autopilot servo motor
○ elevator and aileron must be checked
○ position feedback must be checked
○ torque limiting settings must be checked
244 The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
○ right of the control column
○ left of the control column
○ side of the controls away from the throttles
245 An autopilot transfer valve
○ converts hydraulic power to electrical power and converts electrical power to hydraulic powe
○ converts hydraulic power to electrical power
○ converts electrical power to hydraulic power
246 For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is
○ a matter of choice for the operator
○ dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
○ mandatory
247 An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by
○ loss of clutch supply
○ loss of servo power supply
○ loss of position feedback
248 Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?
○ 3
○ 2
○ 4
249 If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning
○ is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button
○ can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot
○ switches off after a time interval
250 An autopilot runaway is prevented by
○ position feedback
○ torque limiting device
○ a fuse
251 In triple autopilot system, failure of the ILS after alert height will result in what?
○ Continue autoland
○ No autoland
○ G/A
On replacement of an actuator that incorporates an autopilot actuator, the autopilot must be
252
checked for
○ correct sense and range of movement
○ correct sense and range of movement and autopilot breakout checks
○ correct sense of movement
253 Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from
○ the DME
○ the CADC
 03 Autoflight (260)
○ the IRS
254 Inner loop servo control of an autopilot will provide
○ stability and navigation commands
○ stability only
○ navigation commands only
255 Automatic trimming starts on the detection of
○ loss of position feedback
○ standing load on the elevator
○ loss of servo input
256 Auto trimming trims the aircraft by
○ moving the leading edge of the stabiliser
○ movement of the elevator
○ movement of either the elevator or the stabiliser
257 The autothrottle controls the aircraft
○ vertically
○ laterally
○ both laterally and vertically
258 What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?
○ Roll
○ Pitch
○ Yaw
259 The autopilot prevents adverse yaw by
○ aileron to rudder cross feed
○ rudder to pitch cross feed
○ rudder to aileron cross feed
260 In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?
○ Cruise
○ Take-off
○ Approach
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

1 Which of the following is a DME frequency?

○ 4300 MHz
○ 9345 MHz
○ 1100 MHz
2 On an aircraft communication system, HIRF interference is most prominent
○ across the whole frequency spectrum
○ at specific frequencies
○ during transmissions only
3 A strapdown INS has
○ moving parts
○ both solid state and normal accelerometer system
○ a solid state accelerometer system
4 The term HIRF means
○ High Intensity Radio Fields
○ High Interference Radiated Fields
○ High Intensity Radiated Fields
5 The tone frequencies for glideslope and localiser are
○ 1030 MHz and 1090 MHz
○ 90 Hz and 150 Hz
○ 1300 Hz and 3000 Hz
6 An HF coupling is used to match the
○ aerial
○ receiver
○ boom-set (headphones and mic)
7 ACARS is primarily used for communicating with
○ other aircraft
○ maintenance base
○ air traffic control
8 Track error is the difference between
○ track and heading
○ track and localizer
○ actual track and desired track
9 The INS platform is
○ always horizontal to the aircraft's longitudinal plane
○ always vertical relative to the earth's surface
○ always parallel relative to the earth surface
10 The frequency of glideslope transmitter is
○ 328.6 to 335.4 MHz
○ 328.6 to 335.4 KHz
○ 328.6 to 335.4 Hz
11 The general function of the ATC transponder is to
○ interrogate the ground station which replies with an identification
○ reply with an identification signal after being interrogated by a ground station
○ interrogate other aircraft which reply with an identification signal
12 What is the power output of a DME station?
○ 63 Watts
○ 1000 Watts
○ 60 Watts
13 The polythene sleeving over a HF antenna is to stop
○ precipitation static
○ moisture ingress and corrosion
○ lightning strike
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

14 An adjustment of the laser beam inside a laser gyro IRU

○ is not possible
○ can only be carried out by a Category C licenced engineer
○ can be done by adjusting the servo mirror
15 SELCAL is used to
○ alert other aircraft
○ monitor ground signals
○ alert ground stations
16 The glideslope in an ILS provides
○ vertical references
○ vertical references and horizontal directional references
○ horizontal directional references
17 The fundamental theory of operation of a ranging radar is
○ frequency of returns
○ time taken to receive returns
○ percentage of emitted signal returned
18 HF communication frequency is in the range
○ 3-30 MHz
○ 23 - 30 kHz
○ 108 - 118 MHz
19 Radar Resolution is the ability to determine between
○ two targets in close proximity to each other
○ fast moving targets
○ vague targets
20 What clock is used in a GPS satellite?
○ Clock with battery
○ Atomic
○ Quartz
21 A buffer amp on a transmitter is between
○ modulator and power amp
○ local oscillator and modulator
○ local oscillator and demodulator
22 Frequencies used for Microwave Landing System are
○ 5 - 5.1 KHz
○ 5 - 5.1 GHz
○ 5 - 5.1 MHz
23 If one FMS fails in flight
○ the operation of the aircraft is hampered
○ the whole FMS system is inoperative
○ the standby FMS takes over
24 VHF frequency is
○ 3 to 30 MHz
○ 300 to 600 MHz
○ 30 to 300 MHz
25 How long does GPS ephemeris collection take?
○ 300 ms
○ 30 minutes
○ 30 seconds
26 What is the power at pulse?
○ Average power
○ Peak power
○ Pulsed power
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

27 A defective radome would cause

○ static interference
○ excessive ground clutter
○ poor reception
28 On the ATC radio readability scale, what is satisfactory reception?
○ 5
○ 1
○ 3
29 The respective bandwidths for a radar IF amplifier and Video amplifier should be, respectively
○ wide and narrow
○ narrow and wide
○ wide and wide
30 Adding 6 foot of cable to both TX and RX aerials on a rad alt would give you
○ 12 ft error
○ 18 foot error
○ 6 ft error
31 What frequency increases radar relative range?
○ Low
○ Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change
○ High
32 An IRS cannot calculate
○ local latitude or longitude
○ local latitude
○ local longitude
33 Janus operation is used
○ over water
○ as a standby system
○ for better coverage
34 An ADF system includes
○ both a sense and loop antenna
○ a loop antenna
○ a sense antenna
35 In a GPS system what type of clock is in the receiver?
○ Atomic
○ Quartz
○ Battery
36 To make a passenger announcement from the flight deck
○ select PA on ASP and intercom on control column
○ select PA on ASP and transmit on control column
○ select PA on AMP and transmit on control column
37 An autoland can operate without an autothrottle if
○ if CAT 3
○ the control of speed does not create an excessive pilot workload
○ if CAT 2 or less
38 Marker beacon receivers have
○ no control unit as the unit typically turns on when the avionics master switch is activated
○ one control unit
○ two control units: one on captain side and the other on copilot side
39 ACARS system operates in the frequency range of
○ 131.550 KHz
○ 121.550 MHz
○ 131.550 MHz
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

40 If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be

○ 0 ohm
○ 80 ohm
○ 160 ohm
41 The polled mode in an ACARS
○ allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate communication
○ both operates when interrogated by the ground facility and allows the flight crew or airborne equipment to initiate
communication
○ operates only when interrogated by the ground facility
42 The range at which the STC waveform ends is proportional to
○ bandwidth
○ pulse width
○ beam width
43 Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI. The pointer points to
○ 90
○ 0
○ 180
44 What orbit are GPS satellites in?
○ LEO
○ HEO
○ MEO
45 Satellite transmits updates on every
○ 9th orbit
○ 2nd orbit
○ 13th orbit
46 If the ADF cable is too long
○ cut to length and ignore the excess
○ cut to length and ignore on a loop swing
○ secure and stow excess cable
47 VHF antenna length is based on
○ full wavelength
○ half wavelength
○ quarter wavelength
48 There are two FMS in an aircraft, which are
○ working together
○ master and slave
○ independent of each other
49 If radar pulse is reduced, there is
○ no effect on relative range
○ increased relative range
○ reduced relative range
How many times does the INS (inertial navigation system) integrate the acceleration signal it receives from
50
the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown?
○ Three times
○ Twice
○ Once
A pulse repetition frequency of 1000 transmits for 2 microseconds. The peak power is 1 kW. The average
51
power is
○ 40 Watts
○ 500 Watts
○ 2 Watts
52 FM improvements affect what system?
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ ADF, VHF and ILS
○ ADF, VOR and ILS
○ VHF, VOR and ILS
53 A better radar range resolution is provided by
○ long pulse duration
○ low pulse repetition frequency
○ short pulse duration
54 An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by
○ rate of change of course
○ measured radio deviation
○ rate of change of radio deviation
55 An ADF system used on aircraft includes the
○ VHF transmitters
○ Marker Beacons
○ Sense and loop antennas
A CVR installed on a helicopter first certified after 1st August 1999 with two engines, with a max.
56
certificated take-off mass over 3175 kg, must begin recording
○ as early as possible during the cockpit checks prior to engine start
○ after the first engine is started but before the main rotor is engaged
○ as soon as power is switched on
57 Where is the antenna located for watching TV?
○ In the stabiliser tip
○ Near the wingtips, away from the cabin
○ On the fuselage roof
58 When signal bandwidth increases, it causes
○ enhancement of pulse shape and decrease in noise
○ deterioration of pulse shape and increase in noise
○ deterioration of pulse shape and decrease in noise
59 GPS receiver Navigation Message frequency is
○ 22 MHz
○ 15 kHz
○ 50 Hz
60 Emergency frequency is
○ 125.5 MHz
○ 121.5 MHz
○ 123.5 MHz
61 Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the
○ number of joints and bends
○ widest width
○ narrowest width
62 With an increase in radar pulse duration, what happens to signal to noise ratio?
○ Increase
○ Decrease
○ Remains constant
63 VOR capture can be determined by
○ computation from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals
○ a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial
○ a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial
64 What does 7700 indicate on an ATC control panel?
○ Emergency
○ Radio Failure
○ Hijack
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

65 A receiver with a large bandwidth will have

○ poor signal to noise ratio
○ no differnce in signal to noise ratio
○ improved signal to noise ratio
66 A buffer amplifier is to protect what component
○ Oscillator from modulator
○ Oscillator from transmitter
○ Modulator from transmitter
HF transmission of 10 MHz with a sideband of 1000 Hz which drifts 50 Hz. The received audio tone would
67
be
○ 950 Hz
○ 1050 Hz
○ 1000 Hz
68 A triple rad-alt installation isolation is carried out by
○ differentiating the frequencies
○ altering the pin programming
○ altering the jumper leads
69 Alert and Decision Heights differ in that
○ the Alert height is based on ILS equipment and Decision height is based on the RVR
○ the Alert height is based on aircraft characteristics and Decision height is based on the airport facilities
○ the Decision height is based on ILS equipment and Alert height is based on the RVR
70 In Doppler radar with a moving aerial, the aerial
○ turns automatically to match aircraft heading
○ turns automatically to match aircraft track
○ is moved only manually
71 The number of VHF frequency channels is
○ 760
○ 360
○ 720
72 Short duration radar pulses
○ do not allow echoes from short range
○ have a longer range than long pulses
○ allow echoes from short range
73 What does a diplexor do?
○ Channel to RX
○ Divides signal
○ Integrate
74 DME compares what for measurement of slant distance?
○ Pulse pairs
○ Aircraft range and height
○ Pulse transmission and return echo
75 Microwave Landing System operates on what frequency?
○ 4000-4300 MHz
○ 5031-5090.7 MHz
○ 5000-6000 MHz
76 The voice switch on the audio select panel has a
○ 1020 Hz band stop filter
○ 30 Hz - 30 kHz band pass filter
○ 1020 - 1350 Hz band stop filter
77 ACARs sends information from base to aircraft via
○ printer
○ FMS
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ voice
78 How many satellites are required for GNS?
○ 6 90o apart
○ 4
○ 8
79 Voice selected from the voice - range switch on the audio control panel acts as a
○ 1300 Hz band stop filter
○ 1020 Hz band stop filter
○ 1020/1300 Hz band stop filter
80 After passing the Zone of Confusion of a VOR
○ the phase difference reverses
○ the phase difference is 90 degrees out
○ the phase difference stays the same
81 Accuracy of a GPS system used in aircraft navigation systems is
○ 16 Meters or less
○ 32 +/- 10 meters
○ 100 Meters
82 112.1 MHz is what frequency?
○ VHF
○ ILS
○ VOR
83 How would you increase radar target range?
○ High PRF, high scan and short pulse duration
○ Low PRF, high scan and short pulse duration
○ Low PRF, high scan and long pulse duration
84 What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?
○ 50 ohms
○ 75 ohms and 25 ohms
○ 25 ohms
85 In INS, vertical acceleration is calculated by
○ an accelerometer
○ an accelerometer and laser gyro
○ a laser gyro
86 An aerial can be broadbanded by
○ using a balun
○ decreasing its diameter
○ using a stub
87 On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?
○ Polyurethane
○ Not cellulose
○ Cellulose only
88 An aircraft with 8.33 kHz separation VHF communication system communicates using
○ single channel duplex
○ dual channel simplex
○ single channel simplex
89 During initialisation, INS uses to calculate local vertical
○ laser gyro and accelerometers
○ laser gyros only
○ accelerometers only
90 What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
○ QDH
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ QDM
○ QFU
91 The polythene coating on an HF antenna wire is provided
○ to prevent the wire from chafing
○ to prevent precipitation static build up
○ to prevent the wire from corroding
92 In a ground wave, which plane of polarisation suffers the greatest attenuation?
○ Vertical plane
○ Horizontal plane
○ Both the same attenuation
93 In an analogue radar what is the purpose of a balanced mixer?
○ To increase bandwidth
○ To improve noise reduction factor
○ To increase frequency gain
94 121.5 MHz is what frequency?
○ VOR
○ ILS
○ VHF
95 The MLS frequency band is
○ C
○ X
○ S
96 With ADF selected, the sense aerial signal is
○ added to the loop aerial signal in the pre-amplifier
○ processed separately from the loop aerial signal
○ added to the modulated loop aerial signal
97 In VHF comms, with 8.33 kHz spacing, how many channels are used?
○ 2280
○ 720
○ 350
98 In MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway?
○ 15°
○ 1°
○ 20°
99 GPS works on the principle of
○ information received from satellites is cross referenced against other signals received to calculate position
○ time taken to receive very high frequency signals from the satellites
○ the angle at which the signals are received from the satellites
100 Microwave Landing System elevation coverage is
○ 40 degrees
○ 15 degrees
○ 2 degrees
101 In the LORAN navigation system the Master station frequency in relation to the slave frequency is
○ lower
○ the same
○ higher
102 Transmitter aerials radiate
○ electromagnetic energy only
○ electrostatic energy only
○ electrostatic and electromagnetic energy
103 How is a DME station identified?
○ Morse
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Jitter
○ Squitter
104 VOR Washout Signal is by
○ a resistance network
○ a differentiating circuit
○ an integrating circuit
105 A Doppler radar antenna is moved
○ automatically to heading
○ automatically to track
○ manually to desired track
106 In area navigation, a line of constant bearing would be defined as
○ Great circle route
○ dead reckoning
○ Rhumb line
107 To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver)
○ use longer bursts
○ scan at a lower rate
○ use shorter bursts
108 With the ADF controller selected to ANT
○ both signals are used
○ only the loop signal is used
○ only the sense signal is used
109 An ILS 'Back Beam' approach uses
○ no glideslope
○ glideslope as normal
○ glideslope only if the BC button is selected
110 To know the valid data base on the FMS
○ call up the relevant page on the CDU
○ call up the relevant current status
○ perform a BITE check
111 TCAS antenna is a
○ omnidirectional blade type L-band
○ phased-array L-band
○ directional antenna
112 Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
○ at any time
○ only when autopilot is engaged
○ after glideslope capture
113 The autopilot disconnect indications are
○ steady master warning light and an aural
○ flashing master warning light and an aural
○ flashing master warning light only
114 The term HIRF means
○ High Interference Radiated Fields
○ High Intensity Radio Fields
○ High Intensity Radiated Fields
115 111.1 MHz is
○ a VOR frequency
○ an ILS frequency
○ a HF frequency
116 In a Doppler system, the frequency return of the forward beam will only match the rearward beam
○ during aircraft manoeuvres
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ during a turn
○ during level flight
117 What precautions must a pilot take when using a back-course approach?
○ None
○ Normal Runway Heading
○ Reciprocal Runway Heading
118 111.2 MHz is
○ ILS
○ VHF
○ VOR
119 If FADEC totally fails, the pilot will get
○ no warning
○ a warning in the headset
○ a light illumination on the FADEC control panel
120 The anti-skid ARMED signal comes from
○ wheel speed transducers
○ landing gear down and locked signal
○ a switch in the cockpit
121 ILS marker beacon lights are
○ green, blue, amber
○ blue, amber, white
○ blue, white, green
122 The ARINC Communication Addressing and Reporting System uses which frequency band?
○ HF
○ SHF
○ VHF
123 The aviation distress frequency is
○ 121.5 kHZ
○ 121.5 MHz
○ 122.5 MHz
124 Full scale deflection of the glideslope pointer from the centreline is
○ 2.5
o

○ 3o
○ 0.5o
125 VOR signals are sent to the
○ Pitch challel
○ Yaw channel
○ Roll channel
126 In LNAV mode
○ no change in pitch attitude can be made
○ the pilot can change heading from the MCP (mode control panel)
○ the FMS locks out the control commands
127 DME uses which frequency band?
○ UHF
○ VHF
○ HF
128 What is the characteristic impedance range of a parallel cable?
○ 0-150 ohm
○ 40-150 ohm
○ 150-600 ohm
129 On a Back Beam approach, which error signal would not be used?
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Heading
○ Glideslope
○ Localiser
In an autopilot A.C. analogue computer, VOR deviation signals, before integration with course error,
130
signals are:
○ summed
○ demodulated
○ modulated
131 MLS frequency is
○ 5050-6050 MHz
○ 6000-6100 MHz
○ 5000-6000 MHz
132 After flying through the cone of confusion
○ signal alters and instrument indicates FROM
○ signal remains the same and instrument indicates FROM
○ signal remains the same and instrument indicates TO
133 Attenuation of ground waves
○ is not affected by frequency
○ decreases with frequency
○ increases with frequency
134 FMCS outputs to
○ the air traffic system
○ GPWS
○ TCAS
135 Before the SSB is demodulated
○ the carrier wave amplified
○ the carrier wave is removed
○ the carrier wave is reinserted
136 A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to
○ 100 ft.
○ 2500 ft.
○ 2000 ft.
137 A RAD ALT trip signal is
○ varying DC
○ switched DC
○ phase-reversing AC sinusoidal
138 A moving coil microphone needs
○ AC power supply
○ DC power supply
○ no power supply
139 IRS obtains basic position information by
○ integrating the accelerometer output
○ differentiating the accelerometer output
○ integrating twice the accelerometer output
140 Increasing the bandwidth of a RADAR receiver
○ increases pulse shape but also increases noise
○ has no affect on pulse shape or noise
○ has no affect on pulse shape but increases noise
141 A received ACARS message is
○ via the ON VHF receiver
○ indicated by a buzzer
○ displayed on the EICAS
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

142 When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna

○ use any paint
○ use cellulose paint
○ do not use cellulose paint
143 The electrical tuning unit of an HF transmitter maintains a VSWR of the antenna at
○ 2 to 1
○ exactly 1 to 1
○ 1.3 to 1
144 A whip antenna uses
○ 1/2 wave
○ 1/4 wave
○ 3/4 wave
145 To minimize cross cable interference
○ run cables as single bundle
○ place filter in power supply
○ run radiating and affected cables as separate bundles
146 What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?
○ Low Frequency
○ Very High Frequency
○ High Frequency
147 Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated?
○ The reference signal, which is constant
○ The variable signal
○ The ident tone
148 112.1 MHz is
○ an ILS frequency
○ a VOR frequency
○ an ADF frequency
149 Satcom carrier signals suffer from a doppler shift of frequency due to the
○ velocity of satellite with respect to the aircraft
○ velocity of satellite with respect to the ground station
○ velocity of the aircraft with respect to the satellite
Which colour on the weather radar screen does the pilot avoid fly-through in order not to encounter
150
strong thunderstorm and heavy rain?
○ Magenta
○ Yellow
○ Blue
151 The doppler VOR beacon reference signal
○ amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
○ amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency
○ frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency
152 The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
○ 20 and 50 ohms respectively
○ 20 ohms
○ 50 ohms
153 What is the difference between Alert Height and Decision Height?
○ They are the same
○ Decision Height is based upon the visual reference of the runway, and Alert Height is based upon the mechanical
integrity of the equipment
○ Alert Height is based upon the visual reference of the runway, and Decision Height is based upon the mechanical
integrity of the equipment
154 In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
○ Number of pulses per signal
○ Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
155 The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of
○ 90
○ 0
○ 45
156 In weather radar, short range targets are missed by
○ larger beam width
○ larger pulse width
○ larger frequency
157 When the VOR reference and variable phases are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the
○ 090° radial
○ 275° radial
○ 180° radial
158 Differential GPS requires
○ 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter
○ 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
○ 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
159 Align light flashes during alignment of an inertial navigation system.
○ It is indicating progress of alignment
○ A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off fore
○ It is attracting operators attention
160 How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
○ Via the G/S selector knob
○ It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the VOR frequency
○ It is not manually chosen. It is paired with the localizer frequency
161 HF aerials have weak points designed at
○ the front end
○ the back end
○ both ends
162 What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?
○ 1090 MHz
○ 1030 MHz
○ 1000 MHz
163 A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause
○ poor volume output
○ poor audio output
○ poor channel selectivity
164 Precipitation static is caused by
○ lightning strikes
○ HF radiation
○ skin to air particle collisions
165 Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to
○ aerial work and transport category aircraft
○ transport category aircraft only
○ private aircraft
166 A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated on the WXR by a
○ green colour
○ yellow colour
○ red colour
167 TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
○ 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectively
○ 1090mhz
168 The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is
○ 118
○ 131.55
○ 121.5
When an aircraft is at a height of 9500 ft and the QNH is 500 ft, what is the distance that VHF Com can
169
cover?
○ 120 nm
○ 140 nm
○ 100 nm
170 A hyperbolic system is
○ ILS
○ VOR
○ LORAN C
An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what
171
happens to the pointer?
○ Move right
○ Move left
○ It will not move
172 Track mode of an Rad. Alt. is operational
○ above 10,000 feet
○ from 1.0 to 100 feet
○ from 0 to 2,500 feet
173 Suppressor line is required for
○ ATC and DME only
○ TCASs only
○ all L band equipments including TCAS
174 The ground run monitor (GRM) presents
○ ground speed and distance to go
○ take off speed and distance to go
○ distance to go
175 Which of the following has a hyperbolic curve?
○ Loran C
○ DME
○ VOR
176 Wavelength of X band radar is
○ 5 cm
○ 3 cm
○ 10 m
177 How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?
○ 2
○ 1
○ 3
178 GPS has
○ 6 satellites in each of 4 orbits
○ 4 satellites in each of 6 orbits
○ 7 satellites in each of 3 orbits
179 High range resolution is obtained by
○ high PRF
○ shorter pulse width
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ shorter beam width
180 In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received
○ a selcal light along with a chime comes on
○ a designated light comes on
○ a chime sounds in the cockpit
181 What is the wavelength of C band radar?
○ 7 cm
○ 3 cm
○ 17 m
182 DME transponder transmits on receipt
○ of pilot input command request
○ of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
○ of any interrogation
In a radio altimeter system, if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total
183
correction factor is
○ 9 inch
○ 3 inch
○ 6 inch
184 How many programs can a FMC store?
○ Two. Both active
○ Two. One active and one standby
○ One current
185 A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is the target?
○ 40 miles
○ 12 miles
○ 25 miles
186 Omega ground stations
○ are carrier modulated by three audio tones
○ series of CW
○ transmit pulses of CW
187 If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision?
○ Neither changes the decision
○ The one with the smaller address
○ The one with the higher address
188 The crew select DH on
○ the rad alt display
○ the altimeter
○ the DH annunciator panel
If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM
189
indicator indicate?
○ FROM
○ TO
○ Neither
190 GPS antenna is
○ vertically polarized
○ circular polarized
○ horizontally polarized
191 During testing of ATC altitude function, the pressure altimeter is set
○ sea level pressure
○ prevailing pressure
○ 1013.25 mb
192 EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ take off
○ cruise
○ approach
193 A mode C transponder
○ cannot be used by TCAS
○ can be used by TCAS on ILS approach only
○ can be used by TCAS
194 GPS frequency is
○ 1575 GHz
○ 1575 MHz
○ 1525 MHz
195 If an aircraft is east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are
○ opposite phase
○ phase quadrature
○ in-phase
196 The RAD alt electrical length for a helicopter of cable length 18 ft is
○ 16ft
○ 28ft
○ 12ft
197 The audio select panel allows the crew to
○ receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others
○ transmit on one channel, listen on one
○ transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
198 What is primary radar?
○ Land based
○ Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
○ Radar that gives height and position
199 When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
○ If P2 is before P1
○ When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1
○ When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
200 Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of
○ 12bits
○ 24bits
○ 64bits
201 What does the Radar contour button do?
○ Alter the beam shape
○ Alter the video amplifier
○ Alter the transmitter power
How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse for a Mode A transmission,
202
ignoring the P2 pulse length?
○ 21 micro seconds
○ 17 micro seconds
○ 8 micro seconds
203 Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by
○ putting the affected cable in a single conduit
○ having filters in power supply lines
○ separating the affected and affecting cables
204 On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
○ Radio deviation
○ Course deviation
○ Glideslope deviation
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

205 Radio switches are normally

○ latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
○ sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
○ latched on R/T, latched on I/C
206 Doppler flag comes on when it receives
○ no signal
○ excess signals
○ excessive ground clutter
207 When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider
○ power requirements
○ the diameter of cables
○ the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
208 How does an IRS calculate velocity?
○ Differentiation of laser gyro
○ Double integration of accelerometers
○ Integration of accelerometers
209 Use of a diplexer in a receiver is
○ to impedance match the aerial and receivers
○ to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
○ to amplify the RF signal
If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it
210
to
○ OFF
○ either USB or LSB
○ AM
211 GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
○ c/a code only
○ c/a code and P code
○ P code only
212 In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is
○ it couples noise factors
○ it improves signal to noise ratio
○ it amplifies output stages
213 Mode S pulses. Which are used?
○ F1, F2, F4, F5
○ s1, p1, p3, p4
○ s1, s2, p1, p2
214 What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
○ 110 nm
○ 120 nm
○ 130 nm
215 The manual VOR input is for
○ RMI
○ course deviation bar
○ glideslope
216 Glideslope deviation signals are
○ AC phase sensitive
○ DC polarity sensitive
○ DC positive going only
217 If an FM signal is modulated by an audio signal, the frequency of the audio would relate to the
○ frequency
○ amplitude
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ rate of frequency change
218 A GPS system is formed from
○ satellites, processing unit, display unit
○ receiver, processing unit, interactive console
○ space, control, user
219 What is ILS marker beacon frequency?
○ 100 MHz
○ 75 MHz
○ 50 MHz
220 DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
○ higher or lower
○ lower
○ higher
221 TCAS is selected
○ not available in cruise
○ by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
○ automatically
222 For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
○ must be connected to the left side
○ can be connected to either side
○ must be connected to the right side
223 Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
○ approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
○ rad alt decrease
○ comparison of rad alt to barometric
224 On TCAS, with own aircraft below 1750 ft
○ any other aircraft below 360 ft are deemed to be on the ground
○ system is disabled
○ other aircraft on the ground are ignored
225 Laser gyros
○ do not have rotational parts
○ have no movable parts
○ have rotational parts
The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The
226
RMI pointer indicates
○ 90 degrees
○ 60 degrees
○ 30 degrees
227 On power up, the IRS obtains position
○ latitude and longitude from previous position
○ latitude from previous position
○ longitude from previous position
228 Laser gyros are
○ aligned to the true north
○ aligned to the aircraft structure
○ aligned to the magnetic north
229 DSR TK (desired track) means
○ a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
○ the bearing to capture the track
○ distance left or right from desired track
230 Carbon microphones require
○ AC supply
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ DC supply
○ no supply
231 What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?
○ Amber
○ White
○ Blue
232 Microwave landing systems are modulated with
○ FM
○ phase shift keying
○ Manchester code
233 A CVR is found to be unserviceable
○ flights must not continue after four days
○ flights can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined
○ flights must not continue after 72 hours
The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier, for good pulse shape, should be
234
○ wide and narrow
○ wide and wide
○ narrow and wide
235 In a Doppler VOR, the 30Hz reference signal is
○ FM Modulated
○ AM Modulated
○ modulated with a 9960Hz
236 The glideslope equipment operates in the
○ VHF band
○ HF band
○ UHF band
237 An 'O' ring in a wave guide is used to
○ correct the VSWR
○ stop arcing between the wave guide
○ stop moisture entering the wave guide
238 Back beam is captured
○ by manually selecting the LNAV mode
○ this automatically trips the LNAV mode
○ by manually selecting the back beam mode
239 On an HF radio set, the clarifier control is used
○ an Americanism for volume
○ to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
○ make the audio signal clearer
240 The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is
○ the y code
○ the c/a code
○ the p code
241 If one FMS fails in a dual system
○ FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
○ system operation will not be affected
○ FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
242 RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a
○ servomotor
○ Chinaman
○ loop voltage
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse of a Mode C transmission, ignoring
243
the P2 pulse length?
○ 21 microseconds
○ 8 microseconds
○ 17 microseconds
244 The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
○ 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
○ 20 ohms
○ 50 ohms
245 The rate of G/S warning in GPWS
○ changes with barometric altitude
○ does not change
○ changes with radio altitude
246 In an amplitude modulated wave, the intelligence is contained in the
○ sidebands and carrier equally
○ carrier only
○ sidebands only
247 ADF is
○ Theta
○ Rho-Theta
○ Rho
248 The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90°. What is the RMI displaying?
○ 0°
○ 180°
○ 90°
249 What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
○ Either AC nor DC
○ Polarity sensitive DC
○ Polarity sensitive AC
250 A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for
○ HF communications
○ marker beacons
○ weather radar
251 When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
○ When the P2 pulse is anti-phase to P1
○ When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
○ If P2 is before P1
252 A radio signal's chance of penetration of the ionosphere
○ is not affected by frequency
○ increase with the frequency
○ decrease with frequency
253 What frequency are VOR and ILS?
○ HF
○ VHF
○ UHF
254 In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?
○ FM and Pulse
○ FM
○ Pulse
255 TCAS II is
○ 1 aircraft per square nautical mile
○ 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
256 Loran C Uses
○ 100 Khz
○ 16 Khz
○ 20 Mhz
257 A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is the target?
○ 25 miles
○ 12 miles
○ 40 miles
258 What does the Radar contour button do?
○ Alter the transmitter power
○ Alter the video amplifier
○ Alter the beam shape
259 What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?
○ To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
○ To make an installation recognise its own transmission
○ To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area
260 LOC signal modulation is
○ 50%
○ 10%
○ 20%
261 The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost. The aircraft would
○ drift off from the localizer on the same heading
○ continue flying on the localizer
○ fly parallel to the localizer
262 What is the difference between DME transmit and receive pulse frequency?
○ 1000 MHz
○ 60 MHz
○ 63 MHz
263 What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?
○ To enable consonants to be heard better
○ To enable numbers to be heard better
○ To enable vowels to be heard better
264 A DME is in auto standby when
○ the ATC transponder is transmitting
○ the DME receives 300 - 400 pulses a second
○ the TCAS is transmitting
265 What does an INS calculate on power up?
○ Longitude and latitude
○ Latitude
○ Longitude
266 GPS Telemetry consists of
○ 8 bits of preamble and position information
○ week number and time label
○ satellite position information
267 To carry out a database update on the FMS
○ use the database loader
○ insert new data via the CDU
○ insert a new EPROM
268 ILS and VOR operate in which range
○ VHF
○ HF
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ UHF
269 FMC changes movement via
○ straight to the actuator
○ A/P actuator
○ flight control computer
An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF
270
pointer indicating?
○ 90
○ 30
○ 60
271 When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth
○ decreases
○ increases
○ remains the same
272 Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90°. The RMI indicates
○ 90°
○ 180°
○ 0°
273 In ILS, the glideslope provides
○ vertical steering
○ lateral steering
○ distance checks
274 An FM signal would have its sideband signals
○ No sidebands present
○ below the carrier signal
○ above the carrier signal
275 If the inductance in a parallel tuned circuit is increased in value, the resonant frequency
○ decreases
○ remains the same
○ increases
276 GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:
○ Pressure altimeter
○ Air speed indicator
○ Radio altimeter
277 A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
○ can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
○ can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
○ can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
278 Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses
○ no attenuation but amplification
○ attenuation first then amplification
○ amplification first then attenuation
279 With no.1 HF system transmitting the interlock circuit
○ does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive
○ allows no.2 HF to transmit and receive
○ allows no.2 HF to receive only
280 If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will show
○ fly right
○ fly left
○ the flag
An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the
281
interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 96 nautical miles
○ 104 nautical miles
○ 100 nautical miles
In a large transport aircraft, to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder, the VSWR meter
282
has to be connected
○ between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)
○ between the aerial and ATU
○ between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)
283 In audio clipping
○ there is no change in relative strength of vowels
○ vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
○ vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
284 How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?
○ Dataplate on the FMC
○ FMC via CDU
○ BITE
285 If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off-track is the aircraft?
○ 5°
○ 2.5°
○ 10°
286 Mode C response is
○ 8 microseconds
○ 21 microseconds
○ 20.3 microseconds
287 The components of an ILS are
○ a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
○ a localizer and a glide slope
○ a localizer and the marker beacons
288 What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
○ 4-5 GHz
○ 2-30 MHz
○ 118-136 MHz
Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost when following the FD commands. Aircraft
289
will
○ stay on centre of course
○ follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
○ stay parallel to course
Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with
290
an ohmmeter, the reading will be
○ 80 ohms
○ more than 20 megohms
○ 200 ohms
291 On a WX radar display, the time base is a
○ saw tooth wave form
○ rectangular wave form
○ trapezoidal wave form
292 FMC secondary flight-plan is selected
○ on the ground by the pilot
○ in the air by the pilot
○ by calendar date monthly
293 An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for
○ aircraft type
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ magnetic orientation
○ location
294 A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires
○ 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
○ 1 ground station and 4 satellites
○ 1 ground station and 6 satellites
295 In a DME system, how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
○ Blocking oscillator
○ Decoder
○ Integrator
296 Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?
○ Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
○ Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table
○ Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary
297 FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is
○ CRZ
○ DME Freq
○ LNAV
298 INS has mercury switches on
○ all gimbals
○ outer gimbal
○ inner gimbal
299 ADF operates within which frequencies?
○ 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
○ 118 MHz - 132 MHz
○ 32KHz - 64 KHz
300 Flight director on GS capture, the pitch integration is
○ to maintain GS error signal
○ to decrease GS error signal
○ to increase GS error signal
301 In an aircraft VOR receiver
○ 30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz variable phase signal
○ 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal
○ 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phase signal
Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
302
(GPWS)
○ Rudder/ailerons
○ Autothrottle
○ Flaps/undercarriage
303 In an ADF system, the goniometer
○ combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna
○ alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna
○ effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
304 If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show
○ fly left
○ the flag
○ fly right
305 A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on
○ a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds
○ a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation
○ a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of 20.3 microseconds
306 In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM subcarrier is used in the
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ REF phase
○ station identification Morse code
○ VAR phase
What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather
307
radar?
○ To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
○ To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display
○ To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground
308 Localizer modulation depth is
○ 2%
○ 50%
○ 20%
309 What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?
○ 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path
○ 150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline
○ 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline
310 In an IRS system you would expect to find
○ ring laser gyros
○ an azimuth gyro system
○ three strap down accelerometers
311 In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
○ 1025 - 1150 KHz
○ 190 - 1759 KHz
○ 108.00 - 117.95 MHz
From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
312
(DDRMI)?
○ From VOR only
○ From VOR and ADF systems
○ From ADF only
313 The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR because
○ DVOR ground installation is relatively simpler
○ DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errors
○ DVOR is compatible for digital processing
How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
314
aircraft?
○ By modulation of an audio tone
○ By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
○ By using an alternate frequency
315 The mode S squitter pulse will
○ contain the aircraft identity
○ trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogation
○ contain the aircraft range and altitude information
316 Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
○ To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band
○ To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance
○ To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length
317 An isotropic radiator
○ is an end fed π/2 unipole
○ has a cardioid shaped polar diagram
○ has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
318 In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
○ as part of the passenger telephone system
○ communications between the aircraft and base
319 If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
○ nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach
○ down
○ up
320 The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will be
○ 1.5:1
○ 02:01
○ 2.5:1
321 Directional property is exhibited by
○ the loop antenna
○ both the sense and loop antenna
○ the sense antenna
When an ADF sense antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top, the wiring of the
322
bearing indicator must be
○ reverse R1+S2 connections
○ reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections
○ reverse R1+R2 connections only
323 In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
○ suspended between two springs in a tube
○ a mass suspended in free air
○ a remotely mounted mass on the airframe
The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip antenna, for a frequency of 127 MHz,
324
must have a length of about
○ 59cm
○ 29cm
○ 70cm
325 Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?
○ VHF
○ VHF and UHF
○ HF
326 Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to
○ length of the cable
○ transmitter power output
○ degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
327 The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have a midband length of
○ π
○ π/2
○ π/4
328 When using the GPS
○ once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate with a warning message
○ once the database expires the system will not operate
○ the database card must be replaced every 28 days
A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the
329
antenna
○ will move up
○ will not move
○ will move down
330 The FMS navigation database is updated
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ after a B or C check has been completed
○ every 28 days
○ daily
331 Bandwidth of HF transmission is
○ 1.5khz
○ 3khz
○ 1khz
332 The middle marker is keyed with
○ dots
○ alternate dots and dashes
○ dashes
333 What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?
○ 25/75
○ 75/75
○ 25-May
334 DFDR [digital flight data recorder] ARINC 573 data bus has how many sub-frames?
○ 4
○ 6
○ 8
335 How is the next database on the FMC activated?
○ Manually, on the ground
○ Automatically by due date
○ Manually in the air
336 An accelerometer in an INS must be able to detect accelerations down to
○ -2
10 g
○ 10-6 g
○ 10-3 g
A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds, the slant range to the transponder
337
is approximately
○ 196 nm
○ 200 nm
○ 200 statute miles
338 A radial is referenced
○ on a compass
○ from a beacon
○ to a VOR
339 In a CVR system, hot mics
○ get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch
○ is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics
○ are as selected by the boom/mic switches
340 An accelerometer has
○ high inertia, restrained
○ low inertia, free suspension
○ high inertia, free suspension
341 When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to lo
○ increased by 10 to 12db
○ receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db
○ marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level
342 What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
○ either RA or TA
○ TA
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ RA
343 A laser dither mechanism ensures that
○ the contra rotating beams are synchronised together
○ optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together
○ that the two contra rotating beams are each at different frequencies
344 The frequency range 300KHz - 3MHz is called the
○ VHF band
○ LF band
○ MF band
A receiver having an IF of 465 kHz is tuned to 1300 Khz. Which of the following signals could interact
345
with the LO second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used?
○ 2230 KHz
○ 465 kHz
○ 3995 KHz
346 The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a
○ horn
○ hi tone chime
○ two tone chime
347 VHF airband frequency range is
○ 108 - 136 MHz
○ 108 - 118 MHz
○ 108 - 112 MHz
348 A GNS satellite system transmissions are
○ right hand circular
○ horizontally polarised
○ vertically polarised
349 What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
○ White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
○ White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
○ White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
350 ADF works by using
○ sense aerial
○ loop aerial
○ both loop and sense aerial
351 TCAS will issue a traffic advisory if
○ a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring
○ aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feet vertically of each other
○ a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring
352 On the ASP how many Rx and Tx can be selected at any one time?
○ Multiple Rx and only one Tx
○ Only one Rx and only one Tx
○ Multiple Rx and multiple Tx
353 DME squitter comes from
○ test set
○ DME station
○ interrogator
354 When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before crimping?
○ Degrease stripped cable
○ Just terminate
○ Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide
355 DME works on the frequency of
○ UHF
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ HF
○ VHF
356 The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the
○ E field lies
○ E and H fields are parallel
○ H field lies
357 The stability of an RF oscillator can be improved by
○ a buffer amplifier
○ tight coupling to an RF amplifier
○ direct coupling to an RF amplifier
358 Channel 3 on a CVR records
○ flightdeck
○ first officer
○ captain
359 The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
○ by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is obtained
○ in the workshop
○ by the manufacturer
360 The most common type of gyro used in an INS is
○ a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy current damping
○ a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity damping
○ a displacement gyro to sense displacement and a rate gyro to sense rate of displacement
361 Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to
○ 30 MHz
○ 100 MHz
○ 1000 MHz
362 Which of the following has the best frequency stability?
○ Colpitts
○ Hartley
○ Tuned collector tuned base
363 Three RF amplifiers of 10dB and 10KHz are in cascade, what is the output?
○ 30dB and 1000KHz
○ 10dB and 1000KHz
○ 30dB and 10KHz
364 GPS
○ uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
○ uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
○ uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
365 The ATC aerial has a polar diagram which is
○ omni-directional
○ limacon shaped
○ directional
366 A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be
○ Mode S
○ Mode C
○ Mode A
367 The image channel ratio is
○ response at image channel frequency over response at 2nd channel frequency
○ response at wanted channel frequency over response at image channel frequency
○ response at image channel frequency over response at wanted signal frequency
368 The distance over which VHF communication may be achieved is limited
○ to conditions in the ionosphere
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ by local weather conditions in the troposphere
○ to radio line of sight
369 A padder capacitor has most efficiency at
○ the highest frequency of the L O
○ the middle frequency of the L O
○ the lowest frequency of the L O
370 At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit has
○ the same impedance as at any other frequency
○ minimum impedance
○ maximum impedance
371 An I F amplifier unit consists of four amplifiers. The amplifiers are normally coupled by
○ pure resistor coupling
○ resistor/capacitor coupling
○ transformer coupling
372 Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches
○ on outer gimbal ring
○ on inner gimbal ring
○ on both gimbal rings
373 The speech clipping modulating circuit
○ increases the average depth of modulation
○ cuts out high tone sounds
○ clips high amplitude signals
374 What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?
○ TA
○ RA
○ either RA or TA
375 What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?
○ White circles, red diamonds and amber squares
○ White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
○ White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
376 Voice clipping
○ increases the depth of modulation
○ decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals
○ maintains an average depth of modulation
377 Second channel interference could occur if the I/P frequency was at twice the
○ I F and on the opposite side of the local oscillator frequency
○ I F and on the opposite side of the selected frequency
○ local oscillator frequency and on the opposite side of the selected frequency
378 With a Vertical Gyro simulated to aircraft right bank, the scanner in left hand position will
○ tilt right
○ tilt down
○ tilt up
379 At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit
○ offers minimum impedance
○ has minimum voltage developed across it
○ has maximum circulating currents
380 Man made noise causes interference
○ only in the LF band
○ mainly above 12 Mhz
○ mainly below 12 Mhz
381 Tx output stages are normally run in class C
○ as higher gains can be obtained
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ so that the output is rich in harmonics
○ because the efficiency is high
382 Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver will
○ decrease for low voltage signals
○ increase for low voltage signals
○ increase for high voltage signals
383 Time base of PPI display is
○ a trapezoid
○ a square wave
○ a ramp
384 Single Side Band filters are
○ 3khz
○ 6khz
○ 1khz
385 In a dual FMS, a failure of one computer will result in
○ COMPLETELY blank display on one CDU
○ no effect on the CDU
○ down-grade of the landing category
386 The RF resistance of an inductor
○ is independent of frequency
○ increases as frequency is increased
○ decreases as frequency is increased
387 A single side band transmission is equal to
○ High level modulation
○ One half of the high level modulation
○ Low level modulation
388 The laser ring gyro
○ does not have a gimbal but does have rotating parts
○ does not have a gimbal
○ has a stabilized platform
389 The IRS laser gyro is a
○ displacement gyro
○ displaced gyro
○ rate gyro
390 A quartz crystal has the characteristics of a
○ resistive bridge network
○ pair of tuned circuits
○ high 'Q' resonant circuit
391 The loop aerial polar diagram is a
○ cardioid
○ circle
○ figure 8
392 A receiver in which selected signals of any frequency are converted to a single frequency is called a
○ multi-channel receiver
○ wideband TRF
○ superhet receiver
393 What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?
○ 1 VOR and 1 DME signals
○ 2 DME signals
○ 1 VOR/DME signal
394 Rad Alt failure effects which system?
○ GPWS
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Mode S transponder
○ nav management systems
395 A radar pulse takes 308 microseconds to return, what is the target distance?
○ 12.5 Nautical miles
○ 25 Nautical miles
○ 30 Nautical miles
396 In ADF, quadrature error are eliminated by placing attenuators
○ Across loop aerial
○ Across sense aerial
○ Across goniometer
397 A receiver with a high IF will successfully reject
○ the 2nd channel / image frequency
○ the adjacent / image frequency
○ the 2nd channel / adjacent frequency
398 RNAV accuracy is
○ +/- 1nm 85%
○ +/- 5nm
○ +/- 5nm 95%
399 To check side lobe suppression
○ select ATC on ASP
○ use a ramp test set
○ carry out a self test
400 On an FMCS CDU, you can select
○ VNAV
○ VOR
○ N1 Thrust
401 The frequency spectrum of noise is
○ infinitely wide
○ restricted to the HF band
○ restricted to the audio band
402 The relationship between LORAN master and slave transmitters. Master frequency is
○ same as slave
○ higher than slave
○ lower than slave
403 A valid interrogation will
○ disable the RX, enable the encoder and disable the DME
○ disable the RX, disable the encoder and enable the DME
○ enable the RX, disable the encoder and disable the DME
404 A Loran C transmission consists of
○ 6 pulses each 270 microseconds long
○ 6 pulses with a total pulse train length of 8.27ms
○ 8 pulses each 270 microseconds long
405 VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is
○ 25 to 75 ohms
○ 129 ohms
○ 50 ohms
406 ARINC 629 operates at which speed?
○ 1000 Kb/s
○ 2000 Kb/s
○ 1300 Kb/s
407 Single Side Band filters are
○ 6Khz
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 3Khz
○ 1Khz
408 What is an Ideal VSWR on a Radio Transmission line?
○ 02:01
○ 01:01
○ 1.5:1
409 In a colour WXR, AGC is set
○ in workshop
○ automatically on receiver noise level
○ by operator on manually adjusted gain control
410 What is Track angle?
○ The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track
○ The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft longitudinal axis
○ The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track
411 Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation
○ not below 1000MHz
○ above about 100MHz
○ from about 10 MHz upwards
412 Voice/Range switch selected to range
○ allows NAV/ADF and DME through, and cancels out voice spectrum
○ allows only NAV/ADF through, and cancels out voice spectrum
○ allows the noise spectrum through
413 Man made noise causes interference
○ only in the LF band
○ mainly above 12Mhz
○ mainly below 12Mhz
414 Audio select panel voice switch
○ allows NAV, ADF and DME through
○ allows NAV and ADF through
○ allows NAV and DME through
415 GPS L1 and L2 signals are
○ 10.2 KHZ send rate
○ Bi-phase 50 bit/sec
○ 1KHz send rate
416 With an ATC code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are
○ B2 and B4
○ B0 and B6
○ B1 and B5
A Mode S equipped aircraft has its RA area breached by a Mode A only equipped aircraft. What warning
417
does the Mode S aircraft get?
○ RA visual and climb or descend aural warning
○ TA visual and Traffic Traffic aural warning
○ A TA visual warning only
418 Delayed Automatic Gain Control is inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver will
○ decrease for low signal
○ increase for high signal
○ increase for low signal
The noise factor of a receiver whose I/P signal to noise ratio is 15:1 and O/P signal to noise ratio is 12:1 is
419
○ 2.5
○ 1.25
○ 0.8
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

420 Transmission line losses have what effect on VSWR?

○ Do not affect
○ Increase
○ Decrease
421 Range resolution in a radar system is improved by
○ shorter pulses
○ a narrower beam
○ longer pulses
422 ADF system sense aerial is
○ null
○ null cardioid
○ rotating figure of 8
423 A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the length of the P2 pulse?
○ 1.6 μs
○ 2 μs
○ 0.8 μs
424 In audio clipping
○ vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
○ there is no change in relative strength of vowels
○ vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
425 A flat plate antenna is a
○ parabolic antenna
○ a series of slots and wave guides
○ a Doppler antenna
426 The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables
○ gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination
○ the accelerometers to correct the axes
○ sets the start co-ordinates
427 With AGC inoperative, sensitivity will be affected for signals with
○ high signal strength
○ low signal strength
○ both high and low signal strength
428 The term 'oblate spheroid' refers to
○ tilting of the earth about its axis
○ the network of meridians imagined to cover the earth
○ flattening at the polar regions
429 The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
○ the RMI
○ the CDI offset bar
○ the ILS system
430 Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?
○ GPWS
○ TCAS
○ altitude alert
431 Sonar Locator Beacons are a
○ ANO Requirement
○ ICAO Requirement
○ Company Requirement
432 ADF operation range is at
○ VHF band
○ HF band
○ MF band
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

433 There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight
○ the failed FMS has a blank screen
○ it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
○ the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby
434 Slewing of the INS gimballed platform simulates in-flight attitude changes up to
○ 360° in roll and 85° in pitch
○ 110° in pitch and 360° in azimuth
○ 71° in pitch and 180° in azimuth
435 Outer marker frequency is
○ 1300 hz
○ 3000 hz
○ 400 hz
436 The Janus beam is for
○ working out acceleration
○ to compensate for attitude changes
○ levelling the aerial
437 Decca navigation uses
○ VHF
○ LF
○ HF
438 What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?
○ 4.35 μs
○ 2 μs
○ 1.45 μs
439 Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses
○ no attenuation but amplification
○ attenuation first then amplification
○ amplification first then attenuation
440 ATCRBS reply pulses are
○ 0.8 μs wide
○ 0.45 μs wide
○ 1.45 μs wide
441 To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of
○ 3 satellites
○ 4 satellites
○ 6 satellites
442 The GPS satellite system consists of
○ 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
○ 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
○ 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
443 Glideslope frequency is
○ 108.10-119.95 MHz
○ 108.00-118 MHz
○ 328.6-335.4 MHz
444 Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?
○ Stall warning
○ Resolution Advisories
○ Gear position warning
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to correct the pitch
445
movement?
○ Longitudinal
○ Lateral
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Normal
446 FMC provides data envelope for
○ GPWS
○ TCAS
○ ATC
447 The horizontal angle contained between the true and the magnetic meridian at any place is
○ inclination
○ angle of dip
○ declination
448 A Mode C transponder gives the following information
○ Altitude and interrogation
○ Interrogation
○ Altitude
449 What is the time between the framing pulses F1 and F2 in an ATCRBS reply?
○ 21 μs
○ 20.3 μs
○ 21.7 μs
450 Pin Programming is allowed
○ to enter aircraft performance database
○ under CAA Rules
○ to provide reference to FMS computer as to which side of datum it is fitted to
451 Voltage buffer amplifiers are used when
○ an impedance change (high to low) is required
○ an impedance change (low to high) is required
○ high amplification factors are required
452 Janus in Doppler radar
○ adjusts for lateral and vertical steering
○ allows adjustment for antenna pitch
○ adjusts signal for overwater flight
453 Alert Height is
○ where a decision of whether to land is made based upon the visibility conditions
○ where a decision of whether to land is made based on aircraft characteristic and its fail operational landing
system
○ based on RVR and DH
454 ATC altitude readout is
○ parallel transmitted with binary encoding
○ series transmitted with binary encoding
○ series transmitted with octal encoding
455 Confirmation of the correct operation of an ATC transponder ident function, is verified by
○ telephone contact with the receiving ATC cell
○ observation of the ATC transponder control head ident light
○ use of a ramp test set
456 Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6μs and duty cycle is 2.4 ms. What is the average power transmitted?
○ 14.4W
○ Just over 4W
○ 25W
457 INS power is provided by
○ AC normal and DC emergency
○ AC normal and AC emergency
○ DC normal and DC emergency
458 DME interrogation is carried out
○ 63 MHz above transmitted frequency
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 63 MHz above or below transmitted frequency
○ 63 MHz below transmitted frequency
459 How does a receiver know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been selected?
○ Logic control circuit in control unit
○ A different receiver is used
○ Manually selected by operator
460 When performing an ADF bearing check, commercial stations
○ can be used in addition to ADF nav stations
○ can be used
○ can not be used as they are the wrong frequency
461 In an IRS system, the accelerometer is double integrated for
○ velocity
○ distance
○ acceleration
462 In a triple RAD ALT installation on a large aircraft, interference is prevented by
○ changing the antenna orientation with phased signal control
○ varying the modulating frequency of each system
○ by using a different PRF for each system using PIN Programming
463 In ground mode, the FMS uses which of the following for velocity calculations?
○ RHO-THETA
○ RHO-RHO
○ IRS
464 On power up, IRS
○ compares longitude from previous position
○ obtains both from previous position
○ obtains latitude from previous position
465 During an ACARS transmission, a 1 is generated by
○ the +ve half of a 1200 Hz waveform
○ a 2400 Hz waveform
○ the -ve half of a 1200 Hz waveform
466 Aircraft is 9000ft. When is it out of VHF range?
○ 100 nm
○ 120 nm
○ 140 nm
467 An aircraft is on course on an ILS Localiser. What is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM)?
○ 50%
○ 20%
○ zero
468 In flight mode, the FMS preference of data source is
○ IRS, RHO-RHO, RHO-THETA
○ RHO-THETA, RHO-RHO, IRS
○ RHO-RHO, IRS, RHO-THETA
469 How many satellites comprise the space segment for GPS?
○ 6 satellites in each of four orbits
○ 8 satellites in each of three orbits
○ 4 satellites in each of six orbits
470 Before processing an AM USB signal, what needs to be done?
○ Carrier integrated
○ Carrier removed
○ Carrier added
471 A resistance-capacitor low pass filter will have
○ the output taken across the resistor
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ both resistance and capacitor in parallel
○ the output taken across the capacitor
472 What type of system is an ADF?
○ theta
○ rho
○ rho-theta
473 Attenuation in a co-axial cable
○ increases with frequency increase
○ decreases with frequency decrease
○ is not affected by frequency
474 An electro-magnetic microphone requires which type of input?
○ DC
○ AC
○ None
475 How is the flightdeck informed of an ACARS transmission?
○ ONSIDE VHF T/R
○ A double chime
○ SELCAL
476 RNAV uses which inputs?
○ IRS, VOR, GPS, DME
○ IRS, ADF, VOR, DME
○ ADF, GPS, VOR
477 IRS serviceability for in-service drift is ascertained by
○ CDU fault code interrogation
○ apparent drift divided by flight time
○ 3+3t
478 CVR is unserviceable.
○ The aircraft cannot fly unless required data is recorded by FDR
○ The aircraft can fly for 4 days since unserviceability
○ The aircraft can fly for 72 hours since unserviceability
479 The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a frequency of thirty seven kilo-hertz
○ and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres
○ and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four thousand feet
○ with an operational time of at least thirty days
480 ACARS transmits its data using
○ octal code
○ binary code
○ hexadecimal code
481 In the OBMS, the printing report system is activated
○ automatically only
○ either manually or automatically
○ manually only
482 A selcal signal transmits
○ four tones continuously
○ two pair of tones - one pair after the other
○ a pair of tones continuously
483 The frequency of 111.1 MHz is used by
○ ILS glideslope
○ VOR
○ ILS localiser
484 When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident pulse appear?
○ 1.6 µ seconds after the P2 pulse
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 0.8 µ seconds after the last frame pulse
○ 4.35 µ seconds after the last frame pulse
485 The impedance of an HF aerial is
○ 50 ohms
○ 75 ohms
○ dependent on frequency
486 In a secondary radar system, at what frequency does the interrogator transmit on?
○ 1090 KHz
○ 1030 MHz
○ 1090 MHz
487 In a Loran navigation system, master station transmitter frequency
○ lower than the slave
○ higher than the slave
○ the same as the slave
488 The pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be
○ low for long ranges
○ low for short ranges
○ high for long ranges
489 Communication between the aircraft earth station (AES) and the satellite is on
○ L band
○ C band
○ S band
490 On an RMI, the input to the ADF pointer is fed via
○ a matching unit
○ a differential synchro
○ a synchro
491 Doppler VOR, when received by a conventional VOR receiver
○ has normal reception but no ident signal
○ can not be received on CVOR equipment
○ has normal reception with an ident signal
492 What is the main cause of standing waves in waveguide?
○ The frequency transmitted is too high
○ Mismatch of impedance
○ The velocity of propagation is too high
493 The uplink 11 format utilises
○ Differential Phase Shift Keying
○ Mono-pulse Dual Interrogation
○ Pulse Position Monitoring
494 In an interrogator Mode S addressing format when does the first synch phase reversal occur?
○ 2.75 µ seconds after P2
○ 1.25 µ seconds after P2
○ 0.8 µ seconds after P2
495 At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is
○ low
○ reactive
○ high
The path of a point which moves such that the difference in distance from two fixed points is equal, is
496
called
○ hyperbola
○ circle
○ parabola
497 Data communication between the aircraft and the operational control centre is possible through
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ satcom system
○ selcal system
○ ACARS system
498 What is the time taken for one radar nautical mile?
○ 12.36 µs
○ 11.03 µs
○ 10.75 µs
499 In VOR the manual phase shift resolver is a
○ 1020 Hz signal
○ 30 Hz signal
○ 9960 Hz signal
500 In a universal all-call transponder interrogation P2 is radiated by the
○ directional aerial
○ omnidirectional aerial
○ horizontal dipole
501 GPS consists of 24 orbiting satellites located
○ in a 8800 nautical miles high orbit
○ in a 5000 nautical miles high orbit
○ in a 10900 nautical miles high orbit
If a ground station interrogating an aircraft transmits P1, P2 and P6 through the rotating beam antenna
502
and P5 is radiated by omni-directional antenna, which mode is it addressing?
○ Mode A, C and S
○ Mode S only
○ Mode A and C only
503 A VHF comm blade aerial has a length of
○ a quarter wavelength
○ a half wavelength
○ a full wavelength
504 Full scale deflection on a VOR system is
○ 10 degrees
○ 5 degrees
○ 2 degrees
505 In the downlink DF11 format, a 0.5 microsecond pulse in the first half of the slot represents
○ a logic one
○ a logic zero
○ the start of the preamble
506 Which of the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic navigation system?
○ Doppler
○ Loran C
○ VLF omega
507 A magnetron can be used as an
○ oscillator only
○ amplifier only
○ oscillator or an amplifier
508 Radio altimeter normally indicates the altitude of
○ plus-minus 2500 feet
○ to 2500feet pressure altitude
○ 0 to 2500 feet above the ground level
509 A mode 'S' transponder utilises a
○ logarithmic amplifier
○ Darlington pair
○ linear amplifier
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

510 The monopulse aerial system is used to provide T.C.A.S with

○ bearing Information
○ mode 'S' lock out
○ altitude information
511 When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash
○ two minutes before the next waypoint
○ thirty seconds before a track change is required
○ when an error is detected
512 Group countdown in a transponder receiver changes the
○ sensitivity
○ selectivity
○ fidelity
513 The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a
○ displacement gyro
○ rate integrating gyro
○ rate gyro
514 In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
○ provide attitude reference
○ prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
○ stop the gyros from toppling
515 Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
○ insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS
○ set the altitude to be fed into the INS
○ insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
516 Coriolis effect is corrected for by
○ re-aligning the stable platform
○ torquing the gyros
○ adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs
517 The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted
○ 120º apart
○ parallel to each other
○ 90º to each other
518 The length of a resonant antenna dipole is
○ lambda/2
○ lambda/4
○ lambda
519 An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to
○ -6
10 g
○ 10-2 g
○ 10-3 g
520 A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
○ 84.4 seconds
○ 84.4 minutes
○ 8.4 minutes
521 Earth rate is approximately
○ 84 degrees per hour
○ 5 degrees per hour
○ 15 degrees per hour
522 In a vertically polarized electromagnetic wave
○ the magnetic field vectors are vertical
○ both electric and magnetic are vertical
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ the electric field vectors are vertical
T.C.A.S considers another aircraft to be on the ground at a difference height between the barometric
523
altimeter and rad/alt of
○ 180 ft
○ 200 ft
○ 160 ft
524 A Class 3 fault reporting failure
○ has no consequences on aircraft safety
○ does not have an operational consequence but may do if a second failure occurs
○ may have an operational consequence
525 The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted
○ orthogonally
○ 120 degrees apart
○ parallel to each other
526 Audio frequency range is
○ 20 to 200,000 Hz
○ 20 to 20,000 Hz
○ 20 to 2000 Hz
527 The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by
○ a single integration
○ a differential followed by an integration
○ two successive integrations
528 When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum
○ the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft
○ the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical
○ the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical
529 A basic I.N.S. platform has
○ 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros
○ 3 axis accelerometer
○ 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll)
530 ACARS is used to transmit
○ on the ground
○ both in flight and on the ground
○ in flight
531 A laser gyro output is
○ directly proportional to angular turning rate
○ directly proportional to frequency addition
○ inversely proportional to angular turning rate
532 The output of an INS can be fed to
○ attitude indicators
○ altimeters
○ vertical speed indicators
533 To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use
○ a pitch gimbal
○ four gimbals
○ three gimbals
534 A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a
○ linear force
○ non-linear force
○ constant force
535 T.C.A.S transmits squitter pulses on a frequency of
○ 1060 MHz
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ 1090 MHz
○ 1030 MHz
536 In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the
○ pitch gimbal
○ azimuth gimbal
○ roll gimbal
537 In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a
○ linear spring
○ force balance system
○ pendulous suspension
538 A signal at 120 MHz freq will normally propagate by means of
○ ground waves
○ sky waves
○ space waves
539 An IN system requires data from the
○ satellites
○ Doppler system
○ air data computer
540 In yagi-array antenna, the signal is fed through a cable to
○ dipole
○ both dipole and parasitic elements
○ parasitic elements
541 The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is
○ turn left
○ straight ahead
○ turn right
542 Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays
○ difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track
○ difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track
○ distance perpendicular from the selected track
543 What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?
○ Waypoints
○ Present position
○ E.T.A.
544 INS wind speed is calculated from
○ the vectorial addition of IAS and GS
○ the vectorial addition of TAS and GS
○ the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS
545 The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
○ VHF comm system
○ flight director computer
○ VHF nav system
546 The glideslope equipment operates in the
○ UHF band
○ VHF band
○ HF band
547 Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is
○ 150 Hz
○ 90 Hz
○ 90 KHZ
548 VOR left-right deviation signals come from the
○ VHF nav set
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ VLF nav system
○ DME system
549 When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the
○ equi-signal sector
○ 150 Hz modulation sector
○ 90 Hz modulation sector
550 Transport Rate compensation is achieved by
○ the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal
○ allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
○ an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading
551 Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?
○ 114.3 MHz
○ 103.9 MHz
○ 127.2 MHz
552 Aerial masts may be damaged by
○ Skydrol hydraulic fluids
○ water
○ killfrost anti-icing fluid
When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable
553
signals will be
○ 180° out of phase
○ 270° out of phase
○ in phase
554 The heading error signal used in the heading select mode
○ comes direct from the compass system
○ is the difference between the desired course and the actual course
○ is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading
555 The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing
○ the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations
○ the phase of two 30 Hz modulations
○ the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation
556 The glideslope and localiser frequencies
○ have to be selected separately
○ are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both
○ are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary
557 The number of different radials provided by a ground station is
○ 180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°
○ infinite
○ 360
558 Most radio aerial masts are
○ not bonded
○ bonded
○ insulated from the fuselage
559 The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of
○ the vertical plane
○ the horizontal plane
○ distance to touchdown
560 Centripetal error compensation is achieved by
○ the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis
○ allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
○ an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
561 Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ rhumb line
○ great circle arc
○ course directed by ground station
562 The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the
○ difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading
○ selected course counter
○ difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
563 The glideslope transmitter is located
○ at the approach end of the runway
○ adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
○ at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway
564 Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made
○ to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays
○ when navigation information is lost
○ when attitude information is lost
565 For the INS, the Battery Unit provides standby power
○ only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase
○ both when airborne and on the ground
○ when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage
566 If the battery fails on the ground (INS System)
○ an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
○ a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds
○ a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
567 The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of
○ the vertical plane
○ distance to touch down
○ the horizontal plane
568 The middle marker modulation is keyed with
○ dashes
○ dots
○ alternate dots and dashes
569 The localiser equipment operates in the
○ UHF band
○ VHF band
○ HF band
570 An IRS alignment
○ takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment
○ takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment
○ takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment
571 Which two frequencies are paired?
○ DME and Glideslope
○ Localizer and DME
○ Glideslope and localizer
572 Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises
○ ILS, VOR, ADF
○ ILS, DME, ADC,
○ VOR, ADF, DME
573 The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?
○ Blue
○ White
○ Amber
574 What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate
○ Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance
○ Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off
575 The glideslope transmitter operates on
○ frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ
○ the VHF band
○ the UHF band
576 During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver
○ #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
○ #1 HF system can transmit but not receive
○ both systems can be operated simultaneously
577 The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
○ 7 miles
○ 3500 ft.
○ 3 miles
578 A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have
○ a decision height of 50ft
○ no decision height
○ a decision height depending on RVR
579 Incompatible Flight Director modes are
○ VRU and compass
○ VOR and glidepath
○ altitude hold and ILS
580 The modulation of the outer marker is
○ 1300 Hz
○ 400 Hz
○ 3000 Hz
581 Laser gyros have
○ no rotating parts
○ moving parts
○ a spinning rotor
582 What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?
○ The aerial becomes inductively reactive
○ The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
○ The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
583 How many data bases are required in an FMS system?
○ 1
○ 3 (one is used for redundancy)
○ 2
584 ACARS is
○ a satellite communication system
○ a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight
○ a navigation system
585 What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?
○ The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
○ The aerial becomes inductively reactive
○ The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
586 Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely
○ capacitive
○ inductive
○ resistive
587 The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)
○ VOR
○ they both have the same sensitivity
○ ILS
588 L band DME transmits on a frequency of
○ 1090 MHz
○ 4133 MHz
○ 2210 MHz
589 What is secondary radar?
○ Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft
○ A backup radar on an airfield
○ Signal returned from a transponder
590 How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?
○ Trigger pulse from ground station
○ Discriminator on control panel
○ Frequency discriminator in receiver
591 An over station sensor (OSS) detects
○ radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter
○ the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
○ radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter
592 Most aerials are
○ made from non-conductive material
○ not bonded
○ bonded
593 During ATC transponder operation, suppression acts to
○ mute the DME operation during transmit phase
○ supply altitude readout
○ mute coms transmission during transponder operation
If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show
594
○ to
○ from
○ no indication
595 Marker information is usually provided to the pilot
○ aurally
○ visually
○ both visually and aurally
596 Laser gyros are aligned to
○ true north
○ aircraft structure
○ magnetic north
597 Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by
○ 700 ft
○ 70 ft
○ 7 ft
598 The VOR system comprises
○ variable phase signal
○ variable and reference phase signals
○ reference phase signal
599 For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use
○ VLF
○ HF
○ VHF
 04 CommunicationNavigation (600)

600 Function of ADF/VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;
○ Both provide range to beacon
○ the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon
○ the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon
 05 Electrical Power (320)

1 Generator brushes spark because

○ of low spring tension
○ brushes are in-line with the neutral magnetic axis of generator
○ brushes are in-line with the neutral geometric axis of generator
2 A diode across a contactor
○ reduces contact arcing
○ reduces contact bounce
○ enables it to be connected to either an AC or DC circuit
3 The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
○ power
○ voltage
○ current
4 On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are
○ always closed in flight
○ always open in flight
○ only closed in an emergency
5 The GCR will trip during over-voltage
○ based upon a fixed time delay circuit
○ based upon the amplitude of the over-voltage
○ immediately
6 Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells
○ 18 V
○ 30 V
○ 15 V
7 Short circuits occur
○ earth to earth
○ between positive wire and negative wire
○ between positive wire and earth
8 A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
○ cells begin to gas freely
○ SG and voltage remain constant for specified period
○ SG reaches 1.180
9 If, on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs
○ recharging
○ topping up with distilled water
○ replacing
10 In a constant voltage AC generator, the voltage is regulated by
○ varying field voltage
○ varying field current
○ a 3-phase transformer
11 The aircraft's structure is used as a return path for
○ AC only
○ both AC and DC
○ DC only
12 Ram Air Turbines have variable fan blades to
○ maintain a constant speed
○ produce maximun hydraulic pressure required by the system
○ provide a constant flow rate
13 A field current relay can be reset
○ on the ground only after fault rectification
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ automatically after a set period of time
○ by a cockpit switch
14 Reactive electrical loads are adjusted by
○ adjustment of the regulator output
○ varying the frequency circuit
○ adjustment of generator speed
15 Lithium cells
○ are very efficient
○ have an unlimited re-charge cycle capacity
○ are not rechargeable
16 The power supply for aircraft is
○ 28VDC, 220VAC, 400Hz
○ 28VDC, 115VAC, 400Hz
○ 28VDC, 115VAC, 200Hz
17 Where is a commutator found?
○ A DC alternator
○ An AC generator
○ A DC generator
18 When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?
○ Left open circuit
○ Resistor placed across terminals
○ Terminals shorted
19 When a current transformer is disconnected from its load
○ the terminals should be shorted together
○ the terminals should be left disconnected
○ a resistor should be placed across the terminals
20 What does the differential sensing coil sense?
○ Volts
○ Current
○ Power
21 Whilst synchronising generators, frequency bias is adjusted on
○ the on-coming generator
○ all generators
○ the on-line generator
22 Parallel electrical system bus tie breakers are
○ always closed in flight
○ closed in flight and open on ground
○ closed on ground and open in flight
23 On a Direct Current circuit, Current Limiters
○ limit current to field circuit
○ prevent overheating by limiting current to load
○ limit generator field excitation
24 When two DC generators are paralleled, the load sharing is carried out by
○ adjusting the field currents
○ an equalizing circuit on the speed generator
○ a differential load transformer
25 A vibrator type voltage regulator regulates field current by
○ just a pair of contact breaker points
○ a resistor in series with a pair of contact breaker points
○ a resistor in parallel with a pair of contact breaker points
 05 Electrical Power (320)

26 In a Ni-Cad battery, distilled water is added

○ in the aircraft
○ during charging
○ during discharging
27 A silver oxide cell has a voltage of
○ 1.85 V
○ 1.2 V
○ 1.55 V
28 The primary function of windshield electrical heating is
○ improve impact resistance of windscreen panel
○ prevent contraction at high altitude
○ to prevent the formation of ice and mist
29 IDG oil is used for
○ cooling and lubrication only
○ internal hydraulic functions only
○ cooling, lubrication and internal hydraulic functions
30 What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?
○ No effect
○ Battery is disconnected from charge circuit
○ Electrical systems shut down
When changing the brushes on a DC generator, the brushes must be bedded first. This can be
31
done
○ the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench
○ with the generator fitted to the aircraft
○ at the manufacturers only
32 Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by
○ brushes positioned on MNA
○ rotating field diode failure
○ weak spring tension
In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if when a fault occurs only one relay contactor
33
opens,
○ only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
○ then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open circuit
○ then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit
34 Voltage is controlled by
○ the constant speed drive
○ the swashplate
○ the voltage regulator
35 A fuse-type current limiter
○ can be used as a radio suppressor
○ limits current flow to a load
○ opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
36 The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking
○ one cell at a time until all cells are completed
○ any single cell as all the others will be the same
○ only the end cell as all the others will be the same
37 The ground interlock pins are numbered
○ C and N
○ A and B
○ E and F
 05 Electrical Power (320)

38 To flash a generator field the

○ generator rotates but is not on line
○ generator must be stationary
○ generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
39 Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft
○ take the temperature of the electrolyte
○ carry out a capacity test
○ allow to stabilise for one hour
What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid
40
battery?
○ The ambient humidity
○ The temperature
○ The ambient pressure
41 Galley loads are wired in
○ either series or parallel depending on the design
○ parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
○ series
42 In a vibrator type voltage regulator the resistor is
○ in series with the field
○ in parallel with the field
○ in series with the voltage coil
In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is
43
protected by
○ over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits
○ over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits
○ over-current and under-current protection circuits
Nickel cadmium battery installations on aircraft or rotorcraft above 5700 kgs must have installed
44
a
○ means of lowering the charge rate to the battery from the charging source in the event of an
overtemperature condition
○ method of indicating the remaining current capacity when not being charged
○ means of disconnecting the battery from the charging source in the event of an overtemperature
condition
In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by
45
○ increasing the voltage sensed by the voltage regulator
○ decreasing the mark to space ratio
○ increasing the mark to space ratio
46 On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins
○ EF
○ CD
○ AB
47 A diode connected across a coil will
○ suppress arcing when relay is opening and closing
○ prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way
○ prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
48 You have to keep topping up a lead acid battery. You should
○ replace the defective cells
○ replace battery
○ keep topping up
 05 Electrical Power (320)

49 Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by

○ equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators
○ equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
○ automatic load shedding
50 Over-voltage protection circuits are activated
○ before the over voltage limit is exceeded
○ dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
○ after a fixed time delay
51 Ni-Cad batteries can be ascertained of its condition in the workshop by
○ by measuring voltage
○ applying known load and measuring discharge time
○ by measuring charging current
52 Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery
○ only in the battery workshop
○ at any time
○ when fully charged
53 When a load is shed from a busbar, the
○ current consumption from the bar decreases
○ busbar voltage increases
○ busbar voltage decreases
54 What device changes AC to DC inside a DC generator?
○ Armature
○ Commutator
○ Poles
55 A GCR will trip if what is detected?
○ Over frequency and under current
○ Over current and over frequency
○ Under frequency and over frequency
In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the
56
others
○ must be synchronised prior to paralleling
○ must be BCA
○ is unimportant
57 Differential protection in a generating system
○ detects current difference between source and load
○ detects voltage difference between source and load
○ uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
58 Arcing of generator brushes is caused by
○ low brush-spring tension
○ low load on generator
○ high brush-spring tension
59 Open phase sensing on a current transformer
○ is detected using all phases
○ is detected using any phase
○ is detected on generator neutral circuit
60 Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates
○ not enough charging current
○ excessive charging current
○ low electrolyte temperature
61 An increase of both the volume of oil in and of oil temperature could be caused by
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ more heat being generated inside the CSD
○ the oil cooling not being sufficient
○ the CSD having too high input speed
Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain
62
generator outputs at the same voltage
○
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
○ to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs
○ to prevent CSD shock loading
63 A failure of CSD Speed Regulation is detected by
○ generator under voltage only
○ CSD underspeed signal with generator underfrequency
○ generator underfrequency and under voltage
64 Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares
○ ambient pressure to cabin pressure
○ generator voltage to busbar voltage
○ generator current to busbar current
65 The correct statement regarding reactive current sensing in a voltage regulator is
○ Voltage between phase B and phase C is out of phase by 180 degrees in respect of voltage between
phase A and neutral
○ Voltage between phase B and phase C is out of phase by 90 degrees in respect of voltage between phase
A and neutral
○ Voltage between phase B and phase C is phased with voltage between phase A and neutral
A condition whereby one generator in a parallel AC generation system takes most of the reactive
66
load, is detected by the
○ over or under voltage sensing circuit
○ differential protection sensing circuit
○ over or under excitation sensing circuit
67 During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by
○ overcurrent
○ undervoltage
○ underfrequency
68 Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
○ shut down the APU
○ isolate the battery from the main busbar
○ disconnect all power to the main busbar
69 An AC generator used with a CSD
○ does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant
○ does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant
○ needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load
70 Sparking in a generator would be caused by
○ brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
○ low spring tension
○ bedding of brushes
71 Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
○ high oil temperature / low oil pressure
○ High oil temperature / low oil quantity
○ low oil quantity / low oil temperature
Current transformers located in the neutral leads of the star points of the generator, are used for
72
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ load monitoring
○ over current protection
○ differential fault protection
73 A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field
○ uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
○ uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
○ uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
74 If the disconnect solenoid of a CSD is energized when the engine is stopped
○ nothing will happen
○ the clutch will open immediately in the normal way
○ the disconnect device is triggered and the clutch will be damaged when the engine is started
75 What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?
○ Boric acid
○ Distilled water
○ Bicarbonate of soda
76 The purpose of the generator field control relay is to
○ bring the generator on-line whenever the the voltage exceeds a pre-determined level
○ de-energize the generator after a fault condition is detected
○ control the output voltage of the generator to pre-determined level.
77 Consumer loads are connected to a busbar
○ in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced
○ in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
○ in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
78 The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by
○ an hydraulically actuated swash plate
○ a CSD
○ an IDG
79 What is the complete answer concerning the CSD oil circuit?
○
The oil circuit is needed for cooling, lubrication and to provide hydraulic fluid for the motor/pump unit
○ The oil circuit is only used to provide hydraulic fluid for the motor/pump unit
○ The oil circuit is only used for lubrication
On the terminals of the generator power relay when phase B and phase C are connected together,
80
a short circuit flows and the differential protection trips
○ the GCR and generator power relay
○ the GCR only
○ the generator power relay only
"Field flashing" of a direct current generator is the momentary application of a direct current
81
potential to the field winding to
○ restore residual magnetism of the correct polarity
○ prove the insulation resistance
○ check the volt drop
82 CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate
○ low oil pressure, low oil temperature
○ low oil pressure, high oil temperature
○ high oil pressure, low oil temperature
83 Trip signals for a GCR are
○ overfrequency and undervoltage
○ differential protection and undervoltage
○ underfrequency and overcurrent
 05 Electrical Power (320)

84 Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent

○ large circulating currents developing
○ overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
○ voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits
85 The CSD needs a disconnect when
○ an underspeed condition is found
○ a high oil temperature condition is found
○ a high oil pressure condition is found
86 What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?
○ Put a set resistance across the terminals
○ Leave the terminals open circuit
○ Short the terminals together
87 In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation
○ must be synchronised prior to paralleling
○ is of no consequence after paralleling
○ must be out of phase prior to paralleling
88 A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
○ overload protection
○ negative sequence protection
○ differential current protection
89 Diodes are placed across a contactor to
○ ensure smooth contactor operation
○ speed up operation by reducing back EMF
○ prevent contact bounce
90 Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
○ Nomex
○ PVC
○ Teflon
A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the
91
battery be expected to power essential equipment?
○ 30 minutes
○ Forever
○ 60 minutes
The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows a substantially
92
lower value.
○ You top up the cell with distilled water
○ You replace the cell
○ Cell is defective
A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its
93
secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?
○ 3:00 AM
○ 1.2 A
○ 0.3 A
94 Generator brush bedding
○ should not be done on the aircraft
○ should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done
○ can be done on the aircraft
95 Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to
○ excessive charging voltage
○ excessive charging current
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ insufficient charging current
96 To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery
○ subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell
○ measure the discharge time
○ subject the battery to load and check the voltage
97 An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for
○ a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket
○ the interlock circuit
○ ground handling bus
98 Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
○ excessive electrical loading
○ low charge current
○ high charge current
99 A differential relay in a twin generator system will ensure
○ one generator will always come on line before the other
○ generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
○ that the equalizing relay is in circuit at all times
100 Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery
○ in the charging room only
○ in the aircraft
○ when the battery is fully charged
101 High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because
○ it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators
○ it will trip the GCR
○ it will damage the drive shaft
102 In a modern aircraft, power distribution of generators are controlled by
○ SPCU
○ BPCU
○ PCDU (power control distribution unit)
103 When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
○ decrease
○ remain the same
○ increase
104 Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is
○ by CSU
○ by IDG
○ by angle of swash plate
105 Speed of an HMG is controlled by a
○ swashplate
○ CSD unit
○ ID unit
106 On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins
○ C and D
○ A and B
○ E and F
107 IDG output voltage
○ does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
○ voltage is regulated by GCU
○ voltage is regulated by IDG
108 Circulating currents are associated with
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ AC and DC generators in parallel
○ DC generators in parallel
○ AC generators in parallel
109 Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
○ is only allowed in the shop
○ is not allowed
○ is permitted
After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an
110
initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
○ there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
○ no cause for concern
○ the battery is faulty
111 What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?
○ The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
○ The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
○ The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted
112 Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
○ time delay circuit
○ amplitude of voltage
○ closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
113 In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
○ The cell must be replaced
○ It needs topping up
○ It is defective
114 The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is
○ to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
○ to monitor total current load
○ to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
115 A permanent magnet should have
○ high retentivity, low coercivity
○ low retentivity, high coercivity
○ low retentivity, low coercivity
'Circulating currents' is the term used to describe current flowing between a pair of unbalanced
116
○ AC electrical power generators
○ AC and DC electrical power generators
○ DC electrical power generators
117 On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
○ On the GCU
○ By means of a remote trimmer
○ In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
118 A CSD is monitored for
○ high temperature and high oil pressure
○ low temperature and high oil pressure
○ high temperature and low oil pressure
119 When removing the load from a current transformer
○ short the terminals
○ place a resistor across each terminal
○ leave the terminals open
120 When a ni-cad battery is fully charged
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ the electrolyte level stays the same
○ the electrolyte level is lower than normal
○ the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
121 One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
○ prevent engine overload
○ enable generators to be paralleled
○ maintain constant load on the generator
122 When paralleling two AC generators
○ it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC
○ it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA
○ they do not need to be in phase
123 If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by
○ constant current
○ constant voltage
○ constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
124 What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
○ Ground or earth
○ Positive to battery relay
○ Positive to external power relay
125 What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?
○ The outside temperature
○ Charge state of the battery
○ Electrolyte temperature
126 How is RAT driven?
○ Fan
○ Airstream
○ Compressor
127 A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
○ increased torque and reduced speed
○ reduced torque and increased speed
○ increased torque and speed
128 Eddy currents are
○ circulating currents
○ caused by resistance of the coil
○ caused by heating effect of the coil
129 In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by
○ diodes and transformers
○ zeners and transistors
○ transformers and transistors
130 DC power into the GCU comes from
○ ground service
○ main battery bus
○ main battery bus and ground service
131 How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?
○ By a swashplate
○ Hydraulic feedback to a governor
○ No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
132 Paralleling is used for
○ AC and DC electrical generators
○ DC electrical generators only
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ AC electrical generators only
133 In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
○ deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
○ activation of the time delay circuit
○ energise the bus tie relay
134 A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt field and a
○ voltage regulating coil in parallel with the field
○ current regulation coil in series with the field
○ voltage regulating coil in series with the field
135 Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the
○ swash plate
○ IDG
○ CSD
136 The small pins in the power connector plug are
○ neutral
○ positive
○ negative
137 The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
○ stationary
○ pulse width modulating
○ fluctuating
138 Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
○ 115 degrees C
○ 46 degrees C
○ 46 degrees F
139 A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
○ phase sequence monitoring
○ differential protection
○ load monitoring
140 What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
○ Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
○ Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
○ Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
141 How is an aircraft battery rated?
○ Ampere hours
○ Watts
○ Joules
142 In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is
○ in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
○ in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
○ in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
143 Pitot tubes are heated by
○ AC or DC
○ DC
○ AC
144 Inductive reactive load causes
○ increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
○ increase in torque only
○ no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
145 What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ To help plug location/fit
○ To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
○ Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
146 Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is
○ in parallel with the field windings
○ in series with the field windings
○ across the generator output
147 When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit
○ trips at a set level
○ trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude
○ trips after a time delay
148 In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to
○ provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
○ supply essential services
○ provide a means of monitoring the load
149 Increasing the real load primarily
○ increases output voltage and increases frequency
○ decreases output voltage
○ decreases frequency
150 What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
○ To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
○ To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
○ To speed up the operation
In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is
151
power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
○ By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
○ By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter
○ By power fed from static inverter only
152 Zener diodes are for
○ voltage regulation
○ rectification
○ voltage stabilisation
153 AC generator output indications are measured in
○ KW & KVAR
○ KW
○ KVA & KW
154 The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is
○ in series with the generator volts coil
○ in series with the generator field
○ in parallel with the generator volts coil
155 Load shedding allows
○ less current to the busbar
○ more voltage to the busbar
○ more current to the busbar
156 Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
○ voltage and current coil
○ current coil
○ voltage coil
157 If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by
○ constant current
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
○ constant voltage
158 In a generator system, a stability winding is used
○ in series with the field to prevent oscillations
○ to control output current
○ to prevent voltage overshoot
159 Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
○ Chapter 24 Section 31
○ Chapter 24 Section 21
○ Chapter 31 Section 21
160 Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
○ 115°F
○ 144°F
○ 144°C
161 In what units are static inverters rated?
○ kVAR
○ kW
○ kVA
162 When loads are shed from a busbar automatically
○ bus bar current decreases
○ bus bar current rises
○ bus bar voltage rises
Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger
163
switched off automatically?
○ When the alternators are fully loaded
○ When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system
○ When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
164 What controls output from the generator?
○ ELCU
○ GCU
○ BPCU
165 When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
○ parallel
○ either parallel or series and switched between as an option
○ series
166 How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?
○ Slightly variable DC
○ Pulse width modulated DC
○ Variable AC
167 In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is
○ in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
○ in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
○ in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
168 In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
○ deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
○ energise the bus tie relay
○ activation of the time delay circuit
169 A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a preset potentiometer is fitted
○ in series with the field winding
○ in series with the generator output
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ in parallel with the field winding
170 When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset
○ after the fault has been cleared
○ on the ground only
○ by cycling the generator switch
171 One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
○ enable generators to be paralleled
○ prevent engine overload
○ maintain constant load on the generator
172 Differential protection in an AC system protects against
○ line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
○ short circuits only
○ A reverse current flowing from the battery
Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator
173
output voltage will
○ increases and amperage output increases
○ remain constant and amperage output increases
○ decrease and amperage output increases
174 What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
○ Positive to battery relay
○ Positive to external power relay
○ Ground or earth
175 The control of a hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
○ IDG
○ restriction valve
○ angle of swash plate
176 How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
○
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives
○
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
○ Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
adjustment of generator fields
177 Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of
○ electrolyte temperature
○ charge
○ electrolyte level
178 When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
○ rotating at Nsync
○ rotating at idle
○ stationary
179 On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
○ Under-frequency
○ Under-volt
○ Under-current
180 The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
○ pulse width modulating
○ stationary
○ fluctuating
181 The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ decrease as the engine speed increases
○ increase as the engine speed increases
○ remain constant
182 The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system
○ modifies generator field excitation current
○ modifies generator drive speed
○ modifies generator field excitation voltage
183 How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?
○ By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load
○ By voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load
○ By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal
184 The economy coil on a relay
○ reduces current required to hold closed
○ reduces current required to close
○ makes it cheaper to make
185 What is the function of the generator control relay?
○ Bring the generator on-line
○ Control output voltage
○ Connect the generator to the busbar
If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
186
○ phase sequence detection circuit has operated
○ CSD drive shaft has sheared
○ bus tie interlock is inoperative
187 A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is
○ borax powder
○ sodium bicarbonate
○ citric acid
188 The difference between synchronous speed and rotor speed is called
○ loss
○ slip
○ differential speed
189 The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to
○ close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts
○ prevent contact pitting and burning
○ reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
190 Parallel distribution systems can typically be found on all
○ twin-engined aircraft
○ aircraft with 3 or more engines
○ aircraft with 4 or more engines only
When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?
191
○ Battery charge
○ Electrolyte temperature
○ Ambient temperature
192 Non-essential loads such as galleys and cabin lighting operate from the
○ Ground handling bus
○ Ground services bus
○ Transfer bus
193 What does a current limiter fuse do?
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ Allow high current to flow for 5 seconds
○ React when the circuit gets warm
○ Limit current to a predetermined level to prevent circuit damage
194 The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
○ reactive power from the generator that does work
○ real power from the generator that does work
○ apparent power from the generator that does work
195 If the current transformer in a modern aircraft electrical generation system is replaced
○ voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting
○ it can be fitted any way round
○ it can only be fitted one way round
196 In a split bus power distribution system
○ generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
○ power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC
○ each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
197 Aircraft generators are connected in
○ series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel to each other
○ parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other
○ series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other
198 A squirrel cage rotor will be found in
○ a hysteresis motor
○ an induction motor
○ a synchronous motor
199 The generator warning light will come on when
○ voltage is above battery voltage
○ voltage is too high
○ voltage is below battery voltage
200 In a synchronous motor the rotor is
○ self excited
○ excited by AC
○ excited by DC
201 A RAT provides AC power of around
○ 7.5 kVA
○ 28 VAC
○ 63 kVA
202 An AC generator connected to a CSD requires
○ a separate voltage regulator
○ no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage
○ no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency
203 During normal engine shut-down, the generator
○ control relay is tripped only
○ breaker and control relay are both tripped
○ breaker is tripped only
204 Flashing a generator field
○ decreases resistance
○ increases resistance
○ restores magnetism
205 What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?
○ Undercharging current
○ Over charging current
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ Evaporation
206 A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil
○ in series with the generator output
○ in series with the current coil
○ in parallel with the generator output
207 Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out
○ during flight
○ when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench
○ only off the aircraft
208 A vibrating contact voltage regulator has
○ a resistor in parallel with the points
○ a volts coil in parallel with the points
○ a resistor in series with the points
209 Tripping the GCR will
○ de-excite the generator
○ trip the GCB
○ both (a) and (b)
210 During a system overload, load shedding will first affect
○ first officers transfer bus
○ IFE
○ galley services
An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following
211
resultant action in the voltage regulator:-
○ The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation
○ The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile
○ The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field
212 In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature
○ causes an increase in internal resistance
○ increases cell voltage
○ causes a decrease in internal resistance
213 The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will
○ be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled
○ have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled
○ have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower
214 The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains
○ nitric acid
○ sulphuric acid
○ hydrochloric acid
215 When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
○ when the electrolyte level is low
○ if they are defective
○ toward the end of the charging cycle
216 The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator
○ modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil
○ becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises
○ is connected in series with the carbon pile
217 In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the
○ generator drive torque
○ generator speed
○ voltage regulator
 05 Electrical Power (320)

218 In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
○ generator speed
○ generator drive torque
○ voltage regulator
219 The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes
○ constant current and varying voltage
○ constant voltage and varying current
○ constant current and constant voltage
The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium
220
battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of
○ normal operation
○ excessive plate sulphation
○ excessive gassing
In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
221
○ by applying a coating of petroleum jelly
○ with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
○ by washing with distilled water
What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being
222
charged by a constant voltage source?
○ The total plate area of the battery
○ The ampere-hour capacity of the battery
○ The state-of-charge of the battery
A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
223
because
○ most of the acid is in the solution
○ increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing
○ the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
224 The purpose of an inverter is to convert
○ DC to AC
○ AC to DC
○ AC to a higher frequency AC
225 What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase of an AC generator?
○ Open phase
○ Negative phase sequencing
○ Differential protection
Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level
226
because the
○ fluid evaporates through vents
○ fluid level was not periodically replenished
○ electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
227 A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication
○ for low oil pressure
○ for low speed
○ for when it is disconnected from the generator
228 If the output of the generator starts to fall, a pulse width modulated field supply will
○ double the mark-to-space ratio
○ increase the mark-to-space ratio
○ decrease the mark-to-space ratio
 05 Electrical Power (320)
If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure
229
should be followed?
○ Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water
○ Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
○ Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
230 How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?
○ By the level of the electrolyte
○ By measuring discharge
○ By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte
On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator
231
drive and
○ it can only be reset when all loads are switched off
○ it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified
○ resetting can only be carried out on the ground
The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same
232
service area is likely to result in
○ contamination of both types of batteries
○ normal battery service life
○ increased explosion and/or fire hazard
233 Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause
○ overvoltage of capacitive devices
○ overspeeding of AC motors
○ overheating of inductive devices
Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is
234
true?
○ The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the
electrolyte temperature
○ A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte
temperature is above 20°C
○
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F

235 In a starter generator, which coil is used for starting?

○ Shunt and compensating windings
○ Shunt, series and compensating windings
○ Series and compensating windings
236 The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is
○ under load condition
○ being charged
○ in a discharged condition
If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn
237
from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow
○
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator
○
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
○
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator

238 Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per

○ second
○ minute
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ revolution
239 How do you reset a GCR trip?
○ Manually from the flight deck
○ Manually at the GCU
○ Automatically once the fault goes away
What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?
240
○ No adverse results since water may be added anytime
○ Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
○ The cell temperature will run too low for proper output
241 When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability
○ a hydrometer must be used
○ the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips
○ a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted
242 If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of
○ the generator voltage regulator setting is too low
○ thermal runaway
○ the generator is not connected to the bus bar
243 The output from an AC generator is taken from
○ slip rings via commutator
○ connections on the stator
○ slip rings
The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
244
under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
○ number of conductors in the armature
○ strength of the magnetic field
○ speed at which the armature rotates
245 The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery
○ changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge
○ remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of
charge
○ remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid
contained in the electrolyte
A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the
246
10 hour rate will deliver
○ 60 amps for 10 hours
○ 6 amps for 10 hours
○ 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand
247 Small pins on an AC GPU receptacle
○ prevent arcing when inserting or removing the connector
○ use AC as part of an interlock circuit
○ are used to prevent incorrect orientation
A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of
248
○ 30 kW
○ 37.5 kW
○ 24 kW
249 A vibrating contact voltage regulator
○ has a resistor in series with the voltage coil
○ has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ has a resistor in series with the two contacts
250 Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce
○ 12V with 50 ampere hour capacity
○ 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity
○ 12V with 25 ampere hour capacity
251 Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft
○ a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize
○ the electrolyte temperature must be noted
○ the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour
252 Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce
○ 12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
○ 24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery
○ 24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery
253 Battery charging on an aircraft
○ will be reasonably stable due to constant voltage charging
○ will be reasonably stable due to constant current charging
○ may produce excessive charging initially, especially if the battery charge is low
254 When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging
○ a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
○ an A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required
○ an A.C. inverter would be required
255 In a delta connected generator
○ line volts equals 1.73 phase volts
○ phase volts equals 1.73 line volts
○ line volts equals phase volts
256 To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery
○ the connectors may be painted
○ copper connectors are used
○ petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
257 The three voltages of a three phase generator are
○ 180 degrees apart
○ 90 degrees apart
○ 120 degrees apart
258 Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
○ Hydraulic pump
○ Windscreen heating
○ Standby compass
259 When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery
○ only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals
○ one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same
○ each cell should be checked as the readings may differ
260 The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the
○ armature current
○ field current
○ engine speed
The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading
261
will be
○ 7 amps
○ 5 amps
○ 3.4 amps
 05 Electrical Power (320)

262 For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
○ AC at 400 c.p.s.
○ AC at 50 c.p.s.
○ DC
263 As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator
○ the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current
○ the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases
○ the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator
264 A 12 volt lead-acid battery
○ has 24 cells
○ has 12 cells
○ has 6 cells
265 As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
○ remain constant and the amperage output will increase
○ remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
○ decrease and the amperage output will increase
266 Constant speed drive is monitored in the cockpit for
○ oil pressure and speed
○ low oil pressure and high oil temperature
○ oil pressure and quantity
On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output
267
voltage will
○ remain constant
○ decrease
○ increase
268 Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by
○ circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming
○ tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies
○ the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed
To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery
269
charging
○ distilled water must be added
○ electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added
○ sulphuric acid must be added
270 A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
○ S.G. reaches 1.180
○ S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period
○ cells begin to gas freely
271 Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between
○ any phase and earth or between any two phases
○ phases A and B only
○ the phase and earth only
A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes
272 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is

○ 2.52 ohms
○ 0.52 ohms
○ 5.0 ohms
273 To restore electrolyte after spillage
○ add acid only
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ add distilled water only
○ add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery
274 In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for
○ real and reactive load
○ reactive load only
○ real load only
275 The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
○ speed
○ voltage
○ current
276 The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
○ power rating
○ power factor
○ efficiency
277 A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?
○ 24V
○ 22V
○ 20V
278 A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of
○ 80%
○ 50%
○ 90%
279 GCU is reset
○ manually
○ by engine shut down restart
○ automatically
280 When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-
○ An audio bell and red PFWL
○ Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL
○ Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL
281 When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries
○ the method of mixing is unimportant
○ add water to acid
○ add acid to water
282 The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is
○ 6000
○ 8000
○ 4000
283 The purpose of an inverter is to convert
○ AC to a higher frequency AC
○ DC to AC
○ AC to DC
284 When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the
○ negative
○ positive earth
○ positive
285 GCU derives its power supply from
○ AC/DC power supplies
○ generator's own supply
○ initially a trickle voltage from the permanent magnet
 05 Electrical Power (320)

286 Battery SG is measured using a

○ hydrometer
○ hypsometer
○ hygrometer
287 The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is
○ by checking the voltage of each cell under load
○ by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
○ by checking the specific gravity of each cell
With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out
288
by
○ adjustment of voltage coil resistance
○ alteration of the field resistance
○ alteration of contact spring tension
289 Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by
○ litmus paper that turns black
○ indicating paper that turns red
○ indicating paper that turns blue
290 When the GPU is connected to the aircraft
○ it supplies essential services
○ it is paralleled with the aircraft generator
○ it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator
291 A frequency wild supply would be suitable for
○ instruments and navigation systems
○ 3-phase torque motors
○ deicing loads
To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is
292
necessary to
○ alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit
○ alter the driving speed
○ alter the field current
If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored
293
○ in the fully discharged condition
○ in a totally 'dry' condition
○ in the fully charged condition
294 Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give
○ 36V 120Ah
○ 12V 120Ah
○ 36V 40Ah
295 Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give
○ 36V 120Ah
○ 12V 120Ah
○ 12V 40Ah
296 Battery capacity is checked by
○ discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state
○ discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the
time to be discharged
○ measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn
297 A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to
○ increasing generator voltage
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ increasing battery voltage
○ a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator
298 Apparent power is measured in
○ Volt Amps
○ Kilovolts
○ Watts
299 An inverter can be an AC generator driven by
○ either an AC or DC motor
○ an AC motor
○ a DC motor
300 The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the
○ field strength and the speed of the generator
○ number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor
○ number of conductors and the field strength
301 A 6-diode Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) changes
○ direct current to AC
○ three phase AC to direct current
○ single phase AC to direct current
One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be synchronised
302
when
○ the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished
○ the lamp is extinguished
○ the lamp is maximum brightness
303 An external ground power supply can be used for
○ only the ground handling busbar services
○ only the emergency busbar services
○ all normal services required by flight and ground crew
304 The real load of an alternator is directly related to
○ input shaft rpm
○ input shaft torque
○ input voltage
305 The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to
○ keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures
○ keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures
○ compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings
306 A ni-cad battery is stored in the
○ fully discharged condition
○ dry condition
○ fully charged condition
307 An I.D.G (integrated drive generator)
○ incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit
○ has separate CSDU
○ does not require a CSDU
308 A frequency wild AC generator is used for
○ instruments
○ fluorescent lights
○ deicing loads
309 What is monitored in a constant speed drive?
○ Hi oil temperature and low oil press
○ Low oil temperature and low oil press
 05 Electrical Power (320)
○ Low oil press and CSD speed
310 The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is
○ proportional to the length of cable
○ inversely proportional to the length of cable
○ not affected by length of cable
311 The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.
○ The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
○ The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
○ The maximum load permitted is 32KW
312 To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same
○ frequency, RPM and speed
○ frequency, voltage and phase relationship
○ frequency, RPM and phase relationship
313 Speed of an alternator may be controlled by
○ keeping engine rpm constant
○ varying the field current
○ CSDU (constant speed drive unit)
314 Galley loads are supplied from the
○ ground service bus
○ main bus bar
○ battery bus bar
315 The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of
○ crash engagement
○ disconnection of the other alternators
○ ground power disconnection
316 The CSD or IDG speed governor setting
○ is not allowed to be adjusted
○ is adjusted with the engine running
○ is adjusted with the engine stationary
What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
317
○ Replace the defective cell
○ Cell is defective, replace the battery
○ Top-up the individual cell with distilled water
How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is
318
available from the voltage regulator?
○ A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation from the dc busbar to bring generator on
line
○ Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence
○ Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles
319 Insulation resistance of electrical machines is
○ not affected by change of temperature of machine
○ normally higher when the machine is hot
○ normally lower when the machine is hot
320 A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which
○ provides initial excitation
○ only rotates during starting
○ only rotates after starting
 06 Equipment and Furnishings (20)
1 A fire detection system should be
○ positioned in a location determined by the manufacturer during the design
○ designed to detect fires only
○
designed to withstand vibration and mechanical loads sustained during normal operation

2 When the captain calls the attendant

○ a high/low chime and pink light comes on
○ a high chime and pink light comes on
○ a low chime and blue light comes on
3 Information on galley equipment can be found in
○ BCAR Section L
○ CAAIPS
○ Airworthiness Notice 99
4 When testing a squib for insulation
○ short all pins together then test between them and the case
○ test between individual pins
○ test between individual pins and the case
A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is
5
because
○ of a high resistance fire wire
○ of a broken fire wire
○ there is a fire
What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and another
6
seat or structure?
○ There is no EASA guideline
○ 10 inches
○ 7 inches
Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To
7
reset the light
○ the button is pulled out
○ the button is pushed again
○ a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated
Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency
8
equipment should be carried on an aircraft
○ Maintenance Manual
○ BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
○ JAR OPS
9 What type of brakes are employed on a galley cart?
○ Two colour-coded pedals
○ A single pedal bar
○ A brake on one wheel only
What is the minimum distance between a seat cushion and the seat in-front of it?
10
○ 10 inches
○ 7 inches
○ 5 inches
11 The VHF aeronautical emergency frequency is
 06 Equipment and Furnishings (20)
○ 121.0 MHz
○ 125.5 MHz
○ 121.5 MHz
12 If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?
○ Alongside the original
○ Over the originals
○ Diagonally
13 Seat belts sign is accompanied by
○ high / low chime
○ low chime
○ high chime
14 Cabin assistance when activated from the toilet
○ activates a high chime and an amber light
○ activates a high / low chime and a blue light
○ activates a musical fanfare and a red light
How many megaphones must a single deck passenger aircraft with 150 seats carry,
15
when they are transporting one or more passengers?
○ Three
○ Two
○ One
16 Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in
○ Maintenance Manual
○ JAR OPS
○ CAAIPs
17 PTV type entertainment equipment
○ is not the part of maintenance schedule
○ has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting
○ is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques
18 A typical emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
○ transmit 3 frequencies
○ receives 2 frequencies
○ transmits 2 frequencies
19 Toilet smoke detectors activate
○ an auto sprinkler system
○ an electric pump to auto vent smoke to atmosphere
○ a warning light and/or indication in cabin
20 Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
○ Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
○ main wheel bays and engine bays
○ passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks
 07a Flight Controls (160)

1 Automatic trim is used to

○ prevents standing loads on the elevator
○ maintain level flight
○ allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
2 Pushing the left rudder pedal
○ yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing
○ yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
○ yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise
3 An aircraft is yawing to the right. The yaw damper response is
○ rudder to the left proportional to the amount of yaw
○ rudder to the left by an amount to stop the rate of yawing
○ rudder to the right by an amount to stop the rate of yawing
4 A servo tab
○ is immovable
○ moves in the same direction as the control surface to which it is fixed
○ moves in the opposite direction as the control surface to which it is fixed
5 Large flap deployment
○ causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
○ causes reduced spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
○ causes no difference in spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
6 The purpose of a yaw damper is to
○ assist the aerodynamic response
○ block the Dutch roll frequency
○ produce a co-ordinated turn
7 The yaw damper
○ disengages when an engine fails
○ disengages during a coordinated turn
○ augments aircraft stability
8 Which side of the pilot is the collective lever?
○ Left
○ Right
○ In-between legs
9 With a reverse cambered tailplane, a down elevator
○ decreases download
○ could increase or decrease download depending on CG position
○ increases download
10 Aileron input to Yaw Damper system is for what?
○ To compensate nose drop in a turn
○ To prevent nose up
○ To prevent adverse yaw in a turn
11 A full time yaw damper system detects
○ only low frequencies
○ all frequencies
○ band pass frequencies
12 Elevons use which control channel?
○ Roll and pitch
○ Pitch and yaw
○ Yaw and roll
13 Aileron input into the signal chain to the yaw damper system is for
○ alerting the yaw damper of a turn
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ prevention of loss of lift
○ turn coordination
14 A control system in the parallel mode,
○ the pedals deflect with the rudder deflection
○ the control pedals moves only in the approach
○ when the rudder moves the control pedals stay in position
15 Operation of the stick shaker during landing means
○ the aircraft has stalled
○ the aircraft is about to land
○ the aircraft is approaching the stall speed
16 In a helicopter AFCS, movement of a series actuator causes the control run to move
○ only 50% of the full travel range
○ only 10% of the full travel range
○ in proportion to the actuator movement
17 A mach trimmer counters
○ longitudinal instability
○ azimuth instability
○ lateral instability
18 A stick shaker acts
○ before stall
○ at stall
○ after stall
19 A helicopter force trim system is used to
○ allow flight controls to be moved away from the neutral position using an electrical actuator
○ allow flight controls to be moved to the neutral position without altering the flight attitude
○ allow flight controls to be locked to the neutral position without altering the flight attitude
20 A plain flap
○ when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap
○ when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the trailing edge of the wing down
○ when retracted forms the lower surface of the wing
21 A yaw damper system operates on
○ all yaw frequencies
○ only mid range frequencies
○ low range frequencies
22 Flight control locks are used
○ during gusty weather conditions
○ are only used in flight
○ when working with hydraulics
23 During flap deployment, the nose down tendency is opposed by the
○ increased angle of attack
○ decreased angle of attack
○ increased tailplane downwash
24 When pulling up the collective what happens to engine power?
○ Remains constant
○ Increase
○ Decrease
25 Trim indicators are set by
○ LVDTs
○ RVDTs
○ synchros
 07a Flight Controls (160)

26 Dutch roll is eliminated by

○ the Dutch Roll damper
○ differential ailerons
○ the yaw damper
27 Flaps decrease landing speed at
○ landing position only
○ takeoff and landing position
○ takeoff position only
28 If flaps try to move asymmetrically on selection they
○ drive to the up position and lock
○ stop moving and stay in the same position
○ drive to the down position and lock
29 Differential ailerons are used
○ to improve aircraft roll rate
○ to increase the pilot's feel on the aileron control during turns
○ to reduce yaw in the direction of the downgoing aileron
30 What does operation of high lift devices at the trailing edge of a wing do to the lift vector?
○ Move backwards
○ Stay same
○ Move forward
31 Stall warning will be given at speeds
○ that are higher than stall speed
○ that are lower than stall speed
○ at the actual stall speed
32 Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at
○ 1.2 VS
○ 1.05 VS
○ VS
33 Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right, the
○ rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
○ pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another
○ rotating aerofoil tilts forward
34 Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
○ Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not
○ Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not
○ Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not
35 When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
○ the secondary stops will just be in contact
○ a clearance exists at the secondary stops
○ the secondary stops have been over-ridden
Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control
36
method is
○ inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
○ design of engine and gearbox supports
○ inspect loose fixtures and fittings
37 Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the
○ maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
○ lift coefficient and the drag
○ lift and the drag
 07a Flight Controls (160)

38 On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
○ both move up
○ remain stationary
○ both move down
39 A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of the tail
○ the authority of the elevators not effected
○ the up movement authority of the elevators is effected
○ the down movement authority of the elevators is effected
40 A slotted flap will increase the C Lmax by
○ increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer
○ increasing the critical angle of attack
○ increasing only the camber of the aerofoil
41 What is true regarding deployment of Slats / Krueger flaps?
○ Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
○ Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
○ Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not
42 On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to
○ 15°
○ 30°
○ 60°
43 On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
○ Outboard leading edge
○ Inboard leading edge
○ The trailing edge
44 Artificial feel is gained by using a
○ hydraulic damper
○ spring bias unit
○ 'feel' generator
45 Purpose of the bellcrank is to
○ reverse direction and transmit motion
○ transmit motion
○ adjust friction
46 Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will
○ just move aft
○ move aft, then turn down
○ turn down, then move aft
What must happen to the C L when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and
47
level flight?
○ Remain constant
○ Increase
○ Decrease
48 When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact
○ before the primary stops
○ after the primary stops
○ at the same time as the primary stops
49 In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
○ remain in line with the elevator
○ move down
○ move up
50 If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
○ the failed system stops and it remains in this position
○ the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
51 When working on a hydraulic operated flight control, it is sensible to
○ remove/disconnect hydraulic power
○ remove/disconnect electrical power
○ pull the appropriate CB
52 A spring balance control system you
○ can move the control surface on the ground
○ can move the control surface only by moving the tab
○ cannot move the control surface on the ground
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors of
53
importance being constant)
○ climb
○ sink suddenly.
○ bank
54 When a trailing edge flap is lowered fully
○ the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is unaffected
○ the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is increased
○ the C of P moves to the rear and lift/drag ratio is decreased
55 A flying control static friction check
○ can only be carried out during flight
○ demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
○ will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
56 During a left turn
○ ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator
○ right rudder to be used
○ left rudder to be used
57 Which statement is correct?
○ Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease
○ Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
○ Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent
angle
58 What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing?
○ Ruddervators
○ Canard Wings
○ Elevons
59 What is the most effective flap system?
○ Split flap
○ Single slotted flap
○ Fowler flap
60 The cyclic stick in a helicopter is
○ in the centre
○ to the left
○ to the right
61 When spoilers are used as speed brakes
○ they do not affect wheel braking action during landing
○ at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased
○ at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
62 Flaps are used in order to
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ increase max lift coefficient by increasing max angle of attack
○ decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at
stalling speed
○ increase max L/D
63 When deploying the flaps the effective angle of attack
○ decreases
○ increases
○ remains the same
64 What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
○ Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position
○ Provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off
○ Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded
65 CLmax may be increased by the use of
○ both flaps and slats
○ flaps
○ slats
66 How are spoilers normally operated?
○ Hydraulic actuator
○ Electrical motors
○ Air pistons
67 Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
○ clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended
○ slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing
○ flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
68 If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight
○ the altitude must be held constant
○ the nose must be pitched up
○ the nose must be pitched down
69 Slats
○ de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
○ re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
○ re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack
70 To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
○ symmetrical flight control trim
○ automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements
○ integrated fuel monitoring system
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted,
71
the angle of attack will
○ decrease
○ remain constant
○ increase
72 How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
○ Depends on wing position
○ Pitch down
○ Pitch up
73 The trailing edge flaps, when extended
○ significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
○ worsen the best angle of glide
○ improve the best angle of glide
 07a Flight Controls (160)
Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is
74
○ larger
○ smaller
○ unchanged
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will
75
eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
○ remain the same
○ decrease
○ increase
76 After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
○ Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
○ Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
○ Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
77 A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
○ decreases sensitivity for increased speed
○ increased sensitivity for increased speed
○ decreases sensitivity for decreased speed
78 During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight
○ the centre of pressure moves aft
○ the stall speed increases
○ the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase
An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the
79
above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
○ Flaps from 30° to 45°
○ Flaps from 0° to 15°
○ Flaps from 15° to 30°
80 When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to
○ the left
○ the left with some aileron assistance
○ the right
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually
81
○ remain the same
○ increase
○ decrease
Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps up configuration is
82
○ unchanged
○ smaller
○ larger
83 The effects of leading edge slats
○ increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move CLmax to higher
angle of attack
○ increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLmax angle of attack
○ increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher angle of
attack
84 One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to
○ shift the centre of gravity aft
○ decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
85 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires
○ pitot only
○ pitot and static
○ static only
86 A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to
○ attitude of aircraft
○ rate of yaw
○ amount of aircraft disturbance
When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position, one will
87
experience
○ a small increase in lift and a large increase in drag
○ a large increase in lift and a small increase in drag
○ a large increase in lift and a large increase in drag
88 If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
○ flap motor internal leakage
○ bearing seized
○ flap tracks out of rigging
89 Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure
○ to move inboard towards the wing root
○ to move outboard towards the wing tips
○ to move forward
90 Deflection of leading edge flaps will
○ increase critical angle of attack
○ decrease CLmax
○ decrease drag
91 A helicopter needs to re-trim
○ indication is shown on the API
○ indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
○ indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator
92 Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to
○ prevent nose pitching down
○ prevent nose pitching up
○ prevent adverse yaw in a turn
93 If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
○ Right Rudder
○ Left Rudder
○ No Rudder
94 The lift coefficient CL of a wing at a given angle of attack
○ is dependent on the surface area of the wing
○ is constant and not affected by high lift devices
○ is increased by the use of high lift devices
95 Active load control involves
○ limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed
○ intervention & monitoring the human pilot
○ varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft
96 The neutral shift system augments control of the
○ elevator
○ stabiliser
○ spoilers
 07a Flight Controls (160)

97 If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will
○ move down
○ remain at the same place
○ move up
98 If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right, where does the pilot feed in this command?
○ Rudder Pedals
○ Control Wheel
○ Control Column
99 If the cyclic is moved to the right
○ POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
○ the rotor blades on the left flap down
○ the rotor blades on the right flap down
100 If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?
○ Stick Nudger
○ Stick Shaker
○ EICAS warning
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because
101
○ it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
○ it changes the camber of the wing
○ the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
102 Active load control uses
○ elevator and aileron
○ aileron and spoiler
○ elevator and stab
103 If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?
○ It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
○ It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
○ It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
104 The stabiliser is set to high setting when
○ the flap are moving up
○ the flaps are moving down
○ the flap are moving up or down
105 With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved?
○ It moves in the same direction as the control surface
○ It remains in the neutral position
○ It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
106 A 'q' feel system supplies
○ the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
○ aerodynamic damping
○ control movement effort relief
107 With a spring balance control system you can
○ not move the control surface on the ground
○ move the control surface only by moving the tab
○ move the control surface on the ground
108 Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
○ fitting a tachogenerator
○ feedback from the servo motor
○ feedback from control surface
109 Spring tabs
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ can be adjusted in the flight deck
○ cannot be adjusted
○ cannot be adjusted in flight
110 Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
○ 10.32%
○ 4%
○ 7%
111 Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing
○ CD is increased and CL is decreased
○ CL is increased, while CD remains unaffected
○ only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
112 What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
○ Elevator up, right aileron down
○ Elevator down, right aileron down
○ Elevator up, left aileron down
113 Yaw damping rate changes with
○ flap position
○ altitude
○ airspeed
114 Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft
○ to prevent aquaplaning
○ for speed reduction after landing
○ to increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent
115 Mach trim threshold are set by the
○ engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
○ pilot
○ manufacturer
116 A wing mounted stall warning vane
○ gives a visual indication of impending stall
○ moves up at impending stall
○ moves down at impending stall
117 During an autopilot controlled turn
○ ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
○ ailerons, rudder and THS will move
○ ailerons and rudder will move
What would happen to an aircraft at low speed, at high angle of attack, if it had an aileron going down?
118
○ Decrease stall speed
○ Increase stall speed
○ Have no effect on the stall speed
119 If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicator, it means that
○ the system is trimmed
○ the indicator is not serviceable
○ the control system is out of trim
120 What is the effect of deploying leading edge flaps?
○ Not affect the critical angle of attack
○ Increase the critical angle of attack
○ Decrease the critical angle of attack
121 'Q' feel units use
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ static pressure only
○ pitot and static pressures
○ pitot pressure only
122 What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?
○ Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn
○ To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn
○ To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn
123 An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to
○ prevent overloading of the power control units
○ provide the pilot with simulated stick forces
○ increasing the sensitivity of the control system
124 Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
○ travel of the jack body
○ travel of the jack ram
○ mechanical stops in the control system
125 A stick shaker operates
○ after the stall
○ at the onset of the stall
○ just before the stall
126 A servo tab is operated
○ directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
○ automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
○ by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
127 Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft
○ because at low level air density is high
○ because the pilot has too many tasks to perform
○ due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft
128 The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to
○ lock the speed brakes down during flight
○ prevent inadvertent operation
○ allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown
129 The purpose of control cable regulators is to
○ compensate for high temperature only
○ compensate for low temperature only
○ maintain preset cable tensions during flight
130 Powered flying control actuators
○ transmit pilot input to the control surfaces
○ provide feedback to the pilot
○ are operated by the autopilot only
131 Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is fitted to
○ improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads
○ improve trim control due to lateral centre of gravity changes
○ increase roll control authority of the autopilot
132 A lift transducer is normally fitted
○ on the leading edge of the wing
○ to the nose area of the aircraft
○ on the elevator control system
The Dutch roll filter used on most yaw damper systems operates with a demodulator and modulator in
133
series, between which is an electronic circuit. this circuit is a
○ wide band pass filter featuring a differentiated output
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ wide band pass filter featuring an integrated output
○ narrow band filter featuring a differentiated output
134 A tandem P.F.C.U.
○ has two control surfaces under its control
○ has the actuator rams parallel
○ has the actuator rams co-axial
135 When a hydraulic system is un pressurised, the position of flight control surfaces are
○ droop
○ down
○ neutral
136 Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
○ C of G movement
○ pitch of aircraft in cruise
○ continued pitch input
137 Differential aileron control will
○ prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
○ cause a nose down moment
○ cause a nose up moment
138 Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
○ 10.32%
○ 7%
○ 4%
139 Gust Load Alleviation Function in a FBW system
○ may be controlled by the elevators
○ is achieved by the weight saving from elimination of cables, feel units and other conventional items
○ uses the high speed computer responses to compensate for sudden gusts
140 A differential aileron system is designed to
○ minimise flutter
○ prevent adverse yaw
○ compensate for aileron reversal
141 An artificial feel system is required
○ for power operated control systems
○ for power assisted control systems
○ for proportional control systems
142 The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the
○ rudder
○ ailerons
○ elevator
During tests on the yaw damper servo actuator, the output shaft constantly over-runs its desired
143
displacement. A probable cause is that the
○ detent spring has lost its tension
○ position LVDT (linear variable differential transformer) is out of tolerance
○ the rate feedback circuit is open-circuit
144 Elevons combine the functions of both
○ rudder and elevator
○ rudder and aileron
○ elevator and aileron
145 Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by
○ air loads on the control surface
○ nulling of the servo valve
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ the jack ram being attached to structure
In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that it
146
must be
○ operated by the standby hydraulic system
○ automatic and instantaneous
○ possible, but not recommended
147 The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the
○ elevator
○ ailerons
○ rudder
148 An anti-balance tab is moved
○ hydraulically
○ via a fixed linkage
○ when the C.G. changes
149 The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is
○ to provide pressure to operate the control
○ to revert the system to manual operation
○ to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit
150 A stick shaker is a device which
○ vibrates the control column near stalling speed
○ gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off
○ helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground
When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an
151
aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
○ move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
○ move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
○ move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral
152 A stick shaker
○ is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column
○ is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column
○ vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe
153 An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism
○ dampens the rudder movement
○ locks the ailerons and elevators
○ restricts movement of the throttles
154 A series type yaw damper
○ moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll
○ moves the rudder only
○ moves the rudder pedals and the rudder
155 The purpose of a yaw damper is to prevent
○ dutch roll
○ adverse yaw
○ loss of height in a turn
156 Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of
○ yawing
○ rolling
○ pitch changes
157 Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
○ aircraft tends to go nose up
○ aircraft tends to roll to the right
 07a Flight Controls (160)
○ aircraft tends to go nose down
158 The outboard ailerons on some aircraft
○ are isolated at slow speeds
○ are isolated to prevent aileron reversal
○ are isolated to improve sensitivity
159 The frequency of dutch roll oscillations are
○ medium
○ high
○ low
160 If the control column is moved forward and to the left
○ left aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down
○ left aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down
○ left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up
 07b Flight Controls (48)
1 On a modern aircraft about to stall
○ the outboard slats extend automatically
○ the flaps retract automatically
○ engine power increases automatically
2 On a fly-by-wire aircraft, if all electrical power fails
○ controls remain in last position
○
controls are set so one hydraulic actuator damps, and the other is active on auxiliary power
○ controls are locked in the neutral position
3 The stall margin mode is controlled by
○ EPR limits
○ angle of attack and flap position sensors
○ speed bug cursors
To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly-by-
4
wire system
○ an LVDT and an RVDT are used for pitch and roll
○ synchros are used
○ an LVDT is used, hence ensuring interchangeability
5 A versine signal is typically fed from the roll channel
○ and modified by True Air Speed (TAS) and flap position signals to adjust for loss of lift during a
turn
○
and modified by aircraft attitude and pitch rate signals to limit the pitch angle during approach
○ to adjust the roll angle to suit the approach turn during autoland
6 Load control uses spoilers and
○ elevators only
○ stabiliser and elevators
○ elevator and ailerons
7 FMGEC output command to control surface goes
○ direct to control surface
○ through Flight Control Computer
○ through the autothrottle
What achieves control and monitoring of the three-phase electric motors which power the
8
trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)?
○ Flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the correct angle of attack within the
stall margin
○ Flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed
○ Landing gear position sensors to maintain the aircraft speed above stall
On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the
9
○ flight management and guidance computer
○ flight control computer
○ flight augmentation computer
10 In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
○ flaps are retracted
○ landing gear up and locked
○ flaps extended
 07b Flight Controls (48)
11 What controls are used in response to the PVD?
○ Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals
○ Throttles
○ Ailerons
12 The FBW system uses two elevator and aileron computers (ELACs),
○ each computer achieves control and monitoring of the three electric motors which power the
trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)
○
they provide alternate control of the elevators if spoiler and elevator computers (SECs) fail
○ this is to provide redundancy
13 Stab trim goes into high speed mode when
○ Flaps are extended
○ cruise altitude is reached
○ Flaps are retracted
14 The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall
○ fast/slow switch
○ flap position
○ throttle lever
15 Alpha floor protection to the autothrottle will
○ increase angle of attack
○ increase speed
○ withdraw flaps
16 A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of
○ electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
○ electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
○ electronic engine control unit only
17 Versine is generated by
○ torque receiver synchros
○ synchro resolvers
○ control synchro transformers
18 The neutral shift sensor ensures that
○ after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
○ after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
○ after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser
19 In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to
○ the hydraulic actuator
○ the pilot's input
○ the control system computer
20 Electrical stabilizer trim switches are found on the
○ behind thrust levers
○ flight control panel
○ control column
21 What is the authority of series actuator on a helicopters autopilot?
○ 100%
○ 10%
○ 50%
22 In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
 07b Flight Controls (48)
○ servos move to neutral and lock
○ servos remain stationary and provide damping
○ servos lock at last position
23 In a parallel rudder system,
○ the pilot can input on rudder pedals
○ the rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
○ the rudder pedals are disconnected
24 The versine signal is used in the
○ roll channel only
○ pitch and roll channel
○ pitch channel only
25 What is a versine signal attenuated with
○ increase in altitude
○ increase in airspeed
○ decrease in altitude
26 In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
○ operation of the elevator
○ symmetrical application of ailerons
○ transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
27 Versine signal is governed by
○ roll
○ pitch
○ yaw
28 In a series rudder system
○ the pilot can input to the system
○ yaw damping is only possible signal input
○ the pilot cannot input to the system
29 A FADEC system does not have the following system?
○ An automatic starting capability
○ Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
○ Control of thrust reverser operation
30 If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels
○ go to down if any are not already down
○ remain where they are
○ go to full up
In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the
31
aircraft is on ground and
○ brakes are deployed
○ thrust reversers are deployed
○ weight on ground switch is activated
32 In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?
○ Flight control computer
○ Flight augmentation computer
○ Flight management computer
33 If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
○ controls the aircraft in trim
○ remains in the previous position
 07b Flight Controls (48)
○ remains at the neutral position
34 In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
○ LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
○ LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces
○ RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
35 In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the
○ electric flight control unit
○ Flight Augmentation Computers
○ Flight Guidance and Management Computer
36 When moving the control column
○ sensor located along the control run produces a signal
○ sensors located under the control column produces a signal
○ sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal
37 Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in
○ ailerons moving symmetrically upward
○ ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
○ spoiler moving symmetrically upward
38 On a full time fly-by-wire system, a nose up command causes
○ all the elevators on each wing to move up
○ the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up
○ the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
39 When a tail rotor flaps up, its pitch angle
○ increases
○ remains the same
○ reduces
40 High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads
○ greater than 50%
○ greater than 75%
○ greater than 90%
41 Versine is used in which channel?
○ Roll
○ Pitch
○ Yaw
42 In a FBW system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control system in pitch
○ would cause the captain's sidestick controller to take over pitch functions
○ is not possible because of the built-in redundancy for all elements
○ would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel
43 In a fully fly by wire system, if the rudder becomes disconnected
○ it is centralised by the airflow
○ its control is maintained by electric trim
○ it is centralized by a spring
44 If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?
○ Left rudder
○ Up Elevator
○ Down elevator
In a fly-by-wire system, when there is no electrical power, the servo actuators go into
45
 07b Flight Controls (48)
○ dampening mode
○ locked mode
○ centering mode
46 FADEC system gets its power supply from
○ emergency Batt bus
○ channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator
○ channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator
47 Main electric pitch trim is controlled by
○ a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
○ a switch on control wheel
○ a wheel on the centre pedestal
48 On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?
○ ELAC and SEC
○ ELAC
○ SEC
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
1 What is the primary sensing element of a direct reading compass?
○ A linear accelerometer
○ A directional gyro
○ A permanent magnet
2 An important air data used with the IRS is
○ CAS
○ TAS
○ IAS
3 A gauge pressure of 1 atmosphere is an absolute pressure of
○ 0 atmospheres
○ 1 atmosphere
○ 2 atmospheres
4 Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?
○ ASI
○ Machmeter
○ VSI
5 A densitometer (or cadensicon) in a capacitive fuel indication system measures
○ density of the fuel by measuring it’s pressure and temperature
○ density of the fuel by measuring the natural frequency of a vibrating spool
○ dielectric constant of the fuel by use of a compensating capacitor
6 If an aircraft lands on QNH, what will the altimeter read?
○ Elevation above sea level
○ Level above 1013.25 mb (or 29.92 in.hg)
○ Zero
7 Component P affects
○ coefficient B
○ coefficient C
○ coefficient A
8 What is a characteristic of a horizontal situation indicators (HSI) compass card?
○ It must be manually realigned with magnetic heading periodically
○
north is always uppermost on the HSI compass card and aircraft symbol rotates with heading change
○ it provides an indication of gyro stabilised magnetic heading
9 The frequency of emissions from an Under Water Location Device is
○ 37.5 kHz
○ 121.5 MHz
○ 37.5 MHz
10 On a modern EFIS
○ the PFD is configured in the Basic T layout
○ neither the Nav display nor the PFD are configured in the Basic T layout
○ the Nav Display is configured in the Basic T layout
11 A standby ADI uses
○ an earth gyro
○ a space gyro
○ a vertical gyro
12 What is inside an aneroid capsule?
○ Vacuum
○ 14.7 Psi
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ Atmospheric Pressure
13 A compensator capacitor in a capacitive fuel indication system is
○ to set the zero level of the fuel tank
○ to detect changes in dielectric constant due to temperature changes
○ to detect for water in the fuel
14 Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using
○ spring actuators
○ torque sensors
○ position pick-offs
15 What prevents an aneroid capsule from collapsing in on itself?
○ The internal pressure holds the capsule inflated
○ The rigidity of the capsule material
○ A leaf spring
16 The aneroid capsule in an altimeter
○ contracts at higher altitudes
○ does not change with altitude
○ expands at higher altitudes
17 A vacuum mercury gauge reads 5 in. This pressure is
○ below ambient pressure
○ above ambient pressure
○ above zero pressure
18 A Flight Data Acquisition Unit (FDAU) transmits data to the Flight Data Recorder by
○ wireless transmission so it continues to work after a crash
○ ARINC 573/717 data bus
○ ARINC 429 data bus
19 What is the purpose of a direct reading compass?
○ It provides an electrical signal to slave a directional to a selected heading
○ It provides an indication of aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north
○ It provides an indication of the direction of true north
20 A gyro spinning on a vertical axis will detect the aircraft's
○ roll and pitch
○ yaw and pitch
○ yaw only
21 For an EGPWS to indicate Predictive Windshear, it needs an input from
○ GPS
○ terrain database
○ weather radar
22 A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially placed
○ 90 degrees to each other
○ parallel with each other
○ 45 degrees to each other
23 Water in a fuel tank, with a capacitive indication system, will
○ make the quantity indication over read
○ make the quantity indication under read
○ have no effect on eth quantity indication
24 One atmosphere is
○ 760 mm.hg
○ 29.92 hPa
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 14.7 in.hg
25 Which activates at the lower speed?
○ Stick shaker
○ Stick pusher
○ Stick pusher and stick shaker act simultaneously
26 In the Basic T instrument configuration
○ the directional gyro is below the attitude indicator
○ the directional gyro is to the left of the attitude indicator
○ the directional gyro is above the attitude indicator
27 Capacitors in a capacitive fuel contents indication system are wired in
○ cascade
○ parallel
○ series
The colour indicated on a EGPWS display (e.g. Nav. Display) when the aircraft is 60 seconds
28
from impact with terrain is
○ magenta
○ solid amber
○ solid red
29 The atmosphere is
○ approximately 1/5 nitrogen and 4/5 oxygen
○ approximately 1/5 trace gases and 4/5 oxygen
○ approximately 1/5 oxygen and 4/5 nitrogen
30 Vibration sensors on a modern AVM system are
○ spring-mass devices
○ piezoelectric devices
○ capacitance devices
Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a compass calibration
31
swing will be required
○ only if initial variation is greater than 5 degrees
○ without exception
○ only if the correctors are not matched to the ones being removed
32 A Compass Swing would be required after replacing a
○ H.S.I.
○ compass sensing unit
○ compass Amplifier
33 How is a direct reading compass made to be aperiodic?
○ The compass bowl is filled with fluid
○ by eddy current damping
○ by damping vanes incorporated on azimuth card
34 GPWS INOP light comes on. Engineer would initially
○ change the GPWC for a serviceable one
○ do a Level 2 self test to determine the source of the fault
○ do a level 3 self test to check that the database is up-to-date.
35 The null-seeking angle of attack probe incorporates
○ a pressure capsule which expands and contracts in response to pressures sensed by two pitot air
pressure sensors
○ a moving paddle which operates a potentiometer
○ a moveable “vane” in the airflow which positions itself to the airflow “null” of zero angle
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
36 A +/. symbol on a compass system indicates
○ failure of the compass system
○ compass card and directional gyro are being synchronised
○ magnetic deviation and compass card are in alignment
On a turn and slip indicator, the needle points to the right, and the ball is to the left. The
37
aircraft is
○ under-banked, skidding out of the turn
○ over-banked, slipping into the turn
○ over-banked, slipping out of the turn
38 During climb the pressure in the VSI capsule will be
○ lower than the pressure in the case
○ equal to the pressure in the case
○ greater than the pressure in the case
39 The roll motor on a vertical gyro is located on the
○ vertical axis
○ lateral axis
○ longitudinal axis
After the compass has been corrected for Coefficient A, B and C. The remaining error is known
40
as
○ Apparent deviation
○ Residual deviation
○ Initial deviation
41 What type of gyro is incorporated in a rate of turn indicator?
○ Vertical axis gyro
○ Directional gyro
○ Rate gyro
42 Which sensing element is incorporated in a barometric altimeter?
○ Pitot pressure only
○ Pitot and static pressure
○ Static pressure only
43 In HUMS systems, what is used to pick up vibration levels?
○ Strain gauges
○ Accelerometers
○ Magnetic pick-ups
44 Engine vibration signals are
○ filtered to remove unwanted frequencies
○ sent via a half wave rectifier to the instrument
○ sent direct to the instrument
What device controls the position of the bearing pointer of a horizontal situation indicator
45
(HSI)?
○ Twin gyro platform
○ Radio Navigation reciever
○ Gyro stabilised magnetic heading from a directional gyro
46 Brake temperature readings provide
○ coloured indications on a CRT display
○ master and caution warning
○ separate brake indicator gauge indications
47 To return a RVSM compliant aircraft back to flight condition it would be necessary to
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ use the aircraft instruments to ensure correct readings are obtained
○ carry out a full test using calibrated pitot/static test equipment
○ test the system using BITE equipment
48 How do you detect and locate a leak in a pitot-static system?
○ Disconnect each line in turn and perform a pressure leak test
○ Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection method
○ Isolate the component and perform a systematic check, starting from the instrument
49 A direct lift system, using a floating magnet and reed switches, measures
○ fluid temperature
○ fluid volume
○ fluid mass
50 What colour is Mode 5 alert?
○ Green
○ Red
○ Amber
51 Vibration levels are indicated to the flight crew in
○ relative amplitude
○ db
○ phons
52 Aneroid capsules measure pressure with respect to
○ a vacuum
○ atmospheric pressure
○ 29.92 inches of mercury
53 An artificial horizon uses
○ a rate gyro
○ a vertical gyro
○ a directional gyro
54 An increase in forward speed at a constant throttle will result in EPR
○ decreasing
○ remains the same
○ increasing
What device is commonly used in mechanical altimeters to compensate for changes in
55
temperature?
○ An altitude sensing aneroid capsule
○ A bi-metallic U-shaped bracket
○ A copper/constantan thermocouple compensation network
Data collected by a Flight Data Acquisition Unit (FDAU) can be devided into two categories:
56
○ engine and airframe
○ flight controls and discretes
○ mandatory and ACMS
57 Piezo works on the principle of
○ a voltage is produced by a force
○ heat is produced by a voltage
○ vibration displacement is measured
58 In the Earth's magnetic field, the term 'inclination' is
○ the bending of the earth magnetic flux lines near the poles
○ the difference between true north and magnetic north
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ another word for variation
59 Pitot pressure is also known as
○ dynamic pressure
○ total pressure
○ static pressure minus wind
60 The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires
○ checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures
○ checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures
○ ensuring the target contacts the sensor
61 A rate gyro has how many degrees of freedom?
○ 3
○ 1
○ 2
62 A Category 2 approach has a decision height of 100ft and an RVR of
○ 200 m
○ 100 m
○ 300 m
63 IN MLS, the azimuth sweep rate is
○ 20 degrees/ms
○ 10 degrees/ms
○ 15 degrees/ms
64 In a vertical Horizon Gyro, the inner gimbal ring should align to the
○ vertical axis
○ magnetic north
○ horizontal axis
65 GPWS is
○ C-band
○ X-band
○ W-band
What is incorporated in direct compasses to allow for damping fluid volumetric changes
66
resulting from temperature variation
○ Bellows or a corrugated diaphragm
○ Damping fluid reservoir
○ A hermetically sealed compass bowl
67 What type of pressure sensing device is incorporated in an airspeed indicator?
○ Aneroid bourdon tube
○ Syphon bellows
○ Differential capsule
68 A ratiometer uses
○ current input and output
○ a DC battery
○ a transformer
69 Why are direct reading compass card mounted pendulously?
○
So the azimuth card is free to rotate and align with magnetic meridian as the aircraft rolls and pitches
○ To minimise the friction felt at the pivot
○ To minimise the effects of magnetic dip
70 Where is the attitude director gyro stator situated?
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ Inside the rotor
○ Around the rotor
○ Underneath the rotor
71 Radar altimeter uses what frequency?
○ 4000 MHz
○ 1200 MHz
○ 2300 MHz
When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the maximum voltage to use
72
○ 250 V
○ 500 V
○ 30 V
73 True airspeed computed from IAS takes into account
○ radar altitude
○ temperature only
○ temperature and altitude
74 The temperature compensation device in an altimeter is for the
○ pitot tube
○ elasticity in capsule material
○ hairspring
75 A Category 2 approach requires
○ autoland capability
○ an autothrottle
○ a rad. alt. and an ILS coupled autopilot
76 What is the error in the lubber line called?
○ Coefficiant P
○ Coefficiant B
○ Index error
77 What is QDR?
○ Magnetic bearing from a station
○ Runway barometric setting
○ Runway Height
78 Vibration pick-ups on a high bypass engine are located at the
○ start-pad and accessory gear box
○ HP compressor and combustor
○ fan and turbine casing
79 What is square law correction applicable to?
○ HSI
○ ASI
○ Altimeter
80 Two fundamental properties of a gyro are
○ precession and wander
○ rigidity and precession
○ wander and rigidity
81 GPS runs on which band?
○ Q-band
○ X-band
○ L-band
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
In a Turn and Bank indicator, in a Co-Ordinated turn, the pendulum will be in the
82
________Position
○ true vertical
○ dynamic vertical
○ dip
83 For a given IAS, with an increase in altitude, TAS will
○ remain the same
○ increase
○ decrease
84 Where do you adjust for component Q?
○ Coefficient A
○ Coefficient B
○ Coefficient C
85 How is the gyro aligned in a rate of turn indicator?
○ It has a horizontal spin axis aligned longitudinally
○ It has a vertical spin axis
○ It has a horizontal spin axis aligned laterally
86 What parameter is displayed by an airspeed indicator?
○ Indicated airspeed
○ Compensated airspeed
○ True airspeed
87 What is the purpose of a rate of turn indicator?
○ It provides a reference by which aircraft attitude may be determined
○ It provides a reference by which aircraft bank angle may be determined
○ It provides the pilot with a reference to perform standard rate turn
88 WXR Ground Clutter suppression uses a discriminator circuit, and
○ anything above 0.75 m/s is ground clutter
○ anything below 0.75 m/s is ground cloud
○ anything above 0.75 m/s is ground cloud
89 Corrections to a mechanical ASI are for
○ square law error and temperature
○ square law
○ square law and temperature
90 An altimeter on ground check reads slightly outside permitted tolerance
○ A correction card can be fitted
○ An in-situ adjustment can be carried out
○ In-situ adjustment is not permitted
Which instrument are you most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when
91
carrying out a pitot-static leak check?
○ Air speed indicator
○ vertical speed indicator
○ Altimeter
92 An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The altimeter will
○ under read
○ over read
○ not be affected
93 The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more than
○ 3°
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 5°
○ 1°
94 A laser ring gyro gives
○ angular position
○ angular displacement
○ rate of angular displacement
95 A TCAS blade aerial is
○ an L-band directional array
○ an L-band omnidirectional array
○ unidirectional
96 When using a magnetic compass, the magnet should be aligned to
○ heading A
○ the magnetic centre
○ the centre of the compass
97 An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-
○ Aircraft in the air with both engines running
○ Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
○ Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
98 On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, Radio deviation is shown on
○ EHSI
○ EADI
○ EHSI & EADI
99 An aircraft that is being re-certified for RVSM will require
○ a full test of pitot/static systems with a ground test set
○ a flight test verification
○ no physical testing
100 What is a precaution relevant to handling gyroscopes?
○ Aircraft may only be moved when the onboard gyroscope are running
○ All gyroscope instruments must be stored on at least 100mm of foam rubber
○ Gyroscopes my only be stored with the spin axis aligned in a north/south direction
101 A vertical gyro used for autostabilisation, the roll attitude will be limited in
○ any mode
○ localiser mode
○ heading and localiser mode
102 Compass base classification Class 2 is periodically re-surveyed every
○ 1 year
○ 2 years
○ 5 years
103 Millibar is used to express what kind of pressure?
○ Barometric pressure
○ Ambient pressure
○ Pitot pressure
104 An artificial horizon will have a corrective torque applied
○ 90 degrees after the axis in which the correction is required
○ 90 degrees before the axis in which the correction is required
○ at the axis in which the correction is required
105 Digital weather radar is on map mode. What happens?
○ Display alters
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ Antenna tilts down
○ Switches antennas
106 A force balance system using a capsule will produce an output which
○ causes capsule expansion
○ is as a result of capsule expansion
○ is in opposition to capsule expansion
107 A turn and slip needle points to the left when the aircraft is
○ turning left
○ banking left
○ turning right
108 FDR data is stored on
○ magnetic tape
○ bubble memory
○ semiconductor memory
109 What is a characteristic of a direct reading compass instrument light wiring?
○ It must be 16AWG
○ It must be aluminium
○ It must be sheilded or twisted wire pair
110 An electrical gyro has usually a speed of
○ 20,000 RPM
○ 5,000 RPM
○ 10,000 RPM
111 Vertical gyros are limited to 85 degrees movement in pitch to prevent
○ pitch overshoot
○ gyro topple
○ gimbal lock
112 What should you be cautious about when touching pitot probes?
○ They can build up a very high static charge during flight which takes some time to dissipate
○ They can be extremely cold after flight
○ They can be extremely hot after flight
113 A tacho generator pointer is moved by
○ a drag cup coupling
○ an AC servo motor
○ a torque synchro receiver
114 What type of gyroscope is housed within an attitude indicator?
○ Space gyroscope
○ Rate gyroscope
○ Displacement gyroscope
The aircraft heading is 270°. The magnetic compass deviation is -1°. The pilot should fly
115
○ 270°
○ 269°
○ 271°
What must you know when carrying out a test on a capacitive fuel quantity indication system?
116
○ Temperature, if above 20o
○ If the probes are wet or dry
○ if the aircraft is at its normal attitude
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
117 The HSI indicates
○ heading and pitch
○ pitch and course
○ heading and course
118 What is the purpose of a slip and skid indicator?
○ It provides the pilot with reference to perform standard rate turns
○ It provides an indication of gyro stabilised magnetic heading
○ It provides pilots with indications to enable them to perform coordinated turns
119 How are direct reading compasses calibrated?
○ It cannot be calibrated. That is why there is an error card situated adjacent to the compass which
shows the compass errors
○
Mechanical magnetic compensator assembly is adjusted to counter stray magnetic field influence
○ Using deviations compass lubber line or index mark can be adjusted to align precisely to detected
aircraft heading
120 What is the primary sensor of slip and skid indicator?
○ A rate gyro
○ A ball in a liquid filled glass tube
○ An earth gyro
121 In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from
○ static pressure only
○ pitot and static air pressure
○ pitot pressure only
122 In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from
○ pitot air pressure and total air temperature
○ pitot air pressure
○ static air pressure
123 GPWS Mode 7 provides what warning?
○ WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
○ Overspeed
○ WINDSHEAR
124 When refuelling, as the fuel level increases
○ capacitance increases
○ capacitive reactance increases
○ capacitance decreases
125 On small helicopters, how is the pitot heat system powered?
○ Through the ignition switch
○ All the time whenever power is on
○ When the generator is online
126 To get the maximum effect from a compass micro adjuster, set them
○ at 90o to each other
○ at 45o to each other
○ parallel to each other
127 What inhibits the GPWS warnings?
○ Windshear
○ Landing gear system
○ Stall warning system
128 The ASI fluctuates in reading. That means there is
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ too much pitot on the head
○ too much dynamic on the head
○ too much static on the head
129 In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from
○ indicated air speed and total air temperature
○ indicated airspeed and altitude
○ pitot and static pressures
130 What errors are direct reading compasses subject to?
○ Pitch and bank errors
○ Acceleration and turning errors
○ Altitude and attitude errors
131 Vacuum driven gyros
○ have manual erection only
○ do not require any erection system
○ always have automatic erection
132 The CX and CT rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output is
○ zero
○ high
○ low
133 In an EICAS level C messages are
○ caution and displayed in white
○ memos and displayed in white
○ advisories and displayed in amber or light blue
134 Where does the bimetallic temperature strip act in an altimeter?
○ On the hairspring, to change tension
○ On the needle, to alter deflection
○ Directly on the capsule
135 In an RVSM system, what is the tolerance level of separation (+ or - feet)?
○ 80ft
○ 400ft
○ 160ft
136 This is the formula for
○ coefficiant A
○ coefficiant B
○ coefficiant C
In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the
137
○ Mach Module
○ Indicated Airspeed Module
○ Altitude Module
138 Inertia is
○ the property that resists any force that tends to change the plane of rotation of a gyro
○ the result of a gyro running at normal speed
○ the plane of rotation of a gyro
139 The compact mode in a EICAS is used
○ when one display is inactive
○ to show maintenance pages and when one display is inactive
○ to show maintenance pages
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
140 A temperature bulb's resistance is
○ not dependent upon temperature
○ directly proportional to temperature
○ inversely proportional to temperature
141 In a compass system, tilt error is compensated by placing magnets
○ by using shaped magnets around the pivot point
○ above the pivot point
○ below the pivot point
142 The runway heading is
○ QDR
○ QFU
○ QDM
143 An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed?
○ The same as its IAS
○ Lower than its IAS
○ Higher than its IAS
144 Elimination of vibration in the instrument panel is by use of
○ rubber and foam
○ dampers
○ shock mounts
145 The four display modes used by the ECAM system are
○ warnings, flightphase, advisories, memos
○ warnings, cautions, advisories, memos
○ flight phase, advisory, failure-related, manual
146 In a MCDU, the flight deck effect is
○ impact of irregular reading to the flight crew
○ the sudden irregular reading causing to an instrument
○ any EICAS display or discrete annunciator to inform the flight crew of an in-flight fault
147 If, during an autoland, the GPWS fails
○ the system goes into 'go-around' mode
○ there is a visual warning only
○ there is an aural plus a visual warning
148 What instrument connects to pitot pressure?
○ Both the airspeed indicator and the vertical speed indicator
○ The airspeed indicator
○ The vertical speed indicator
The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to detect airflow direction relative to
149
○ the pitch angle of the aircraft
○ the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
○ the angle of attack of the aircraft
150 How should an operating gyro be caged?
○ By engaging the caging lever precisely with the gyro axis is level or vertical
○ The caging screws should be tightened to finger tight only - do not over tighten
○ By pulling the caging knob with a steady action
151 What moves the aircraft symbol on a HSI or ADI?
○ Servo
○ Gyro
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ It doesn't move
152 A positive coefficient A adjustment of a compass will give a heading
○ increase on East/West headings
○ increase on all headings
○ decrease on all headings
153 Component C is
○ (DEV on N + DEV on S) /2
○ (DEV on N - DEV on S) /2
○ (DEV on S - DEV on N) /2
154 What does a TCAS TA look like?
○ White Diamond
○ Yellow Circle
○ Red Square
155 What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?
○ 2,500 ft
○ 10,000 ft
○ 500 ft
156 A tacho generator has
○ 115 V applied
○ 28 V applied
○ its own independent electric system
157 True airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for
○ Altitude
○ Pressure
○ Temperature
158 The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to
○ indicate true north as opposed to magnetic north
○ align the instrument glass with the case
○ represent the nose of the aircraft
159 The glideslope indicator needle is
○ vertical
○ horizontal
○ inclined depending on the angle of descent
160 What could cause fluctuations in instruments?
○ Static blocked
○ Water in static line
○ Pitot blocked
161 When testing using a thermocouple test set
○ no power is required
○ a 28 VDC supply is required
○ a serviceable battery is required
For a vertical gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to correct the pitch
162
movement?
○ Normal
○ Lateral
○ Longitudinal
163 A compass shows 000. Deviation is +2. After component A is added, heading is
○ 0
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 358
○ 2
164 Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of
○ tan of latitude
○ cos of latitude
○ sin of latitude
Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
165
○ GPWS, windshear, TCAS
○ TCAS, windshear, GPWS
○ TCAS, GPWS, windshear
166 On a Flight Director VOR ground test, the deviation bar moves in relation to
○ actual heading, set course and radio deviation
○ set heading, actual course and radio deviation
○ actual course, set course and radio deviation
167 Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
○ 2 500 ft radio alt.
○ 1 000 ft radio alt.
○ 10 000 ft radio alt.
During a coordinated turn a pendulous suspended flux detector will assume the angle of
168
○ the dynamic vertical
○ dip
○ the true vertical
169 Warning indications are produced by the
○ Central Maintenance Computer
○ Central Warning Computer
○ Electronic Interface Circuits
With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means
170
your speed has
○ decreased
○ is the same
○ increased
171 A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced
○ when half pink and half blue
○ when all pink
○ when all blue
In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the
172
Mach information and
○ Pitot Air Pressure
○ Static Air Pressure
○ Total Air Temperature
173 In a digital radar display system, the position of the line and field timebase waveforms
○ is dependent on the position of radar scanner
○ must be the same as the X-Y memory read address
○ are independent of the X-Y memory read address
174 Where is RNAV directional command info displayed?
○ HSI
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ DME
○ ADI
The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurised aircraft instrument static
175
pressure system integrity check is
○ 150 feet in 2-minutes
○ 100 feet in 1-minute
○ 50 feet in 1-minute
176 In a float type fuel system, calibration must be done
○ at any level
○ with tanks full
○ with tanks empty
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the
177
○ point of lowest pressure
○ centre of pressure
○ stagnation point
178 An altimeter consists of
○ a stack of two evacuated capsules
○ a stack of three evacuated capsules
○ a barometric scale adjustment
179 What device is used on the loop antenna to prevent 180 degree ambiguity
○ Sense antenna
○ Integrator
○ Pre-selector
180 What would you connect a quadrantal error corrector to?
○ Sense Antenna
○ Both loop and sense antenna
○ Loop Antenna
181 Vibration monitoring signals are sent
○ direct to the gauge
○ via a signal conditioner to the gauge
○ via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge
182 Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?
○ Outer gimbal
○ Inner gimbal
○ Rotating vane
183 Equivalent airspeed is
○ rectified airspeed corrected for instrument error and pressure error
○ indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error and pressure error
○ calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
184 In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
○ 1013.25
○ QFE
○ QNH
185 Where is alpha angle used?
○ IRS
○ Accelerometer
○ Angle of attack
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with
186
an error of plus or minus
○ 5 degree
○ 1 degree
○ 3 degree
187 A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to
○ dampen sudden pressure changes
○ prevent FOD ingestion
○ allow for calibration
The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a
188
warning?
○ A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
○ A low range altimeter and GPS
○ A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
189 Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to
○ move probe laterally
○ move probe down
○ move probe up
190 With engine stopped, engine blanks fitted, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1.
○ You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
○ You would adjust the gauge
○ This is normal
191 The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause
○ aircraft to underbank
○ aircraft to overbank
○ aircraft to remain in level flight
192 The units of vibration are measured in
○ decibels
○ relative amplitude
○ phons
193 If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found
○ a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
○ a leak test is never required
○ no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
194 The compensator in a fuel tank measures
○ specific gravity of fuel
○ fuel quantity
○ K value of fuel
195 The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the
○ square root of the speed
○ square of the speed
○ cube root of the speed
196 The electrical artificial horizon has a movement of
○ 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
○ 85 degree in pitch and roll
○ 360 in roll and 85 in pitch
197 How many bits make up the mode 'S' address?
○ 36
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 12
○ 24
198 TAS uses which inputs
○ Pitot and Static pressures, Mach and Temperature
○ Mach and Temperature
○ Pitot and Static pressures
199 Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of
○ capsule elasticity
○ non linear pressure/height relationship
○ capsule shape
200 A machmeter works
○ always except on the ground
○ always
○ above 10,000 ft
201 To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation, you would carry out
○ damping and pivot friction check
○ damping and periodicity checks
○ damping and alignment checks
202 Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
○ true north and magnetic north
○ magnetic heading and aircraft heading
○ the compass north and magnetic north
203 Flight director command bars indicate
○ direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
○ direction in which aircraft is flying
○ direction in which the beacon is
204 GPWS mode 1 is excessive
○ rate of descent
○ rate of ascent
○ terrain closure
205 Radio marker information is displayed on
○ ADI
○ EICAS
○ HSI
206 A fuel flow measurement system
○ can be adjusted for maximum flow rate
○ can be adjusted for minimum flow rate
○ cannot be adjusted
207 Acceleration error produces
○ a false indication of left bank
○ a false indication of right bank
○ a false indication of climb
208 On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would
○ fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from
○ align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is induced
○ carry out a check swing after fitment
209 In a capacitive fuel gauging system, an increase in fuel level would
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ increase capacitance
○ increase capacitive reactance
○ decrease capacitance
210 A unit with two springs and a mass pick-off is
○ a tachogenerator
○ a gyroscope
○ an accelerometer
211 The hot junction of a thermocouple is
○ in the combustion chamber
○ aft of combustion chamber
○ in the instrument
212 EICAS indicates
○ engine performance and aircraft status
○ engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
○ engine performance only
213 If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be
○ not effected
○ higher mach number
○ lower mach number
In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer
214
coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
○ to minimise power losses
○ to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
○ to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall.
215
○ fast/slow switch
○ thrust levers
○ flap position
216 What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
○ It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
○ It stays fixed on magnetic north
○ It moves as the aircraft moves
217 In a flight director system, the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are
○ AC
○ DC
○ pulsed DC
218 Mode S has
○ 36 address bits
○ 24 address bits
○ 12 address bits
A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's
219
○ longitudinal axis
○ lateral axis
○ vertical axis
220 Pitot tubes are heated
○ by compressed bleed air
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ by kinetic heating
○ electrically
221 Index error is
○ Coefficient P
○ coefficient B
○ misalignment of compass lubber line
222 With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will
○ increase with a higher rotor speed
○ decrease with a higher rotor speed
○ decrease with a lower rotor speed
223 Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as
○ true A
○ apparent A
○ real A
224 While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would
○ indicate descent
○ not be affected
○ indicate climb
During a compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is
225
○ 1 degree
○ 5 degree
○ 10 degree
226 In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective
○ one CDU blanks
○ both CDU blanks
○ not be affected as automatic transfer takes place
For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system
227
would be
○ +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
○ +/- 500 feet for the system overall
○ +/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors
228 When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?
○ Rad. alt. goes out of view
○ Rad. alt. flag in view
○ Error warning in view
229 An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
○ the pointer to read mid scale
○ the pointer to read zero
○ the pointer to read full scale
230 The instantaneous VSI is designed to
○ overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
○ improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
○ use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies
231
○ speed increase
○ height decrease
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ speed decrease
232 The HSI provides information on
○ VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
○ VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
○ VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
233 What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
○ Red, blue, yellow
○ Red, blue, green
○ Yellow, cyan, magenta
234 The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass
○ is to rotate clockwise
○ is to rotate anticlockwise
○ It may be rotated either direction
In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most
235
likely to be effected by over pressure?
○ VSI
○ ASI
○ Altimeter
236 Flight director incompatible modes are
○ VOR and glideslope
○ heading and altitude hold
○ VOR and altitude hold
237 In a horizontal gyro, the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by
○ mercury switches on the inner ring
○ flux valve slaving
○ mercury switches on the outer ring
238 In RVSM, the error allowed is
○ 80 ft
○ 500 ft
○ 300 ft
239 A fuel quantity test set consists of
○ capacitance bridge
○ inductance decade
○ resistance decade
When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a
240
quick release disconnect connection is disturbed
○ a full test of the system should be carried out
○ the allowances for the system should be halved
○
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
What colour is the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments, with excess
241
deviation?
○ Amber
○ Red
○ White
242 Magnetic heading errors will be
○ positive if easterly
○ negative if northerly
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ negative if easterly
243 The apparent wander for directional gyros is
○ compensated by applying a constant torque
○ dependant on longitude
○ maximum at the pole
If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then
244
○ it will display the airfield height above sea level
○ it will not need resetting and will read zero
○ it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
245 A Boost Gauge reads
○ above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
○ above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
○ absolute pressure
246 At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?
○ Combustion chamber and jet pipe
○ Compressor inlet and compressor outlet
○ Compressor inlet and jet pipe
247 capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected
○ in series with capacitance probes
○ by replacing capacitance probes
○ in parallel with capacitance probes
248 In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains
○ 1 capsule
○ 3 capsules
○ 2 capsules
249 A Master Warning is issued when
○ overspeed and cabin altitude occurs
○ engine fire and generator trip occurs
○ cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
250 An Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator indicates instant values of vertical speed by
○ blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
○ blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer
○ using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
251 What is the calibration law of a ratiometer?
○ Material of the indicator needle
○ Material of the coil
○ Material of the sensing element
252 A radio altimeter system can be self tested
○ both on the ground only and in the air
○ on the ground only
○ in the air only
253 When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
○ 5 degrees
○ 3 degrees
○ 1 degrees
254 What does a piezoelectric type vibration sensor detect?
○ Pressure changes
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ Velocity
○ Disturbances
255 What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?
○ Clacking sound
○ Horn sound
○ Bell sound
256 An RMI requires the following inputs:
○ Heading and radio deviation
○ Course and radio deviation
○ Radio deviation only
257 What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?
○ They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal
○ They disappear out of view
○ They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
258 What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system?
○ 2 - 6 GHz
○ 100 KHz
○ 2.3 - 23 Mhz
259 What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?
○ Displacement
○ Tied down
○ Space
260 What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?
○ 300 psi
○ 1000 psi
○ 3000 psi
What altitude, relative to sea level, does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?
261
○ 5,000ft
○ 18,000ft
○ 12,000ft
262 How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
○ Bellows and diaphragm
○ Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature
○ Press relief valve
263 Where is the placement of a mercury switch?
○ Outer gimbal
○ Gyro case
○ Instrument case
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to correct the pitch
264
movement?
○ Lateral
○ Longitudinal
○ Normal
265 What is lapse rate?
○ Temperature changes with altitude
○ Density changes with altitude
○ Pressure changes with altitude
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
266 In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
○ +2 degrees
○ -2 degrees
○ 0 degrees
267 The sensing element of the flux valve
○ aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns
○ remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure
○ aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised
268 The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for
○ erection
○ toppling
○ drift
269 EICAS provides the following
○ engine parameters
○ engine warnings and engine parameters
○ engine parameters and system warnings
270 A thermocouple
○ cannot be shortened
○ can be shortened
○ capacitance and inductance cannot be added
271 What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
○ 6°
○ 10°
○ 2.5°
272 Random drift of a gyro is caused by
○ aircraft turning with an error in roll
○ gyro friction and unbalance
○ error in roll when aircraft is turning
273 The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
○ micrometer
○ spirit level
○ an inclinometer
A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical
274
current is
○ 20 inches
○ 28 inches
○ 24 inches
When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a
275
standby to a remote reading compass
○
all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading
○ only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted
with master compass
○ all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only
The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the
276
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ external dia. of pitot head
○ internal dia. of pitot head where air stagnates
○ opening dia. of pitot head
277 Coefficient A is adjusted
○ on any heading
○ at 270 degrees
○ at 360 degrees
Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence
278
○ when parallel to each other
○ when 45 degrees apart
○ when 90 degrees apart
279 The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as
○ Coefficient C
○ Coefficient B
○ Coefficient A
280 Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
○ No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
○ Bellows or diaphragm
○ Piston and oil
281 What does a vibration type sensor measure?
○ Frequency of deflections
○ Maximum deflection
○ Direction of flexing
282 When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
○ restricts inner gimbal
○ stops outer gimbal
○ restricts outer gimbal
283 The airdata computer inputs to
○ cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter
○ mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
○ altimeter, FMC, secondary radar
284 On an EADI the command bars show the
○ required flight path compared with horizon
○ required flight path compared to planned flight path
○ required flight path compared with aircraft position
285 Which instrument shows Decision Height?
○ ECAM
○ HSI
○ ADI
286 On the CWP, what does amber indicate?
○ Present status
○ Warning
○ Cautionary info
287 Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?
○ Both
○ Lower
○ Upper
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
288 If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
○ Decrease
○ Increase
○ Remain unaffected
289 A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
○ So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
○ 20 inches
○ 24 inches
290 On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication
○ a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
○ it does not have any adjustment
○ a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments
291 Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
○ index error
○ residual error
○ apparent error
292 What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
○ VSI
○ Altimeter
○ ASI
293 A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
○ when power is applied to the helicopter
○ the helicopter takes off
○ the helicopters engines are started
Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces
294
are bloomed to reduce
○ surface reflection
○ parallax error
○ static to avoid dust attraction
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card
295
should not exceed
○ 3 degrees
○ 2 degrees
○ 5 degrees
296 If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
○ decrease
○ remain the same
○ increase
297 An uncorrected ADI is affected by
○ descent
○ roll
○ climb
298 Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
○ INS
○ EICAS
○ Pitot static probes
299 On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
○ would be a visual warning only
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ would initiate a Go-Around
○ would be an audio and visual warning
300 With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
○ master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only
○ master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card
○ both are adjusted on each heading
301 ICAO Standard Atmosphere is
○ taken from data measured at the equator
○ relevant to set parameters
○ taken from data measured at 45 degrees North
302 What is apparent drift due to?
○ Errors when aircraft banking
○ Earths rotation
○ Gyro pivot friction
303 What aircraft system supplies power to the standby artificial horizon?
○ Battery Bus
○ Generator bus
○ Normal power, then switches to emergency supply in an emergency
304 In a modern HSI, the displays are
○ course and attitude
○ direction and attitude
○ course and direction
305 A Mach meter
○ does not compensate for square law
○ compensates for square law
○ uses a spring and bar
When calibrating an electronic fuel capacitance indicating system, what piece of test equipment
306
would you use?
○ A bridge
○ A potentiometer
○ A decade
307 An ASI compressibility error correction will be
○ negative
○ both
○ positive
308 How does a machmeter work?
○ Indicated airspeed / temperature
○ True airspeed and speed of sound
○ True airspeed / indicated airspeed
309 How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
○ As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft
○ As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of
an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
○ As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level
(1013.25mb)
If the static pressure is varied at too great a rate. The instrument that is most affected is the
310
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ airspeed indicator
○ altimeter
○ rate of change indicator
311 The flux detector element
○ changes its position after the aircraft heading is changed
○ changes heading with the heading of the aircraft
○ gives heading with respect to magnetic north
312 If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
○ oscillate
○ be sluggish
○ go hard over
313 Air density compensation requires
○ OAT
○ altitude
○ altitude and OAT
In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and
314
where is it normally fitted?
○ Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
○ A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft
○ Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft
315 Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs
○ same speed
○ slower
○ faster
316 When servicing an RVSM aircraft
○ the alt. hold must be serviceable
○ all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable
○ the alt. alert must be serviceable
317 An RMI has inputs from VOR and
○ a remote compass input
○ no other sources
○ an azimuth gyro
An aircraft increases in altitude The ASI indication remains constant. What will happen to the
318
True airspeed value?
○ Increase
○ Decrease
○ Remain the same
319 A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
○ compressor inlet
○ reservoir
○ compressor outlet
320 An H on the EHSI indicates
○ VOR hold
○ DME hold
○ ILS approach
321 Which modes of the GPWS may be inhibited?
○ modes 2, 4, 5
○ modes 1, 3, 4a, 6
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ modes 4b, 5
322 A typical ratiometer indicating system would use
○ 3-phase AC
○ single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter
○ single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
323 Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.
○ continues to indicate but with a warning flag
○ pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view
○ pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored
324 When a compass is in the slave mode
○ azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve
○ the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit
○ the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
325 An aircraft airspeed indicator has
○ pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
○ pitot to the capsule
○ static to the capsule
326 The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated
○ twice only
○ once only
○ three times only
327 At what height does the rising runway appear?
○ 500 ft.
○ 200 ft.
○ 300 ft.
328 A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?
○ More variation
○ Remote compass will indicate in one direction only
○ More deviation
329 Compass error 'Q' corrections correct
○ B error
○ C error
○ A error
330 Flight Director bars move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/speed?
○ Rate feedback
○ Instrument amplifier gain
○ Position feedback
331 Compass compensator units have greatest effect when the magnets are
○ Parallel
○ 90° apart
○ 45° apart
332 Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will
○ cause contents to under read
○ cause contents to overead
○ short out capacitance probe and trip CB
JAR OPS states that the time an FDR recording must be kept after an accident or incident
333
○ 60 days
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 30 days after incident 60 days after accident
○ 30 Days
334 If one FMS fails in a dual system
○ system operation will not be affected
○ FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
○ FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
335 Coefficient A correction is carried out
○ before B and after C
○ after B and after C
○ before C after B
336 In a capacitive fuel contents system, changes in temperature are compensated by
○ adjustment of a potentiometer
○ placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance
○ placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance
337 An aircraft landing on QFE, the altimeter will
○ read airfield height on landing
○ read local area pressure
○ read zero on touchdown
338 Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in
○ output datum advanced 180 deg
○ output datum advanced 240 deg
○ data to coincide
339 How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?
○ Torque synchro
○ Servomotor
○ A measuring device
340 If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude
○ this has no influence on compass readings
○ this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
○ this is due to insufficient de-aeration
341 When a compass is in the slave mode
○ the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
○ azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve
○ the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit
342 All 'fly-to' information in an EFIS system is displayed in
○ magenta
○ white
○ green
343 Absolute pressure of 25 PSI is
○ 10.3 PSIG
○ 39.7 PSIG
○ 14 PSIG
344 Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas temperature indications are
○ Copper-Constantan
○ Chromel-Alumel
○ Iron-Constantan
345 A combined ASI indicates Mach
○ all the time airspeed is present
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ above 10000 feet
○ above 0.15
346 The needle of a resolver is connected to
○ two coils only
○ two coils and an electromagnet
○ two coils and a permanent magnet
347 In an EICAS system, operation of the cancel switch
○ removes all messages from the display
○ removes advisory messages
○ removes caution and advisory messages
348 Gimbal lock in a displacement gyro occurs when
○ gimbal rings are mutually not at right angles to each other
○ spin axis becomes coincident with any of the axis of freedom
○ bearing friction causes gimbal system to unbalance
349 The scratch pad in an FMS CDU occupies
○ first 12 character spaces of the bottom line
○ the last 12 character spaces of the bottom line
○ 24 character spaces of the bottom line
350 In a turn coordinator, the output axis of the rate gyro is
○ parallel to the lateral axis to make the gyro sensitive to rolling and banking as well as turning
○ parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
○ set at 30° to the longitudinal axis
351 The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by information fed from
○ The Mach unit
○ The Pitot and Static sensors
○ The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor
352 A rate gyro has
○ a calibrated spring to restrain movement about the longitudinal axis
○ one degree of freedom along the lateral axis
○ a calibrated spring between inner gimbal and case
What is the maximum value of insulation tester that may be used on a fuel contents system?
353
○ 250 Volt
○ You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
○ 300 Volt
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card
354
should not exceed
○ 5 degrees
○ 2 degrees
○ 3 degrees
355 Using the fast erection switch on a standby horizon prior to the flag clearing may cause
○ You must use the Fast erection switch to clear the flag
○ application of a large current to the control phase windings causing failure
○ the instrument to erect to a false datum
A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a heading of 180 degrees the pilot
356
must steer
○ 180 degrees
○ 179 degrees
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 181 degrees
357 The capacitance fuel contents system works on the principle of
○ capacitance
○ resistance
○ capacitive reactance
358 An ILS indicator is
○ across filters
○ series with filters
○ parallel to filters
359 A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?
○ A compass swing must be performed
○ No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old
○ The swing can be performed at a later date
In an EICAS display, all scales, normal operating range of pointers and digital readouts are
360
displayed in
○ white
○ magenta
○ green
361 Pitot-static lines in helicopters
○ must provide accurate information over the helicopter certified flight envelope
○ are made of stainless steel, and must withstand twice normal working pressure
○ must provide an accurate indication of the flight regime below 20 knots
362 Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is
○ 1000ft
○ 2000ft
○ 800ft
In digital flight data recorder (DFDR) system, low speed playback of currently received data
363
can be achieved at
○ the electronic bay test connection at the quick access recorder (QAR)
○ the flight compartment test connector through the digital flight data acquisition unit (DFDAU)
○ the DFDAU built in test equipment (BITE)
When the 'busy' indicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR system, this indicates that the
364
○ data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected
○ cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use
○ data is being received and the cartridge cannot be ejected
365 Which is not displayed on an attitude director indicator (ADI)?
○ VOR lateral deviation
○ Glideslope deviation
○ Localizer deviation
During a change to a lower altitude, the piston unit in an IVSI (instantaneous vertical speed
366
indicator) will create, for an instant
○ more pressure to the capsule only
○ pressure to both case and capsule
○ more suction to the capsule only
367 A mach meter is
○ compensated with square law screws and an arm
○ automatically compensated
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ not square law compensated
368 Alpha angle relates to which system?
○ Angle of attack system
○ Mach trim system
○ Flap blowback system
369 A fuel system that corrects fuel SG is calibrated in
○ Litres
○ Gallons
○ Pounds or KGs
370 The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a
○ VSI
○ ASI
○ Mach Meter
If the static vent is leaking into cabin pressurised space when the aircraft is at altitude, a mach
371
meter will indicate
○ no change
○ a decrease
○ an increase
372 Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest influence at
○ 45° to each other
○ 90° to each other
○ when parallel to each other
373 The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings for
○ permittivity
○ zero reading
○ SG of fuel
A leak in the static line in a pressurised part of an aircraft can cause the mach indication to
374
○ decrease
○ no change
○ rise
When a standby compass is replaced, on installation the compensator magnets should be set to
375
○ the same setting as the removed compass
○ the neutral setting on the new unit
○ maximum setting on the new unit
376 A mach meter reads the correct value
○ at sea level only
○ above 10,000 feet only
○ at any altitude
377 EFIS display, SG1 + SG2 are for captain and FO displays. What is the purpose of SG3?
○ Backup for SG 1 and 2
○ ECAM upper display
○ ECAM lower display
378 In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?
○ Square-Law compensation
○ Compensation is not required
○ Hair spring
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
379 Component P relates to
○ coefficient A
○ coefficient C
○ coefficient B
The flight recorder accelerometer used in the DFDR system measures vertical acceleration as
380
one of its parameters to values between
○ plus six 'g' and minus three 'g' with a null output of one point eight volts plus or minus twenty five
millivolts dc
○ plus four 'g' and minus two 'g' with a null output of one point six to plus or minus twenty eight
millivolts dc
○ plus eight 'g' to minus four 'g' with a null output of two volts plus or minus twenty millivolts
381 The full testing of a FDR system is accomplished by
○ bite test of the FDR acquisition unit
○ real time monitoring of system with ground test equipment
○ bite test of the FDR
Leakage of a static line during a pitot static test (altitude increasing) would be indicated by
382
○ VSI showing rate of climb
○ VSI showing rate of descent
○ VSI remaining in a fixed position
383 A fuel system that measures SG will be displayed in
○ Ltrs or gals
○ Lbs or kgs
○ Ltrs or kgs
384 The venturi tubes in a vacuum instrument are measured in
○ Inches of Mercury
○ Millibars
○ PSI
385 A standby artificial horizon uses a
○ earth gyro
○ free gyro
○ space gyro
As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to carry out a check using the self-
386 test switch on the aircraft integrated data system (AIDS) printer. Actuation of the switch causes
the printer to print in
○ sixty six column mode
○ eighty column mode
○ forty column mode
387 GPWS Mode 7 Windshear is activated at
○ 1500 feet rad alt for take-off and 2500 feet rad alt for landing
○ 2500 feet rad alt for take-off and landing
○ 1500 feet rad alt for take-off and landing
388 A gate valve is installed in a vacuum system to prevent
○ oil entering gyro when shut down
○ back pressure due to engine surge
○ reverse flow due to engine backfire
389 EGPWS mode 2 announces
○ too low flaps
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ whoop whoop pull up
○ sink rate
390 Adding 3 feet of cable to both TX and RX aerials on a rad alt would give you
○ 12.5 feet error
○ 15 feet error
○ 9 feet error
391 In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to
○ 15 sine longitude
○ 15 cosine latitude
○ 15 sine latitude
392 The Turn and Slip indicator employs
○ a rate gyro
○ a vertical gyro
○ an azimuth gyro
393 Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on
○ moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
○ moment of inertia of the rotor
○ angular velocity of the rotor
After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended
394
that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument
○ fifteen minutes should elapse
○ seven minutes should elapse
○ three minutes should elapse
395 Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?
○ To prevent outer gimbal rotating
○ To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock
○ To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly
396 A V.S.I. is connected to
○ pitot pressure
○ vacuum
○ static pressure
397 In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be
○ it would under read
○ it would over read
○ it would have no effect
398 The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately
○ 2,400 rpm
○ 4,200 rpm
○ 22,500 rpm
399 A turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left. What is the aircraft doing?
○ turning left
○ rolling left
○ slipping left
400 Gyro precessional force is
○ proportional to the square of the applied force
○ inversely proportional to the applied force
○ directly proportional to applied force
401 A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ decreasing the mass of the rotor
○ increasing the rotor speed
○ decreasing the rotor speed
402 Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?
○ Running gyro at high speed
○ Inverting the gyro
○ Running gyro at low speed
403 What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
○ Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
○ No effect
○ Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves
404
would be increased if the
○ angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases
○ rotor speed decreases
○ spring tension was increased
405 The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to
○ give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn
○ give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn
○ to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn
A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of
406
○ decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port
○ increased reaction of the air from a bisected port
○ increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
407 The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately
○ 15,000 rpm
○ 4,200 rpm
○ 22,000 rpm
408 An engine vibration indicator system uses
○ AC/DC in the transmitter
○ AC/DC in the indicator
○ 2 filters in the indicator
409 How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?
○ By a switch on the inner gimbal
○ By a flux take-off device
○ By a switch on the outer gimbal
410 Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate
○ the same speed
○ slower
○ faster
411 In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate
○ horizontal to left
○ vertically up
○ vertically down
412 Random drift of a gyro is caused by
○ aircraft turning with an error in roll
○ unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ rotation of the earth
413 Gyro rigidity is proportional to
○ mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
○ mass and speed
○ mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
414 With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
○ 1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
○ 1,000 ft/minute rate of descent
○ 100 ft/minute rate of climb
The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after
415
switching on because
○ excessive hunting will take place
○ the normal erection switch contact will burn out
○ overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur
416 If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession
○ increases with a lower rotor speed
○ increases with a higher rotor speed
○ is unaffected by changes in rotor speed
417 The erection system on a directional gyroscope has
○ a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
○ a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal
○ a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
418 Precession of a gyro depends on
○ moment of inertia of the rotor only
○ both moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
○ angular velocity of the rotor only
419 The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to
○ cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws
○ reduce compressibility error
○ minimize errors caused by leaks in the system
420 The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon
○ change in voltage applied to operate
○ change in inductance to operate
○ change in resistance to operate
421 In the Turn and Slip indicator
○ the spin axis is longitudinal
○ the spin axis is lateral
○ the spin axis is vertical
422 A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to
○ 14.69°C
○ 32°C
○ 15°C
423 At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
○ float valve
○ NACA duct
○ self draining non-return valve
424 In an altimeter, the
○ capsule is evacuated and sealed
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke
○ inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure
425 The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is
○ more accurate
○ more instantaneous
○ less accurate
426 The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is
○ by a torque synchro
○ by a control synchro
○ by a differential synchro
427 The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in
○ knots (kts)
○ miles per hour (mph)
○ hundreds of feet per minute
428 Agonic lines link places of
○ different variation
○ equal variation
○ zero variation
429 A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from
○ a venturi
○ a pitot head
○ a tapping from the induction manifold
430 Aircraft heading (HDG) is
○ the angle between True North and the actual track
○ the angle between True North and the desired track
○ the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
431 A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to
○ 100 millibar
○ 1 inch Hg
○ 14.7 PSI
432 Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
○ prevent gimbal lock
○ reduce gimbal nutation
○ limit the outer gimbal movement
433 A pitot or static leak check is carried out
○ only when an instrument is changed
○ only when a leak is suspected
○ whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed
434 On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule
○ is the same as case pressure
○ lags the case pressure
○ leads the case pressure
435 The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is
○ descending
○ climbing
○ in level flight
The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale
436
is
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 180 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
○ 212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively
○ 100 deg. and 32 deg. respectively
437 Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either
○ viscous, eddy current or air dash pot
○ eddy current, variable spring or moving iron
○ viscous, eddy current or variable spring
438 Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a
○ bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
○ balance weight
○ U-spring acting on the capsule
439 The millibar is a unit of
○ pressure altitude
○ barometric pressure
○ atmospheric temperature
When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until
440
○ as long as the force is applied
○ plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force
○ plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force
441 An artificial horizon has
○ the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
○ the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally
○ the inner gimbal pivoted vertically
442 A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
○ a roll error and gyro topple
○ a continual precession in roll
○ a pitch error and gyro topple
443 After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to
○ carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
○ blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply
○ calibrate the instrument concerned
444 A rate two turn is
○ 180 degrees per minute
○ 90 degrees per minute
○ 360 degrees per minute
445 Position error is caused by
○ mechanical imperfections in an instrument
○ pitot head position
○ instrument location in the instrument panel
A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level
446
flight, cause the instrument to indicate
○ a rate of climb
○ zero
○ a rate of descent
447 To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin
○ use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32
○ add 112 degrees
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ add 273 degrees
448 In the directional gyro
○ the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally
○ the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally
○ the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection,
449
application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the
○ altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb
○ altimeter reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent
○ altimeter reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent
450 Electrical driven gyros are
○ rotated slower than air driven gyros
○ rotated faster than air driven gyros
○ rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros
451 The distance readout on an HSI is
○ from the aircraft ATC system
○ dialled in by the pilot
○ from the aircraft DME system
After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to
452
the atmosphere by
○ venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
○ removing the static connector from its static vent
○ removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes
453 In a Bourdon tube
○ one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere
○ one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
○ both ends sealed
454 To fill a Dead Weight Tester
○ screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir
○ screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
○ remove platform and fill cylinder
455 The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is
○ it does not require warming up
○ it does not require pitot/static pressure
○ it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one
456 A desiccant used in the storage of instruments
○ is anti-freeze oil
○ is sodium-bicarbonate
○ is silica-gel
457 What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
○ No effect
○ Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
○ Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at
458
airfield level (QFE)
○ indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards
○ indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea level
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
459 The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the
○ rotor
○ instrument case
○ inner gimbal
460 What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?
○ Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring
○ Compensates for change in density
○ Corrects for capsule elasticity
A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
461
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as
○ an earth gyro
○ a rate gyro
○ a tied gyro
462 The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a
○ vertical gyro
○ directional gyro
○ rate gyro
463 The supply of Desynn indicating system
○ is alternating current at 400 c/s
○ is alternating current at 50 c/s
○ is direct current
464 Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?
○ Horizontal
○ Vertical
○ Both vertical and horizontal
465 An absolute pressure gauge measures
○ the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure
○ the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
○ pressures extremely accurately
466 Bourdon Tubes have
○ toroidal cross section
○ circular cross section
○ oval cross section
467 When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case
○ will not affect the aneroid capsule
○ will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
○ will cause the aneroid capsule to expand
468 The capsule in an altimeter responds to
○ absolute pressure
○ differential pressure
○ gauge pressure
In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This
469
will give
○ mid scale deflection
○ full scale deflection
○ no scale deflection
470 An instrument used for measuring negative pressures
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated
○ has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case
○ cannot be of the Bourdon tube type
With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical
471
gyro will cause the
○ inner ring to move
○ outer and inner ring to move
○ outer ring to move
472 An altimeter is operated
○ by the pitot system
○ by the vacuum system
○ by the static system
473 For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
○ decreases
○ increases
○ remains the same
Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to
474
○ absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure
○ absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure
○ atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure
A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of
475
absolute pressure, this represents
○ 1,000 p.s.i.
○ 985.3 p.s.i.
○ 1,014.7 p.s.i.
The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to
476
○ an ILS station
○ a VOR station
○ an ADF station
477 True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of
○ airspeed and temperature
○ airspeed and altitude
○ mach number and temperature
478 The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is
○ kerosene
○ castor-oil
○ anti-freeze oil
479 Pressure may be expressed in
○ weight or mass
○ force per unit area
○ force per unit volume
480 One dot VOR deviation represents
○ 2 miles
○ 5°
○ 1¼°
481 When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale
○ the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
○ the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale
482 The moving element of a ratiometer has
○ three coils
○ one coil
○ two coils
After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant
483
correction is known as
○ correct heading
○ residual deviation
○ magnetic heading
484 The HSI compass card is positioned by the
○ heading select knob
○ aircraft ADF system
○ compass system
If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was
485
1020, the altimeter should read
○ positive altitude
○ below zero feet (negative altitude)
○ zero feet
486 In a compass swing:
North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees.
The coefficient C is
○ -2 degrees
○ 0 degrees
○ +2 degrees
487 If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would
○ carry out a new compass swing
○ set it up the same as the one removed
○ set it to zero datum
488 A Vertical Speed Indicator metering unit consist of
○ a capillary only
○ an orifice only
○ both an orifice and a capillary
489 To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a
○ ranging bar and screws are fitted
○ bi-metal corrector is employed
○ 10 to 1 gearing is used
The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to
490
○ the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations
○ the difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers
○ the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations
If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed
491
is
○ 350 knots
○ 400 knots
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ 450 knots
492 Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by
○ mercury switch on outer ring
○ series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor
○ an adjustment nut on inner ring
493 A compass is made aperiodic by
○ using fluid
○ locking
○ tying it to the case
494 Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is
○ +/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
○ +/- 500ft system tolerance
○ +/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
495 Isogonal lines link places of
○ different variation
○ zero variation
○ equal variation
496 The manual VOR input is for
○ the ADI
○ the course deviation bar
○ the radio magnetic indicator
497 If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be
○ equal to the ground speed
○ greater than the ground speed
○ less than the ground speed
498 If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
○ 278 knots
○ 550 knots
○ 662 knots
499 In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by
○ bottom lightness of inner gimbals
○ displacement of erection control device
○ bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
500 If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?
○ 293 knots
○ 304 knots
○ 296 knots
501 The supply to an A.S.I.
○ are pitot and static pressure
○ is pitot pressure only
○ is static pressure only
502 The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is
○ decelerating
○ accelerating
○ climbing
When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the
503
vicinity
○ precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window
○ precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type
With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter
504
will read
○ the airfield height
○ off scale
○ zero
When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the
505
○ instrument case
○ capsule stack
○ pressure chamber
506 The command bars in a flight director system indicate
○ the actual path with respect to required path
○ true horizon
○ the required path with respect to actual path
507 In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by
○ bottom lightness of inner gimbals
○ displacement of erection control device
○ bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
508 Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of
○ selection of altitude
○ approach to or deviation from selected altitude
○ altitude information
509 The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the
○ square root of the speed
○ square of the speed
○ cube root of the speed
On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is
510
○ the relative bearing
○ the magnetic bearing
○ the complimentary bearing
511 Machmeters work on
○ pitot
○ pitot and static
○ static
512 There is an air bubble in the compass:
○ The fluid is not aerated properly
○ It is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid
○ It is due to high altitude
513 An HSI provides what information?
○ VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
○ VOR, plan, ILS, map, radar
○ VOR, map, attitude, ILS
514 An aircraft with Mach warning will warn
○ when envelope limit is reached
○ when Mcrit is reached
 08 Instrument Systems (516)
○ when Mach 1 is exceeded
515 A flux detector output is a
○ A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage
○ rectified D.C. voltage
○ A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage
516 Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by
○ misalignment of pitot head
○ blockage in the pitot tube
○ compression of air in the tube at high speed
 09 Lights (48)
1 The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is
○ 140°
○ 11°
○ 110°
The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an
2
inclusive angle of
○ 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum
○ 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum
○ 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum
3 Galley and cabin lighting operate from the
○ AC bus
○ DC bus
○ GND services bus
4 Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
○ the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
○ the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
○ the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid
5
electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least
○ 2 minutes
○ 1 minute
○ 5 minutes
A strobe light is a light unit that takes the form of a glass tube filled with which gas and its
6
light colour is what?
○ Neon gas and blue
○ Helium gas and white
○ Xenon gas and blue-white
7 With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?
○ Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red
○ Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White
○ Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white
8 Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:
○ Single circuit
○ Individual circuits
○ Dual circuit
9 What is the minimum candelas of an anti-collision beacon?
○ 100
○ 20
○ 50
10 Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?
○ 125°
○ 180°
○ 110°
11 Rear navigation lights have
○ steady white light with a viewing angle of 60°
○ steady white light with a viewing angle of 140°
○ flashing white light with a viewing angle of 60°
12 The angle of a runway turnoff light is
 09 Lights (48)
○ 40°
○ 60°
○ 50°
13 Service lights include
○ baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights
○ avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights
○ refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights
What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the ON position?
14
○ Dome lights will illuminate
○ All lights will illuminate
○ Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
15 Tritium Gas is used in a
○ strobe light
○ landing Light
○ self illuminating light
If the common portion of the winding of a autotransformer used to supply a 26 VAC light
16
bulb from a 115 VAC busbar goes open circuit the light bulb will
○ go dim
○ flicker
○ blow
17 Escape route lighting must not have more than
○ 15% obscured
○ 10% obscured
○ 20% obscured
18 Runway turn-off lights have a beam width of
○ 50°
○ 10°
○ 110°
19 A white navigation light, as viewed in the horizontal plane, will be at least
○ 50 candela
○ 240 candela
○ 20 candela
20 Runway turn-off lights have a viewing angle of
○ 110°
○ 160°
○ 50°
The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical
21 separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency
lighting that fails is
○ 15%
○ 25%
○ 10%
22 How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
○ 20%
○ 15%
○ 25%
23 Wing steady light must be visible through
 09 Lights (48)
○ 180 degrees
○ 110 degrees
○ 70 degrees
24 The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system
○ ferry flight to main base for rectification
○ continue with reduced passenger load
○ ground the aircraft
25 Upper and lower anti-collision lights are coloured
○ white
○ green
○ red
26 How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?
○ None
○ 10%
○ 25%
27 A white steady light is required
○ of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
○ of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
○ of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
28 What is the arc of a landing light?
○ This is not covered in European legislation
○ 20°
○ 15°
In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system
29
during flight?
○ ON
○ OFF
○ Armed
30 On a CWS, which has the highest priority?
○ Hydraulic pump failure
○ Duct overheat
○ Fire warning
31 What colour is the strobe light on the PORT wing?
○ White
○ Red
○ Green
32 Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by the
○ battery bus bar or ground services
○ battery bus bar
○ ground services
33 If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative
○ the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed
○ the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed
○ the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shut off
34 The tail navigation light. What angle of divergence should it have?
○ 180°
○ 140°
○ 120°
 09 Lights (48)
35 Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
○ 28 V AC
○ 28 V DC
○ 115 V AC
36 What is the arc of a landing light?
○ 20°
○ 11°
○ 15°
37 Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
○ AC handling bus
○ DC handling bus
○ the battery bus
38 Self-illuminating signs
○ are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas
○ are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted
○ require a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate
When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to
39
approach the aircraft?
○ Turning off the anti-collision lights
○ Flashing the landing light
○ Turning on and off the NAV lights
40 Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the
○ ground services bus
○ battery bus and ground services bus
○ battery bus
41 What is the EFFECTIVE candela of an anti-collision light?
○ 41
○ 240
○ 80
42 A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of
○ 50 candelas
○ 20 candelas
○ 100 candelas
Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced
43
○ at 40 inch intervals
○ at 60 inch intervals
○ at 70 inch intervals
44 What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?
○ Xenon
○ Freon
○ Halon
45 In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured
○ amber
○ red
○ green
46 A fluorescent tube contains
○ iodine coatings and rare gases
 09 Lights (48)
○ phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
○ orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
47 What is the power supply to cabin flourescent tubes?
○ High voltage stepped up
○ 200VAC
○ 115VAC
48 Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate
○ below 10,000ft and descending
○ unless switched off by the pilot
○ when landing gear is down
 10 On Board Maintenance Systems (31)
With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is
1
to
○ transmits to the CMC
○ log relevant maintenance data
○ provides details of defect action
2 Where are the central maintenance computers accessed from?
○ The front panel on the FMC in the main equipment centre
○ Flight station CDUs
○ Their own dedicated control panel
3 With a ACMS quick access recorder,
○ the tape must not have been used previously
○ the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased
○ you must use digital tape
In case the aeroplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only
4
one computer is to be installed
○ it must be installed on LH side
○ it must be installed on RH side
○ it may be installed either on LH or RH side
5 One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
○ erased only after end of sector
○ non-volatile memory
○ volatile memory
6 What device aids structural monitoring of aircraft?
○ Electrical strain sensors
○ Shims
○ Shear pins
7 The real time on a CMC is when
○ existing faults page is selected on the CDU
○ fault history page is selected on the CDU
○ ground test page is selected on the CDU
8 A MCDU is
○ to store fault data
○ to dialog with the central maintenance computer
○ to transmit data to ground
9 A modern aircraft CMC uses
○ a CRT screen
○ a magnetic fault indicator
○ an LED display
10 A HUMS in a helicopter is
○ a vibration analysis system
○ a system which indicates a crack in the blade
○ a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure
11 What unit in a HUMS system carries out the data acquisition?
○ FDR
○ MDR
○ DAU
What device is required to load software or install updated software into the aircraft flight
12
management computer?
○ Control display units
 10 On Board Maintenance Systems (31)
○ Data loader
○ Erasable programmable read only memory (EPROM)
13 What is provided by the central maintenance computer fitted to modern aircraft?
○ Voice recording of crew commands for systems that need replenishing
○ A centralized location for aeroplane fault information
○ Navigation information for the crew
What name is given to sensors that convert mechanical energy into electrical energy by the force
14
exerted on a crystal pile which are utilized in structural monitoring?
○ Piezo device
○ Pizza device
○ Piazza device
15 What type of memory do CMCs have?
○ Hard
○ Non-volatile
○ Volatile
16 In a modern aircraft, a BITE is carried out
○ continuously when the systems are working
○ on the ground only
○ only in the air
17 In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
○ all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
○ all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
○ only Primary Faults are recorded
18 Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
○ certain parameters
○ and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC
○ with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
19 The uploading function on an on-board maintenance system enables
○ the on-board data base to be updated
○ the on-board maintenance system to be interrogated by the engineer
○ data to be taken from on-board maintenance system
20 In a CMC, warning signals are generated by
○ Warning computer
○ CMC
○ FMC
21 MCDUs
○ are used to transmit data to ground
○ store fault data
○ enable dialog with central maintenance computer
22 What is the reason for central maintenance computers being dual fitted?
○ There is too much data for one computer to process
○ Redundancy protection
○ One is to record engine parameters and the other the airframe parameters
23 On an aircraft fitted with a CMC, how do you get to the system pages?
○ Through the Existing faults function
○ Through the Present Leg faults function
○ Through the ground test function
24 Where are modern aircraft printers located?
○ Flight station centre pedestal
 10 On Board Maintenance Systems (31)
○ Main equipment centre
○ Communications centre
25 What does the expression electronic flight library system refer to?
○ A system that stores all the aircraft information for passenger entertainment requests for that flight
○ A system of CD or disc data that lists all data configurations and systems for that aircraft and carried on
board
○ A system used by passengers to save on hard copy costs of books and magazines carried on board
Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers, and you only have one to dispatch the
26
aircraft. Where do you fit it?
○ RH side
○ LH side
○ LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
27 The purpose of Aircraft Condition Monitoring System (ACMS) is to
○ ensure all tech log entries have associated maintenance messages
○ detect the source of a fault
○ transmit defects to base
28 An aircraft condition monitoring system
○ stores information for long term error analysis
○ sends information to the central maintenance cell
○ detects the source of a fault
29 What is one reason for structural monitoring?
○ To calculate the maximum fuel load for the next flight
○ To develop a preventative maintenance policy
○ To allow calculations for maximum passenger numbers
30 In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by
○ the electronic interface units (EIU)
○ the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS)
○ the central warning computer (CWC)
31 Why are modern aircraft fitted with printers?
○ To print out ATC instructions should the radios fail
○ To provide the flight crew with a means to print out flight maps
○ To print faults recorded by CMC to aid in rectification
 11.1 Air supply (25)
1 An isolation valve on a bleed air supply system would normally be closed if
○ the APU is supplying bleed air
○ only one engine is supplying bleed air
○ both engines are supplying bleed air
2 The first component that the bleed air enters from the normal compressor bleed is
○ the pre-cooler
○ the bleed air PRSOV
○ the check valve
3 Cockpit ventilation is required to be
○ 10 litres per crew member per minute
○ selected by the crew
○ 10 cu./ft. per crew member per minute
Maintenance tasks to be carried out on the air supply system to the air conditioning unit can be
4
found in
○ Chapter 36 of the AMM
○ Chapter 26 of the AMM
○ Chapter 21 of the AMM
5 In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is
○ reasonably constant irrespective of altitude
○ variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin ‘rate of change’ selector
○ constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes
6 Ground supplied conditioned air is delivered to the aircraft
○ upstream of the air conditioning packs
○ downstream of the air conditioning packs
○ directly to the cabin zones
7 The most amount of excessive air is produced from a displacement (Roots) blower
○ at all altitudes
○ at high altitudes
○ at low altitudes
8 Engine bleed air duct leakage is detected by
○ pressure sensors in the engine pylons
○ temperature sensors in the engine pylons
○ flow sensors in the bleed ducts
9 On the ground, air supply into an air conditioning system can be from
○ main engine bleed, APU or Ground Pneumatic Cart
○ main engine bleed, APU, Ground Pneumatic Cart, ram air
○ main engine bleed, APU, Ground Pneumatic Cart or Ground Conditioned Air Cart
10 A spill valve opens
○ to control the air from the cabin to outside
○ to control the flow to the cabin
○ to prevent an excessive pressure difference
What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon dioxide in occupied aircraft
11
compartment?
○ 0.005% (sea level equivalent)
○ 5% (sea level equivalent)
○ 0.5% (sea level equivalent)
12 An isolation valve on a bleed air supply system
○ controls the flow rate of bleed air into the respective air conditioning pack
 11.1 Air supply (25)
○ divides the bleed air into a left and right system
○ closes the bleed air from the engine
Flow multipliers used on air supply systems for the air conditioning system uses what for the
13
motive flow?
○ ram air
○ engine bleed air
○ fan air
14 Crew compartments must be supplied with air at a rate no less than
○ 0.2m3/hr
○ 0.5m3/min
○ 0.28m3/min
15 What is the purpose of the venturi on a Pack Valve?
○ To reduce the flow rate
○ To decrease the temperature of the bleed air
○ To measure the flow rate
What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in an occupied
16
aircraft compartment?
○ 0.02 % (200 p.p.m)
○ 0.005% (50 p.p.m)
○ 0.01 % (100 p.p.m)
17 Which pneumatic air source usually cannot be switched on/off in the flightdeck?
○ Ground Pneumatic Cart
○ APU
○ Ram Air
In an air-conditioning system which is supplied by bleed air, the warm air supply is provided by
18
○ an engine exhaust heat exchanger
○ the compressor of the gas turbine engine
○ the gas turbine exhaust
19 A pack valve controls
○ air temperature
○ air flow
○ trim air
20 A Pack Valve will switch into a HIGH flow rate
○ if both air conditioning packs are operating
○ if one air conditioning pack fails
○ at start-up of the air conditioning system
21 Maximum levels of contaminants in passenger and crew air are specified for
○ ozone, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
○ CFCs, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide
○ carbon monoxide only
22 A bleed air precooler uses what, as the cooling medium?
○ ram air
○ early stage compressor bleed air
○ fan air
23 The function of an air mass flow control valve (pack valve) is to
○ maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes
○ control the airflow out of the cabin
 11.1 Air supply (25)
○ ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded
What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of ozone in occupied aircraft
24
compartment?
○ 0·25 parts per million by volume, sea level equivalent, at any time above flight level 320; and 0·1 parts
per million by volume, sea level equivalent, time-weighted average during any 3-hour interval above
flight level 270.
○ 0·1 parts per million by volume, sea level equivalent, at any time above flight level 320; and 0·25 parts
per million by volume, sea level equivalent, time-weighted average during any 3-hour interval above
flight level 270.
○ 0.5% (sea level equivalent)
25 What is the chemical symbol for Ozone?
○ O3
○ O
○ O2
 11.2 Air Conditioning (43)
1 A water separator is located
○ downstream of heat exchanger
○ upstream of the turbine
○ downstream of turbine
2 Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM
○ will have decreased pressure and temperature
○ no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor
○ will have increased pressure and temperature
3 A combustion heater overheats duing flight.
○ It will automatically reset and automatically relight
○ It will automatically reset but pilot needs to relight
○ It cannot be relit until after aircraft has landed
4 The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
○ 40 feet per minute
○ 20 feet per minute
○ 120 feet per minute
5 Which of the following can be used on the ground?
○ Turbo compressor
○ Turbo brake
○ Turbo fan
6 If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will
○ not contaminate the air
○ contaminate the air
○ not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard
7 An advantage of using air cycle system over the vapour cycle system in aircraft is
○ less hazardous than vapour cycle system
○ weight reduction by avoiding big tanks carrying freon gas
○ both air conditioning and pressurization are obtained
8 The effective temperature of a cabin is given by
○ temperature only
○ temperature, humidity, thermal inertia and heat load
○ temperature and humidity
9 In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler
○ is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
○ cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
○ delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground
10 An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to
○ provide an emergency ram air supply
○ increase the air supply temperature
○ reduce the air supply temperature
11 In a bootstrap air conditioning system, the water separator is located
○ at the compressor
○ at the turbine inlet
○ downstream of the turbine
12 A cabin humidifier is operated
○ on the ground
○ at high altitudes
○ at low altitudes
 11.2 Air Conditioning (43)
13 When the refrigerant dissipates heat in a vapour cycle system
○ the liquid converts to a vapour
○ the vapour converts to a liquid
○ the liquid sublimates
14 An air cycle machine turbine
○ drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
○ drives compressor to increase temperature
○ drives compressor to decrease temperature
15 A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be
○ a little more than ambient air temperature
○ lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating
○ same as ambient temperature, despite compression heating
16 Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from
○ air supply heated by the pressurising process
○ only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies
○ driving the units compressor
17 The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than
○ 25 ft/min.
○ 300 ft/min.
○ 200 ft/min.
18 How does a combustion heater vary its temperature?
○ Switches fuel and ignition on and off as required
○ Decreases fuel when too hot
○ Increases fuel when too cold
19 Conditioned air is
○ moisture removed
○ temperature and pressure adjusted
○ oxygen added
20 When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use
○ ground trolley and clean air
○ a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination
○ the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system
21 In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the
○ flow control valve
○ TCV and mixer valve
○ TCV
22 The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by
○ air bled from the main cabin supply duct
○ engine bleed air or blower air
○ ambient ram air
23 In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from
○ gas turbine compressor bleed air
○ ram air at the wing leading edge
○ gas turbine intake ram air
24 In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to
○ ensure conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure
○ ensure conditioned air is distributed
○ ensure positive duct pressure is maintained
 11.2 Air Conditioning (43)
25 Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?
○ At the inlet of the turbine
○ At the inlet of the compressor
○ At the outlet of the compressor
26 A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by
○ air supply to the cabin
○ directing compressed air into a heat exchanger
○ expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor
27 The thermostatic valve sensing bulb is located just before
○ the condenser
○ the compressor
○ the evaporator
28 The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at
○ 18ºC to 24ºC
○ 12ºC to 18ºC
○ 20ºC to 24ºC
In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions
29
○ 60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air
○ 50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air
○ 40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air
30 One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is
○ by compression of ambient air across a turbine
○ conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
○ by surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
31 In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by
○ restricting compressor inlet
○ restricting compressor outlet
○ restricting duct outlets
32 The humidity within a passenger cabin should
○ not be greater than 40%
○ not be less than 60%
○ be between 30% and 70%
If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the temperature of the air at the outlet of the
33
ACM compressor will
○ remain the same
○ rise
○ fall
34 In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by
○ extracting heat from the pressurising air
○ adding heat to the pressurising air
○ varying cabin pressure
35 Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?
○ Throttle switches
○ Undercarriage switches
○ Flap position switches
36 A refrigerant is used in which of the following?
○ Air cycle machine
 11.2 Air Conditioning (43)
○ Pneumatic pump
○ Vapour cycle
37 In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by
○ reducing the pressure of a vapour
○ changing a vapour into a liquid
○ changing a liquid into a vapour
38 A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
○ not affect the charge air pressure
○ increase the pressure but decrease the temperature
○ decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air
39 An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to
○ maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes
○ ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in
order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression
○ ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing the
fatigue life of the fuselage
40 International markings for air conditioning pipelines are
○ rectangles
○ triangles
○ dots
41 In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is
○ air bled directly from engine or through blower
○ bled from cabin air supply duct
○ ram air from ambient conditions
42 Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by
○ varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger
○ regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system
○ controlling the water vapour in the supply
43 The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of
○ 60 percent
○ 30 percent
○ 20 percent
 11.3 Pressurisation (59)
If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin
1
pressure differential is not exceeded
○ 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet
○ sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude
○ 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level
2 Cabin differential is determined only by
○ the selected cabin height
○ the height at which the aircraft is flying
○ the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height
3 Cabin rate of climb is shown by
○ a special instrument
○ warning lights
○ a double scale on the aircraft
4 If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the
○ discharge valve should be adjusted
○ outward relief valve is inoperative
○ pressure controller should be adjusted
5 Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a
○ cabin pressure gauge
○ cabin V.S.I.
○ cabin altimeter
6 When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained
○ all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere
○ constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin
○ the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced
7 Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of
○ inward relief valve position
○ cabin mass air flow
○ outflow valve position
8 Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is
○ most important in descent
○ equally important in descent and ascent
○ most important in ascent
9 When air is pressurized, the oxygen content
○ decreases
○ increases
○ remains constant
10 The cabin rate of climb is shown
○ by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator
○ as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used
○ on a specific indicator
11 On the ramp, the pre-cooler obtains its cooling action by
○ gas expansion
○ fan inducement
○ ram air
12 The cabin altitude is
○ the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure
○ the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
○ the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
13 As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
 11.3 Pressurisation (59)
○ decrease
○ increase
○ stay the same
An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is
14
2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be
○ 8.5 PSI
○ 11.4 PSI
○ 5.6 PSI
15 The pressure controller activates
○ the spill valve
○ the blower or compressor
○ the cabin discharge valve
16 Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to
○ set QFE
○ disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
○ reset/disable the pressure controller
17 Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by
○ regulating the mass flow into the cabin
○ regulating the position of the inward relief valve
○ regulating the position of the outflow valve
18 A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is
○ 300 ft. per min.
○ 100 ft. per min.
○ 500 ft. per min.
19 The cabin Rate of Climb pressure controller controls
○ a pressure bleed to a capsule within the discharge valve
○ suction to a diaphragm in the pressure controller
○ pressure to a capsule in the pressure controller
20 A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce
○ the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system
○ the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system
○ engine noise coming through the ventilators
21 To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly
○ when cabin pressure is decreasing
○ during descent
○ during ascent
22 The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant
○ outlet and vary the inlet
○ inlet and vary the outlet
○ inlet and outlet
23 The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
○ the cabin pressure to increase
○ it will not effect on cabin pressure
○ the cabin pressure to decrease
If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches
24
overridden, then the outflow valve will normally
○ not operate
○ remain closed
○ open
25 The electrical spill-valve operates on signals from
 11.3 Pressurisation (59)
○ the venturi metering duct
○ the latching solenoid
○ the pressure controller
26 A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is
○ most undesirable because of the drag created
○ not effective in any way
○ most desirable because it increases the air-flow
27 If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft
○ cabin will not pressurise
○ cabin remains at sea level until maximum differential
○ maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off
28 In the flightdeck of an unpressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows
○ cabin pressure altitude
○ cabin differential pressure
○ aircraft altitude
If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the
29
cabin pressure would
○ decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
○ remain at ground level pressure
○ decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
30 The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
○ pressure controller/discharge valve combination
○ discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination
○ pressure controller/dump valve combination
31 Cabin differential pressure is the difference between
○ I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude
○ cabin pressure and ambient pressure
○ 8,000 ft and sea level
32 Before carrying out a ground pressure check,
○ check all pitot and static lines are fitted
○ set altimeter to QNH
○ turn on all instruments
When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may
33
be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent
○ inward relief valve operation
○ safety valve operation
○ pressure controller hunting
34 Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between
○ 8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
○ the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure
○ sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
35 During taxiing, the cabin pressure in a large aircraft is
○ below atmospheric pressure
○ at atmospheric pressure
○ above atmospheric pressure
36 Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?
○ No
○ Yes
○ Occasionally
37 Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by
 11.3 Pressurisation (59)
○ throttle microswitches
○ air/ground microswitches
○ flap microswitches
When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
38
○ all open
○ removed
○ all closed
39 During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down
○ aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens
○ outflow valve opens immediately
○ cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency
40 On touch-down of aircraft
○ the cabin pressure will be zero
○ the outflow valve will be shut
○ the outflow valve will be fully open
41 The cabin differential pressure is
○ the actual height of the aircraft above sea level
○ the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level
○ the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure
42 Rate of change of cabin pressure is
○ automatic
○ selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller
○ selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve
43 The principle of cabin pressurisation is
○ whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude
○ cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft
○ cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude
44 If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show
○ a rate of climb
○ a rate of descent
○ zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits
With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the
45
differential capsule in the pressure controller will
○ let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
○ let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
○ have a constant mass flow
46 Cabin pressure is normally controlled by the rate of
○ air discharge
○ air supply
○ climb or decent
47 When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the
○ discharge valve opens
○ discharge valve closes
○ mass flow ceases through the cabin
48 The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control
○ cabin differential pressure
○ cabin air flow
○ the rate of pressurisation
49 Cabin pressure is maintained by
 11.3 Pressurisation (59)
○ controlling the supply of air to the cabin
○ controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin
○ controlling the output of the compressor
50 The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by
○ the vent valves
○ the dump control valves
○ the outflow valves
51 When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for
○ pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure
○ constant mass flow
○ all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
52 Cabin outflow valves provide
○ outflow of cabin pressure and ventilation
○ outflow of cabin pressure and pressure warning
○ cabin positive pressure and negative (suction) pressure
53 Pressurisation control ensures that
○ pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.
○ the cabin is always maintained at sea level
○ at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft
54 Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?
○ Pressure relief valve
○ Pressure discharge valve
○ Pressure regulator controller
55 Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the
○ altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft
○ pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions
○ altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure
56 A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to
○ collect any rain accompanying the ram air
○ extract surplus water from the charge air
○ extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere
57 A pressure controller
○ opens when pressure is high
○ directs fluid to the discharge valve
○ controls the system pressure
58 If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that
○ the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached
○ the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.
○ sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin
59 During normal pressurized climb following take-off
○ the differential pressure is constant
○ the cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
○ the cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
 11.4 Safety and warning devices (16)

1 To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?

○ Closed
○ Both position
○ Open
2 Ditching control is used for
○ rapid aircraft depressurisation
○ deploying life rafts
○ closing all valves and inlets
3 A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by
○ cabin over pressure relief valve
○ bellows in the outflow valve
○ altitude sensor
4 Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by
○ spill valves
○ cabin safety relief valves
○ inwards relief valve
5 A safety valve will normally relieve at
○ higher differential pressure than the discharge valve
○ negative differential pressure
○ lower differential pressure than the discharge valve
6 A negative differential pressure is prevented by
○ a spill valve
○ a blow off valve
○ an inward relief valve
7 Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft
○ to achieve maximum pressure differential
○ to allow controlled pressure during descent
○ to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater
8 Inward vent valves are fitted to
○ increase ventilation
○ limit negative differentials
○ limit positive differentials
9 Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting
○ airport altitude selectors
○ inwards relief valves
○ safety relief valve
10 Ditching control is used to
○ achieve rapid depressurisation
○ close the outflow valves
○ maintain cabin pressure at sea level
An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an
11
aircraft is not subjected to
○ a high negative differential pressure
○ too high an internal pressure
○ forces which would cause the aircraft to explode
12 Inward vent valves will operate when
○ cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude
○ aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude
○ depressurising after descent
 11.4 Safety and warning devices (16)
On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is the
13
heater reset?
○ After it cools the pilot resets
○ On ground only by engineer
○ After cooling below 300°C it auto resets
14 Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding
○ 0.16 p.s.i.
○ 1.2 p.s.i.
○ 0.5 p.s.i.
15 If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum
○ compressor delivery is automatically boosted
○ a warning light comes on in the cockpit
○ an inward relief valve opens
16 The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of
○ +0.5 PSI
○ +9.25 PSI
○ -0.5 PSI
 12a Fire Protection(45)
1 Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
○ Freight holds, baggage compartments and equipment bays
○ Passenger cabins and integral fuel tanks
○ Main wheel bays and engine bays
2 A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a
○ class A compartment
○ class B compartment
○ class D compartment
3 What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high rate of discharge extinguishing system?

○ Nitrogen
○ Carbon dioxide
○ Hydrogen
4 A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class
○ C
○ A
○ D
5 A toilet is fitted with thermal protection
○ to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat
○ to protect against continuous flushing
○ to protect against freezing at altitude
6 What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?
○ Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
○ A continuity check
○ Bottles are fired
7 When the fire-handle is pulled, a
○ red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off
○ red warning light goes off. Generator goes offline
○ red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on
8 Toilet smoke detectors activate
○ a warning light and/or indication in cabin
○ an auto sprinkler system
○ an electric pump to auto vent smoke to atmosphere
9 A fire detection loop must be capable of
○ using master warning visual and aural signals
○ detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds
the condition is no longer present
○ using master warning visual signals only
10 Chemical fire extinguishers extinguish fires by
○ reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering it inert
○ cools the material on fire below ignition point
○ releases oxygen to extinguish the fire
11 You would expect to find a squib connected to
○ a fire suppression system
○ a fire detection system
○ a smoke detection system
12 The outside casing of a firewire has
 12a Fire Protection(45)
○ 115VDC potential above ground
○ 28VDC potential above ground
○ same potential as ground
13 A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is
because
○ of a high resistance fire wire
○ of a broken fire wire
○ there is a fire
14 In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?
○ Light in the cabin
○ Audible warning in the cabin
○ Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin
15 Toilet fire detection issues can be found in
○ AWN 80
○ AWN 83
○ CAAIPs
16 In the event of a fire being caused by the oxygen supply
○ a carbon dioxide extinguisher is used
○ a dry powder extinguisher is used
○ oxygen supply must be stopped
17 Engine fire bottle pressure at 70°F is
○ 1250 psi +/- 25
○ 1500 psi +/- 25
○ 600psi +/- 25
18 Lavatories must have, in the disposal container
○ Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged
○ Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
○ water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
19 What external warning is there for an APU fire?
○ Both aural and a red light
○ Red light
○ Aural
20 When testing a squib for insulation
○ test between individual pins and the case
○ short all pins together then test between them and the case
○ test between individual pins
21 After a fire detection system test, the red light remains ON. This indicates
○ a fire
○ high resistance
○ a short circuit
22 First digit number of halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers represents the number of

○ fluorine atoms
○ carbon atoms
○ chlorine atoms
23 Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to
○ 1500 psi
 12a Fire Protection(45)
○ 600 psi
○ 1250 psi
24 A capacitive fire wire
○ will neither work nor test if broken circuit
○ will work but not test if broken circuit
○ will work but not test if short circuited
25 A short circuit on a capacitive type fire detection element will result in
○ false alarm
○ red fire warning light
○ system does not work and no readings
26 A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
○ the system is protected
○ it is separated by steel
○ the system is duplicated
27 What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?

○ The firewire, sensor & controller

○ The outside of the firewire to earth
○ The firewire
28 Fireproofing of cabin material should be done
○ when a sample fails
○ every 5 years
○ every 2 years
29 A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
○ the system and the extinguishing system are the same
○ the system is different but the extinguishant is the same
○ the system is the same but the extinguishant is different
30 A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a
○ function check
○ continuity check
○ calibration check
31 A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses
○ nitrogen gas
○ oxygen gas
○ helium gas
32 In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is
applied?
○ Continuity
○ Capacitance increase
○ Pressure
33 On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning
○ goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off
○ stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line
○ goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line
34 In a capacitive fire detection system, if
○ there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory
○ there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory
 12a Fire Protection(45)
○ there is a break, the system will not work
35 In which of the following would you expect to find a smoke detector?
○ undercarriage bay
○ Battery bay
○ APU bay
36 When the fire handle is operated it
○ operates fire extinguisher only
○ cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power
○ cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers
37 Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by
○ DC
○ AC or DC
○ AC
38 Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out
○ only when equipment items fail random tests
○ every five years
○ every two years
39 When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out
○ a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning
○ it checks the integrity of the contacts
○ the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning
40 A fire detection system should be
○ designed to detect fires only
○ positioned in a location determined by the manufacture during the design
○ designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation
41 In a single continuous loop fire detector test
○ current is passed down the outer conductor
○ current is passed down the centre conductor
○ current is passed down the centre conductor and back along the casing to the controller
42 Smoke detectors consist of a
○ photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke
○ lamp detecting 2% smoke
○ photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke
43 Information on cabin furnishings fire protection requirements can be found in
○ CAP 747
○ BCAR Section L
○ CAAIPs
44 A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate
○ is a class A compartment
○ is a class C compartment
○ must be modified to a class C or E compartment
45 What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?

○ Integrity comparator
○ Volts drop
○ Dirty contacts
 12b Fire Protection(11)
1 An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?
○ Bottle is full
○ The bottle is still pressurized
○ Bottle is empty
2 What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?
○ 4 Methyl Bromide
○ 4 Fire Extinguishers
○ 3 BCF
3 A hand held fire extinguishers weight is stamped on the
○ support bracket
○ base of container
○ head
4 How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
○ 5
○ 8
○ 6
5 The weight of an extinguisher is stamped
○ on base of body
○ on head fitting
○ on bracket
6 Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
○ breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle
○ one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty
○ turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger
7 CO2 fire extinguishers are used on
○ engines only
○ all fires in fuselage
○ baggage holds only
8 Hand held fire extinguishers are weighed
○ every 5 years
○ in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule
○ every 24 months
9 How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?
○ Weighed
○ Check the tell-tale wire
○ Check the pressure
10 How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?
○ Every 5 years
○ Annually
○ Bi-annually
11 How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?
○ 6
○ 7
○ 5
 13 Fuel systems (46)

1 In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates

○ the tank does not pressurise
○ ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail
○ pump failure
2 Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with
○ two 28V DC motors
○ two single phase AC motors
○ two three-phase AC motors
3 A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a
○ seep
○ stain
○ run
4 To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up
○ cabin air is bled around the tank
○ a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted
○ ram air is circulated around the tank
5 In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place
○ the top of the tank
○ the bottom 2 inches of the tank
○ below the fungal colonies
6 The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they
○ use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight
○ are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel
○ are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain
7 A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to
○ prevent the dumping of the outer tanks
○ automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time
○ prevent the centre from being defuelled
8 The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is
○ to ensure that all available fuel can be used
○ to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently
○ to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination
9 When refuelling
○ it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
○ it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank
○ the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
10 Fuel crossfeed valves are operated by the
○ battery
○ 115 V AC
○ 28 V DC bus
Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted
11
with
○ Kerosene
○ Methylated Spirit
○ Water
12 When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment
○ it is added to the fuel and burnt
○ it is applied wet and flushed out
○ it is applied dry and left
13 Fuel systems that are interconnected must have
 13 Fuel systems (46)

○ no airspace
○ separate venting for each tank
○ air spaces interconnected
14 After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
○ tank outlet
○ engine inlet
○ tank shut-off valve point
15 A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
○ by internal cooling
○ by the fuel
○ by air
16 On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using
○ a separate system for each engine
○ the same system for each engine
○ a parallel system
17 When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show
○ green and in line
○ amber and in line
○ amber and cross line
18 How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?
○ By a gravity feed pump
○ By suction from the engine driven fuel pump
○ By a fuel boost pump
19 At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
○ NACA duct
○ self draining non-return valve
○ float valve
20 A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with
○ tanks completely full
○ tanks completely empty
○ tanks empty apart from unusable fuel
On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this could
21
be caused by
○ fuel leaking past the inlet screens
○ fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed
○ the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated
When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to
22
leaks?
○ Integral
○ Flexible
○ Rigid
23 Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from
○ left tank to right tank
○ tank to tank
○ any tank to any engine
24 A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in
○ the open position
○ its last position
○ the closed position
25 As fuel level increases, system capacitance
 13 Fuel systems (46)

○ decreases
○ increases
○ no change
26 To replace a water drain valve seal
○ the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced
○ the tank must be de-fuelled
○ the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks
27 To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank
○ the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible
○ the filler cap should be left open
○ the tank should be filled as full as possible
28 Integral fuel booster pumps
○ require no cooling
○ lets the fuel do the cooling
○ require ram air cooling
29 When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to
○ mechanical reversion
○ hard reversion
○ soft reversion
30 In a fuel system with interconnected vents
○ the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
○ the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
○ an expansion space is not required
31 Microbial growth is
○ red dots
○ green sludge
○ brown black slime
32 When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should
○ be full
○ have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out
○ be empty
33 Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by
○ bolts
○ press type rivets
○ contact adhesive
34 What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?
○ A nozzle
○ A corona device
○ An anti-corona device
35 The fuel surge tank
○ reduces wing bending moment
○ acts as a separate fuel supply tank
○ acts as a vent in the main tank
36 When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use
○ 30 V
○ 500 V
○ 250 V
37 If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
○ provide overflow facility to dump fuel
○ stop engine from using tank during transfer
 13 Fuel systems (46)

○ shut off fuel before structural damage

38 Fuel surge is prevented by
○ incorporation of an additional surge tank
○ having separate compartments within the tank
○ having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge
39 Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on
○ air or vapour systems
○ high pressure systems
○ low pressure systems
40 Fuel tanks interconnected must have
○ protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system
○ tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
○ vents to allow overfueling
41 Fuel tanks are numbered
○ aft to fwd
○ fwd to aft
○ right to left
42 A shroud vent and overboard drain would normally be found on
○ fuel tank vent pipes
○ the APU fuel feed
○ fuel jettison system
43 A fuel tank suction valve will open when
○ the engine driven pump fails
○ the booster pump fails
○ both the engine driven and booster pump fail
44 When refuelling, as the fuel level increases
○ capacitive reactance increases
○ capacitance increases
○ capacitance decreases
45 What happens to the capacitance in a fuel content probes as fuel is used?
○ Increases
○ Depends on altitude
○ Decreases
46 To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would
○ close the HP fuel lock
○ pull the fire handle
○ close the cross bleed valve
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)

1 Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in

○ alkalinity
○ viscosity
○ acidity
2 Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally
○ low pressure
○ double acting
○ single acting
3 In an open-centre hydraulic system, system pressure is provided
○ only when the selector valve is set to OFF
○ only when the selector valve is set to ON
○ continuously
4 Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from
○ a tap into a convenient return line
○ the bottom of the reservoir
○ a stack pipe higher than the normal level
5 A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of
○ natural rubber
○ butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
○ synthetic rubber
A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic
6
system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is
○ 3000 PSI
○ 4000 PSI
○ 1000 PSI
7 What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?
○ A hydraulic pump
○ A hydraulic motor
○ An actuating cylinder
8 Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?
○ In the pressure line
○ In the case drain
○ In the suction line
9 What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?
○ Variable swashplate pump
○ Reservoir, pump, selector valve, filter
○ Hydraulic oil accumulator
In a constant volume hydraulic EDP, the short shaft which engages with the engine gearbox would
10
have
○ an inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion
○ 2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section
○ 2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize
11 How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?
○ Pass through a restriction
○ Pass over a tray
○ Vent to atmosphere
12 An hydraulic closed system is one where
○ there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required
○ pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)
○ most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit
13 One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to
○ relieve excess pressure
○ minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
○ absorb pressure surges
14 Pressure relay valves are fitted
○ before a pressure sequence valve
○ before a pressure gauge
○ before a pressure relief valve
15 If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be
○ pump cavitation
○ rapid depressurisation of system
○ rapid fluctuations of instruments
16 An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with
○ pressures above 3000 PSI
○ a variable volume pump
○ a fixed volume pump
17 What is the colour of the band on a skydrol hydraulic seal?
○ Green
○ White
○ Yellow
18 Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the
○ relief valve
○ piston ram displacement
○ two NRVS fitted
19 When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?
○ When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available
○ When selected on
○ When selected off
20 During a leak test of a hydraulic system, system pressure
○ must be at maximum
○ is not important
○ must be minimum working
21 What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
○ An accumulator
○ An actuating cylinder
○ A hydraulic pump
22 In a closed-centre hydraulic system, the System Power Pack assembly is
○ the jack ram assembly
○ the whole hydraulic power system contained in a single unit
○ the hydraulic power generator
23 How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?
○ Pass over a tray
○ Vent Reservoir to atmosphere
○ By pressurising
24 What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?
○ Increase in fluid temperature
○ Fluid loss
○ Increase in fluid pressure
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)

25 Restrictor valves are fitted in hydraulic systems to

○ control rate of system operation
○ limit the maximum pressure
○ restrict the rate of pressure build-up
26 To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
○ pressure reducing valve is used
○ pressure relief valve is used
○ pressure regulating valve is used
27 When replenishing a hydraulic system
○ use the same/correct hydraulic fluid
○ use any hydraulic fluid
○ use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer
28 Mechanical sequence valves are operated by
○ the pilot
○ a striker pin
○ the operation of a NRV
29 Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems
○ store fluid under pressure
○ are only ever used in an emergency
○ provide additional fluid if leaks occur
30 A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system
○ relieve excessive pressure to return
○ to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator
○ to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure
31 The purpose of a non-return valve in a hydraulic system is to
○ restrict the movement of components
○ isolate one component from another
○ direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator
32 Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?
○ Natural Rubber
○ Butyl Rubber
○ Synthetic Rubber
33 A variable angled pump starts at
○ maximum stroke
○ minimum stroke
○ half way position
34 An automatic cut-out valve will
○ limit pump wear
○ raise fluid boiling point
○ prevent the hydraulic lock forming
35 Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
○ compressing the fluid in a reservoir
○ compressing the air charge in an accumulator
○ the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
36 A shuttle valve is used for
○ change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure
○ preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack
○ maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails
37 Hydraulic systems normally operate at
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)
○ 1800 PSI
○ 3000 PSI
○ 300 PSI
Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
38
○ Metering piston
○ Shutoff valve
○ Check valve
39 Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with
○ the same type of fluid as used in the system
○ any clean hydraulic fluid
○ methylated spirits
40 At maximum stroke, a hydraulic pump swash-plate is at
○ rest position
○ pulled-out position
○ neutral
The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under
41
pressure
○ expands in length and diameter
○ contracts in length and diameter
○ contracts in length and expands in diameter
42 A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:
○ Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Valve Block
○ Drive Shaft, variable Swash Plate and Cylinder Block
○ Drive Shaft, fixed Swash Plate and Cylinder Block
43 What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?
○ Increase alkalinity
○ Increase viscosity
○ Increase acidity
44 Constant delivery hydraulic pumps
○ require an automatic cut-out valve in the system
○ are self idling
○ require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system
45 The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an
○ accumulator and shuttle valve
○ accumulator and automatic cut-out valve
○ accumulator and relay valve
46 A RAT hydraulic pump is for
○ nose wheel steering
○ flying controls if hydraulic power lost
○ landing gear and auto-brake systems
47 When replacing a flexible pipe
○ use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
○ tighten only hand tight
○ do a bonding check
48 Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by
○ low accumulator pressure
○ moisture in the fluid
○ relief valve set too high
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)

49 A thermal relief valve is fitted to a hydraulic system to

○ prevent excess temperature
○ relieve excess pressure
○ prevent a leak back of pressure
50 Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to
○ maintain a constant fluid level
○ provide a reserve of stored energy
○ minimize the possibility of pump cavitation
51 A thermal relief valve
○ senses fluid pressure
○ provides cooling for the fluid
○ senses fluid temperature change
52 A maintainer valve in a hydraulic system will
○ maintain a high pressure to all systems
○ allow continued pressure to essential systems during times of reduced supply
○ dampen pressure inputs
A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being
53
used?
○ ACOV
○ Return line back to pump
○ Pressure relief valve
54 A marker number on a pipe indicates
○ the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe
○ the thickness of the wall on the pipe
○ the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run
55 An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?
○ Full pressure indicated
○ The cut-out valve chatters
○ Zero pressure indicated
56 When flushing hydraulic systems
○ flush with same hydraulic oil
○ flush with methylated spirit
○ flush with any hydraulic oil
57 A constant delivery pump has its output varied with
○ servo pressure
○ gears
○ regulators
58 The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of
○ brake anti-skid units
○ landing gear and doors
○ safety switches
59 How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?
○ Energised Open
○ Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection
○ Energised Closed for fail-safe
What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an open-center
60
hydraulic system?
○ An unloading valve
○ A bypass valve
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)
○ A selector valve
61 In an open-centre hydraulic system, selector valves are positioned
○ in parallel
○ either in series or in parallel depending on the system design
○ in series
62 A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is
○ de-energised to start the pump
○ energised to the run position
○ used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure
63 Restrictor valves in a hydraulic system are used to
○ control the rate of system operation
○ restrict the rate of pressure build up
○ limit the maximum pressure
64 Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator
○ the reservoir must be checked for correct level
○ all air must be bled from the system
○ the fluid pressure must be released
65 The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to
○ facilitate bleeding of the system
○ allow a full flow from the valve
○ prevent incorrect installation
66 The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to
○ pressure x stroke
○ area x volume
○ area x pressure
A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is
67
○ engine driven pump
○ selector
○ accumulator
68 A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents
○ pump cavitation
○ reverse flow
○ overpressure
69 In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use
○ any fluid of the same specific gravity
○ only the specified fluid
○ any hydraulic fluid available
70 To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures
○ a pressure regulating valve is used
○ a pressure relief valve is used
○ a pressure reducing valve is used
71 The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
○ IDG
○ angle of swashplate
○ restriction valve
72 When energised, a hydraulic de-pressurising solenoid
○ allows the pump to provide system pressure
○ stops system pressure
 14 Hydraulic Power (72)
○ stops the pump running
 15 Ice and Rain Protection (44)
1 Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from
○ engine compressors
○ a combustion heater
○ either engine compressors or a combustion heater
2 A pressure operated ice detector would
○ have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator
○ be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck
○
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck

3 The primary function of windshield electrical heating is

○ to prevent the formation of ice and mist
○ improve impact resistance of windscreen panel
○ prevent contraction at high altitude
4 How is rain repellent stored on an aircraft?
○ Reservoir, pressurised by the pneumatic system
○ Self pressurised container
○ Remote container
5 The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
○ more efficient
○ less of a fire hazard
○ aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
6 Windscreen heating is supplied from
○ DC generator, via a transformer
○ frequency wild generator, via a rectifier
○ frequency wild generator, direct to the windscreen
An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is
7
dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called
○ hoar Frost
○ glaze Ice
○ rime Ice
8 A hot detector rod detects
○ ice by accretion which overcomes the effect of the heating element, allowing a circuit contact to bring
the de-icing system online
○
ice by a pressure build-up on the detector head and a warning light is illuminated in the cockpit
○ ice accretion along the leading edge of the mast which can be seen by the flight crew
9 Details entered in the operational log regarding the De-Icing is
○ volume of fluid used
○ type of fluid used and its percentage dilution
○ area on which used
10 At what pressure and temperature is deice fluid applied?
○ 7°F at 100 PSI
○ 70°F at 10 PSI
○ 70°C at 100 PSI
11 On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is
○ independent on each side with different power sources
○ one system for both sides but with the same power source
 15 Ice and Rain Protection (44)
○ independent on each side but with the same power source
12 A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by
○ ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit
○ increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light
in the cockpit
○ decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light
in the cockpit
In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice
13
on a probe projected into the airstream?
○ Impingement method
○ Inferential method
○ Ice accretion method
14 A hot-rod ice detector is switched on
○ at all times
○ only when the ice conditions are forecast
○ only when the ice forms on the rod
15 When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
○ goes out immediately
○ goes out after one more cycle
○ goes out after a set period of time
16 The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system
○ Monel
○ stainless steel
○ nylon
17 Windshield heating provides
○ increases strength to resist cabin pressure
○ thermal expansion for a tighter fit
○ impact resistance enhancement
18 The flow rate of anti-icing fluid is determined
○ by flow control valve
○ by speed of pump
○ by flow control tubes
19 Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at
○ centre point of the blade
○ the shaft end
○ blade attachment end
20 Ice forms on an aircraft in flight by
○ kinetic heating of the aircraft melting ice crystals which then refreeze on the aircraft
○ latent heat of airframe melting ice crystals which then refreeze on the aircraft
○ supercooled water droplets undergo phase change
21 How does a pressure operated ice detector work?
○ Visual indication to pilot looking out of the window
○ completely covered in ice closes switch
○ Ice on the leading edge closes switch
22 Pneumatic rain removal systems
○ use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
 15 Ice and Rain Protection (44)
○ use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen
○ are not permitted on large transport aircraft
23 What is run-back ice?
○ Glaze ice
○ Rime ice
○ Gleam ice
24 The inflatable tube of the de-icer boots is made of
○ rubberised fabric
○ natural rubber
○ synthetic rubber
25 When should rain repellent be applied to a windscreen?
○ When windscreen is dry
○ When windscreen is either wet or dry
○ When windscreen is wet
26 What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?
○ With a spring tension scale
○ With a torque screwdriver and light thumb pressure
○ By measuring the maximum total angle of sweep
27 When testing windshield wipers, you should
○ use a continuous flow of water on the windshield
○ lift the wipers away from the windshield
○ operate them on a dry windshield
28 Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must
○ paint the surface
○ remove all paint
○ shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
29 The wing de-icing system (inflated rubber) is connected to a
○ spur pump
○ piston type pump
○ centrifugal pump
30 Ice formation on wings is due to
○ suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing
○ supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing
○ ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
31 The ice protection system that is manufactured on the aircraft skin is
○ overshoe
○ spraymat
○ heater mat
32 Windscreen autotransformers
○ are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions
○ step down voltage
○ step up voltage
33 Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must
○ paint the surface
○ shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
○ remove all paint
34 The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
 15 Ice and Rain Protection (44)
○ increase in drag
○ increase in weight
○ reduction in CLmax
35 Where does ice form on the aircraft?
○ Area with smaller curvature radius
○ Areas with larger curvature radius
○ Leading edges only
36 When testing pitot head heaters
○ they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability
○
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings
○ they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe
37 Windshield rain repellent is applied
○ when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured
○ when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
○ before rain and spread on window surface by wipers
38 De-misting of passenger windows is provided by
○ air from the cabin
○ an electrical heating element
○ sealed window
39 Window anti-icing supply is
○ AC or DC
○ DC
○ AC
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge
40
most critical?
○ The last part of the rotation
○ During climb with all engines operating
○ All phases of the take-off are equally critical
A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection
41
being made. The most probable cause would be
○ normal
○ a short circuit
○ an open circuit
42 When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to
○ use water as lubricant when operating
○ place soft cloth between blade and window
○ use slow wiper only
Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this change is more detrimental and
43
vulnerable to a
○ large object
○ small object
○ fast moving object
44 What are the chemicals used in modern chemical de-icing?
○ Isopropyl alcohol
○ Either Isopropyl alcohol or ethylene glycol
○ A mixture of ethylene glycol and alcohol
 16 Landing Gear (84)
1 On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
○ a faulty selector valve
○ a faulty actuator
○ gear lowered at too high an airspeed
2 A tyre blows a fusible plug. You would
○ just change the one with the blown plug
○ change all tyres on that truck
○ change the damaged one and the adjacent one
An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type
3
○ Direct Acting
○ Hydro Mechanical
○ Articulated
4 The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will
○ eliminate the need to check air pressure
○ melt at a specified elevated temperature
○ facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly
5 In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by
○ a retainer plate
○ bolts
○ a lock ring
6 Tubeless tyres are stored
○ vertically
○ horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top
○ at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
7 The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon
○ heat generated in operation of the system
○ the type of seal material
○ type of fluid most readily available
8 A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is
○ to indicate the position for tyre levers
○ to provide strength
○ to provide a wear indication
9 Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by
○ rudder pedals
○ the control column
○ a separate pilot operated control
10 Brake temperature readings provide
○ coloured indications on a CRT display
○ separate brake indicator gauge indications
○ master and caution warning
11 A modulator is fitted in conjunction with
○ brake control valves
○ non-return valve
○ anti-skid units
12 A Maxaret is used in what system?
○ Tyre inflation
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ Self centring landing gear
○ Skid control
13 What should be done if a tyre has creeped round the hub?
○ Remove from the hub for inspection
○ Remove tyre, reposition, then re-inflate
○ Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep
14 Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored
○ horizontally
○ in the manufactures boxes
○ vertically
15 What is tyre creep related to?
○ Horizontal movement of the tyre
○ Tyre moving around the wheel
○ Vertical movement of the tyre
16 These markings are found on a tyre
○ 32 x 10.45 R 14.
○ What does the number 32 mean?
○ Outer diameter
○ Inner diameter
○ width
17 If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is
○ normal
○ due to excessive charging pressure
○ caused by a leaky seal
18 On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?
○ Front of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
○ Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
○ Top of wheels closer to fuselage centreline
19 With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will
○ assist the wheel to castor
○ allow the wheel to shimmy
○ keep the wheel in track
20 Spongy brakes are usually a result of
○ internal leakage
○ air in the system
○ external leakage
21 How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?
○ 5% by pressure
○ 5% by volume
○ 15% by volume
22 The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to
○ restrict the compression of the air
○ separate the oil from the air
○ permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension
The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land.
23
The most likely reason for this warning is
○ the rate of descent is too high
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ the landing gear is not locked down
○ the airspeed is too high
24 A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have
○ a plain tread
○ twin contact
○ water dispersing treads
25 A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
○ produce a loss of fluid
○ be serviceable, and provide better grip
○ wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
26 Anti-skid systems become deactivated at
○ 10-15 mph
○ 15-20 mph
○ 5-10 mph
27 When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
○ Separator plate stuck open
○ The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
○ Leaking air/oil seals
28 At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?
○ 200°C
○ 250°C
○ 150°C
29 To check if a landing gear leg requires servicing
○ The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension
○ The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load
○ The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked
against a chart in the AMM
30 To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
○ castoring damper is used
○ hop damper is used
○ snubber is used
31 On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the
○ front of the wheels are closer together
○ bottom of the wheels are closer together
○ top of the wheels are closer together
32 On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to
○ prevent skidding
○ absorb increased landing shock
○ spread the weight over a large area
33 A tyre valve cap is used to
○ secure the valve by screwing up to the valve base
○ secure the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel
○ prevent a leak
34 A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents
○ military reference
○ breather points
○ the light part of the tyre
 16 Landing Gear (84)
35 A tyre has the specification 32 x 10.75 - 14.
○ What does the 32 refer to?
○ Tread width
○ Bead diameter
○ Overall diameter
36 A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
○ Overall diameter
○ Section Width
○ Bead diameter
A flat spot can occur in aircraft tyres after prolonged standing in one position. This can be
37
rectified by
○ slight hammering on the flat spot
○ re-pressurizing the tyre
○ towing the aircraft fore and aft
38 A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate
○ light spot
○ heavy spot
○ balance indicator
When the parking brake lever is moved to the PARKED position. The accumulator indicator
39
○ will have no change in pressure
○ should show the full pressure
○ will show half pressure
40 On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by
○ measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released
○ using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate
○ application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion
41 When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be
○ set OFF (released)
○ set ON (applied)
○ disconnected first
42 Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to
○ the top of the tie bar
○ the base of the tie bar
○ 1 mm from the rib base
Which of the following is used to prevent a tyre bursting due to overheat during severe braking?
43
○ Fusible plug
○ Temperature probe
○ Over-inflation valve
44 Tubed tyres are stored
○
horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points
○ horizontally, up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top
○ horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads
45 Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?
○ There is no fault. Anti-skid system is disabled at low speed
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ Anti-skid system is unserviceable
○ Faulty wheel speed transducer
46 Fuse plugs in aircraft wheels are
○ to deflate the tyre before removal
○ for tyre overtemperature protection
○ for tyre overpressure protection
47 When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows
○ no indication
○ red light
○ green light
48 How is a wheel and tyre assembly stored?
○ Inflated to 20-30 PSI
○ Three quarters of full pressure
○ With full pressure
49 In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay
○ is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure
○ is not pressurized
○ is subject to cabin pressure
50 A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means
○ military reference
○ the light part of the tyre
○ breather points
51 On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
○ an argon and CO2 mixture
○ nitrogen
○ nitrogen and not more than 5% of oxygen
52 If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position
○ emergency braking will not be available
○ neither system will be available
○ normal braking will not be available
53 When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
○ a leaky selector valve
○ the emergency system
○ a stuck relief valve
54 When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned
○ opposite the charging valve
○ adjacent to the charging valve
○ on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve
55 Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems
○
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
○ to ensure the aircraft is still rolling
○ to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped
56 Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the
○ wheel hub
○ brake drum
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ wheel flange
57 The anti-skid ARMED signal comes from
○ landing gear down and locked signal
○ wheel speed transducers
○ a switch in the cockpit
58 Landing gear comes down and goes up again. A likely cause is
○ leak in selector valve
○ leak in reservoir
○ leak in actuating cylinder
The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most
59
probable fault is
○ the landing gear down microswitch needs adjusting
○ there is a short circuit in the microswitch
○ the landing gear up microswitch needs adjusting
60 A restrictor valve can be used
○ to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
○ to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
○ to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction
61 During heavy braking, the anti-skid system
○ sends maximum fluid for braking
○ has a controlling effect on the go-around sensor
○ stops hydraulic fluid going to the strut
A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the
62
○ return line from the landing gear selector
○ landing gear down line
○ landing gear up line
The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft normally
63
comes from
○ the landing gear down line
○ an independent hydraulic system
○ the landing gear up line
64 The drag strut in the main landing gear is fitted to absorb
○ cross-wind loads on landing
○ turning loads while taxiing
○ braking and take-off acceleration loads
65 In an anti-skid system
○ brakes release on rising torque
○ brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking
○ brakes release on falling torque
After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible
66
causes are
○ shorted sensor
○ out of adjustment sensor
○ wiring problem
67 The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is
○ 9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ 8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar
○ 8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi
68 The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to
○ damp the rebound
○ absorb the landing shock
○ ensure the separator does not bottom
69 Brake deboosters
○ reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
○ assist the operation of the anti-skid unit
○ increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes
70 Vents holes are found on
○ tubeless tyres
○ tubed tyres
○ tubed and tubeless tyres
71 A restrictor valve
○ may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
○ speed up the flow in one direction
○ restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
72 A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents
○ over inflation of tyres during servicing
○ brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures
○ tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking
73 If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is
○ loss of pressure/leakage
○ oil level too high
○ nitrogen pressure too high
74 When checking for alignment of a MLG, check
○ symmetry, tracking, camber
○ symmetry, twist, tracking
○ symmetry, splay, tracking
75 A brake debooster valve is provided for
○ applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly
○ increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly
○ decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
76 What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?
○ Neither, any oil can be used
○ The material of the leg
○ The types of seals the leg uses
77 Made up wheels should be stored
○ horizontal no more than 4 high
○ vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
○ vertical at working pressure
78 Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?
○ To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection
○ To reduce vibration and shimmy
○ To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection
79 Tyre creep could be caused by
 16 Landing Gear (84)
○ overpressure
○ under pressure
○ excessive wear
80 Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in
○ preventing nose wheel shimmy
○ deflecting water away from rear mounted engines
○ preventing aquaplaning
81 Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of
○ under-inflation
○ excessive toe-in
○ over-inflation
82 When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
○ heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch
○ carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem
○ wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation
83 Anti skid
○ applies wheel torque at point of maximum efficiency
○ moderates braking with increasing wheel torque
○ is a 3-option system
84 The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is
○ part of the shimmy damper
○ to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction
○ for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension
 17 Oxygen (67)

1 When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is

○ passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
○ passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
○ passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient
2 How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?
○ Audible warning
○ Red rupturing disc
○ Green rupturing disc
3 Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted
○ white with a black collar
○ black with a white collar
○ black
4 A thermal compensator is used in
○ an oxygen system
○ a fuel system
○ an hydraulic system
5 Lubricate oxygen connector threads using
○ hellerene
○ WD40
○ Teflon tape
6 The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates
○ temperature
○ purity
○ pressure
7 A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least
○ 15 minutes
○ 30 minutes
○ 5 minutes
8 Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be
○ turned on and safety wire-locked
○ turned on by crew
○ turned off
9 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
○ Breathing regulator
○ Temperature compensator
○ Supernumerator regular
10 Oxygen bottle capacity varies between
○ 200 - 2250 litres
○ 100 - 3200 litres
○ 80 - 2250 litres
11 Which connector has a left hand thread?
○ O2
○ Freon
○ N2
12 If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system
○ Teflon tape may be used
○ no lubricant may be used whatsoever
○ distilled water may be used sparingly
 17 Oxygen (67)

13 In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in
○ 100% oxygen at positive pressure
○ 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales
○ 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
14 A typical oxygen generator comprises of
○ sodium nitrate and iron powder, and generates oxygen when exposed to air
○ aluminium oxide and appropriate fuel. detonation and air
○ sodium chlorate and iron powder and generates oxygen when burned
15 Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested
○ every 3 years
○ every 6 years
○ every 4 years
16 The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be
○ applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
○ applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
○ applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
17 The oxygen masks for the passengers drop down by
○ manual selection from cockpit
○ automatically by an altitude switch
○ manual selection from cockpit and automatically by an altitude switch
18 In a diluter demand oxygen system
○ each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
○ oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
○ each member of the crew has a regulator
19 Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with
○ a demand regulator
○ an over temperature indicator
○ an overpressure indicator
20 Oxygen purging is a process of
○ measuring the flow rate from the regulator
○ removing moisture from the system
○ pressure testing the system
21 After charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?
○ In the mask
○ In the pressure gauge
○ In the temperature compensator
In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
22
○ traces of oils or greases
○ magnesium particles
○ acrylic based plastic materials
23 The dilutor demand regulator functions
○ all the time
○ only when the supply valve is opened by the user
○ when the user breathes in
24 Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders
○ is relieved by under pressurising the bottle
○ is relieved by a bursting disc
○ is relieved by a thermostat
 17 Oxygen (67)

25 Oxygen cylinder test dates

○ are painted in white on the cylinder
○ may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder
○ are variable depending on discharge
26 When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
○ passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
○ passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient
○ passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
27 The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated
○ by an arrow
○ by visual inspection
○ by colour coding
28 In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied
○ only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
○ when the mask is plugged into the socket
○ on passenger inhaling into the mask
29 What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
○ The whims of the aircraft designer
○ The length of the pipe runs
○ The pressure used in the system
30 Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to
○ 1,800 p.s.i.
○ 2,000 p.s.i.
○ 1,200 p.s.i.
31 Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when
○ the user breathes in
○ 100% is selected
○ less than 500 psi is in bottle
32 A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for
○ changes in altitude
○ additional flightcrew
○ extra supply in case of emergency
33 What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?
○ 1800 PSI
○ 300 PSI
○ 3000 PSI
34 A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is
○ grease free medical soap
○ leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B
○ soapy water
35 How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?
○ By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint
○ The indicator pin would be protruding
○ A pressure seal would be broken
36 Oxygen bottles should not be left with less than 500 psi pressure because
○ it can cause corrosion within the bottle
○ it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance
○ the oxygen becomes tainted causing anoxia
 17 Oxygen (67)

37 The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately

○ 25,000 ft
○ 38,000 ft
○ 4,000 ft
38 A dual demand regulator in oxygen system is for
○ allowing two people to breathe from one cylinder
○ fitting to either gaseous or chemical oxygen cylinders
○ altitude selection
39 Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with
○ temperature gauge
○ pressure and quantity gauges
○ oxygen purity gauge
40 When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system
○ oil must not come into contact with the system
○ the area must be well ventilated
○ no electrical power must be used
41 The oxygen line service valve must be
○ wire locked closed
○ only be wire locked with telltale wire
○ wire locked open
42 How would you identify an American oxygen bottle?
○ It is white with green wording
○ It is green
○ It is painted the same colour as a British oxygen bottle (black)
43 Anoxia is due to
○ lack of oxygen
○ low air pressure on the body
○ release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
44 If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?
○ Breathing mask
○ Thermal Relief Valve
○ Loose connection
45 Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes
○ below 40,000 ft.
○ above 30,000 ft.
○ above 40,000 ft.
46 If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be
○ at or below 8,000 ft.
○ below 10,000 ft.
○ at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
47 A discharged chemical generator is indicated by
○ a change in colour
○ a broken tell-tale wire
○ a protruding pin
48 Oxygen filters are made of
○ carbon fibres
○ steel wool
○ sintered bronze
 17 Oxygen (67)

49 Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above

○ 10,000ft
○ 8,000ft
○ 4,000 ft
50 As the cabin altitude reaches 4572 metres
○ the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended
○ the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel
○ the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit
51 To purge an unpleasant odour/moisture from an oxygen system, you must
○ completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times
○ completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times
○ completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times
52 Rate of flow of oxygen is given in
○ litres/minute
○ pounds/minute
○ litres/pounds
53 When charging an oxygen bottle in situ
○ charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph
○ charge slowly through a water trap
○ slacken off the retaining straps first
54 What is the principle of an O2 generator?
○ Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
○ Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
○ Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
55 A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens
○ when breathing
○ when 100% selected
○ all the time
56 The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of
○ aluminium
○ alloy steel
○ stainless steel
57 If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft
○ attendant must drop masks
○ masks drop automatically
○ passenger must get mask from overhead stowage
58 To measure moisture in an oxygen system use
○ a glass plate
○ a hygrometer using the dew point method
○ litmus paper
59 To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder
○ cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i.
○ cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.
○ cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
60 To check an oxygen system for moisture
○ a sniff test is used
○ pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass
○ a hygrometer is used
 17 Oxygen (67)

61 Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?

○ Line valve
○ Shut-off valve
○ Charging connection
62 A chemical oxygen generator delivers oxygen at
○ 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes
○ 45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes
○ 45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes
How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads should
63
have no tape?
○ 2 turns except first thread
○ 1 turn except first thread
○ 2 turns except first 2 threads
64 The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of
○ dots
○ rectangles
○ diamonds
65 Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found
○ stamped on the neck ring
○ stamped on a metal label
○ stencilled on the bottle
66 High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of
○ aluminium alloy
○ titanium
○ stainless steel
67 American made crew oxygen cylinders are
○ black in colour with a RH thread
○ green in colour with a LH thread
○ green in colour with a RH thread
 18 PneumaticVacuum (14)

1 On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of
time, the system would
○ lose pneumatic pressure partially
○ lose pressure from the compressor side only
○ lose all pressure
2 What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?
○ Spur gear type
○ Positive displacement type
○ Rotary vane type
3 If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
○ between the compressor and the PRV
○ all the system
○ just the moisture trap
4 The pneumatic system pump is a
○ rotor vane type
○ centrifugal type
○ piston type
5 High pressure pneumatic pump is a
○ spur gear
○ reciprocating pump
○ butterfly pump
6 What is the safety valve for in a pneumatic system?
○ To prevent high pressure which may cause damage
○ To prevent an over-temperature
○ To stop the regulator dumping if at low pressure
7 When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps
○ the system between compressor and regulator valve
○ just the moisture trap
○ the whole system
8 A silica gel desiccant is required to be replaced
○ when half pink and half blue
○ when all pink
○ when all blue
9 What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?
○ It must be filtered
○ It must be temperature controlled
○ It must be pressure controlled
10 Why must filters in a vacuum gyro system be regularly serviced and replaced?
○
Because silica gel core of the filters becomes saturated with moisture and no longer dehumidify the instrument air
○ Because the filters are designed to pass specific volume of air thereby regulating gyro rotor speeds
○ Because any dirt of dust entering the gyro rotor bearings will dramatically shorten its serviceable life
11 Two compressors driven by separate engines use
○ PRVs
○ Interconnected to share loads
○ NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
12 High pressure pneumatic source is a
○ reciprocating pump
○ centrifugal Compressor
○ butterfly pump
 18 PneumaticVacuum (14)

○ One of the main differences between pneumatic and hydraulic systems is that pneumatic systems
○ need no return line
○ produce higher power
○ use a motor-operated pump
○ In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to
○ non-essential equipment
○ all equipment
○ essential equipment
 19 WaterWaste (10)
1 Toilets are the subject of
○ AWN 83
○ AWN 80
○ AWN 79
2 The potable water is delivered to the galleys and toilets by
○ pneumatic pressure
○ electrical pump
○ gravity
3 What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?
○ Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard
○ Prevent toilet freezing
○ Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable
4 The process of hyperchlorination is to
○ decontaminate the potable system
○ fill the tank with potable water
○ decontaminate the soil tank
5 The heater used on a drain mast would be a
○ induction heater
○ hot air blower
○ ribbon heater
6 The centralised soil tank system is flushed by
○ recycled soil water
○ potable water
○ racasan
7 Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by
○ installation of neoprene foam insulation
○ wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons
○ placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping
8 Waste water drain masts
○ are heated using low amperage in the air and on ground
○ are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only
○ are not heated
9 Toilet waste valves are
○ not spring loaded
○ spring loaded closed
○ spring loaded open
10 Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by
○ cooling fan on timer switch
○ water cooling
○ thermal protection
20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
 20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
1 In the event of multiple AFDX switch losses on one of the ADCN networks,
○ there is a functional effect on the aircraft systems, and this is a no-go failure
○ there is no functional effect on the aircraft systems, but this is a no-go failure
○ there will be no aircraft systems effect due to the redundant duplication of networks is the
ADCN, and the aircraft can be dispatched
An active AFDX subscriber, connected to an AFDX Network to communicate with other
2
subscribers respecting AFDX rules is called
○ a network hub
○ an End System
○ a network terminal
3 A virtual Link's Bandwidth Allocation Gap consists of
○ maximum frame time and minimum time between transmission
○ maximum frame size only
○ maximum time between transmissions
4 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) is based on the
○ IEEE 802.11 Wireless Networking specification
○ IEEE 802.3 Ethernet specification
○ ARINC 429 specification
5 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) data rates are
○ 10 or 100 Mbps
○ 100 kbps
○ 12-14.5 Kbps
The defined standard for deterministic data transfers in a network for safety-critical
6
IMA applications is
○ ARINC 429
○ ARINC 629
○ ARINC 664
7 An Integrated Modular Avionic system utilizes
○ a federated architecture
○ an ethernet network
○ ARINC 429 backplane
8 A CPIOM which is designated as Monitor (MON) performs
○ system tests when requested by maintenance crew
○ monitoring and testing on the Primary lane and will switch to Command (COM) if the health
of the Primary lane deteriorates
○ monitoring and testing on the aircraft system and will issue cautions and warnings to the flight
crew if a fault is found
A Core Processing Input/Output Module (CPIOM) communicates with the ADCN via its
9
○ Input/Output boards
○ Ethernet connector cards
○ AFDX End System board
10 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) uses
○ a bus topology network
○ a ring topology network
○ a star topology network
 20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
A deterministic ADN used on a certified integrated modular avionic system must have a
11
Bit Error Rate (BER) of no more than
○ 1 in 10-9
○ 1 in 10-6
○ 1 in 10-12
12 The purpose of an Input/Output Module (IOM) is to
○ store configuration tables for the CPIOMs
○ host avionics applications
○ convert the aircraft system data sent and received by LRUs directly connected to them from
non-AFDX into AFDX format and vice versa
13 A data frame on an ethernet system contains
○ source address only
○ destination address only
○ both source and destination addresses
14 A Controller Area Network (CAN) bus transmits at data rates up to
○ 125 Kb/sec for cable lengths up to 40 metres
○ 1 Mb/sec for cable lengths up to 40 metres
○ 1 Mb/sec for cable lengths up to 500 metres
An avionic structure that has major functions (e.g., flight management, communications
management, analogue signal consolidation and conversion to digital data, etc.)
15 implemented in LRUs that interchange information over digital databuses is known as

○ a federated architectural system

○ a wireless network system
○ an ethernet technology
16 Core Processing Input/Output Modules (CPIOMs) are
○ interchangeable, without the need for software reconfiguration
○ never interchangeable
○ interchangeable but may require software reconfiguration
17 A Virtual Link in an ADCN is
○ bi-directional, half duplex
○ unidirectional
○ bi-directional, full duplex
18 In the event of a single AFDX switch loss,
○ there will be no aircraft systems effect due to the redundant duplication of networks is the
ADCN
○ always an aircraft systems effect
○ there may be and aircraft systems effect as it depends on the criticality of the data being
transmitted
19 Conventional LRUs which do not have AFDX capability
○ connected to an IMA line replaceable module via the Avionics Data Communication Network
(ADCN)
○ cannot be connected to an IMA line replaceable module
○ can be connected to an IMA line replaceable module only by direct wire connection
20 Core Processing Input/Output Modules (CPIOMs) are powered by
○ 26 VAC
 20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
○ 114 VAC
○ 28 VDC
21 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX)
○ must never utilize commercial off-the-shelf hardware
○ utilizes commercial off-the-shelf hardware
○ utilizes commercial off-the-shelf hardware only where used on non-critical applications
22 A loss of multiple non-mirrored Input/Output Modules (IOM)
○ may have an aircraft systems effect depending on the applications hosted
○ will have no aircraft systems effect
○ will always have an aircraft systems effect
23 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) uses
○ either copper or fibre optic transmission medium
○ only fibre optic transmission medium
○ only copper transmission medium
24 In an ARINC 653 certified IMA system,
○ it is not permitted to add software such as health monitoring or mission support functions
within new ARINC 653 partitions that may not be certified to the same level as flight critical
functions
○ it is only permissible to add software such as health monitoring or mission support functions
within new ARINC 653 partitions that may not be certified to the same level as flight critical
functions, if partition software guarantees separation.
○ it is permitted to add software such as health monitoring or mission support functions within
new ARINC 653 partitions that may not be certified to the same level as flight critical
functions
The various CPIOMs used in an Integrated Modular Avionics system differ in respect to
25
their
○ input/output cards only
○ memory and power supply cards and input/output cards
○ memory and power supply cards only
On an Integrated Control Panel (ICP) which uses a Controller Area Network (CAN) bus,
26
such as a cockpit overhead control panel, the CAN controller is
○ integral with the panel
○ incorporated into the radio system control panel
○ located in the avionics compartment
27 An Avionics Data Communication Network (ADCN) uses
○ two parallel identical networks, one is active, and the other in standby mode
○ two active parallel identical networks
○ a single network of switches, each switch in the network is duplicated
28 The Common Remote Data Concentrators
○ store data from LRUs and sensors for maintenance analysis
○ collect, convert and exchange data between only the ADCN and LRUs that have AFDX
technology
○ collect, convert and exchange data between the ADCN and LRUs that do not have AFDX
technology
What software in a Core Processing Input/Output Module (CPIOM) is Field Loadable?
29
○ The Avionics Applications only
 20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
○ Module software (core and configuration table software) only
○ Module software (core and configuration table software) and Avionics Applications
30 AFDX switches are
○ always interchangeable without further software configuration
○ not interchangeable
○ interchangeable but may require software reconfiguration
31 In the event of multiple AFDX switch losses on both of the ADCN networks,
○ there is no functional effect on the aircraft systems, but this is a no-go failure
○ there is a functional effect on the aircraft systems, and this will trigger the Master Caution, and
is a no-go failure
○ there will be no aircraft systems effect due to the redundant duplication of networks is the
ADCN, and the aircraft can be dispatched
32 AFDX switches contain what software?
○ Operational Program software and Configuration Table software
○ Configuration Table software only
○ Operational Program software only
33 An Input/Output Module (IOM)
○ each hosts just one avionics application
○ never hosts avionics applications
○ each hosts several avionics application
The technology used in an integrated modular avionics system to provide the necessary
34
standard of Avionics Data Communication Network (ADCN) is called
○ TCP/IP Ethernet
○ Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX)
○ 10BaseT Ethernet
Deterministic performance of an Ethernet system used for an integrated modular avionic
35
system network, is provided
○ by use of Virtual Links within the Ethernet network system
○ is not possible with Ethernet network systems and requires ARINC 429 or ARINC 629 databus
backup on safety critical systems
○
in the standard IEEE 802.3 commercial off-the-shelf systems with no modification required

36 In an IMA system, software is upgraded

○ without the need to upgrade the hardware
○ then the hardware also needs to be upgraded
○ only on non-safety-critical systems
37 A loss of multiple mirrored Input/Output Modules (IOM)
○ will have no aircraft systems effect
○ may have an aircraft systems effect depending on the applications hosted
○ will always have an aircraft systems effect and will trigger the Master Caution
38 An Integrated Modular Avionics system utilizes
○ a virtual backplane communication system
○ a wireless communication system
○ a point-to-point interconnection system
Differences between Core Processing Input/Output Modules (CPIOMs) are determined
39
by
○ the memory and CPU requirements
 20 Integrated Modular Avionics (45)
○ the types of applications loaded onto them
○ the type of system the computer interfaces with
40 A Controller Area Network (CAN) bus is a
○ parallel communications protocol
○ serial communications protocol
○ either a serial or parallel communications protocol depending on application
41 A Controller Area Network (CAN) bus requires
○ no host computer
○ two computers and at least one Ethernet switch
○ a host computer
42 The Mirror Input/Output Module (IOM) principle ensures
○ a malfunction of any single IOM does not cause loss of transmitted data
○ after failure of one IOM, any other IOM can fulfil its function
○ that redundant messages are generated and sent
43 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) is
○ half duplex
○ dual layer - half duplex
○ full duplex
44 A loss of a single Input/Output Module (IOM)
○ may have an aircraft systems effect depending on the applications hosted
○ will always have an aircraft systems effect
○ will have no aircraft systems effect
Reliability of data transfer via Avionics Full-Duplex Switched Ethernet (AFDX) is
45
guaranteed by the use of
○ dual redundant channels
○ virtual links
○ ARINC 429 backup
 21 cabin Systems (40)

1 Various indicating functions for the cabin systems are achieved via the
○ Flight Attendant Panels within the cabin
○ Purser station printers
○ Directors
Loudspeaker level adjustment for announcement and chimes from the Cabin Intercommunication
2
Data System (CIDS) can be adjusted
○ in flight only
○ either on the ground or in flight
○ on the ground only
If additional Multi-Purpose Flight Attendant Panels (FAPs) need to be fitted in a Cabin System, they
3
are
○ switch wired to the ADCN system
○ each hot-wired by data bus to the CIDS Directors
○ daisy chain connected to the existing FAPs
4 Cabin surveillance video is displayed
○ both in the cockpit (on the cockpit Control and Display System displays), and also in the cabin (on
designated FAPs)
○ in the cockpit (on the cockpit Control and Display System displays) only
○ in the cabin (on designated FAPs) only
If the Emergency Evacuation Command button is operated in the cockpit, it can be cancelled (reset)
5
○ only by the cabin crew at the cabin crew stations
○ only by the flight crew in the cockpit
○ either by the cabin crew at the cabin crew stations or the flight crew in the cockpit
6 The Service Interphone system
○ allows the communication via telephone between all attendant stations and between the attendant stations
and the cockpit
○ allows the communication via telephone between the ground crew, the cockpit crew and the cabin crew
when the aircraft is on the ground
○ distributes announcements from the cockpit and each attendant station through all assigned passenger
loudspeakers
7 The Landscape Camera System can be deactivated, remotely from the camera module,
○ from the Flight Attendant Panels (FAPs)
○ from a switch located on the exterior of the aircraft
○ only from within the cockpit
8 Integrated Pre-Recorded Announcement and Music (I-PRAM) is stored
○ on a compact flash card on the Flight Attendant Panels
○ on a memory sector within the Cabin Bulk storage system
○ on a field loadable software database in the Directors
9 Output from the Cockpit Acoustic devices
○ are never interrupted by other audio sources
○ may be interrupted by a cabin pre-recorded announcement
○ may be interrupted by a voice announcement made on the cockpit handset
The central processing function of the Cabin Intercommunication Data System is contained within
10
the
○ Directors
○ Flight Attendant Panels
○ Flight Management Computers
 21 cabin Systems (40)
The functions of the Cabin Intercommunication Data System are programmed, configured and
11
controlled via the
○ cockpit MCDUs
○ Directors
○ Flight Attendant Panels
12 An Emergency Crew and Alerting system is used
○ either by the cockpit to alert the cabin crew of a cockpit incident, or by the cabin crew to alert the pilot of a
cabin incident
○ only by the cabin crew to alert the pilot of a cabin incident
○ only by the cockpit to alert the cabin crew of a cockpit incident
13 Most video used on IFE AVOD systems use which compression / encoding standard?
○ DVD
○ AVI
○ MPEG
14 An In Flight Entertainment Centre (IFEC) is most likely installed
○ in each passenger seat
○ in the Cabin Work Station
○ in the avionics bay
15 The Passenger Address system
○ allows the communication via telephone between all attendant stations and between the attendant stations
and the cockpit
○ distributes announcements from the cockpit and each attendant station through all assigned passenger
loudspeakers
○ allows the communication via telephone between the ground crew, the cockpit crew and the cabin crew
when the aircraft is on the ground
16 Passenger laptops are connected to the Seat Display Units via
○ wireless technology
○ fibre optic cable
○ RJ45 plug
17 Electric window shades in the cabin can be controlled
○ only at the respective window locations
○ from the Flight Attendant Panels
○ from the cockpit
On an aircraft fitted with a Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS), the Cabin Temperature
18
Control is controlled and monitored
○ via the pilot's overhead control panel, independently from the CIDS
○ by the CIDS system
○ by the aircraft's Environmental Control System (ECS), independently from the CIDS
On a modern aircraft cabin system, equipped with a Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS),
19
the CIDS interfaces with the air conditioning system
○ via ARINC 429 or 629 databus
○ via the environmental control system data bus
○ via the ADCN
Flight attendants communicate with the directors of the Cabin Intercommunication Data System
20
using
○ Cabin handsets throughout the cabin
○ Flight Attendant Panels within the cabin
○ interphone sockets that are located at various places around the aircraft
21 The "Sterile Cockpit" switch, when activated
 21 cabin Systems (40)
○ indicates on the Flight Attendant Panels and other cabin indicators, that the flight crew do not wish to
receive communications other than on matters concerning safety critical events
○ will physically prevent communication from the cabin crew to the cockpit via the Cabin
Intercommunication Data System (CIDS)
○ will lock the cockpit door
Software updating of the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) components can be done
22
○ in flight only
○ on the ground only
○ either on the ground or in flight
On an aircraft fitted with a Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS), the 'Return To Seat'
23 and 'Fasten Seat Belts' signs are automatically illuminated when the 'Fasten Seat Belts' control is in
AUTO mode and
○ the landing gear is down and locked
○ aircraft is in descent
○ engines are at idle
On a modern aircraft cabin system, equipped with a Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS),
24
a Passenger Call can be reset
○ at the attendant's station, via the Flight Attendant Panel
○ only in the cockpit
○ only at the passenger seat location, after the passenger has been attended to
When more than one Directors is fitted to fulfil the role of the controllers within a Cabin
25
Intercommunication Data System (CIDS)
○ each Director is active and execute a voting function
○ each Director controls a separate area of the cabin
○ one of the Directors in active mode and the other(s) are in hot standby mode
26 Interactivity between cabin crew and the CIDS Directors is provided by
○ Attendant Indication Panels
○ Cabin handsets
○ Flight Attendant Panels (FAPs) and Mini-FAPs
27 The Cabin Alert Switch is
○ a hidden and guarded switch located at the attendant's station or galley area
○ located in teh cockpit and used to summon the attention of the cabin crew
○ located at each passenger overhead service unit
28 A conference call on the Cabin Interphone may
○ be interrupted by the Captain only
○ be interrupted by the Captain or Purser
○ never be interrupted by other audio sources
If a cabin configuration is changed, or an additional Cabin service is added to the Cabin Systems,
29
○ only the Cabin Intercommunication Data System software needs to be updated
○ no changes need to be made to the Cabin Intercommunication Data System hardware or software
○ the Cabin Intercommunication Data System hardware and software needs to be changed
On an aircraft fitted with a Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS), the Lavatory Smoke
30
Warning and Indication is controlled and monitored
○ by the CIDS system
○ independently from the CIDS, by its own Lavatory Smoke Warning computer
○ by the aircraft's fire detection system, independently from the CIDS
31 If cabin chime indications (passenger call etc.) are inhibited, the inhibit function is reset
 21 cabin Systems (40)
○ during daylight hours
○ after landing
○ when the aircraft transits from flight phase to landing phase
In the Passenger Address system, an announcement being made on the Cabin Handset would be
32
interrupted if an another announcement was initiated on the
○ pre-recorded announcement system
○ in-flight entertainment
○ cockpit handset
33 Wi-fi provision to passengers is
○ not possible in flight
○ provided via satellite link when not over land
○ only available when flying over land
34 What incident will put the IFE system into 'stand-by mode' automatically?
○ When the aircraft transits from flight phase to landing phase
○ Cabin smoke detection
○ Cabin decompression
In an IFE system, the supply of network data, interactive data, passenger service data, and database
35
information is provided to each seat from the Area Distribution Box via
○ wireless and bluetooth technology
○ fibre optic or Ethernet cable
○ ARINC 429 or 629 databus
36 The Cabin and Flight Crew Interphone system
○ allows the communication via telephone between the ground crew, the cockpit crew and the cabin crew
when the aircraft is on the ground
○ allows the communication via telephone between all attendant stations and between the attendant stations
and the cockpit
○ distributes announcements from the cockpit and each attendant station through all assigned passenger
loudspeakers
The interface between a Cabin Intercommunication Data System's directors and the passenger
37
related functions, such as Cabin Lighting and Passenger Service Units, is
○ Multiplexor / Demultiplexor (MUX/DEMUX) unit, of which only one is required for each cabin
○ Decoder / Encoder Units, of which there are many throughout the cabin
○ not necessary on a modern Cabin Intercommunication Data System because the Directors provide the
decode and encode functions necessary for the passenger related functions
Dial and call information, from the Passenger Address (PA) and Interphone, is displayed to cabin
38
attendants on the
○ Area Call Panels
○ Decoder / Encoder Units
○ Attendant Indication Panels
39 An IFE Tapping Unit
○ decodes video signals for the LCD monitors
○ provides 110 VAC 60 Hz for the AC outlets for Passenger Electronic Devices (PEDs)
○ distributes audio/video signals via multiplex technology, throughout the cabin
Much of the Cabin Layout definition and other airline specific data such as Cabin Zoning, chime
40
sequences and default audio levels, are stored on
○ a field loadable software database stored in the Directors
○ the plug-in Cabin Assignment Module incorporated on the Flight Attendant Panels
○ a memory sector within the Cabin Bulk storage system
 22 Information systems (17)
1 e-Logbook technical, maintenance and cabin data is stored
○ on separate databases, information is collated on the ground
○ on a shared database to make sure that all onboard users have access to all information
○ on a shared database but a firewall ensures that data cannot be transferred from one domain to another,
except after copying the data to an on-ground server
Portable Maintenance Access Terminal (PMAT) can be used to connect to the Network Server
2
System
○ at any time
○ whilst the aircraft is on ground only
○ during flight only
3 Internal Wireless Datalink
○ is never used by the passengers
○ is a secure wireless network for the exclusive use of passengers for email and internet
○ is part of the Airline Information Services Domain and may be made available for use by the
passengers
4 Wireless Airport Communication System (WACS) provides
○ pilot to Air Traffic Control duplex voice communication during pre-departure and taxi
○ onboard WIFI connectivity for passengers
○ aircraft-to-AOC wireless communication capability
5 An Electronic Logbook system
○ replaces a paper system onboard the aircraft, which must then be copied to a hard-copy system on the
ground after each sector
○ replaces a paper system onboard the aircraft, which must then be copied to a computer system on the
ground after each sector
○ is paper system onboard the aircraft, which must then be scanned to a computer system on the ground
after each sector
6 A laptop connected to an aircraft is
○ class 1 hardware
○ class 2 hardware
○ class 3 hardware
7 A Post Flight Report (PFR) is generated by the
○ Avionics Domain
○ Communications and Cabin Domain
○ Flight OPS Domain
8 Controller-Pilot Data-Link Communications (CPDLC) enables the exchange of
○ text messages between controllers and pilots
○ voice messages between controllers and pilots
○ video messages between controllers and pilots
9 The Onboard Maintenance Terminal is located in the
○ cockpit and is used in flight by the flight engineer or pilots
○ cabin (Flight Attendant's Station) but is not used in flight
○ cockpit but is not used in flight
10 A cellular ipad connected to an aircraft is
○ class 2 hardware
○ class 1 hardware
○ class 3 hardware
 22 Information systems (17)
Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC) messages are conveyed to the pilot via
11
○ a dedicated loudspeaker
○ a dedicated display unit, and/or printer
○ the pilot's audio headset
12 Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC)
○ is a method by which air traffic controllers can communicate with pilots over a datalink system
○ is used by the passengers
○ provides communication between the cabin and the cockpit during sterile cockpit status
13 The e-Logbook is used for defect reporting and maintenance action reporting by
○ the cabin crew for all cabin defects only
○ both the pilot and cabin crew for aircraft and cabin defects
○ the pilot for all aircraft defects only
14 The eLogbook is accessible to flight crew
○ on the ground, or onboard
○ onboard only
○ on the ground only
Maintenance crew can access the information provided on the Onboard Information System
15
○ using Portable Multipurpose Access Terminals connected to any suitable Ethernet connection on the
aircraft
○ via Flight attendant Panels in the cabin only
○ through the internal wireless cabin network only
16 The Onboard Information System provides services and information to
○ the cockpit, cabin and maintenance crew
○ the cockpit only
○ the cockpit and cabin only
The Network Server System is the backbone of the Onboard Information System. It is connected
17
to
○ the avionics field and the flight operations filed
○ the avionics field only
○ the flight operations field only