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Mock Test Solutions in English

Questions

1. Karan can beat Tarun by 30 m in a race. If Karan starts from a point that is 20 m behind the start line and
Tarun starts from the start line, Karan will still beat Tarun by 20 m. Find the length of their race (in m).
A. 50 B. 55
C. 60 D. 75
2. In a positive GP, the sum of the first five terms is , and the sum of the reciprocals of the same terms is
. Find the value of the middle term.
A. B.

C. D.
3. Meera has 3 bags full of lipsticks. The numbers of lipsticks in the three bags are in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 12,
respectively. If 15 more lipsticks are added to each bag, the ratio changes to 6 : 9 : 13, respectively. What
was the total number of lipsticks in the three bags together before the increase?
A. 295 B. 355
C. 375 D. 410
4. Find the number of perfect square factors of , where x, y, and z are prime numbers.
A. 120 B. 140
C. 144 D. 160
5. Pure milk costs Rs. 80 per litre. A milkman mixes some Bisleri water, which costs Rs. 30 per litre, to the
milk and sells the mixture at Rs. 60 per litre, thus making a profit of 25%. In what ratio does he mix the
milk with water?
A. 4 : 15 B. 9 : 16
C. 7 : 18 D. 6 : 11
6. What is the ratio of the inradius and circumradius of a triangle whose sides are 16 cm, 63 cm, and 65 cm?
A. 8 : 67 B. 5 : 63
C. 14 : 65 D. 7 : 65
7. Three vessels have a mixture of sugar and jaggery in the ratio of 3 : 2, 3 : 4, and 4 : 5, respectively. The
mixture of all three vessels is mixed in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6, respectively. Find the ratio of sugar and jaggery
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in the resultant mixture.

A. 757 : 818 B. 757 : 823
C. 767 : 837 D. 767 : 841
8. If the price of a shirt is decreased by Rs. 400, then Arjun can buy 3 more shirts for Rs. 24000. Find the
new price of each shirt.
A. Rs. 1200 B. Rs. 1600
C. Rs. 1800 D. Rs. 2000
9. A task was given to some scientists. They divide the task among themselves such that 9 male scientists
and 10 female scientists started the task. After working for some days, all of them were replaced by 12
male scientists and 12 female scientists who completed the remaining task in 10 days. Also, 24 male
scientists can complete the task in 16 days and 24 female scientists can complete the same task in 12
days. Find the amount of work done by the male and female scientists who were initially employed.
A. B.

C. D.
10. In how many ways can 6 identical pens, 5 identical pencils, and 1 eraser be put in 12 distinct boxes such
that each box contains only one item?
A. 5445 B. 5454
C. 5544 D. None of the above
11. The simple interest on a certain sum for 3 years is Rs. 324 and the compound interest on the same sum
for 2 years is Rs. 234 . Find the rate of interest per annum.
A. 18% B. 11.11%
C. 12.5% D. 16.66%
12. Find the maximum number of sides a polygon can have in which the number of diagonals is more than 60
but less than 80?
A. 10 B. 11
C. 13 D. 14
13. Find the ratio of the average of all odd numbers between 60 and 140 to the average of all multiples of 4
between 35 and 180 .
A. 50 : 51 B. 50 : 53
C. 52 : 55 D. 52 : 57
14. When the numbers 13451 and 19649 are divided by a four-digit prime number X, it leaves the same
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remainder. Find the value of X.

A. 1009 B. 1021
C. 1031 D. 1033
15. A boat takes a total of 11 hours to travel 12 km downstream and 18 km upstream. If it covers 18 km
downstream and 12 km upstream, then it takes a total time of 9 hours. Find the speed (in km/h) of the boat
in still water.
A. 4 B. 6
C. 8 D. 10
16. If , how many values of ‘x’ satisfy these equations?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
17. A shopkeeper sells sugar at a markup of 20% and at the same time uses a 1 kg weight that weighs only
800 grams. Find his profit percentage.
A. 40% B. 50%
C. 45% D. 55%
18. Find the probability that the three cards drawn randomly one after another from a deck are of different
suits and different numbers or that they are different face cards.
A. B.

C. D. None of the above

19. Find the total surface area of a cube (in cm2) formed by the side, which is equal to the longest diagonal (in
cm) of a cuboid whose length, breadth, and height are 12 cm, 21 cm, and 28 cm, respectively.
A. 8214 B. 8412
C. 8442 D. 8124
20. A pipe can fill a big tank in 15 hours. If 7 more similar pipes are connected to it and are opened, what is
the total time (in hours) taken to fill the tank completely?
A. B.

C. D.

21. Direction: Read the passage given below, and answer the questions that follow.
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All through the 20th century, trading the products of a country’s water resources was an act of power.
When the US became the granary of the world, flooding food eastward, it also provoked a countercurrent
of hard currency streaming back to pay for it, setting the stage for the Bretton Woods settlement.

Lenin and Stalin paid for Soviet industrialisation with cereal production of Ukrainian, Russian and Central
Asian fields, irrigated by canals built by thousands of Gulag prisoners. In China, Mao may well have
measured the targets of the Great Leap Forward in tons of steel, but planned to fund their pursuit by
irrigating the plains of the Yangtze and Yellow rivers.

Ibn Saud knew that oil might make him wealthy, but only water to irrigate Saudi Arabia would give him
power, so the former paid for the latter. And the 1970s postcolonial competition for regional influence over
water reached a peak when the pan-Arabism of Egypt’s president Gamal Abdel Nasser collided with
Israel’s claims over the Jordan River, seeding conflicts that – from the Arab Spring to the Syrian crisis –
have contributed to shaping the contemporary world.

Yet the geopolitical value of water ended up hidden from view. A thick layer of 20th-century
industrialisation concealed the force of water behind countless dams and vast embankments, replumbing
the planet and fooling people into believing that modernity had emancipated their life from concerns about
water.

It was a dangerous illusion. Industrialisation did not emancipate nations from the huge system of water
embedded in global trade: it built on it. The recent trade war between China and the US – ostensibly about
intellectual property, from solar panels and flat-screen televisions to telecommunications technology –
focused a good part of the action (and much of the rhetoric) on soybean, the largest US crop export to
China and a central product of the Mississippi-Missouri valley. Behind the scenes, water and the great
river continue to matter.

But where does this deep nexus between geopolitics and water come from? The answer lies in the past, in
a particular story of water and empire that predates the so-called ‘American Century’. Its roots reach back
to the dawn of history, a bridge between past and present so secure that we all still stand on it today, while
the great virtual river, unseen, streams under us.

Over the course of the 19th century, the British Empire introduced the blueprint of the globalised world we
still inhabit. The planet is littered with the consequences of this vast experiment in conquest, from the
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conflicts of the Middle East and Afghanistan to the postcolonial struggles of Africa and the Indian
subcontinent.

While most contemporary talk of empire echoes that age, the British were far less sanguine about their
imperial dreams than the lyrics of ‘Rule, Britannia!’ might suggest. A deep anxiety gnawed at the brittle
foundations of their identity. They fashioned themselves as rightful heirs of Rome, yet could not escape
the cautionary tale of The History of the Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire (1776-89) by Edward
Gibbons.

Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage?
A. Water has been a stream of geopolitical force in B. In the past, having water at your disposal was
our recent history. considered the greatest power.
C. All great empires and nations have used water as D. The nexus between geopolitics and water is a
a tool to build themselves. mere illusion.
E. Water has led to geopolitical turmoil in recent
years.
22. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Industrialisation has been able to upstage the B. Modern world’s lifelong concerns about water are
importance of water. irrelevant post industrialisation.
C. The influence of water in shaping the geopolitical
D. The ongoing trade war between the US and
order has been kept under the radar by
China is primarily down to the influence of water.
industrialisation.
E. The influence of water in shaping the geopolitical
order is exaggerated.
23. Ibn Saud’s decision to pay for the water to irrigate Saudi Arabia clearly implies that:
B. Ibn Saud was an opportunist who struck gold with
A. Ibn Saud was at the right place at the right time.
a not-so-significant decision.
C. Ibn Saud was never interested in earning money D. Ibn Saud understood the importance of water in
by selling oil. shaping the global world order.
E. Ibn Saud knew that oil was more important than
water.
24. Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the author’s claims?
A. There’s a connection between water and B. Power is derived solely from possession of water
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geopolitical clout. reserves.

C. Both China and the US have reached superpower D. Water was the only reason for the rise of the
status by mitigating the influence of water. British Empire.
E. Both B and C
25. What is the synonym of the word ‘gnaw’?
A. Petrify B. Worry
C. Emancipate D. Inculcate
E. Resuscitate
26. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer.

One of the much reason a start-up fails is lack of passion for a domain and a lack of knowledge of a
domain no matter how good an idea is.
A. One of the much reasons B. One of the many reasons
C. One of the many reason D. One of a many reasons
E. No correction required
27. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer.

An inability to market was a common failure especially among founders who like to code or building
product but who didn’t relish the idea of promoting the product.
A. like to code or build product B. likes to code or build product
C. likes to coding or building product D. liked to code or build product
E. No correction required
28. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.

I. A sinking feeling of panic ________ over them and a temporary paralysing fear engulfed them
________.

II. Being a cleanliness freak, she ________ the floor and went down to the market only after the house
was _________ clean.
A. crept, spanning B. cleaned, neatly
C. revamped, radially D. swept, completely
E. slept, entirely
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29. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.

I. The gusty wind _________ away the clothes hanging in the open, which gave a picturesque
___________ like those of kites flying high in the sky.
II. Being the way he is, he _________ half of his income in the first week, essentially on branded clothes
and on grooming his ___________.
A. spent, character B. blew, appearance
C. led, aura D. cleansed, image
E. burst, accessories
30. It’s unfortunate that the term ‘lone wolf’ has come into such casual use in the years since the Sept. 11
attacks. It aims to describe a person—nearly always a man—who is radicalised to violence but
unconnected to an organised terrorist group. But it is wrong to think about violent white supremacists as
isolated actors.

Which of the following is an assumption in the above argument?

A. People do not want to link white supremacists as B. Terrorist activities are too dangerous to be
part of an organised terrorist group. generalised.
C. Violent white supremacists are not isolated D. Terrorist activities should not be used in a casual
actors. manner.
E. Terrorist activities need to be monitored
separately and strictly.
31. The discussion of the language issue ought to be pedagogical rather than political. The scepticism of
teaching medicine or engineering in the vernaculars is that our knowledge ecosystem is not prepared for
it; the scepticism of English is that it has left so many people behind. The genius of India is that it has,
historically, not locked itself into binaries over language choice. With creative pedagogies, we can reclaim
that heritage. But raising the political pitch on language serves neither the cause of knowledge or national
unity.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

A. India is sceptical about languages in general. B. India cannot reclaim its lost heritage.
C. Some sections are raising the political pitch on D. Language cannot be politicised by vested
language. interests.
E. Indian culture is susceptible to positive change.
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32. In the given question, a statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is denoted by (A),
(B), (C), (D) and (E). Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement.

A) adopted gardening as a correctional

B) in the United States, some prisons have

C) return to crime upon their release

D) engage in it for an appreciable period rarely

E) activity as it was seen that inmates who actively

A. ABCED B. DABCE
C. CABDE D. BAEDC
E. EABDC
33. China was once the world’s biggest economy. Many analysts expect it to regain that distinction. But a host
of difficulties besetting the Asian giant will delay the day it overtakes America to return to pole position. A
growing number of economists now think that day may never arrive. China’s population is over four times
bigger than America’s. Its economy could surpass America’s in scale long before it matches it in
sophistication. By one measure, China has already achieved that modest feat. Its GDP overtook America’s
in 2016 when translated into dollars at ‘purchasing-power parity,’ a method that tries to tally up the goods
and services in each country using the same international prices. But China’s GDP still lags far behind
America’s when converted into dollars using the more familiar exchange rates that prevail in the currency
markets.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

B. China’s economy is unlikely to overtake
A. China had a glorious past and may regain it soon.
America’s.
D. The pandemic has delayed China becoming the
C. China’s troubles are mostly self created.
world’s biggest economy.
E. China’s economy is following the American route.
34. Pick out the fragment that consists of an error and mark it as the answer.

A nation not only reveals itself (1) / by the men it produces (2) / but also by the men it honours, (3) / and
the men it remembers. (4)
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A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
35. Pick out the fragment that has an error and mark it as the answer.

It was a strange spectacle (1) / to see the two former (2) / enemies shaking hands and patting (3) / one
another on the back. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
36. Pick out the fragment that has an error and mark it as the answer.

The use of deadly force by Sgt O’Neill was (1) / justified based upon the threat and eminent (2) / danger
presented by the sharp-edged (3) / knife in the right hand of Mr Logan (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
37. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.

The water transport project on the west coast is ________ to get a shot in the arm with a new plan in
which the Road Development Corporation will build the infrastructure and ________ a private party to
operate the service.
A. scheduled, lets B. verge, permit
C. set, sanctions D. slated, allow
E. bound, manage
38. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.

Since the ______ of the modern nation state, the ______ of liberty, equality, and fraternity have been the
_______ of all democratic projects across the world.
A. evolution, perception, flintstone B. rise, idols, benchmark
C. confluence, amalgamation, lodestone D. emergence, ideas, touchstone
E. emerging, conception, headstone
39. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.
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We are so saturated in stories that we have become their ______ and ______ consumers, which has
plenty of negative consequences.
A. critical, discerning B. credulous, discerning
C. honest, venal D. ardent, insouciant
E. credulous, undiscerning
40. A week ago, India made mask wearing optional for air passengers precisely because of the improved
ground situation. It is only in hospitals and healthcare settings that mask wearing should remain
mandatory. The low level of infection notwithstanding, it is advisable that the vulnerable population
including the elderly and those with comorbidities at least wear a mask to reduce the risk of infection.

Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author’s advice on masks?

A. The virus is evolving, and the emerging variants
of concern will be even more highly transmissive, B. The situation in India is no longer cause for
and masks have proved effective against concern, given the low number of cases.
transmission.
C. Most businesses and educational institutions are D. People are not wearing masks even in large
functioning normally. public gatherings in poorly ventilated areas.
41. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer option.

The decision to cease operations are attributable for the simple fact that the cost of providing the
program exceeds what the customers can pay for it.
A. is attributable to the simple B. is attributable for the simple
C. are attributable to the simple D. is attributable in the simple
E. No correction required
42. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer option:

Human beings exist at different level of psychologically development, and these levels are expressed
in the values they hold respecting their work.
A. at different levels of psychologically development B. at different level of psychological development
C. at different levels of psychological development D. in different levels of psychologically development
E. No correction required
43. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer option.
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People with memory loss or other possible signs of Alzheimer’s may find it hardening to recognise
they have a problem.
A. may find it hard to recognises B. may find it hard to recognise
C. may find it hardening recognising D. may find it hard to recognised
E. No correction required
44. Pick out the fragment that consists of an error and mark it as the answer.

Diana volunteered at the (1) / hospital to treat the patients (2) / for five days last year every month (3) /
and earned a lot of respect among her peers. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
45. Pick out the fragment that consists of an error and mark it as the answer.

SBI is reportedly upgrading (1) / its UPI system, which is why its (2) / customers may have been
intermittent in (3) / facing issues over the last couple of days. (4)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. No error
46. Direction: Read the following passage, and answer the given questions.

A migratory bird that almost never stops flying sometimes slips into a brief, hibernation-like state inside its
nest during chilly breeding periods.

When it is not breeding, the common swift, a small European and Arctic bird, spends more than 99 per
cent of time in the air, and even flies while sleeping. However, when cold weather hits the species’
breeding sites in Europe, the birds occasionally lie still in their nests for up to 22 hours in an energy-saving
mode known as torpor, says Arndt Wellbrock at the University of Siegen, in Germany.

‘Swifts are flying almost non-stop 10 months out of the year, even throughout the night,’ he says. ‘So it’s a
little bit strange to find the birds sometimes in these torpor states, very cooled down and non-active, when
we know that, normally, they need very little time to rest.’
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Swifts feed on flying insects, Wellbrock says. But during harsh weather, their prey become less active, and
thus less available. By going into torpor – which is not the same as sleep – swifts temporarily drop their
energy needs. This reduces brain and muscle activity, allowing them to survive longer without food.

To discover evidence of torpor in the birds, Wellbrock and his colleagues placed miniature temperature
loggers in about 50 common swift nests, which the birds had built beneath a highway bridge in Germany.
The loggers record the birds’ body temperatures.

Over eight annual breeding seasons, the team registered a total of 22,357 night-time temperature
readings. Over two of the breeding seasons, the team could also calculate the metabolic rates of birds that
took up residency in seven wooden nest boxes equipped technologically for measuring oxygen and
carbon dioxide levels.

The researchers found rare, but significant, temperature drops averaging 8.6 °C, bringing nest
temperatures to an average low of 24.3 °C. These torpor states lasted 10.8 hours on average, with one
bout lasting more than twice this length of time. They occurred on less than 6 percent of the nights in an
entire breeding season, says Wellbrock.

Swifts usually drop their metabolic rates by about 33 per cent at night compared to daytime, he says. But
when they were in torpor, those rates dropped an average of 56 per cent below daytime rates. That means
the birds were using about 70 per cent less oxygen – and consequently producing about 70 per cent less
carbon dioxide – as they did on nights when they did not enter torpor.

The results provide clear evidence of torpor in these otherwise highly active, migratory birds, says
Wellbrock. Surprisingly, they also suggest that the birds enter torpor together as a family of up to six birds.
‘We actually do not know how they coordinate this,’ he says, adding that the question warrants further
research.

The findings also might hint at swifts being part of a more evolutionarily primitive line of birds, Wellbrock
says, as torpor is an ancestral trait in land animals.

What is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. Analyse why birds go into hibernation-like states B. Examine the metabolic rates and temperature
and the effect of torpor on their longevity. variations of swifts when they go into torpor.
C. Try to ascertain how swifts go into torpor and D. Examine and analyse torpor-like states in
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whether they do it together as a family. primitive birds such as the swift.

E. Study the metabolic rates of swifts when in
hibernation.
47. None of the following statements can be inferred about the swift from the passage except:
A. Swifts go into torpor because they feel lazy to fly B. Swifts go into a torpor because all birds and
in winter. animals in their habitat do so.
C. Swifts go into the torpor state because of paucity D. The temperature in swifts’ bodies falls by almost
of prey in harsh weather conditions. 56 percent while they are in torpor.
E. Swifts go into a state of torpor to avoid predators.
48. The author makes all the following arguments in the passage except:
A. Swifts fly almost non-stop for 10 months in a year, B. Swifts are migratory birds that are capable of
even throughout the night. sleeping while flying.
C. By going into torpor, swifts can survive longer D. While in torpor, swifts drop their metabolic rates
without food. by as much as 33 percent.
E. Both A and C
49. ‘Swifts usually drop their metabolic rates by about 33 percent at night as compared to during daytime', he
says. ‘But when they were in torpor, those rates dropped an average of 56 percent below daytime rates.’

Which one of the following interpretations of this sentence would be closest in meaning to the original?
A. Swifts drop their metabolic rates less at night than B. By dropping their metabolic rates, swifts inhale
during the day. less carbon dioxide than other birds.
C. There is a greater drop in metabolic rates during D. Swifts inhale and exhale oxygen depending on
torpor than during the night. the time of the day and their location.
E. A and C
50. Which of the following is the closest to the meaning of the word ‘torpor’ in the context of the passage?
A. Vigour B. Dormancy
C. Animation D. Anaemia
E. Redundancy
51. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer option.

For more than three decades, central bankers has played puppeteer for financial markets, propping
them up when things turn ugly.
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A. have played puppeteer to B. has played puppeteer to

C. have played puppeteer for D. had played puppeteer for
E. No correction require
52. Improve the highlighted portion of the sentence by picking out the grammatically correct answer option.

My grandfather always said that he may be long for the teeth but has more knowledge about the
business than we do.
A. long in the teeth B. long at the teeth
C. long from the teeth D. long across the teeth
E. No correction required
53. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer option.

Despite being used to carry _______ loads, the cart itself was as _______ as a feather.
A. heavy, overweight B. heavy, light
C. light, feathery D. light, weightless
E. heavy, hefty
54. In the given question, a statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is denoted by (A),
(B), (C), (D) and (E). Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement.

A) at my disheveled appearance

B) myself in his rear view

C) sight of

D) mirror and grumbled

E) I caught
A. EDACB B. EBCDA
C. EADCB D. ECBDA
E. BCDAE
55. A cartoon of a girl in pigtails encircled by the words ‘Save the Girl Child, Educate the Girl Child’ is a
common sight on billboards across India. It is a public-service advertisement for the government’s $85 m
campaign to correct the country’s skewed sex ratio at birth. Indians tend to prefer having sons to
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daughters—and to abort female foetuses in chillingly large numbers as a result. Yet the government’s
efforts may be bearing fruit.

Which of the following is an assumption in the passage?

A. Acts of cruelty against children are increasing. B. India’s sex ratio needs to be normalised.
C. Female foeticide is a punishable offence. D. People ignore billboard signs.
E. India’s sex ratio has been below par.
56. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

There are four friends viz. A, B, C, and D . Each of them holds notes of exactly three denominations. The
following table shows the total amount held by each of them and the denomination of the notes held by
them.

Further, it is also known that each of them holds the same number of notes of each of the denominations
held by them. For example: For A, the number of notes of Rs. 10 held by him = that of Rs. 20 = that of Rs.
50. This condition applies to each of the four friends A, B, C, and D .

Find the total number of notes of Rs. 50 with the four given friends.
A. 70 B. 71
C. 72 D. 73
57. Who among the four given friends has the second highest total number of notes?
A. A B. B
C. C D. D
58. For each of the given denominations, the sum of the amount held in that denomination by the four given
friends is calculated. For which of the following denominations will the calculated amount be the third
highest?
A. Rs. 50 B. Rs. 100
C. Rs. 20 D. Rs. 200
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59. The total number of notes with E, another friend, is 100% more than that with D. If E has the notes of the
denominations Rs. 20, Rs. 50, and Rs. 100 and the number of notes of each denomination is the same for
E, then the total amount with E is how much percent more than that with D?
A. 30% B. 32.5%
C. 36% D. 40%
60. The total number of notes with F, another friend, is 50% more than that with B . If F has the notes of the
denominations Rs. 10, Rs. 50, and Rs. 100 and all the given conditions also apply to F, then find the ratio
of the total amount with F to that with C .
A. 3 : 1 B. 5 : 2
C. 96 : 31 D. 48 : 17
61. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A man worked in a factory for five different weeks. The following pie chart shows the percentage
distribution of the number of hours the man worked in each week during these weeks. Some of the data is
missing from the pie chart.

i) It is known that the man worked for an integral number of hours on each day of the five given weeks.

ii) The average number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 is 37.5 hours.

iii) The average number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 is 57.5 hours
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iv) The average number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 is 50 hours.

v) It is known that there are seven days in a week and the days on which he worked, he worked for a
minimum of seven hours and a maximum of thirteen hours.

vi) There can be days in a week on which the man did not work.

Find the total number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 .
A. 30 hours B. 35 hours
C. 40 hours D. 44 hours
62. Find the average number of hours for which the man worked during the five given weeks.
A. 40 hours B. 44 hours
C. 48 hours D. 50 hours
63. During week 6, the man worked for 50% more hours than he worked during week 4. If the number of
hours for which the man worked during these 6 weeks is presented on a degree pie chart, then what will
be the approximate central angle formed by the number of hours for which the man worked during week
5?
A. 85˚ B. 86˚
C. 87˚ D. 88˚
64. For the five given weeks, what can be the maximum number of weeks during which the man worked on all
seven days of the week?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
65. For the given five weeks, find the maximum possible number of days on which the man did not work.
A. 10 B. 9
C. 13 D. 12
66. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

Hurlock Sholmes, a famous detective, was hired by an agency to solve criminal cases. The following table
shows the total number of cases solved by him in each month and the number of cases that were
assigned to him but remained unsolved at the end of each month for six different months, i.e., from July
2022 to December 2022 .
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It is known that he was hired at the starting of July 2022, and he was assigned the cases from the first day.

During the six months, he was assigned two types of cases viz. murder and theft.

The following table shows the ratio of murder cases to the theft cases that were solved by him during
these six months.

It is known that any case that was assigned to Hurlock Sholmes in a any month was solved by him before
the end of next month. For example, any case that was assigned to him in August 2022 was solved by him
before the end of September 2022.

Find the total number of murder cases solved by Hurlock Sholmes during the six given months.
A. 499 B. 501
C. 503 D. 505
67. Find the total number of cases that were solved in the same month in which they were assigned to
Hurlock Sholmes.
A. 1040 B. 1050
C. 1060 D. 1070
68. Find the ratio of the sum of theft cases that were solved by Hurlock Sholmes in August, September, and
November together to the total number of cases solved by him in the six given months.
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A. 22 : 85 B. 33 : 130
C. 13 : 40 D. 11 : 40
69. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the amount (in kg) of different kinds of
vegetables viz. carrot, radish, potato, onion, and peas sold by a farmer in the month of December 2022 .

It is known that the farmer sold only the given five types of vegetables.

Total amount of vegetables sold by the farmer in December 2022 = 1200 kg

If the selling price of 1 kg radish, 1 kg potato, and 1 kg peas is Rs. 10, Rs. 20, and Rs. 40, respectively,
find the total revenue of the farmer by selling radish, potato, and peas in the given month.
A. Rs. 14960 B. Rs. 15480
C. Rs. 15740 D. Rs. 16320
70. In the month of January 2023, the given farmer sold 50% more onion than that sold by him in December
2022 and the amount (in kg) of all the other four vegetables sold by him remained the same. If the amount
(in kg) of vegetables sold by him in January 2023 is plotted on a degree pie chart, then what will be the
central angle formed by the amount (in kg) of peas sold by him in January 2023?
A. 80˚ B. 75˚
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C. 78˚ D. 72˚
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Solutions

1. C
Sol. Let the length of the race be ‘x’ m.
When both of them start from the start line at the same time:
In the time taken by Karan to cover ‘x’ m, Tarun covers ‘x - 30’ m.
Let the speed of Karan and Tarun be ‘s’ and ‘S’, respectively.

So, …(1)
In the second case, Karan starts 20 m behind the start line,
So, the distance covered by Karan = 20 + x m and in the same time, Tarun covers = x - 20 m

So, …(2)
Equating (1) and (2), we get the following:

=
10x = 600 x = 60 m
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
2. A
Sol.
Let the first five terms be

Given that,

Also,
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or

As the given GP is positive, middle term

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
3. C
Sol. Let the number of lipsticks in the three bags be 5x, 8x, and 12x, respectively.
So, 5x + 15 = 6y…(1)
8x + 15 = 9y …(2)
12x + 15 = 13y …(3)
Using (1) and (2),

5x + 15 = 6( )

3x = 45 x = 15
So, the total number of lipsticks in the three bags together initially = (5 + 8 + 12)15 = 375
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
4. B
Sol.
Number of perfect squares of x7 = x0, x2, x4, x6 = 4
Number of perfect squares of y13 = y0, y2, y4, y6, y8, y10, y12 = 7
Number of perfect squares of z9 = z0, z2, z4, z6, z8= 5
Total number of perfect squares = 4 × 7 × 5 = 140
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
5. B
Sol. Let the quantity of milk be ‘x’ litres and that of water be ‘y’ litres.
So, the price of milk = 80x and that of water = 30y.
So, the total cost price of the mixture = 80x + 30y
Profit = 25%

So, SP = = 60(x + y)
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160x = 90y x:y = 9:16

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
6. C
Sol.
Since, 162 + 632 = 652, it is a right-angled triangle, as it satisfies the Pythagorean theorem.

Now, inradius for any triangle is given by r = , where ‘A’ is the area of the triangle and ‘s’ is the
semi perimeter.

So, r = = =7
Shortcut for finding the inradius of a right-angled triangle

= where a and b are the base and the height and c is the hypotenuse,

i.e.,

Circumradius for a right-angled triangle = (hypotenuse) =

Therefore, the required ratio = = 14 : 65

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
7. A
Sol. The quantity of three vessels is mixed in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6.

So, the quantity of sugar in the resultant mixture =

The quantity of jaggery in the resultant mixture =

So, the required ratio of sugar and jaggery = : = 757 : 818

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
8. B
Sol. Let ‘P’ be the price of a shirt and ‘n’ be the number of shirts.

So, …(1)
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And …(2)
Substituting for n from (1) in (2), we get the following:

As n cannot be negative, n = 12 and P = 2000.

The new price of the shirt is P − 400 = 2000 − 400 = 1600.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
9. C
Sol. 24 male scientists can complete the task in 16 days.
So, 12 male scientists can complete the same task in 32 days.
And, 24 female scientists can complete the same task in 12 days.
So, 12 female scientists can complete the same task in 24 days.

In 1 day, the work done by 12 male and 12 female scientists =

So, in 10 days, the work done by them =

So, the required remaining work done = , which will be done by the male and
female scientists initially employed.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
10. C
Sol.
The eraser can be placed in anyone of the given 12 distinct boxes, 12C1 = 12 ways.

The 5 identical pencils can be arranged in 11C5, and the remaining 6 identical pens can be
arranged in 1 way.
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12 11C 1= = 5544
5
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
11. D
Sol.
SI for the first year =
So, CI for the first year will also be Rs. 108
So, CI for the second year = 234 - 108 = Rs. 126
Interest on interest in the second year = 126 - 108 = Rs. 18

So, the rate of interest per annum =

Hence, option D is the correct answer.
12. D
Sol. Let ‘n’ be the number of sides of a polygon.

Number of diagonals

Given that,

The only values ‘n’ for which the above inequality is true are n = 13 and n =14.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
13. B
Sol. Among the odd numbers between 60 and 140, the largest odd number is 139 and the smallest
odd number is 61.

So, the average is

Among the multiples of 4 between 35 and 180, the smallest number is 36 and the largest
number is 176.

So, the average =

So, the required ratio = 100 : 106 = 50 : 53
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
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14. D
Sol. Let Q1 and Q2 be the respective quotients when 13451 and 19649 are divided by a four-digit
prime number X.
Also, let ‘R’ be the common remainder.
Now, 13451 = X × Q1 + R and 19649 = X × Q2 + R
Difference, 6198 = X × (Q2 – Q1)
6198 can be written as (1033 × 6) or (2066 × 3) or (3099 × 2)
The only four-digit prime number here is 1033.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
15. A
Sol. Let the speed of the boat be ‘u’ km/h and that of the current be ‘v’ km/h.
So, according to the question,

…(1)

And, …(2)

Let
So, 12x + 18y = 11 and 18x + 12y = 9

Solving these two equations, we get x = and y =

So, u + v = 6 and u - v = 2
Solving these two equations, we get u = 4 km/h and v = 2 km/h
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
16. C
Sol. Given,
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Hence, option C is the correct answer.

17. B
Sol. Let the cost price of 1 gram of sugar be ‘x’.
As he sells it at a markup of 20% so, his selling price for 1 gram of sugar = 1.2x
Also, he sells only 800 grams instead of 1000 grams
The customer pays for 1 kg but receives only 800 grams
So, the selling price of the shopkeeper = 1000 1.2x = 1200x
His cost price = 800x

So, the profit percentage =

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
18. A
Sol. The total number of possibilities will be .
The first card can be picked in 52 ways.
For the second card to be of a different suit and different number or have different face cards,
it will be chosen from 51 - 12(same suit) - 3(same number or face) = 36 cards
Similarly, for the third card = 35 - 11(same suit) - 2(same number or face) = 22 cards

So, the required probability will be

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
19. A
Sol.
Longest diagonal of a cuboid =
Longest diagonal of a cuboid = cm
Total surface area of a cube = 6 × (side)2 = 6 × (37)2 = 8214 cm2
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
20. B
Sol. Let the total capacity of the tank be ‘V’ litres

So, in 1 hour, the pipe can fill = litres

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So, when 7 more pipes are opened along with the original pipe, then the total amount entered

into the tank in 1 hour =

So, the whole tank will be completely filled in = hours

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
21. A
Sol. Passage summary: The passage highlights the importance of water in shaping the geopolitical order of the
world as the author trudges along history and cites instances where water played a key role in shaping our
world.

Genre: History

Number of words: 506

Type of question: Main idea-based question

Throughout the passage, the author has talked about the unmatched power a country’s water resources
have provided. The author has cited the example of the US becoming the granary of the world using water
as its chief tool, China using water to produce tons of steel, etc. All these examples clearly indicate that
water has been a stream of geopolitical force in our recent history. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Option B is too strong to be considered true because of the presence of the superlative degree of the word
‘great’. Option C is incorrect as the passage has only talked about some great nations using water to
prosper, not all. Option D is incorrect because the author has clearly mentioned that discounting the
influence of water on geopolitics is a dangerous illusion. Option E speaks about water negatively, and
hence it is inappropriate.
22. C
Sol. Passage summary: The passage highlights the importance of water in shaping the geopolitical order of the
world as the author trudges along history and cites instances where water played a key role in shaping our
world.

Genre: History

Number of words: 506

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Type of question: Inference-based question

Refer to the following lines from the passage:

‘Yet the geopolitical value of water ended up hidden from view. A thick layer of 20th-century
industrialisation concealed the force of water behind countless dams and vast embankments, replumbing
the planet and fooling people into believing that modernity had emancipated their life from concerns about
water.’

Hence, it is clear that the rise of industrialisation kept the influence of water under the radar even though
water was still hugely significant in setting the geopolitical order of the world. Hence, option C is the
correct answer.

Option A is incorrect because it is the opposite of what is stated in the passage. Option B contradicts the
passage, and option D is extreme in nature. Option E is false as per the context.
23. D
Sol. Passage summary: The passage highlights the importance of water in shaping the geopolitical order of the
world as the author trudges along history and cites instances where water played a key role in shaping our
world.

Genre: History

Number of words: 506

Type of question: Indirect/inferential question

Consider the following lines from the second paragraph of the passage:

‘And the 1970s postcolonial competition for regional influence over water reached a peak when the pan-
Arabism of Egypt’s president Gamal Abdel Nasser collided with Israel’s claims over the Jordan River,
seeding conflicts that – from the Arab Spring to the Syrian crisis – have contributed to shaping the
contemporary world.’

The given excerpt clearly indicates that Ibn Saud was a visionary leader who understood the importance
of water. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
24. A
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Sol. Passage summary: The passage highlights the importance of water in shaping the geopolitical order of the
world as the author trudges along history and cites instances where water played a key role in shaping our
world.

Genre: History

Number of words: 506

Type of question: CR-based question

Throughout the passage, the author has talked about the importance of shaping the geopolitical order
across the entire world. Hence, the assumption that there’s a connection between geopolitical clout and
water reserves. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

Option B cannot be assumed as water need not be the only reason for geopolitical power.

Option C contradicts the information given in the passage.

Option D is incorrect because of the word ‘only’. Hence, option D is rejected as well.
25. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage highlights the importance of water in shaping the geopolitical order of the
world as the author trudges along history and cites instances where water played a key role in shaping our
world.

Genre: History

Number of words: 506

Type of question: Vocabulary-based question

Gnaw: To gradually reduce or spoil something

Petrify: Make (someone) so frightened that they are unable to move

Emancipate: Set free, especially from legal, social, or political restrictions

Inculcate: Instil (an idea, attitude, or habit) by persistent instruction

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Emancipate and inculcate can clearly not be the answer.

Resuscitate: Revive (someone) from unconsciousness or apparent death.

In the passage, the word is used in the following lines: A deep anxiety gnawed at the brittle foundations of
their identity.

Hence, option B is the correct answer. The worry gradually weakened the foundations of the British
identity.
26. B
Sol. The emboldened part is erroneous. We use ‘much’ if the noun is uncountable (e.g., water, sand) and
‘many’ if the noun is countable (e.g., oranges, children). Also, the phrase 'one of the' is always followed by
a plural noun. Hence, the correct phrase should be 'one of the many reasons'. Therefore, option B is the
correct answer.
27. D
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous. The sentence is in the past tense, and hence 'like'
should be replaced with 'liked' to make it correct. Also, it should be 'build' to maintain
parallelism in the sentence. Therefore, the emboldened phrase must be replaced with 'liked to
code or build product' to form a grammatically correct sentence. Hence, option D is the correct
answer.

28. D
Sol. ‘Sweep’ is to clean (an area) by brushing away dirt or litter. It fits the first blank of the second
sentence, as the subject is cleaning the floor. Further, ‘sweep over’ means to overcome or
overwhelm. Thus, it fits in the first blank of the first sentence. The second blank of both the
sentences can be filled by ‘completely’. Thus, conveying an appropriate sense. Thus, option D
is the correct answer.

29. B
Sol. ‘Blow’, when used in reference to wind, is used to refer to the scenario of air moving and
creating a current, while when used in reference to a person’s budget, it refers to spending
money recklessly. The first sentence is hence filled by the word ‘blew’. The second blank of
the first sentence would be filled by something that describes the scenario, while that of the
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second would be filled by something related to the man. ‘Appearance’ fits the context in both
the cases, as it is used to refer to the way something or someone looks. Therefore, option B is
the required answer.

30. C
Sol. An assumption is the basis of an argument. The author’s argument is that the term ‘lone wolf’ has come
into casual use since Sept 11 to describe a violent radical white male. The term is used to indicate that the
person is not connected to an organised terrorist unit, but that is incorrect.

The last line indicates that the author assumes that white supremacists are not unconnected to
organisations or that they are isolated actors.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

31. C
Sol. Refer to the concluding lines of the paragraph where the author says, ‘But raising the political
pitch on language serves neither the cause of knowledge or national unity’. From this, we can
infer that the political pitch has been raised.

Hence, option C is the answer.

32. D
Sol.
Part B ends with the auxiliary verb 'have' indicating the presence of present perfect tense and
thus will be followed by a verb in past participle form. The only possible choice for the same is
given in part A i.e. 'adopted'. So, A will follow B. Part A end with an adjective "correctional"
which will modify a suitable noun. "Activity" is the only possible noun, so, E will follow A. Both
part D and E end with adverbs, "rarely" and "actively" respectively. They will modify suitable
verbs for which the possible choices are 'engage' (part D) and 'return' (part C). BAE mentions
gardening being used as a correctional activity, so the point of inmates actively returning to
crime seems absurd (no contrasting word used). So, C will not follow E. Instead it will follow D,
making the sequence EDC.

So, the correct logical order is BAEDC.

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33. B
Sol. The passage mentions that some economists think China may become the world’s biggest
economy, but now more economists think it may never overtake America’s economy. Hence,
option B is the correct answer.

34. A
Sol. The error is in the first part of the sentence. The placement of ‘not only’ with the verb ‘reveals’
is incorrect . It is because here, the use of 'not only…. but also’ is to combine the objects that
are ‘by the men it produces’ and ‘by the men it honours, the men it remembers’. So, the
problem here lies in the structure of the sentence. The correct expression is ‘A nation reveals
itself, not only by ….’

Hence, option A is correct.

35. D
Sol. The error is in the fourth part of the sentence. The phrase ‘one another’ is incorrect. It must be
replaced with ‘each other’ to make the sentence correct. ‘Each other’ is a reciprocal pronoun.
‘Each other’ should be used to describe two individuals. Here, we are talking about two
persons in the sentence so ‘one another’ should be replaced by ‘each other’ in the fourth part.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.

36. B
Sol. The error is in the second part of the sentence. Here ‘imminent’ should be used in place of
‘eminent’. Eminent is an adjective that means famous and respected within a particular sphere
and generally refers to a person. Alternatively, it may also mean ‘present to a notable degree.’
Imminent refers to something that is about to happen. Synonyms of imminent are looming,
impending, forthcoming, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer choice here.

37. D
Sol. "Slated" means scheduled. 'A shot in the arm' means a boost in spirit. In the first blank
'scheduled', 'slated' and 'bound' can be filled, as they would indicate that the transport project
is getting a boost. We need a verb in the second blank. Among "lets", "allow" and "manage",
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"allow" makes appropriate sense. Had there been "let" in place of, "lets", we could have
considered the option. Option D is the correct answer.

38. D
Sol. The first word we want should mean beginning. So, rise and emergence both fit. Emerging is
grammatically incorrect in the sentence.

Evolution means the gradual process of change and development and does not fit here.

Confluence meaning joining.

Looking at the words for the first blank, options A, C, and E are eliminated.

Between B and D, the second word of option B is incorrect. Liberty, equality, and fraternity are
ideals or values, not idols.

Hence, D is the correct answer.

The complete sentence reads as follows:

Since the emergence of the modern nation state, the values of liberty, equality, and fraternity
have been the touchstone of all democratic projects across the world.

39. D
Sol. The sentence indicates that we need two words with a negative meaning since the author
speaks of negative consequences.

Credulous means gullible and undiscerning means lacking insight or good judgement.

Hence, E is the correct answer.

40. A
Sol. The author’s advice is that people more vulnerable to infection should still wear masks. This
point is strengthened by option A, which points out that highly transmissive variants of the
virus are emerging, and a mask is a basic protection against transmission. Hence, option A is
the correct answer.
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41. A
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous. The subject, 'decision', in the sentence is singular.
Hence, the verb must also be singular to maintain the subject verb agreement. Also,
'attributable' is always followed by the preposition 'to'. Hence, the emboldened segment must
be replaced with 'is attributable to the simple' to form a grammatically correct sentence.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

42. C
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous. When multiple entities are being talked about in a
sentence, ‘different’ is followed by a plural noun. Also, 'development' must be preceded by an
adjective rather than an adverb. Therefore, the emboldened segment must be replaced with 'at
different levels of psychological development'. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

43. B
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous. An adjective is required to modify the noun 'it' while a
verb is used, which is erroneous. Hence, the emboldened segment must be replaced with
'may find it hard to recognise' to form a grammatically correct sentence. Therefore, option B is
the correct answer.

44. C
Sol. When using more than one adverb of time in a sentence, use them in the following order:

1. How long

2. How often

3. When

Accordingly, first in the sequence should be for five days (how long), then every month (how
often) and lastly, (when) – last year. Hence, option C is correct.

45. C
Sol. The error lies in the third part of the sentence. The adjective ‘intermittent’, which means
occurring at irregular intervals; not continuous or steady, along with the preposition ‘in’ is
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wrongly used here. Instead of the adjective, we need an adverb of frequency to show how
frequently the SBI customers faced the issues in the last few days due to system upgrade. So,
the correct word would be ‘intermittently’ which means at irregular intervals; not continuously
or steadily.

46. B
Sol. Passage summary: Researchers examine the reasons why the swift bird, native to Europe and the Arctic,
goes into torpor and the consequent changes in the metabolic rates and temperature variations of the
swift when it is in torpor.

Number of words: 489

Genre: Zoology

Type of question: Main idea/Theme-based question

A is a small part of the passage. It has been mentioned only in the fourth paragraph. Moreover, the
passage is about swifts and the option generalises it to all birds.

C cannot be determined from the passage. The author just mentions that swifts go into torpor together but
does not know how they coordinate this.

D is incorrect because the passage is exclusively about swifts and not about other primitive birds.

E is incorrect because hibernation in general is not the main point of the passage.

The passage explains briefly as to why the swift bird goes into torpor, and then the bulk of the passage
examines the metabolic rates and temperature variations of swifts when they go into torpor. Thus, B gives
the primary purpose of the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option B.

47. C
Sol. Passage summary: Researchers examine the reasons why the swift bird, native to Europe and the Arctic,
goes into torpor and the consequent changes in the metabolic rates and temperature variations of the
swift when it is in torpor.
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Number of words: 489

Genre: Zoology

Type of question: Inference/Indirect idea-based question

‘None’ and ‘except’ are negatives, which cancel each other. The correct answer will be the one that can be
inferred from the passage.

Options A and B can be eliminated as they are not mentioned in the passage.

Refer to the lines of the fourth paragraph: Swifts feed on flying insects, Wellbrock says. But during harsh
weather, their prey become less active, and thus less available. By going into torpor – which is not the
same as sleep – swifts temporarily drop their energy needs. This reduces brain and muscle activity,
allowing them to survive longer without food.

It is because in chilly and harsh weather, there is less availability of their prey. Thus, option C is the correct
answer.

Option D wrongly mentions temperature. It is actually their metabolic rates that go down by 56 percent.
Option E is factually incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

48. D
Sol. Passage summary: Researchers examine the reasons why the swift bird, native to Europe and the Arctic,
goes into torpor and the consequent changes in the metabolic rates and temperature variations of the
swift when it is in torpor.

Number of words: 489

Genre: Zoology

Type of question: Indirect/Inferential question

Options A, B, and C are stated in the passage.

Option D is incorrect. While in torpor, swifts drop their metabolic rates by as much as 56 percent.
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Hence, the correct answer is option D.

49. C
Sol. Passage summary: Researchers examine the reasons why the swift bird, native to Europe and the Arctic,
goes into torpor and the consequent changes in the metabolic rates and temperature variations of the
swift when it is in torpor.

Number of words: 489

Genre: Zoology

Type of question: Specific idea-based question

A is incorrect as the passage states that their metabolic rates drop at night.

B is incorrect as it mentions inhaling carbon dioxide.

C can be concluded from the extract.

D is irrelevant.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

50. B
Sol. Passage summary: Researchers examine the reasons why the swift bird, native to Europe and the Arctic,
goes into torpor and the consequent changes in the metabolic rates and temperature variations of the
swift when it is in torpor.

Number of words: 489

Genre: Zoology

Type of question: Vocabulary-based question

Torpor means the state of not being active. So, dormancy is the correct answer.

Vigour: Physical strength and good health

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Animation: The state of being full of life or vigour; liveliness

Anaemia: A condition in which there is a deficiency of red blood cells or of haemoglobin in the blood,
resulting in pallor and weariness.

Redundancy: The state of being not or no longer needed or useful

Hence, B is the correct answer.

51. A
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous. The subject, 'bankers', in the sentence is plural.
Hence, the verb must also be plural to maintain the subject verb agreement. Also, 'puppeteer'
is always followed by the preposition 'to'. Hence, the emboldened segment must be replaced
with 'have played puppeteer to' to form a grammatically correct sentence. Therefore, option A
is the correct answer.

52. A
Sol. The emboldened segment is erroneous.

The phrase is 'long in the teeth', which means 'rather old'.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

53. B
Sol. The use of the word ‘despite’ indicates the necessity of using opposing words to fill the blanks.

‘Heavy’, ‘overweight’, ‘hefty’ are synonyms denoting something that has a great weight. Thus,
options A and E can’t be used to fill the blanks appropriately.

Similarly, ‘light’, ‘feathery’, and ‘weightless’ are synonyms used to indicate that something
seems to not have any weight. Thus, options C and D can’t be used to fill the blanks
appropriately.

Thus, option B is the correct answer since it aptly denotes the contrast between the heaviness
of the loads and the lightness of the cart itself. Furthermore, the use of the word ‘light’ to fill the
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second blank completes the simile ‘as light as a feather’, which essentially means that
something is almost weightless.

54. D
Sol. The subject is introduced in segment E ‘I’, which forms a mandatory pair with C as together
they complete the phrase ‘caught sight of’ which means to notice. Now comes B hinted by the
presence of the reflexive pronoun ‘myself’. B and D form a mandatory pair to complete the
noun phrase ‘rear view mirror’. As D ends in the verb ‘grumbled’ and A begins with the
preposition ‘at’ to denote what made her grumble, E follows D. Thus, the correct order is
ECBDA.

55. B
Sol. Option A has not been mentioned in the passage, and therefore cannot be called an
assumption.

Option C, too, is out of scope of the given paragraph.

Option D is not an assumption; the assumption behind billboard signs is that people read
them, not that they ignore them.

Option B is an assumption. Refer to the following lines: ‘It is a public-service advertisement for
the government’s $85 m campaign to correct the country’s skewed sex ratio at birth.’

Option E is incorrect because it does not make any sense. Sex ratio being below par is not
related to the context.

Since the government has a campaign to correct the sex ratio, it is assumed that the sex ratio
required correction.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

56. D
Sol. Let the number of notes of each of the three denominations held by A be ‘a’.
So, 10a + 20a + 50a = 1760
80a = 1760
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a = 22
Thus, A holds 22 notes of Rs. 10, 22 notes of Rs. 20, and 22 notes of Rs. 50
Total number of notes with A = 66
Similarly, we can calculate it for the other friends.
The following table shows the number of notes that the four given friends hold:

Required answer = 22 + 16 + 16 + 19 = 73
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
57. D
Sol. Let the number of notes of each of the three denominations held by A be ‘a’.
So, 10a + 20a + 50a = 1760
80a = 1760
a = 22
Thus, A holds 22 notes of Rs. 10, 22 notes of Rs. 20, and 22 notes of Rs. 50
Total number of notes with A = 66
Similarly, we can calculate it for the other friends.
The following table shows the number of notes that the four given friends hold:

From the above table, clearly ‘D’ has the second highest total number of notes.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
58. B
Sol. Let the number of notes of each of the three denominations held by A be ‘a’.
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So, 10a + 20a + 50a = 1760

80a = 1760
a = 22
Thus, A holds 22 notes of Rs. 10, 22 notes of Rs. 20, and 22 notes of Rs. 50
Total number of notes with A = 66
Similarly, we can calculate it for the other friends.
The following table shows the number of notes that the four given friends hold:

Sum of the amount held in the denominations of Rs. 50 = 50 (22 + 16 + 16 + 19) = Rs. 3650
Sum of the amount held in the denominations of Rs. 100 = 100 (16 + 19) = Rs. 3500
Sum of the amount held in the denominations of Rs. 20 = 20 (22 + 16 + 16) = Rs. 1080
Sum of the amount held in the denominations of Rs. 200 = 200 (19) = Rs. 3800
Clearly, it is the third highest for the denomination of Rs. 100
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
59. C
Sol. Let the number of notes of each of the three denominations held by A be ‘a’.
So, 10a + 20a + 50a = 1760
80a = 1760
a = 22
Thus, A holds 22 notes of Rs. 10, 22 notes of Rs. 20, and 22 notes of Rs. 50
Total number of notes with A = 66
Similarly, we can calculate it for the other friends.
The following table shows the number of notes that the four given friends hold:
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Total number of notes with E = 200% of 57 = 114

Number of notes of Rs. 20, Rs. 50, and Rs. 100 with E will be = 38 each
So, total amount with E = 38 (20 + 50 + 100) = Rs. 6460
Clearly, the amount with E is more than that with D.

Required answer = = 36% more

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
60. A
Sol. Let the number of notes of each of the three denominations held by A be ‘a’.
So, 10a + 20a + 50a = 1760
80a = 1760
a = 22
Thus, A holds 22 notes of Rs. 10, 22 notes of Rs. 20, and 22 notes of Rs. 50
Total number of notes with A = 66
Similarly, we can calculate it for the other friends.
The following table shows the number of notes that the four given friends hold:

Total number of notes with F = 150% of 48 = 72

Number of notes of Rs. 10, Rs. 50, and Rs. 100 with F will be = 24 each
Total amount with F = 24 (10 + 50 + 100) = Rs. 3840
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Required ratio = 3840 : 1280 = 3 : 1

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
61. B
Sol. Let the total number of hours for which the man worked in the five given weeks be x.
Number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 = 0.24x
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 = 37.5 × 2 = 75
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 be y.
So, 0.16x + y = 75 …. (i)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 = 57.5 × 2 = 115
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 be z.
So, 0.3x + z = 115 …. (ii)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 = 50 × 2 = 100
hours
0.24x + z = 100 …. (iii)
Solving equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
x = 250
So, the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 = 35 hours
The number of hours for which the man worked during weeks 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is 60, 40, 35,
40, and 75, respectively.
The man worked for 35 hours during week 3.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
62. D
Sol. Let the total number of hours for which the man worked in the five given weeks be x.
Number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 = 0.24x
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 = 37.5 × 2 = 75
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 be y.
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So, 0.16x + y = 75 …. (i)

Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 = 57.5 × 2 = 115
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 be z.
So, 0.3x + z = 115 …. (ii)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 = 50 × 2 = 100
hours
0.24x + z = 100 …. (iii)
Solving equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
x = 250
So, the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 = 35 hours
The number of hours for which the man worked during weeks 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is 60, 40, 35,
40, and 75, respectively.

Required average = = 50 hours

Hence, option D is the correct answer.
63. C
Sol. Let the total number of hours for which the man worked in the five given weeks be x.
Number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 = 0.24x
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 = 37.5 × 2 = 75
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 be y.
So, 0.16x + y = 75 …. (i)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 = 57.5 × 2 = 115
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 be z.
So, 0.3x + z = 115 …. (ii)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 = 50 × 2 = 100
hours
0.24x + z = 100 …. (iii)
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Solving equations (ii) and (iii), we get:

x = 250
So, the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 = 35 hours
The number of hours for which the man worked during weeks 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is 60, 40, 35,
40, and 75, respectively.
Number of hours for which the man worked in week 6 = 150% of 40 = 60 hours
Total number of hours for which the man worked in these 6 weeks = 250 + 60 = 310 hours

Required angle = × 360˚ = 87.09˚ ≈ 87˚

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
64. B
Sol. Let the total number of hours for which the man worked in the five given weeks be x.
Number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 = 0.24x
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 = 37.5 × 2 = 75
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 be y.
So, 0.16x + y = 75 …. (i)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 = 57.5 × 2 = 115
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 be z.
So, 0.3x + z = 115 …. (ii)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 = 50 × 2 = 100
hours
0.24x + z = 100 …. (iii)
Solving equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
x = 250
So, the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 = 35 hours
The number of hours for which the man worked during weeks 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is 60, 40, 35,
40, and 75, respectively.
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It is given that on the days on which the man worked, he worked for a minimum of seven
hours and a maximum of 13 hours.
So, the man cannot work for all the days of the week during week 2, week 3, and week 4.
For the remaining two weeks viz. week 1 and week 5, the man can work on all the days of the
week.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
65. C
Sol. Let the total number of hours for which the man worked in the five given weeks be x.
Number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 = 0.24x
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 2 and week 3 = 37.5 × 2 = 75
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 be y.
So, 0.16x + y = 75 …. (i)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 and week 5 = 57.5 × 2 = 115
hours
Let the number of hours for which the man worked during week 4 be z.
So, 0.3x + z = 115 …. (ii)
Total number of hours for which the man worked during week 1 and week 4 = 50 × 2 = 100
hours
0.24x + z = 100 …. (iii)
Solving equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
x = 250
So, the number of hours for which the man worked during week 3 = 35 hours
The number of hours for which the man worked during weeks 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is 60, 40, 35,
40, and 75, respectively.
It is given that on the days on which the man worked, he worked for a minimum of seven
hours and a maximum of 13 hours.
So, the man can work for 3 days in week 3 and can complete a total of 35 hours of work.
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For week 2 and week 4, the man needs to work for at least 4 days to complete 40 hours of
work.
Total number of days for which he did not work in weeks 2, 3, and 4 = 4 + 3 + 3 = 10
During week 1, the man worked for 60 hours, this work can be completed by him in 5 days.
During week 5, the man worked for 75 hours, this work can be completed by him in at least 6
days.
So, he did not work for (2 + 1) = 3 days during week 1 and week 5.
Required answer = 10 + 3 = 13 days.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
66. C
Sol. From the given data, we can form a table as below:

Required answer = 90 + 80 + 80 + 99 + 70 + 84 = 503

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
67. C
Sol. From the given data, we can form a table as below:

Required answer = 240 + 168 + 164 + 195 + 148 + 145 = 1060

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
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68. D
Sol. From the given data, we can form a table as below:

Required answer = (100 + 120 + 110) : (240 + 180 + 200 + 225 + 180 + 175) = 330 : 1200 =
11 : 40
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
69. B
Sol. Required answer = 10 × 15% of 1200 + 20 × 9% of 1200 + 40 × 24% of 1200 = 1800 + 2160 +
11520 = Rs. 15480
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
70. D
Sol. Total amount of vegetables sold by the farmer in January 2023 = 1200 + 50% of 40% of 1200
= 1200 + 240 = 1440 kg
Amount of peas sold by the farmer in January 2023 = 24% of 1200 = 288 kg

Required answer = = 72˚

Hence, option D is the correct answer.