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Form 1 Dec Holiday Booklet

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DECEMBER HOLIDAY REVISION BOOKLET

FOR THE MARKING SCHEMES BOOKLET AND MORE SOFTCOPY

EDUCATIONAL MATERIAL
CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350
EMAIL : [email protected]

CONTACT/WHATSAPP 0743505350 FOR

CONTACT/WHATSAPP MARKING
0743505350 SCHEMES
FOR BOOKLET
MARKING AND MORE EXAM SETS!
SCHEMES
121/ 1 Mathematics Paper 1
FORM 1 2024
END TERM 1 – Time: 2 ½ hours

Name …………………………………………….……… Admission Number…………………………..

Candidate’s Signature ………………….…...……….. Date ……………………………………

Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. The paper contains two sections: Section I and Section II.

Answer ALL the question

1. s in Section I and ANY FIVE questions from Section II.
2. All working and answers must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
3. Marks may be awarded for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
4. Negligent and slovenly work will be penalized.
5. Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and mathematical tables are allowed for use.
6. This booklet contains 17 printed pages. Please confirm that all the pages exist and are
properly printed before starting the exam.

For Examiner’s use only

Section I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II

17 18 19 20 21 Total

Grand Total %

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. Write the following numbers in words (3 marks)
i. 900079

ii. 17006952

iii. 3000020739

2. Find the sum of all prime numbers between 0 and 50. (3 marks)

3. State the place values of the following digits in 52368700941 i. (4 marks)

6: ________________________________________ ii. 5:

________________________________________

iii. 2: ________________________________________

iv. 9: ________________________________________

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4. The sum of four consecutive numbers is 102. Find the numbers. (3 marks)

2 4 7
5. Arrange the following fractions in descending order. , , (3 marks)
3 7 10

6. The GCD and LCM of three numbers are 3 and 504 respectively. If two of the numbers are 24 and 72
respectively, find the least possible value of the third number. (3 marks)

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2
7. Find the perimeter of a square whose area is 289 cm . (3 marks)

8. A farmer has four types of animals on his farm. The pie chart below represents the number of animals on the
farm. If the number of goats were 30, calculate the number of camels on the farm. (4 marks)

Goats

o
Cattle
120
o
130
o
Sheep x
o
(x + 10)

Camels

2 2 2 2 2
9. Factorise 4pqr + 6p qr – 2pq r (3 marks)

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. .
10. Convert 0.427 into fraction. (3 marks)

11. Evaluate (3 marks)

12. Work out 1305 (670 235) 6 780 13 ( 3 marks)

13. Is 43516902 divisible by 11? Show your working. (3 marks)

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14. Express the following in terms of their prime factors. (3 marks)
i. 72

ii. 686

iii. 1152

15. Evaluate 55.31 + 100.184 – 143.9455 leaving your answer in standard form. (3 marks)

16. Show that 35600 is divisible by 8 and not 3. (3 marks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer any FIVE questions in this section.
17. Use squares and square root tables to solve the following (10 marks)
2
(i) 4.56 - √30.4

(ii) √0.846 + √0.095

2
(iii) 20.7 - √10486

2
(iv) 0.7865 - √0.007267

2
(v) 7.059 - √1850

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18. (a) Without using mathematical tables or a calculator, evaluate (5 marks)
2 1
+
27−45 1

(b) A fruit dealer blends the fruit juice in a common container to the brim before choosing the quantities in which
to distribute them. She can pack them in either 20 litres, 24 litres or 36 litres can before selling them. If she
chooses 20 litres cans she remains with 13 litres while when she uses 24 litres 17 litres remain in a container and
29 litres remain when distributed in 36 litres cans. Determine the least capacity of her container
in litres. (5 marks)

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19. (a) A mother is three and a half times as old as her daughter now. Five years ago, the sum of their ages was equal
to the mother’s age four years from now. Taking the daughter’s present age as d years, find the mother’s
actual age in 15 years. (4 marks)

(b) Annette has some money in two denominations only. Fifty shillings notes and twenty shilling coins. She has
three times as many fifty shilling notes as twenty shilling coins. If altogether she has sh. 3,400, find the number
of fifty shilling notes and 20 shilling coin. (3 marks)

(c) The mean of five numbers is 20. The mean of the first three numbers is 16. The fifth number is greater than
the fourth by 8. Find the fifth number. (3 marks)

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20. Use number lines to perform the following operations (10 marks)
a) (+5) – (3)

b) (-4) + (2)

c) (+2) + (+5) + (-8)

d) (-3) + (+6)- (-2)

e) (+2) + (-6) – (+3) – (-4)

2
21. (a) The area of a triangle whose height is equal to the length of its base is 40.25 cm . Calculate the length of
the base. (3 marks)

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(b) Without using a calculator and tables, evaluate (4 marks)
11.7 x0.036x5.8
130x1.45x7.2

(c ) A vegetable vendor had 1348 cabbages. He sold 750 on the first day and 240 on the second day. He
added 466 to the remaining stock on the third day. (3 marks)
(i) How many cabbages did he have at the end?

(ii) If he sold the cabbages at a cost of shs 15, how much money did he get?

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END TERM 1-2024

ENGLISH

FORM ONE (1)

TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

Name …………………………………………….……… Adm. Number…………………………..

Class…………………..………………….…...……….. Date……………………………………

Instructions To Candidates:

a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.

b) Indicate your class and write the date of exam in the spaces provided.

c) Answer all the questions in this paper.

d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only:

S/No. Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 Comprehension 20

2 Oral Skills 20

3 Writing 20
4 Grammar 20
TOTAL 80

This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.

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1. COMPREHENSION

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follows. (20 Marks)

Why We Cannot Do Without Prefects

Prefects play a pivotal role in school leadership. As student leaders, their role has evolved with the ever-
changing school systems the world over. Incidentally, the more the education set-up changes, the more
the duties of this cadre remain the same. Our discussion explores the role of prefects as leaders in a
school set-up.

The concept of prefects is historical. It goes back to ancient Roman administrative systems where
leaders were powerful, military, judicial and executive people. The word ‘prefect’ suggests ‘one who
does things first’. You could, therefore, say that a prefect is a prime mover. In education, the systems of
having prefects grew out of 14th century experiments in British centers of academic instruction.

Prefects have considerable authority over other students. This is in line with the British and
Commonwealth traditions. Prefects, in essence, assist the teachers in running schools. Basically, they
deal with discipline and student control in and out of the classroom. The prefect leadership system is
hierarchical with the head prefect, variably referred to as the school president. In this structure, a class
prefect, for example, can refer particularly difficult students to the head prefect. A few years ago,
prefects would actually administer corporal punishment. This has now been abolished in most countries,
as modern opinion disapproves of enforcing discipline through cruel and degrading treatment.

In Kenya, prefects’ bodies link the school administration and student. The democratically elected prefect
body is a bridge between the school administration and students. The prefects inform the teachers about
the aspirations and desires of students. This has become an essential recipe for the clam prevailing in
most schools these days. Prefects also implement the wishes of teachers and the school administration.
Furthermore, it has been mooted that these students’ leaders may as well sit on school boards and other
important organs in the school systems. In India, Malaysia, Singapore, Pakistan and Sri Lanka, prefects
enjoy sweeping powers, including subtly having a say in the executive running of the institutions.

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Prefects are usually students of high and admirable moral demeanor. They are role models for the other
students.

They are expected to inspire stubborn and wayward students to change and they have positive influence
on their colleagues. History has proved that schools’ leaders who perform well and are of good character
are highly admired and respected. They eventually carry this trait into their adult lives, hence becoming
leaders in the fields of their choice. any respected leader today will probably point out that their
background in school leadership was a major contributing factor.

Finally, prefects, particularly in Kenya, can now boast about having a direct input in the formation of
education polices. The umbrella association for secondary school head teachers in the country has
organized forums for student leaders with the aim of enhancing the participation of students in the
management of school affairs. This usually culminates in a national students’ council in which students’
leaders articulate issues of education importance. This promotes unity among the schools. The first ever
national students’ council was launched at the Bomas of Kenya on 4th April 2009. It was attended by
over two thousand democratically elected student leaders from secondary schools all over the country.

Although the responsibilities of prefects vary from school to school, their role has a huge bearing on the
stability of their institution. They are, indeed, prime movers in most of the activities in schools. it
certainly would not be a bad idea to have their role strengthened further.

Questions

a. According to the passage who is a prefect? (2 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. What led to the systems of having prefects in education? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c. How do prefects act as a link between the school administrators and the students? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d. Give examples of countries stated in the passage where prefects are very powerful. (2Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

e. How many elected student leaders attended 2009 national student’s council? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f. How do prefects in Kenya contribute to the formulation of education policies? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

g. State the functions of prefects in school leadership as highlighted in the passage? (4 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

h. Give the meaning of the following words as they have been used in the passage? (4 Marks)
i. Recipe
ii. Authority
iii. Sweeping
iv. Hierarchical

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2. ORAL SKILLS

a. Fill in the gaps in each of the following sentences with the most suitable word from those given

in brackets. (3 Marks)

i. The lorry ………………………………….down Limuru road. (lolled, rolled)

ii. We sing songs to ………………………………..God. (praise, please)

iii. The lorry was quite………………………………… . (wrong, long)

b. Imagine you are preparing to make a presentation in class during the English lesson. How will

you use your voice effectively in order to make a powerful presentation. (2 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c. Give other words that have same pronunciation but are spelt differently as the ones provided

below. ( 5 Marks)

i. Ore

ii. One

iii. Hole

iv. Queue

v. Flower

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d. During a class reader reading session, your teacher of English notes that some students have poor

reading habits, what makes him/her to come to that conclusion? (5 Marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

e. Read the following short form item and answer the questions that follows.

“The shortest soldier shot the second shortest soldier’s shoulder.”

i. Identify the short form item above? (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii. Identify one feature of the item? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Give two functions of the item above? (2 Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. WRITING
a. Rewrite the following paragraph in good handwriting correcting the misspelt words. (10 Marks)

I feel confindent that I will find my mother at home. The messanger she had sent to me arrived in

good time and brought me the good news. He is a responsible person. My mother works with good

people. She has no enermies. I love her very much. She works quiet hard and let’s me do my

homework. There is ussually alot of schoolwork to be done at home. My mother has made our home

a convinient working place.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Use commas where necessary in each of the following sentences. (5 Marks)

i. Well I hope you learnt a lesson from this.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

ii. Kayleigh show the visitor the principal’s office.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. After the mother left the child began to cry.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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iv. The long rains failed . Consequently there was crop failure.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

v. ‘Jesus is the son of God’ said the pastor.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c. Use the appropriate final or end punctuation marks in the following sentences. (5 Marks)

i. What a wonderful animal a Kangaroo is

ii. Sunday is the first day of the week

iii. Which is the tallest mountain in the world

iv. Did Adam have milk teeth

v. Is it true to say that boys are superior to girls

4. GRAMMAR

a. Use the list provided in the box below to group the nouns into common and proper nouns. (4
Marks)

Man College

Basweti Afraha Stadium

Country President

Kenya Barrack Obama

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. State whether the following nouns are concrete or abstract. (4 Marks)

Kindness Smell Goat Health

Table Seat Love Mat

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c. Fill in the blanks with the plural form of the word in brackets. (4 Marks)

i. All of Kenyatta’s ………………………….died because of the very cold weather.

(sheep)

ii. The police produced three …………………….as exhibits. (knife)

iii. Why do you live in a house that attracts ………………………? (mouse)

iv. Semba consulted many ………………… before responding to the commissioner.

(chief)

d. Use ‘a’, ‘an’ and ‘the’ to fill in the blanks in the following sentences. (4 Marks)

i. I am just going to …………………post office. I won’t be long.

ii. How often do you go to ……………………..dentist?

iii. She is ……………………………useful person most of …………………….time.

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e. Fill in the gaps in each of the following sentences with the appropriate reflexive pronouns.

(2 Marks)

i. Nancy blamed ……………………………… for the accident.

ii. When I went to college, I supported ………………………… by working in the

institution cafeteria.

f. Underline the possessive pronouns in the following sentences. (2 Marks)

i. This colourful shirt is yours.

ii. All I know is that theirs is just a joke.

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KISWAHILI KIDATO CHA KWANZA

MTIHANI WA MUHULA WA KWANZA 2024

Machi 2024

MUDA: SAA 2

Jina:………………………………………….. Nambari ya Usajili…………………….

Shule…………………………………………………………………………………..….

Maagizo:

1. Jibu maswali yote.

2. Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa katika karatasi hii ya maswali
3. Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
4. Karatasi hii ina kurasa 7 zilizopigwa chapa
5. Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kuwa kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee.

Swali Upeo Alama

1. UFAHAMU 15

2.MATUMIZI YA LUGHA 40

3.ISIMUJAMII 10

4.FASIHI SIMULIZI 15

Jumla 80

SEHEMU YA A: Soma Taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali

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Nilianza kusikia habari za ugonjwa wa ukimwi mnamo mwaka wa 1984. Wakati huo
nilikuwa nimemaliza masomo yangu ya kidato cha sita na kujiunga na chuo cha walimu
kilichopo wilayani Nyeri kiitwacho Kagumo. Nilihofu sana maradhi hapo hasa nilipowaona
walioambukizwa wakikondeana mithili ya ng’onda. Baada ya waathiriwa kufariki, jamaa zao
hawakurusiwa kawazika. Wizara ya Afya ilitoa amri kali kuwa wale wote waliofariki
kutokana na maradhi ya ukimwi wazikwe na kikundi maalum cha madaktari na wauguzi wa
hospitali za wilayani. Kulikuwa na kasisi mmoja tuliyehusiana kiukoo aliyefariki kutokana na
maradhi ya ukimwi. Sisi hatukurusiwa hata kumsongea karibu marehemu alipoletwa
nyumbani. Madaktari na wauguzi walivalia majoho meupe ungedhani ni malaika. Mikononi
walivaa glovu nyeupe ambazo zilitutisha machoni.

Mara nyingi nimeshangazwa na athari za ugonjwa huu. Inasemekana kuwa kuna njia kadha
za usambazaji wa ugonjwa wa ukimwi. Njia moja ni kuhusika katika kitendo cha mapenzi na
mtu ambaye ameambukizwa virusi vya ugonjwa huo. Njia nyingine nimeelezwa kuwa ni kwa
kutumiwa kwa pamoja vifaa vyenye makali na mtu aliyeambukizwa virusi vya ukimwi.
Inasemekana kuwa kugusa damu ya mtu aliyeambukizwa ugonjwa huu kunaweza kukutia
mashakani.Mama mjamzito aliyeambukizwa ugonjwa huu anaweza kumwambukiza mtoto
aliye tumboni anapojifungua na hata baadaye anapomnyonyesha mtoto wake mchanga. Kisha
kuna kupokea damu kutoka kwa mtu ambaye tayari ameambukizwa janga hili la ukimwi.

Lakini nimewahi kusikia watu wakisema kuwa ukimwi si maradhi. Yaani ni upungufu tu wa
kinga ya kukabiliana na magonjwa na katika mwili wa binadamu. Maadamu ukiweza
kuimarisha kinga ya magonjwa katika mwili wako basi unaweza kuishi kwa miaka na
mikaka.

Anachohitajika mtu ni apate chakula na lishe bora, afanye mazoezi ya kutosha, na kujiepusha
na mahusiano ya kimapenzi na watu wengine ambao huenda wakamwambukiza aina tofauti
za virusi vya ukimwi. Hayo yakifanyika mwathiriwa huwa na matumaini ya kuishi kwa muda
mrefu kwani hatazidiwa na maradhi hayo na mwishowe kwenda jongomeo. Kuna haja
kubwa ya kujilinda na kuepukana kabisa na janga hili lililotuzingira. Wengi tayari
wameshapoteza roho zao. Wengine walioambukizwa wanaugua hospitalini na majumbani
mwao kisirisiri. Mungu atujalie heri na atuepushe na shari, kwani utafiti wote ambao
umefanywa kuhusu tiba ya uwele huu haujafua dafu hata kidogo. Hata hivyo Mola hamtupi
mja wake. Dawa za kukabiliana na makali ya virusi vya ukimwi al maarufu ARVs
zimevumbuliwa na zimesaidia pakubwa katika kuokoa maisha ya waja wengi ulimwenguni.

MASWALI
(a) Ipe habari hii anwani ifaayo; (Alama 1)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) Kwa nini mwandishi ana hofu sana ya maradhi ya ukimwi? (Alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..…………………………………………………………………………
………..………………………………..……………………………………………………
(c) Hapo awali watu waliwachukulia vipi walioambukizwa maradhi ya ukimwi? (Alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..……………………………………………………………..….…………
………………………………………..……………………………………………………
……………….………………………………………………..……………………………
(d) Eleza njia mbalimbali zinazomfanya mtu kuambukizwa maradhi ya ukimwi? (Alama 3)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..………………………………………………………..…………………
………………………………………..…………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………..……………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………….............
..............................................................................................................
(e) Je, tunawezaje kuepukana na janga hili la ukimwi? (Alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..…………………………………………………..………………………
……………………………………..…………………………………………………..……
…………………………………………………………..…………………………………
………………………………………………………………
(f) Mwathiriwa wa virusi vya UKIMWI anaweza kuishi Maisha ya kawaida na kwa miaka
mingi akifanya nini? (alama 2)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumika katika taarifa. (Alama 3)
(i) Uwele
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Haujafua dafu
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) kuenda jongomeo
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA. (ALAMA 40)

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a) Tambua vipashio vya lugha kuanzia kidogo hadi kikubwa (alama 4)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) i) Lugha ya Kiswahili ina aina mbili kuu za sauti. Zitaje. (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) tofautisha aina mbili za sauti ulizotaja katika b) i) na uzitolee mfano mmojammoja.
(alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Tambua sifa tatu kwa kila sauti uliyopewa: (alama 3)
/a/
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
/o/
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Huku ukizingatia kigezo cha namna hewa inavyozuiliwa wakati wa utamkaji, tambua aina
za konsonanti na uzitolee mfano mmoja mmoja. (alama 7)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Tofautisha kati ya ala tuli na ala sogezi kisha utoe mfano mmoja mmoja kwa kila aina.
(alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
f) i. silabi ni nini? (alama 1)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. silabi zilizotiwa msitari katika neno lifuatalo ni za aina gani? Kwa nini? (alama 2)
M-tu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. Andika neno lenye muundo huu wa silabi: KKKI-KI (alama 1)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
g) Tia shadda katika maneno yaliyokolezwa ili kutoa maana iliyokusudiwa. (alama 2)
Barabara wanafunzi wapenzi wa Kiswahili barabara zote zinaelekea mjini kwa tamasha
za muziki.
h) Maneno yafuatayo yamo katika ngeli gani? (alama 3)
Kiziwi…………………………………………………………………………………
Karatasi……………………………………………………………………………….
Meza………………………………………………………………………………….
i) Tambua maneno yaliyomo kwenye sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 4)
Mwizi sugu sana na mwenzake walikamatwa na askari ndani ya msitu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
j) Andika katika wingi. (alama 2)
Mkulima bora hupokea mazao tele kutoka shambani
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
k) Kanusha katika wakati ujao. (alama 2)
Ulisoma vizuri sana
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
l) Karimu ni kwa -choyo, tua ni kwa………………….. (alama 1)

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m) Tambua kundi nomino na kundi tenzi katika sentensi ifuatayo. (alama 2)
Wanafunzi wote wenye bidii watapita mtihani huu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. ISIMUJAMII (ALAMA 10)

1. Fafanua maana ya msamiati ufuatao: (alama 4)
Isimu
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Jamii
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Isimujamii
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Lugha
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Lugha ina umuhimu gani katika jamii yako? (alama 6)
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4. FASIHI SIMULIZI (ALAMA 15)

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a) Fafanua maana ya msamiati ufuatao: (alama 4)
i. Fasihi
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii. Sanaa
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii. fasihi simulizi
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv. fasihi andishi
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Fasihi ina umuhimu gani katika jamii? (alama 6)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Kwa kutumia hoja tano, linganisha fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi (alama 5)
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NAME: ……………………………………………….. ADMNO: ………………………………….

SCHOOL: ……………………………………………...SIGNATURE: ………………………………

DATE: ……………………………

Term 1 - 2024
BIOLOGY
FORM ONE
MARCH, 2024 - 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

(a) Write your name, ADMNO and school in the spaces provided above

(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above

(d) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that

no questions are missing.

(e) Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 GRAND TOTAL

This paper consists of 11 printed pages

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1. a) What is biology (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) State four scientific skills imparted to biologists by studying biology (4 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. a) What biological knowledge is required in dealing with ticks that infest a cow (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) State three main branches of biology (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3. List three differences between a plant and an animal. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. Mention the name given to the study of each of the following: (3 marks)

a) The cell…………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Microorganisms…………………………………………………………………………………..

c) Insects …………………………………………………………………………………………….

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5. State the importance of each of the following in living organisms (2 marks)

a) Excretion

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Reproduction

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

6. What characteristics of organisms is described below

a) A cat giving birth to kittens and eating them. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) A snake hissing at the sight of a cat. (1 mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) A boy running to class at the sound of a bell. (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

7. The figure below shows one of the characteristics of living things. Identify the characteristic shown.

(1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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8. Give four reasons why Biology is studied in schools. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. a) What is magnification (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………b

b) A student observed a leg of an insect under a hand lens and made a drawing of the leg whose length was

4cm with a magnification of X2. What was the actual length of the leg? (2 marks)

10. a) State two precautions to observe when collecting millipedes, centipedes and spiders. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the apparatus used when collecting mosquitos for study. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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11. a) i) Which microscope has a higher resolving power? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) Give a reason for your answer in 11 (a) (i) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

12. The diameter of the field of view of a light microscope is 5.5mm. Plant cells lying across the diameter are

20. Determine the size of one cell in micrometers. (Show your working.) (2 marks)

13. a) Name the organelles that perform each of the following functions in a cell. (2 marks)

i) Synthesis of proteins

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) Transport of cell secretions

………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

14. a) What is the Binomial nomenclature? (2 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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b) The scientific names of three animals leopard, wolf and lion in the family carnivore are; Panthera

pardus, Canis lupus and Panthera leo respectively.

i) Why are scientific names given in Latin? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………......

ii) What does Canis refer to? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Giving a reason, state the organisms that are most closely related. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. a) Give reasons for carrying out the following during preparation of temporary slides. (3 marks)

i) Cutting thin sections

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Staining

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Adding a drop of water

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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16. Below are some of the common apparatus used to collect the specimen. Use it to answer the questions that

follow.

a) i) Name the apparatus. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) Give two functions of the roof in the apparatus. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

i) Name the apparatus shown in (b) above (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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ii) Give the role of the apparatus named in (b) (i) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

17. Give the procedure of focusing an object using low power objective lens of a light microscope. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

18. a) Define taxonomy. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the second taxonomic unit of classification in plants. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name any three kingdoms of classification. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. a) What is the function of centriole in a cell? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name the cell organelle that would be abundant in a skeletal muscle. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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20. A biology student used a microscope with X40 objective lens and X5 eye piece lens to magnify an object.

Calculate the magnification of the object. (2 marks)

21. The outbreak of COVID 19 posed a great threat and untold suffering among human population across the

world. State how the importance of biology came out clearly in the following areas as a result of the

outbreak of corona virus;

i) International cooperation (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Career choice (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

iii) Solving environmental problems (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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22. The diagram below represents a common laboratory equipment.

a. Identify the equipment. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b. Name the parts labelled E and G (2 marks)

E……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

G……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c. Identify the letters that represent the parts used in;

i) Changing the parts labeled D from one to the other. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Inclining the equipment to an appropriate position. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. The diagram below shows a certain cell. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify the cell. ( 1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give two reason for your answer in (a) above. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the structures labeled 1, 2 (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) State the function of the part labeled 3 (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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24. The diagrams below represents some of the specialized cells in living things.

a) Identify the cells labelled X and Y. (2 marks)

X…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………........

Y………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Identify the modification in their structure that is common to both of them. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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CHEMISTRY
FORM ONE
TERM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………… Date: …………………...

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(i) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(ii) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(iii)Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
(iv) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
(v) Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed
as indicated and that no questions are missing

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1. Study the figure below and answer questions that follow.

(a) Name the type of flame shown and give a reason. (2mks)

(b) Name the parts labelled F and G. (2mks)

2. State the best method to separate the following mixtures (3mks)

(a) Components of crude oil

(b) benzoic acid and sodium chloride

(d) Iron filings and Sulphur

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3. Draw and state one use of the following apparatus. (4mks)

(a) Deflagrating spoon

(b) Mortar and pestle

4. State three roles of chemistry as a subject to the society (3mks)

5. (a) Define the following terms (3mks)

(i) Drug

(ii)Drug abuse

iii)Chemistry

(b) State two effects of drug abuse to the consumer (2mks)

6. Highlight five laboratory safety rules (5mks)

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7. The diagram below shows parts of a Bunsen burner.

a) Name the parts labelled A , B , C (3mark)

b) Give one use of the part labelled A,B,C (3mark)

8. Explain why most laboratory apparatus are made of glass (2mks)

9. (a) Define the term conductor as used in chemistry and give two examples of conductors
(3mks)

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b) Name two apparatus that are used to measure accurate volume of liquids in the laboratory
(2mks)

c) State THREE frequently abused drugs by the Kenyan youth (3mks)

10. (a) A patient was given tablets with prescription 2 x 3 on the envelope. Clearly outline how
the patient should take the tablets.
(2 mrk)

(b) Two samples of equal volumes of water were put in 250cm³ beaker and heated for 10
minutes. Sample 1 registered a higher temperature than sample 2.

i)State the condition under which flame II is produced in Bunsen burner. (1mrk)

ii) Name the flame used to heat beaker I. Explain your answer (2mks)

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11. The apparatus below was used to separate a mixture of water and kerosene.

a) State two properties of the liquids that make it possible to separate them using such
apparatus. (2 mks)

b) Name the liquids A and B (2mks)

c) give the name of the above method of separation (1mk)

12. Describe the procedure used in separating a mixture of sand, aluminium chloride, iron filings
and sodium chloride in the laboratory (5mks)

13. State two laboratory rules to observe when preparing a poisonous gas. (2mks)

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14. The diagram below shows how muddy water can be made clean. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.

(a) Name the apparatus labeled X. (1 mk)

b) Identify the method of separation above (1mk)

(d)give one industrial application of the above method (1mk)

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15.) The diagram below shows a set up that was used by a student to separate a mixture of
water and ethanoic acid. Study it and answer the questions that follow. (Boiling point water =
100OC, ethanoic acid = 118OC)

a. State one mistake in the set up. (1mk)

b. Which component of the mixture will be collected first and why? (2mks)

c. What are the roles of the following; (4mks)

i. Thermometer

ii. Liebig condenser

iii. Fractionating column

iv. Glass beads

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d. Why is it preferable for the distillation flask to be round- bottomed rather than flat
bottomed rather than flat bottomed? (1mk)

e. At what point does one know that the entire first fraction has been removed from the
distillation flask. Explain. (2mk)

16. The diagram below shows the relationship between the physical state of matter. Study it and
answer the questions that follow;

a) Identify the processes R, V, W and U (4mks)

b) Name two substances that can undergo the process represented by process S and T (2mks)

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Name………………………………….Date………………Candidate’s Signature: ………...…….

Stream ..................Adm.No..................

PHYSICS THEORY
Time: 2 hours
April 2024
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
PHYSICS
FORM 1 PHYSICS
END TERM 1

Instructions to Candidates

 Write your name, admission number, class and signature in the spaces provided at the top of
the page.
 Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
 All working MUST be clearly shown.
 This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
 Candidates should answer the questions in English and check to ensure that no question(s) is
missing.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1-18 60

This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check and ascertain that all
questions are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
TURN OVER

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Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. What is Physics? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State and explain any two branches of physics. (4 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Explain the relationship between Physics and:

(i) Religious studies. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Biology. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Geography. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Distinguish between derived physical quantities and basic physical quantities giving
examples in each. (4 marks)

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5. The diagram in figure 1 below shows a piece of sewing thread wound 12 times on a ruler.

Figure 1

Determine the thickness of the sewing thread. (3 marks)

6. a) Draw a 50𝑐𝑚3 burette containing water of volume 28.2𝑐𝑚3 . (2 marks)

b) If 60 drops of water fell from the burette above, the final level of water was
42𝑐𝑚3 .Calculate the volume of one drop. (3 marks)

7. Define density and state its S.I units. (2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Figure 2 below shows a girl viewing an overhead tank carrying a liquid of mass 8,400 kg.
the tank is calibrated in 𝑚3 .

Figure 2

The girl read the volume from the tank and then used it for further calculation.
Determine;

i. The volume of the liquid in the overhead tank in 𝑐𝑚3 . (2 marks)

ii. The density of the liquid as obtained by the girl. (3 marks)

9. Explain why, while working in the laboratory it is advisable to:

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i. NOT touch exposed electrical wires. (1 mark)

ii. NEVER taste, drink or eat anything in the laboratory. (1 mark)

10. Define force and state its S.I units. (2marks)

11. Two horizontal springs are attached to a block, resting on a frictionless surface, as shown
in figure 3 below. A force of 100N pulls on one spring. The block does not move. Find
the value of the force on the other spring. (2 marks)

Figure 3

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State 3 effects of a force. (3 marks)

13. Name any two instruments you would use to measure mass in the laboratory. (2 marks)

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14. An astronaut has a mass of 65Kg on earth’s surface.

Calculate:
i. His weight on earth , given that earths gravitational field strength is 10 𝑁⁄𝐾𝑔 .
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii. His mass on the moon. (Give a reason for your answer.) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
iii. The gravitational field strength of the moon, where his weight was determined to be
108.33N. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Estimate the area of the irregular surface shown in the figure 4 below by counting the
small squares. The area of one complete square is 1cm2. (3 marks)

Figure 4

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16. In an experiment to determine the density of sand using a density bottle, the following
measurements were recorded;

𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑡𝑦 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑏𝑜𝑡𝑡𝑙𝑒 = 43.2𝑔

𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑏𝑜𝑡𝑡𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 66. 4𝑔
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑏𝑜𝑡𝑡𝑙𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑠𝑜𝑚𝑒 𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑑 = 67.0𝑔
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑏𝑜𝑡𝑡𝑙𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑑 𝑢𝑝 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 82.3𝑔
Use the above data to determine the following:
a) Mass of the water that completely filled the density bottle. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Volume of water that completely filled the density bottle
(density of water = 1.0 gcm-3) (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Volume of the density bottle. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Mass of sand. (1 mark)

e) Mass of water that filled the space above the sand. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Volume of sand. (2 mark)

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g) Density of the sand. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Explain why it is easier to ride a bicycle round a bend on a road if the surface is dry than
when it is wet. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Define pressure and state its SI units. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

END.

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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
FORM 1 END TERM 1
GEOGRAPHY
March 2024 - TIME: 2 Hours
Answer all Questions

1. (a) Define the term geography? (2mks)

(b) Name three topics under physical geography. (3mks)
(c) Name three branches/divisions of physical geography. (3mks)
(d) Give three areas of study under practical geography. (3mks)
2. (a) State four reasons for studying geography. (4mks)
(b) Describe how geography is related to:
(i) Mathematics (2mks)
(ii) Chemistry (2mks)

(iii) Biology (2mks)

3. (a) What is solar system? (2mks)
(b) Name any three components of the solar system. (3mks)
(c) (i) What is a natural satellite? (2mks)
(ii)Name any three natural satellites. (2mks)
(ii) State one reason why stars are not part of the solar system. (1mk)
(d) (i) Name three examples of the inner planets. (3mks)

(ii) State three characteristics of the sun. (3mks)

(iii) What is rotation of the earth? (2mks)

(iv) State four effects of rotation of the earth. (4mks)
(e) Name three processes the atmosphere is heated. (3mks)
(f)What is terrestrial radiation? (2mks)

4. (a)(i) Besides the crust name two internal parts of the earth’s structure. (2mks)

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(ii) Describe three characteristics of the crust. (3mks)

(b) Name any two transition zones in the interior of the earth. (2mks)
(c) State any three reasons why the interior of the earth is hot. (3mks)
(d) Give any two evidence to show that the interior of the earth is hot. (2mks)
5. (a) Define the term weather. (2mks)
(b) Name any three elements of weather. (3mks)
(c) Besides relief rainfall, name two other types of rainfall. (2mks)
(d) Describe how relief rainfall is formed. (4mks)
(e) (i) What is temperature? (1mk)
(ii) Name three factors that influence temperature of a place. (3mks)
(iii) State three factors that influence amount of solar radiation reaching the earth’s
surface. (3mks)
6. (a) Describe the Passing Star Theory. (4mks)
(b) State three weaknesses of the passing Star Theory. (3mks)
(c) State any four proofs that the earth is spherical. (4mks)
(d) (i) What is equinox? (2mks)
(ii) Give two dates of the year when equinox is experienced. (2mks)
7. (a) (i) What is a Stevenson Screen? (2mks)
(ii) Name any two instruments kept in a Stevenson Screen. (2mks)
(iii) Describe any three features/Characteristics of a Stevenson Screen. (3mks)
(b) Name three main layers of the atmosphere. (3mks)

Page 2 of 2

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HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT (311)

END OF TERM 1 2024 EXAM

FORM ONE (1)

Time:

Name: ………………............................................................Adm No..................

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..

Signature: ………………………………………………… Date: …………………...

Instructions to Candidates

a. This paper consists of TWO sections A AND B

a. Answer ALL QUESTIONS.
a. Answers to all the questions must be written legibly in the answer booklet provided.
Candidates should answer the questions in English

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS.

1. Define the term Pre-history (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

2. Apart from Political history, name two other branches of history (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

3. State two characteristics of a historical event (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

4. Identify two forms of government that exists in the world (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

5. Give three career choices that are influenced through the study of History and
Government ( 3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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6. State three forms of oral traditions (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

7. What is an archaeological site (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

8. State two disadvantages of relying on linguistics as a source of history and

government (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

9. Identify two chemical methods that are used by archaeologists in dating fossils and
artifacts (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

10. Give one example of an audio-visual source of history and government (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

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11. State the two theories that explains the origin of agriculture (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

12. Identify two irrigation methods that were used in Egypt (2 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

13. Give a reason why Homo habilis was also called man with ability (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................................................

14. a.)State five methods that are used by archaeologists to locate archeological sites
(5 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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b.)Explain five benefits of the discovery of fire by the early man (10 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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SECTION B (60 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
15. a.)State three disadvantages of written sources of history and government (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

b.)Explain the importance of studying government (12 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

16. a.)Give three theories which explains the origin of human (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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b.)Explain six reasons why Africa is regarded as the original homeland for mankind (12

marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

17. a.)Identify three prehistoric sites that are found in Kenya (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

b.)Describe the life of early human beings during the Old Stone Age period (12 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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......................................................................................................................................................

18. a.)State three reasons why hunting of wild animals was mainly a group activity
during the stone age period (3 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

b.)Explain six reasons why early people domesticated crops and animals during the Neolithic
period (12 marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

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......................................................................................................................................................

**************************END**********************************

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CRE
FORM ONE
TERM 1-2024
TIME: 2 HOURS
Instructions: Answer All Questions.
1. Explain seven reasons for studying CRE (7mks)
2. Why is the bible referred to as a library (7mks)
3. Identify seven literary forms used in writing the bible (7mks)
4. Give the eight divisions of the books of the bible (8mks)
5. Identify occasions when bible is used in Kenya. (5mks)
6. Identify the Pauline letters in the New Testaments (7mks)
7. Mention seven versions of the bible used in Kenya today (7mks)
8. Outline seven differences between the first and second creation accounts. (7mks)

9. With reference to the Genesis stories of creation outline the attributes of God. (8mks)

10. Identify the responsibilities given to human beings by God in the Biblical creation accounts.
(8mks)
11. Identify the consequences of sin from the story of the fall of man in Genesis 3. (7mks)

12. What are the causes of evil in Traditional African Communities. (8mks)

13. Outline seven similarities between the Traditional African view of evil and the Biblical
concept of sin. (7mks)
14. Describe the call of Abraham. (8 mks)
15. Identify how Abraham showed faith in God. (7mks)

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ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION/314
TERM ONE 2024
FORM ONE
TIME: 21/2 HRS

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This paper contains five (5) questions.
2. Answer all questions
3. Write your answers in the answer sheet provided.
4. All answers must be in English.

1. a) Give the meaning of the following terms: (8 marks)

i. Islam
ii. Quran
iii. Ulumul Quran
iv. Ar-Rahman
v. Al-Malik
vi. Hadith
vii. Tawheed
viii. Shirk
b) How did angel Jibril help in the revelation of the holy Qur’an? (6 marks)
c) Identify five other names of the holy Qur’an. (5 marks)

2.a) State three teachings of suratul Nasr. (3 marks)

b) Write the English translation of Suratul Asr. (3 marks)
c) Mention the rules to be followed when reciting the holy Quran. (8 marks)

3. a) State and explain the forms of Hadith. (8 marks)

b) Describe how Hadith contribute to Islamic thought and culture? (10 marks)
c) State the pillars of Iman (faith). (6 marks)

4. a) State and explain the three categories of Tawheed. (6 marks)

b) Discuss five benefits that a Muslim gets when he/she worships Allah alone. (10 marks)
c) Identify seven angels and the duties each perform. (7 marks)

5. a) State seven pillars of swalat. (7 marks)

b) Give three situations where the shahada is pronounced. (3 marks)
c) Explain five importance of Swalatul Jamaa to Muslims. (10 marks)

1
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BUSINESS STUDIES
FORM ONE TERM ONE 2024
Name: ………………………………………….....…… Adm No: ………………

Class: ………………Candidate’s Signature: ……………. Date: …../…/2024.

Answer all questions in this paper.

1. Fill in the table with the correct term as used in business studies. (5 marks)
Definition Term
a) Study of all activities that are carried out in
an office
b) Study of how people struggle to meet their
endless needs using limited resources
c) Study of systematic ways of recording and
reporting business information for decision
making
d) Study of the process of identifying a
business opportunity and acquiring the
necessary resources to start and run it.
e) Study of trade and aids to trade

2. Highlight four ways in which the study of business studies is important to the community
you live in. (4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

3. By using a tick (√), show in the table below whether the activity listed are business
activities or non-business activities. (4 marks)

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No. Activity Business Non business
a) Selling tomatoes by the roadside
b) Making chapatis for own breakfast
c) Growing onions behind the kitchen
for home use
d) Teaching students in a classroom

4. Outline four ways in which a business can perform its social responsibilities. (4 Marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

5. Classify the following factors into either internal or external business environment.
(5 Marks)

Factor Classification

a) Customers

b) Objectives

c) Suppliers

d) Management

e) Competitors

6. The following are description of features of human wants. Identify the features that relate
to the descriptions in the spaces provided... (4 Marks)

No Description Feature

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(a) Wants are too many to all be satisfied
(b) Once satisfied, they have a tendency of being felt again.
(c) Some wants are satisfied together.
(d) The same want can be satisfied using different resources.

7. List down ten items a student may require at the beginning of term two in order of
priority. (5 Marks)

8. Outline four differences between a good and a service. (4 Marks)

A GOOD A SERVICE
a)
b)
c)
d)

9. The following are occupations under direct services and commercial services:

Teaching, transport, healthcare, security, hairdressing, communication, entertainment,

warehousing, banking, insurance

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Classify the occupations appropriately. (5 Marks)

Direct Services Commercial services

10. Name the factor of production to which each of the following resources relate:
(4 Marks)

Resource Factor of production

a) Firm manager
b) Farm tractor
c) Water
d) Cotton
e) The owner
f) Buildings
g) Office secretary
h) The climate

11. In the spaces provided below, indicate the type of utility created by each of the following
commercial activities: (4 Marks)

Commercial activity Type of utility

a) Selling goods to customers:
b) Transporting goods:
c) Store keeping:
d) Making a chair:

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12. Identify five features of economic resources: (5 Marks)

13. Highlight five benefits of division of labor to an organization. (5 Marks)

14. State the reward for each of the following factors of production: (4 Marks)

Factor of production Reward

a) Land
b) labor
c) Capital
d) Entrepreneur

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15. State four factors which may limit exploitation of natural resources in a country.
(4 Marks)

16. State four reasons why human wants are not easily satisfied. (4 Marks)

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Name....................................................................Adm...........................................................
Class.....................................................................Sign.............................................................

AGRICULTURE FORM ONE

TERM 1 2024

DURATION-2HRS

Instructions
- Write your name, class and admission number in the space provided above.
- Write the date of the examination and sign in the space provided above.
- Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
- You may be penalized for wrong spelling especially technical terms.

Instructions: Answer all questions in the spaces provided

1. Give the meaning of the following words as used in agriculture (6mks)

1
Page 1 of 9 AGRI F1

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a) Agriculture

b) Floriculture

c) Apiculture

2. Giving examples, explain why agriculture is both an art and science (6mks)

3. Why is agriculture very important to the economic development of Kenya (5mk)

2
Page 2 of 9 AGRI F1

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4. Name and explain four methods of farming (8mks)

5. Give the difference between the following

a) Olericulture and pomology (2mks)

3
Page 3 of 9 AGRI F1

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b) Intensive farming and extensive farming (2mks)

c) Pastoralism and aquaculture (2mks)

d) Plantation farming and ranching (2mks)

4
Page 4 of 9 AGRI F1

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e) Small scale farming and large scale farming (2mks)

6. What are the advantages of shifting cultivation? (3mks)

7. a) What is soil profile? (2mks)

b) Below is a diagram of soil profile, label the parts A to D (4mks)

5
Page 5 of 9 AGRI F1

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8. Name four aspects of rainfall that influence agriculture (4mks)

9. a) Name four factors that influence soil formation (4mks)

b) Name the three agents of weathering (3mks)

10. Name four biotic factors that influence agriculture (4mks)

6
Page 6 of 9 AGRI F1

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11. State four effects of HIV/ AIDS on agriculture (4mks)

12. a) Give the meaning following terms as used in Agriculture (4mks)

A B

1)Domestication

2)Crop pathology

3)Crop farming

4)Agricultural engineering

b) Name five constituents of soil (4mks)

13. State three roles of soil organic matter (3mks)

7
Page 7 of 9 AGRI F1

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14. State four ways by which wind affects the growth of crops. (5mks)

15. State four roles of good soil aeration in crop growth. (4mks)

16. Outline four effects of soil organisms which benefit crop growth. (4mks)

8
Page 8 of 9 AGRI F1

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17. Explain five ways on how government policy improves agricultural production (5mks)

18. State four disadvantages of pastoral nomadism system of farming. (4mks)

9
Page 9 of 9 AGRI F1

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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
FORM ONE EXAMINATION -2024
CODE451/1 SUBJECT: COMPUTER STUDIES
MARCH – TIME 2Hours

Name: …………………………………………….…… Admission No: ……….……

Class: ………………Candidate’s Signature: …….……..Date: …..…/03/2024.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above
 Answer ALL questions
 All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUSTIONS CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 -20

TOTAL SCORE

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451/1
Answer all the questions
1. Define the following Terms as used in Computer studies
(i) Data (2marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Information (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

(iii) ICT (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

2. Mention five examples of peripheral devices (5marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

3. List five components/ devices housed within the computer system unit (5marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

4. With an aid of a diagram state the difference between analog and digital data (4marks)

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451/1
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

5. Give five challenges experienced by users of first generation computer (5marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

6.
(i) State five characteristics of fifth generation computers (5marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Mention three hardware technology difference between first generation and third generation
computers (3marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

7. Mention four ways of controlling dust levels in a computer lab (4marks)

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451/1
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

8.
(i) Give four types of Keyboards (4marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) State the functions of the following mouse skills

(a) Double click (2marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

(b) Right click (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

(c) Drag and Drop (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

9. State five ways of enforcing security in computer laboratories established in learning institutions
(5marks) (5marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

10. Mention three functions of Uninterruptible Power Supply (3marks)

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451/1
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

11. Use abacus to represent the following numbers

(i) 2370 (2marks)

(ii) 0967 (2marks)

12.
(i) Name three electronic pathway used by computer components mounted on motherboard to
exchange signals (3marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) State three characteristics of Dynamic Random Access Memory (3marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

13. List three examples of toggle keys found on a standard keyboard (3marks)

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451/1
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

14. Identify the function of each key represented by the symbols shown below
(i) (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) (2marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

15. Mention five disadvantages of using computers in organizations (5marks)

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

16.
(i) Why is Charles Babbage considered as the father of computers (2marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Name three non-electronic devices used to perform arithmetic manipulations before
electronic computer were invented (3marks)

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451/1
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

17. State five ways of using computers in learning institutions like schools (5marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

18. List five input devices that capture directly from source (5marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

....................................................................................................................................................................

19. Name three Arithmetic and Logical operations undertaken by the ALU (6marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................................

20. State two ways in which dampness affects computers that are installed in the Laboratory (2marks)
.....................................................................................................................................................................

.....................................................................................................................................................................

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451/1
TERM ONE EXAMINATION 2024
FORM ONE
442/ ART AND DESIGN
Time- 2 hours
_________________________________________
Name………………………………………….………… Class…………………….................

Admin …………..……..………..…..…. Date……………….……………………………

_______________________________________________________________
Instructions to candidates
a) Write your name, Class, house and date in the spaces provided above
b) This paper consists of two sections A, and B.
c) Answer all questions in all sections.
d) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.
e) Where drawings and diagrams are appropriate, they should be included within the text of your answers
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
g) Candidates should answer the questions in English
________________________________________________________________

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Score

score

A 1 20

B 25

C 25
Max. Score 70

SECTION A (20MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.

1(a) Define Art. [2marks]

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1
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

(b)Name any five Importances of art and design to the individual [5 marks]
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
(c ) List the career in the field of art and design [5mks]
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
(d)Study the artwork below and answer the questions that follow

(i)Which type of linear perspective is portrayed in the above composition? (1mk)

___________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii)Name the point x. (1mrk)

___________________________________________________________________________________________

(e) Study the drawing below.

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2
(i)Name the type of shape
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. (1mark)

(ii)Identify two most outstanding elements in the drawing above (2mrks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Using the same shape on the right space above, draw as it would appear lying down facing you direct. (3mks)

SECTION B (25 marks) Answer all the questions in this section.

(2) (i)Differentiate between a dot and a line (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Outline 5 characteristics of lines (5mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Give any three uses of lines (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3(a)Define shape as an element of art and design (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name two types of shapes,giving two examples of each (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(4)Define texture [1mk]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain two types of texture [2mks]

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) In the space bellow, illustrate any three ways of shading texture on a shape to create a 3D effect. [6mks]

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4
SECTION C [25 marks] Answer All questions

5(a)[i]Define Ryhthm and movement as a principle of art (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[ii] Draw a quick sketch of either a person dancing or runnning to show rhythm and movement. (8mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5
6[a] In the space below, quick sketch of your hand holding a pen/pencil drawing. [7mrks]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[b]In the space below,Design the name of your school,followed by “Art and design club” in good calligraphic
letters”(8marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

This is the last printed page

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7
Term 1 - 2024
DRAWING AND DESIGN (449)
FORM ONE
Time: 2½ Hours

Name: …………………………………… Adm No: ……………….

School: ………………………………………Class: …………………..

Signature: ………………………………………… Date: …………………...

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 TOTAL
MAXIMUM 9 6 4 4 5 7 10 8 6 6 6 7 6 6 10 100

STUDENT’S
SCORE

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

a. You should have the following for this examination:

i. Drawing instruments
ii. 3 sheet of drawing paper size A3
b. This paper consists of TWO sections A and B.
c. Answer ALL the questions in section A and B.
d. Questions in section A must be answered in the spaces provided.
e. Questions in section B should be answered on the A3 drawing papers provided.
f. All dimensions are in millimeters unless otherwise stated.
g. Candidates may be penalized for not following the instructions given in this paper.

1. (a)State any six general objectives of drawing and design as a subject. (6 marks)
1
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(b) Name three instruments used in linear measurement (3 marks)

2. Indicate the sizes of the following drawing papers (6 marks)

Paper name size

LENGTH WIDTH
A5
A4
A3
A2
A1
A0

3. Differentiate between the following terms as used in engineering. (4 marks)

a. Technical drawing

b. Artistic drawing

4. List four aims of technical drawing. (4mks)

2
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5. state where each of the following types of lines are used (5mks)

6. (a) Give one reason why the following are used in drawing. (4marks)
i. Symbols and abbreviations

ii. Lettering

(b)State three factors that contribute to quality drawing. (3 marks)

3
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7. Construct the following angles using a pair of compass , a pencil and a ruler only (10 marks)
i. 600

ii. 300

iii. 900

iv. 37.50

v. 450

4
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8. (a). Name four types of triangles and state their characteristics (8 marks)

9. Sketch the following types of drawing instruments pictorially (6 marks)

a. Eraser

b. Pair of compasses with a pencil attached

10.Construct a square whose diagonal is 65mm (6mks)

5
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11. From the given line AB, illustrate how a line can be proportionally sub- divided into 10 equal portions.
(6mks).

A B

12. Construct a kite when given the lengths of the diagonals as 71 mm and 53mm and the point of
intersection is 53mm from one end of the longer diagonal. (7mks)

13. Construct an isosceles triangle with a base measuring 62mm and an altitude of 50mm (6mks)

14. What do the following symbols represent? ( 10 marks)

6
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15. Draw the three views of the block shown below in first angle projection (6 marks)

7
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Name……………………………………………………………………………………………….
Class:……………..Admno:.………..………Date………………………Sign…………………….
.

FORM ONE EXAMINATION

TERM 1
MARCH 2024
FRENCH
2 ¼ Hours
Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s use only

Candidate’s Score

Total

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Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

1. State five advantages of studying French (5marks)

…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………

2. List five members of the francophonie/french speaking countries from;

a) Africa (5marks) b) Rest of the world. (5marks)

……………………………………………… ………………………………………………
…..………………………………………… …..…………………………………………
………..…………………………………… ………..……………………………………
……………..……………………………… ……………..………………………………
…………………..………………………… …………………..…………………………
……………………………………………… ………………………………………………
……………………………………………… ………………………………………………

3. List 5 towns or cities in France (5marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………....
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………..…………………………………………………..

4. Fill in the spaces with the convenient <<pronom personnel>>. (5 marks)

a) Comment allez- …………….?

b) …………………m’appelle Camara.

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c) ………………..t’appelles comment ?

d) ………………. vais très bien, merci.

e) ……………..… s’appellent Marie et Michelle.

f) ……………...s’appellent comment, les garcons?

g) ……………… s’appelle comment?

h) …………………s’appelle Joan?

i) ………………... nous appelons Lucie et Julie

j) Comment vas-………………….?
5. Questions sur les chiffres. Write your answer in numbers (5 marks)
i. Vingt plus un égale ____________________

ii. Cent divisé par quatre égale __________________

iii. Mille multiplié par deux égale _______________________

iv. Deux moins deux égale__________________________

v. Soixante-huit plus sept _____________________________________

6. Complete with le, la,l’ or les (5 marks)

(i) …………Togo

(ii) …………. Bahamas (ix) ………… Philippines

(iii) ……..…. Pologne
(x) …………Namibie
(iv) …………. Maroc

(v) ………… Chili

(vi) ………… Cambodge

(vii) …………. Inde

(viii) ……….. Zimbabwe

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7. Write the following dates in French in full (6 marks)

i) 16/05/1997 (mercredi)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) 27/07/2001 (lundi)

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iii) 15/08/2023 (vendredi)

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8. Fill in one word correctly to complete the following dialogue (5mks)

- Bonjour ! Je m’appelle Luiza et toi, quel est ton ………………….?

- Bonjour ! Je m’appelle Matéo. Je suis italien et toi, quelle est ta ………………………..?

- Je ……………………. brésilienne. Tu as quel âge ?

- J’ai vingt six ans et toi ?

- J’ai ………………………….. ans. Quelle est ta profession?

- Je suis …………………………………, et toi ?

- Je suis professeur de français.

9. Give the correspondent Indefinite articles below: (un, une or des) (5 marks)

1. ……………………..tapis

2. ……………………. armoire

3. ……………………. jouets

4. ……………………. chaise

5. …………………… lampes

6. ………………… garçon

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7. ……………………. bureau

8. ……………………. bibliothèque

9. ……………………. fille

10. ………………….. fenêtre

10. Give the correct spelling of the words below (9 marks)

1 Çargon
2 Moiselledema
3 Anyéka
4 Duéteiatn
5 Çanifras
6 Vilre
7 Momge
8 Dario
9 Saslec

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Name ……………………………………………………. Adm. no………………………

Student’s signature……………………………………… Class………...................

Date………………............................................................Sign........................

HOME SCIENCE
(Theory)
FORM ONE TERM 1 2024
Time: 2 hours
Instructions to students
 Write your name, class, and admission number in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date of the exam in the spaces provided.
 The paper consists of three sections: A, B and C. Answer all the questions in section A
and B and any two questions in section C. Answers to all questions must be in the spaces
provided.
 The paper has 11 printed pages. Check to see that all the pages are printed and no
questions are missing.
For examiner’s use only

Section Question Maximum Score Student’s Score

A 1-17 40

B 18 20

C 20

Total Score 100

SECTION A (40 marks)

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Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.

1. List down three modern housing designs common in Kenya today. (1½
marks)

2. What measures would you take to prevent athlete’s feet? (2

mks)

3. Give two advantages and disadvantages of using grass for thatching roofs. (4 mks)
a. Advantages
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b. Disadvantages
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4. Give three things that good posture helps to eliminate. (1½

marks)

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5. State two causes of tooth decay in small children. (2

mks)

6. Highlight three qualities a well groomed individual should possess. (3

mks)

7. Distinguish a burn from a scald.

(2 mks)

8. State three disadvantages of maisonettes in Kenya. (3 mks)

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9. In the management of burns, the following four items found in the First Aid box are used.

(2 mks)
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10. Suggest three good grooming habits that can help one prevent skin diseases. (3 mks)

11. Why would you boil a white cotton handkerchief used by someone suffering from common
cold? (2 mks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. Give four ways of preventing dandruff on the scalp. (2 mks)

(2 mks)

14. Mention two actions to avoid when managing a fractured limb. (2 mks)

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15. Give two reasons why people prefer to rent houses. (2 mks)

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16. State the uses of the following types of mops. (2 mks)

a) Floor polishing mops
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b) Furniture mops
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c) Wet mops

d) Floor dusting mops

………………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. State two reasons for sprinkling water into which a disinfectant is added onto an earthen
latrine floor.
(2 mks)

18. Suggest two points to look for when choosing a cloth’s wardrobe. (2 mks)

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SECTION B (20 marks)

(Compulsory)
Answer question 19 in the spaces provided.
19. You are home for holiday and your mother has left you a few household tasks to perform.

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a) Describe how you would clean your white canvas shoes with laces. (10 mks)

b) Outline how you would launder a bloody or mucus stained handkerchief. (10 mks)
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SECTION C (40 marks)

Answer any TWO questions in this section in the spaces provided.

20. a) Explain factors to consider when choosing hats. (8 mks)

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b) Discuss three points to look for when choosing a sweeping broom. (6 mks)
c) State six activities carried out during the cleaning of a food storage cupboard. (6 mks)

21. a) Explain four factors to consider when choosing an ironing board. (8 mks)
b) Outline six anti-social behaviour that adolescents should not engage in. (6 mks)
c) Explain three factors to consider before renting a house. (6 mks)

22. a) Explain the functions of the following parts of the body.

i) Dermis (2 mks)
ii) Sensory nerve ending (2 mks)
iii) Blood capillaries (2 mks)
iv) Epidermis (2 mks)
b) Explain four advantages of building a family house. (4 mks)
c) Explain four qualities that make plastic buckets and basins popular for use in Kenyan
homes (8 mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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This is the last printed page

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SET 2 (END TERM 3)

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NAME ……………………………………….…… ADM NO……….… DATE …….………

SCHOOL…………………………………………...……… SIGNATURE …………...……….

121

MATHEMATICS
FORM 1
OCTOBER 2024
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

END OF TERM THREE EXAMINATION

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education 2024

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of two sections: Section I and Section II.
3. Answer all questions in section I and Section II.
4. Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the
spaces below each question.
5. Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
6. KNEC Mathematical tables may be used.

For Examiner’s Use Only

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

17 18 19 20 21 Grand

Total 100

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SECTION I (50 Marks)
1. All even numbers less than ten are arranged in descending order to form a number.
a) Write the number formed (1 mark)

b) State the total value of the second digit in the number formed in (a) above (1 mark)

2. A man imported a machine at Sh. 600 000 and sold it at Sh. 1 080 000. Find the
percentage profit if he spent Sh. 60 000 for clearing the machine from the port and a
further Sh. 40 000 for shipping. (3 marks)

3. A liquid spray of mass 384𝑔 is packed in a cylindrical container of internal radius

3.2𝑐𝑚. Given that the density of the liquid is 0.6𝑔/𝑐𝑚3 ,calculate to 2 decimal places the
height of the liquid in the container (4 marks)

4. Without using tables or a calculator evaluate (3 marks)

2 × (−3) + 35 ÷ 5
−9 + 14 ÷ 7 + 4

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𝑎
5. Given that 4. 3̇5̇= 4 , find the difference between a and b. (3 marks)

6. Mapesa travelled by train from Butere to Nairobi .The train left Butere on Sunday at
2350ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 and travelled for 7ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 15 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 to reach Nakuru .After 45 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
stop, in Nakuru ,the train took 5ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 40 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 to reach Nairobi .Find the time, in the
12 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 𝑐𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑘 𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚and the day Mapesa arrived in Nairobi (2 marks)

7. Three similar pieces of timber of length 240𝑐𝑚 ,320𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 380𝑐𝑚 are cut into equal
pieces .Find the largest possible area of a square which can be made from any of the three
pieces (3 marks)

8. Evaluate √98.29 + (2.475)2 (3 marks)

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9. In the figure below, a circle centre O and radius R =24 cm the minor arc AB subtends an
angle of 𝟏𝟎𝟓0 at the centre of the circle and the corresponding sector AOB .Calculate the
𝟐𝟐
area of minor sector AOB (take 𝝅 = 𝟕
) (3 marks)

10. Wekesa spent one eighth of his February salary on farming , half on school fees and two
thirds of the remainder on food .If he spend shs 3200 on food Calculate
a) His February salary (2 marks)

b) The amount he spent on school fees. (1 mark)

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11. In the figure below, lines AB and PR are parallel. Angle 𝐴𝑄𝐵 = 86° and
angle 𝑃𝑄𝑆 = 130°. Giving reasons find the values of 𝑥 and 𝑦. (3 marks)

12. Find the prime factors of the following numbers leaving the answer in power form.
a) 300 (2 marks)

b) 24 (1 mark)

13. A cylindrical tank of diameter 1.4𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 1.2𝑚 is two-thirds full of water.
22
Calculate the capacity of the tank in litres (𝑢𝑠𝑒 𝜋 = 7 ) (3 marks)

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14. Below is a net of a model of a solid. The lengths 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝑐 = 𝐴𝐶 = 6 𝑐𝑚 and lengths
𝐴𝐹 = 𝐹𝐵 = 𝐵𝐷 = 𝐶𝐷 = 𝐶𝐸 = 𝐴𝐸 = 8 𝑐𝑚. Sketch the solid of the net by taking ABC
as the base and the height 5 cm. (3 marks)

15. Using a ruler and pair of compasses only construct triangle ABC in which 𝑩𝑪 = 𝑨𝑪 =
6𝑐𝑚 and angle 𝑨𝑪𝑩 = 𝟏𝟑𝟓𝟎. Measure line AB (4 marks)

16. Simplify the following expressions

2𝑦+4
a) (2 marks)
(2+𝑦)(2−𝑦)

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8𝑚𝑛−6𝑚+8𝑛2 −6𝑛
b) (2 marks)
2(4𝑛−3)

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SECTION II (50 marks)
Attempt any ALL questions in the spaces provided in this section
17. On applying brakes, a train travelling at s km/h can be stopped within a distance d metres
1 1
where 𝑑 = 50 𝑠 2 + 5 𝑠.
The table below shows some values of s and d

𝑠 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
𝑑 17.5 60
a) Complete the table above. (2 marks)

b) Using a scale of 1 cm to represent 5 units on both axes, draw the graph of d against s.
(4 marks)

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c) Use the graph to determine;
i. The stopping distance for a train travelling at 36 km/h. (1 mark)

ii. The stopping distance for a train travelling at a speed of 55 km/h. (2 marks)

iii. The speed at which the train is travelling if its stopping distance is 44 metres. (1 mark)

18. (a) Find the area of the figure below (2 marks)

(b) A piece of wire is in the shape of an arc of a circle, radius 10.5cm .The angle at the
centre is 1500

i) Calculate the length of the wire (2 marks)

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ii) If the wire is bent to form a complete circle find its radius (3 marks)

(c) A flower garden measuring 10m by 15m is surrounded by a path 2m wide as shown
below. Find the area of the path (Unshaded region). (3 marks)

19. (a) Solve for 𝑥 in the following equations

𝑥+4 𝑥+3
i) + =6 (2 marks)
5 5

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𝑥−2 3−𝑥 𝑥−2
ii) 3
− 4
= 2
(3 marks)

(b) A cloth dealer sold 3 skirts and 2 blouses for k.sh 840 and 5blouses and 4 skirts for Ksh
1680. Find the cost of 1skirt and 1 blouse (3 marks)

(c) Use substitution method to solve the simultaneous equation (2 marks)

2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 600

𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 350

20. (a) A farmer keeps cattle, goats and sheep in the ratio 6:2:3, the he decides to reduce the
1 1 1
by , and respectively. Find how many are left if initially there were 1452 animals in
4 2 3
his farm? (3 marks)

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(b) Ngari sold a mobile phone costing Sh. 3 800 at a profit. He earned a commission of 10%
on the profit. Find the amount earned if he made a profit of 40%. (3 marks)

(d) A dress which was costing Sh. 1 400 now sells at 800. Determine the percentage change.
(2 marks)

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21. Four ships are at sea, such that a steamliner S is 150km on a bearing of 0250 from a
cargo ship C. A trawler T is 300km on bearing of 1450 from the cargo ship C and a
Yacht Y is due west of C and on a bearing of 3000 from T.
a) Using a scale of 𝟏𝒄𝒎 = 𝟓𝟎𝒌𝒎 draw an accurate scale drawing showing the
positions of S,C,T and Y (5 marks)

b) By measurement from your scale drawing determine

i. The distance and bearing of Y from S (3 marks)

ii. The distance ST (1 mark)

iii. The distance YT (1 mark)

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NAME: ………………………………… ADM NO: ………… CLASS: ………..
ENGLISH
FORM ONE
END TERM 3 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS:
Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING
Write a letter to your best friend who is in Nakuru High School requesting him to come with his end term
question papers as you also bring yours during December holiday so that you can revise together.(20 marks)

2. CLOZE TEST (10 MKS)

Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate word.
It is an indisputable fact that agriculture 1.________________ the backbone of the economy. It is therefore
2.__________________ that we stop over-relying on the rain fed agriculture. Israel is a classic,
3.___________________ of a country that has reclaimed its deserts and put them 4.__________________ use.
Land which was 5.__________________ ‘useless’ has been turned around and 6.__________________ useful.
Egypt which solely depends on 7.________________ River Nile is a leading exporter of fruits and cereals. For
our country to 8.___________________ self-sufficiency in food production and to get a
9.___________________ for export, land should be utilized to the 10._____________________. This is only
possible with irrigation.

3. COMPREHENSION: (20 MARKS)

Read the following excerpt and answer the questions that follow.

BATTLE AT THE MANDAZI KIOSK

There was a nasty fight at the shopping centre this morning. I watched it all and I thought it was rather silly and
sad. I mean, why should two grown-up human beings fight in public like cockerels, over a little matter which
they can settle through a simple discussion. Anyway, it all started with Mwakawago, the bicycle mechanic,
going up to Amina’s kiosk and ordering two mandazi. He gave Amina fifty shillings and she gave him the
mandazi. When Mwakawago asked for his change, Amina told him there was no change. Mwakawago could
not believe his ears. He knew that mandazi cost twenty shillings each, and he expected change of ten shillings
from his fifty shillings.

“What do you mean?” he asked Amina

“The price has gone up to twenty five shillings each,” said Amina simply.
“When did you raise the price? Why didn’t you tell us?” asked Mwakawago angrily.
“Well, I am telling you now; retorted Amina. “Where would I find the time to go telling every Ali, Cherono
and Onyango about price changes?”
“Why didn’t you put up a public notice? You thief; bellowed Mwakawago fiercely, “You want to rob me in
broad daylight”
“I’m not a thief” Amina reiterated.
‘Maybe your mother is”
What did you say?” asked Mwakawago, his voice thick with threat.

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Amina tightened the knot on the leso round her hips, looked Mwakawago straight in the eye and said. “You
have no right to come here and call me a thief when I am just going about my business. If you do not want my
mandazi, just give them back and take your lousy money”
“And where does my mother come in? asked Mwakawago furiously.
“Go and ask her: Amina shouted back.
Flying into a rage, Mwakawago threw the mandazi straight into Amina;s face.
Then he grabbed her by the front of her blouse and pulled her from behind the low table on which her basket of
mandazi sat. In the struggle they upset the table, and the basket and mandazi scattered in the dust all over the
road. Mwakawago slapped Amina twice, spitting a stream of insults at her at the same time.

Just then Amina gave Mwakawago three sharp kicks on the shins and he reeled back, yelling in pain and letting
go of Amina’s blouse. Amina picked up a pot of boiling oil and aimed it at Mwakawago. Luckily it missed
him. Then Amina grabbed a knife and dashed at Mwakawago, who had picked up a huge stone and was
threatening to hurl it at her.

Fortunately, a small crowd of neighbours who had gathered around the combatants restrained then, just in time.
Mama Kivumbi, the vegetable seller got hold of Amina and tried to calm her down. Mwakawago was held
back by Simiyu from the carpentry workshop and Maneno, the barber. Amina and Mwakawago kept yelling
insults at each other. Eventually, Karimi, the chairperson of the market Traders’ Association was called. She
asked everyone to be quiet so that they could resolve the conflict in a reasonable manner.
“First,” said Karimi, “how did this whole thing begin?”

It was however, not easy to get a clear picture of what exactly had happened. Amina insisted that Mwakawago
had attacked her without any provocation, Mwakawago, on the other hand, just kept saying that Amina had
insulted his mother, and tried to cheat him.

In a short time, the crowd of traders and other by standers was divided into two groups. One group supported
Mwakawago and said that Amina was in the wrong. She had provided Mwakawago, especially by insulting his
mother. The other group, however, argued that it was Mwakawago who was at fault. He had no business going
round slapping innocent traders in their kiosks and scattering their mandazi on the road. Karimi listened
patiently to the arguments from each side.

After a while she said, “I am glad we are all discussing this matter rationally. Maybe if Amina and
Mwakawago had talked over their differences, this unfortunate fight need not have taken place”

“Madam.” said Simiyu, ‘These two were tearing at each other like wild cats. I think they should both be
disciplined:.
“That may be important, Simiyu,
“ answered Karimi, “but I think reconciliation and an amicable understanding is what Amina and Mwakawago
need most now:.

Finally, it was agreed that Karimi and a few fellow traders would help Amina and Mwakawago resolve their
differences in the privacy of Karimi’s shop. As Amina, Mwakawago and the team of peacemakers headed to
Karimi’s shop, the crowd dispersed.

QUESTIONS:
(a) What does Mwakawago do for a living? (2 mks)

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(b) Explain in one sentence why Mwakawago does not get the change he expected.(2 mks)

(d) Give two rude remarks which Amina makes to Mwakawago. (2 mks)

(e) Why do you think Amina tightens the knot on the leso around her hips? (2 mks)

(f) How would you describe the personality of Mwakawago? (2 mks)

(g) What does Amina do that portray her as a violent person? ((2 mks)

(h) Explain how the crowd reacted to Amina’s and Mwakawago’s fight. (2 mks)

(i) Identify and explain one use of a simile in the passage. (2 mks)

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(j) Explain the meaning of the following phrases as used in the passage: (2 mks)
(i) Every Ali, Cherono and Onyango –

(ii) Going about my business –

4. ORAL SKILLS (10 MARKS)

(a) Identify and number any five pairs of words that are pronounced the same. (5 mks)

Plane Mad Plain Mourn

Burrow Cut Berry Mud
Bury you Bred ewe
Pull father fool farther
Bread Moan full sea
Further see foal cut

(b) Provide a word which sounds the same as each of the following. (5 mks)

(i) male

(ii) queue

(iii) Hire

(iv) Blue

(v) Ate

5. ORAL LITERATURE (20 MARKS)

1. What is oral literature? (2 mks)

2. Give five examples of oral narratives. (5 mks)

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3. Give three examples of short forms. (3 mks)

4. Explain the functions of oral literature. (5 marks)

5. Give five features of oral literature apart from opening formular. (5 marks)

6. G R A M M A R: (20 MARKS)
(a) Put a personal pronoun in the blank spaces below. (5 marks)

(i) The key is not in the door, ______________________ is hanging on the wall.

(ii) The Zebras are by the river, ____________________ are grazing.

(iii) I am playing scrabble with David, ______________ are friends.

(iv) The girl is at home, ____________________ is studying.

(v) Open the door please, __________________ should not be shut.

(b) Change the following sentences to plural. (10 marks)

(i) The boy left the bins on the table.

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(ii) The leaf fell off the tree during the storm.

(iii) A bird perched on the roof of the house.

(iv) The army marched through the valley.

(v) A man looked after his sheep in the field.

(vi) The radio and video are on.

(vii) Harness the ox to the car.

(viii) The policeman caught a thief in the city.

(ix) The house keeper bought a mango, a tomato, an orange and a potato.

(i) They plan to build a new bridge _____________________ the river.

(ii) She worked hard ______________________ lunch break.

(iii) When the twins stand ___________________ each other, you cannot tell who is who.

(iv) To get a general impression of a book, you should read quickly _________________ it.

(v) He arrived at the venue accompanied _________________ his son.

(vi) Dance _____________________ the music.

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JINA: ………………………………………………..DARASA:………… NAMBARI………
MTIHANI WA MWISHO WA MHULA
MUHULA WA TATU – 2024
KIDATO CHA KWANZA
MUDA: SAA MBILI NA NUSU

INSHA
Andika insha ya maelezo ukimwelekeza rafiki yako jinsi ya kufika nyumbani kwenu kutoka mjini. (al 20)

UFAHAMU (AL 15)

Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Usomaji wa kifasihi ni aina Fulani ya mazungumzo. Mazungumzo haya hutokea baina ya mwandishi na msomaji
wa kitabu kinachohusika. Ni rahisi kufikiri kuwa hamna mazungumzo kwa kuwa mwandishi wa kazi ya kifasihi
hayupo ana kwa ana. Lakini yapo mazungumzo ambayo wakati mwingine yanaweza kuwa hata mjadala. Msanii
huwa amekwisha kutoa kauli yake kwa kuisanii au kuiandika kazi ya kifasihi. Msomaji anapojitosa katika
usomaji huwa sana ameipata zamu yake ya kuwasiliana na mwandishi wa kazi ya fasihi. Msomaji hupitia kazi
hiyo, akajidadisi, akaichunguza, akaihakiki na inapolazimu akaikosoa. Msomaji hatimaye anaitoa hukumu yake
kuhusu kazi ya kifasihi aliyoisoma. Ikiwa msomaji hakubaliani na mtazamo wa mwandishi, falsafa yake au
itikadi yake, hawezi kusema tu “nimekataa” lazima awe na misingi madhubuti ya kufanya hivyo. Ili kuweza
kuufikia uamuzi unaostahiki, msomaji mzuri husoma kwa makini, akaichambua na kuifasiri kazi ya kifasihi. Kwa
mfano, anaweza akawaangalia wahusika waliomo katika kazi hiyo na kujiuliza maswali kadha. Wale wahusika
wana mchango gani? Wanakumbwa na matatizo ya namna gani na wanayakiuka vipi? Je, msukumo wa wahusika
hao ni nini? Wanahusiana vipi na mazingira wanamojikuta na wanaendeleza vipi dhamira na maudhui ya kazi
hiyo. Je, mwandishi amefanikiwa kuonyesha mpatano au mshikamano wa sifa zote hizi na kuifanya kazi yake iwe
kielezo? Maswali haya anayojiuliza msomaji yanajibiwa na mwandishi kwa kuiangalia kazi hiyo kwa jicho pevu.

MAZOEZI
a) Ipe taarifa hii anwani mwafaka. (al 2)

b) Kwa nini ni rahisi kufikiri hakuna mawasiliano katika usomaji wa fasihi? (al 2)

c) Mawasiliano hutokea baina ya mwandishi na msomaji wa fasihi lini? (al 2)

d) Msomaji hutoa hukumu kuhusu kazi ya fasihi lini? (al 2)

e) Taja mambo matatu ambayo msomaji anastahili kufanya ili kutoa uamuzi mwafaka. (al 3)

f) Eleza maana ya tungo zifuatazo. (al 2)

i) Msomaji anapojitosa

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ii) Kuangalia kwa jicho pevu

g) Eleza maana ya msamiati kama ulivyotumika katika taarifa. (al 2)

i) ana kwa ana

ii) Falsafa

MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (AL. 40)

1. Tambua sauti za sauti zifuatazo. (al2)

i) /u/

ii) /e/

2. Tofautisha sauti zifuatazo. (al 2)

i) /f/

ii) /v/

3. Andika maneno yenye muundo huu. (al 4)

i) KI

ii) II

iii) KKI

iv) KKKI

4. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo. (al 2)

Tutaenda kumwona mwalimu.

5. Andika kwa udogo. (al 2)

Nyumba yake ina dirisha moja.

6. Bainisha maneno katika sentensi. (al 4)

Baba anahitaji blanketi mpya

7. Fafanua maana ya vitate vifuatavyo. (al 4)

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Fumba na vumba

8. Ainisha viambishi katika neno hili. (al 3)

Aliyepikiwa

9. Tambua kikundi Nomino (KN) na kikundi Tenzi (KT) katika sentensi. (al 2)
Kazi ya ualimu inapendeza sana.

10. Yakinisha. (al 2)

Balozi wa Australia hakuwa amewasili nchini.

11. Taja matumizi mawili mawili ya alama zifuatazo za uakifishaji. (al 4)

i) Mshazari

ii) kistari kifupi

12. Andika sentensi upya katika hali ulizopewa kwenye mabano. (al 3)
i) Taa zilimika ghafla (Tendewa)

ii) Mwashi alijenga nyumba nzuri (tendesha)

iii) Punda wa mkulima amekufa (tendewa)

13. Pambanua sentensi hii kwa njia ya mstari. (al 2)

Mama anapika chakula.

14. Kamilisha methali zifuatazo. (al 4)

i) Ujana ni moshi

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ii) Bahati ya mwenzio

ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

1.Lugha ni nini? (al 2)

2. Taja dhima tatu za lugha. (al 3)

3. Taja kaida tano za lugha. (al 5)

FASIHI SIMULIZI (ALAMA 15)

a) Eleza tofauti nne baina ya fasihi simulizi na fasihi andishi. (al 8)

b) Tambua tanzu zozote nne za fasihi simulizi na utaje mfano wa kipera kwa kila moja. (al4)

c) Taja aina tatu za hadithi. (al 3)

ii)

iii)
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Name: ………………………………… Adm no ….….......... Class.................
231
BIOLOGY
FORM ONE
END TERM 3 2024
OCT/NOV 2024
TIME: 2HRS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 Answer ALL the questions
 Answers should be written in the spaces provided
1. Name the elements that form

a) Carbohydrates……………………………………………………………………………..(1mk)

b) Proteins………...………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)

2. Define the following terms

a)Osmosis (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………....………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………..…………………………………………………...…………………
………………………………………………………………………………………....………………
b) Cell physiology (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………..………………………………………………………………………
………………..………………………………………………………………………………………...

3. Explain the following terms

a) Plasmolysis (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………..…………………..……………………………………………………
…………......................................................................................................................................……..
b) Crenation (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....…………
4. A drawing of 5cm in length was made of a beetle whose actual length was one centimeter.
Calculate the magnification of the drawing (3mks)

𝟎 𝟎 𝟑 𝟑
5. An organism was found to have the dental formula 𝒊 , 𝒄 , 𝒑𝒎 , 𝒎
𝟑 𝟏 𝟐 𝟑
i) Calculate the total number of teeth in the organism (1mk)

ii) With a reason suggest the mode of feeding of the organism from which the dental formula was
obtained. Mode of feeding…....…………………………………………………………….(2mks)
Reason
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) What is the role of diastema in herbivorous mammals (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....…………

6. a) Distinguish between heterodont and homodont dentition (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………..………………………………………………………………………
………………..………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Study the diagram of the mammalian tooth below and answer the questions that follow.

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i) Identify the tooth. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give a reason for your answer in (a) above. (1mk)

iii) State one adaptation of the tooth to its function. (1mk)

7. The diagram below represents a set-up that was used to investigate a certain process in a plant.

Gas
Test tube

Sunlight

Elodea

a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Name the gas collected in the gas jar. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) What is the confirmation test for the gas in (b) above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) State two factors that would affect the process. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Name one example of the specialized cells in plants and one example in animals.
(i) Plants (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Animals (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Identify the following apparatus and state its functions.

i) Name……………………………………………..……….(1mk)

ii) Function (1mk)

……………………..…………………………………………………
……………………….……………………………………………….

10. a) Identify one characteristics of living organisms shown in the diagram below (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name two other characteristics of the shown organisms. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) Name the kingdoms shown in the above diagram: (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. List down four differences between a light microscope and an electron microscope (4mks)

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Light Microscope Electron Microscope

12. The diagram below represents the digestive system in man. Study the diagram and answer the
questions that follow

a) Label the part K ,L, S and salivary glands M and P (5rnks)

K …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
L……………………………………………………………………………………………………
S…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
M……………………………………………………………………………………………………
P……………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Name three hormones which are secreted along the alimentary canal (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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13. Below is a structure found in plants.
a) Name the organelle. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………
b) What is the role of the organelle you have named in (a)
above. (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………
c) Name the parts labeled J and L. (2mks)

J…………………………………………................…..
L.....................................................................................
14. Name the branch of biology that deals with the study of;
a). Cells……………………………………………………………………………………(1mk)
b). Parasites………………………………………………………………………................(1mk)
L
…………………………………………………………………
15. The Biological name of housefly is MUSCA DOMESTICA.
…………………………………………………………………
(i) State two mistakes in the way the biological (scientific ) name is written. (2mks)
………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write the name in the correct manner following the rules of binomial nomenclature. (1mk)

16. State three characteristics of the cell membrane. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………….……………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…
……………………………………………………………………………………………….………....

17. The enzymes pepsin and trypsin are secreted in their inactive forms. Give the names of these
inactive forms. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………….……………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…
……………………………………………………………………………………………….………....
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18. List down six differences between a plant and an animal cell (6mks)
Plant cell Animal cell

19. Draw a well labeled diagram of a simple leaf (7mks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………ADM………

CLASS…………………………………………………………………………………………
FORM 1
233
CHEMISTRY
OCTOBER 2024
2 HOURS
THEORY
2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO STUDENTS
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
3. KNEC mathematical table and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be
used for calculations
4. All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
5. Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no question is missing
6. Students should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1-16 80

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1. State one importance of studying chemistry (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………….
2. a) Name three illegal drugs (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………
b) State three ways of preventing drug abuse. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………
3. Complete the following table (8mks)

4. State two laboratory safety rules (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………
5. The apparatus below were used to separate a mixture of liquid A and B.

a) State two properties of liquids that make it possible to separate using such apparatus.
2 marks)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Give the name of the above apparatus. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Describe how you can separate a mixture of sand and common salt (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………..
7. The diagram below shows a Bunsen burner when in use

C
B

i) Name the regions labelled B and C. (2 marks)

B………………………………………………………………………………………………
C……………………………….............................................................................................
ii) What is the function of the part labeled A? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State three differences between physical and chemical change. (3 marks)
TEMPORARY CHEMICAL

9. i) Differentiate between an acid and base (2 marks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
ii. The following is a list of pH values of some substance: Substance M N V X Z
pH 10.6 ,7.2 ,13.2 ,5.9, 1.5 respectively Identify:
a) Strong acid (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Weak base (1 mark)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. The diagram below represents the apparatus used to prepare and collect oxygen.
Hydrogen peroxide

Solid Q

Solid P
i. Complete the diagram to show how oxygen gas is collected. (2 marks)

ii. Name solid P and Q (2 marks)

P…………………………………………………………………………………….......
Q………………………………………………………………………………………..

iii. Write the word equation to show the reaction that produces oxygen gas.(1 mark)

iv. State two physical properties of oxygen. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………

v. State three uses of oxygen gas. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
11. A form one student wanted to separate and obtain iodine and sodium chloride (common table salt)
from a mixture of the two. He set the experiment set up shown below.

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(a). the mixture was heated for some time and left to cool. On cooling, shiny black crystals and white
crystals were observed on the surface of the watch glass and in the beaker respectively. Name:
i. Shiny black crystals (1mk)
…………………………………...……………………………………………………………...
ii. White crystals (1mk)
…………………………….…………………………………………………………………….

(b). what was the purpose of the cold water in the watch glass? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c). what property of iodine makes it be collected on the watch glass as shown? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d). Explain why it is possible to separate a mixture of iodine and sodium chloride. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. A candle was burnt using the apparatus shown below. The initial volume of measuring cylinder was
90cm3. The apparatus was allowed to cool and the volume of air in the measuring cylinder had
dropped to 70cm3.

a) Why was the volume recorded when the air was cooled? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) What was the purpose of sodium Hydroxide? (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Use the results given to calculate the percentage of oxygen in air. (2mks)

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13. The set up below was used to study some properties of air

State and explain two observation that would be made a t the end of the experiment. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………..

14. The diagram below represents three methods for collecting gases in the laboratory
a) Name the methods shown in the diagram (3mks)

i………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii…………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii……………………………………………………………………………………………
d) State with reasons the most suitable methods for collecting each of the following gases.
i) Oxygen (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Hydrogen (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..

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15. a) The diagram below shows spots of pure substance A, B, and C on a chromatography paper. Spot D
is that of a mixture after development, A, B and C were found to have moved 8cm, 3cm and 6 cm
respectively.
D has separated into two spots which had moved 6cm and 8 cm

(i) On the diagram

I Label the baseline (origin) (1 mark)

II Show the positions of all the spots after development (3 marks)

(ii) Identify the substances present in the mixture D (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Describe how solid ammonium chloride can be separated from a solid mixture of ammonium chloride
and anhydrous calcium chloride (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………..
(c) The table shows liquids that are miscible and those that are immiscible

Liquid L3 L4

L1 Miscible Miscible

L2 Miscible Immiscible

Use the information given to answer the questions that follow

(i) Name the method that can be used to separate L1 and L3 from a mixture of two
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
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(ii) Describe how a mixture of L2 and L4 can be separate

16. Complete the word equations for the following reactions; (3mks)

(a) Sodium carbonate + hydrochloric acid =

(b) Zinc + sulphuric acid =

(c) Potassium hydroxide + nitric acid =

17. In an experiment, dry hydrogen chloride gas was passed through heated Zinc turnings as shown in the
diagram below. The gas produced was then passed through heated Lead II Oxide.

Tube L Zinc turnings

Lead (II) oxide
tube V
Dilute hydrochloric acid heat
Flask z
Concentrated
sulphuric VI acid

I. What is the function of the water in the flask Z? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

II. Write word equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tubes.(4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

III. State three observations made when a piece of potassium is dropped in water (3mks)

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Term 3 - 2024
PHYSICS
FORM ONE
Time: 2 Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..

Instructions to candidates
 Answer all questions in the spaces proded
 All working must be clearly shown
 Electronic calculators may be used.

For examiners use only.

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1-12 50

13 8

14 13

15 4

16 17

17 8

Total Score 100

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1. Highlight two facts which show that the heat from the sun does not reach the earth
surface by convection. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Figure 7 shows a liquid being siphoned from a beaker to another.

a) Indicate on the diagram the direction of flow of the liquid. (1 mark)

b) Explain what would happen to the flow of the system if it was put in a vacuum. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………….

………………………………………………………………………………………………......

3. (a) State one factor which makes gases compressible. (1 mark)

(b) The figure below shows a set up used to demonstrate Brownian motion in gases.

c) State the role of the;

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(i) Convex lens. (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………...

(ii) Microscope. (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Beam of light. (1mk)

4. The mass of an empty density bottle is 20g its mass when filled with water is 40.0g and 50.0 when
filled with liquid x. Calculate the density of liquid X if the density of water is 1000kgm-3. (3 mks)

5.The figure 2 below shows a hydraulic p

a. Determine the maximum load that can be pressed by the machine. (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………

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b. State one property of the brake fluid. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

6. The figure 4 below is a paddle wheel made of a light material and is well-oiled. In which
direction will it rotate?

a. In which direction will it rotate? (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………
b. Two thin blankets are warmer than a single thick one. Explain. (`1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Sketch a graph of density against temperature of water cooling from 10o C to 0oC.(1marks)

Mass per unit volume 1.0

(Kgm-3)

Temperature (0C)

8. In an experiment investigating Browniam Motion, smoke particles are used. State any two
reasons why smoke particles are suitable for this experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3 3
9. Show that 1g/cm = 1000kg/m (2mks)
.....................................................................................................................................
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.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
.....................................................................................................................................
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10. A stone of mass, 40g was completely immersed in a liquid. The levels of the liquids are shown

in the figure.

Determine the density of the stone in SI unit. (2 marks)

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11. The figure below shows the features of a dry leclanche cell. Use the information to answer
the questions which follow.

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a) What is the source of energy in the above dry cell? (1mark)
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b) What is the function of:

i) Manganese IV Oxide (2mark)

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ii) Powdered carbon (2mark)

c) A student connected the circuit below. State what happens when S2 is closed (2mark)

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d) State the basic law of electrostatic charges. (1mark)

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e) State the observation on the leaves of a positively charged electroscope when a negative
charge is brought near it. (2mark)

f) Name two measurements you would need to determine whether a lead acid accumulator is
fully charged. ( 2marks)

12. i) Define pressure. (1mark)

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ii) A student of a certain school connected a U-tube to a gas supply in the laboratory and
obtained the readings as shown below.

Given that the density of mercury is 13600kg/m3 and the atmospheric pressure is 760mm Hg.
Determine the gas pressure in mmHg. (3marks)
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iii) State three properties of a suitable hydraulic fluid. (3marks)

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iv) A hole of diameter 1.0mm is made in the side of a water pipe. If the Pressure of the
flow is maintained at 3.0 X 106Nm-2, calculate the force with which the water jets out of
the hole. (3marks)
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v) A block of dimension 0.2m by 0.1m by 5cm has a mass of 500g and rests on a flat
surface. Determine the least pressure that can be exerted by the block on the surface.
(3marks)
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13. Some water is poured in two test tubes, one painted black and the other one polished. The
apparatus were set up as shown and left in the sun for some times.

i) State which thermometer records a higher reading after 20minutes. Give a reason
for your answer. (2marks)

ii) The figure below shows a flask fitted with a glass tube into a beaker containing
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water at room temperature.

Explain what is observed when the flask is held with warm hands. (3marks)

iii) The mass M was suspended from a tight copper wire using a rider as shown .The
copper wire was then heated.

State what was observed on the position of M as the wire was heated for some time(1mk)
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iv) Figure 3 below shows two pieces of cork fixed on a polished and a dull surface with
wax.

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State and explain the observation made, when the heater is switched on for a short time
given that the heater is equidistant from the two surfaces. (2marks)
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14 .a) Name and show forces acting on a box placed on a table. (2mks)

Box

Table surface

b) State 2 ways how one can reduce friction in the moving parts of a machine. ( 2 marks )
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c) Calculate the weight of an object of mass 3mg. ( 2 marks )

d) Explain the following observations:

i) Water wets glass surface but does not wet the waxed glass surface. (2mks)
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ii) A steel needle placed carefully on the surface of water does not sink. (1mks)
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iii) The mass of a lump of gold is constant everywhere, but its weight is not. (2mks)
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iv) Large mercury drops form oval balls on a glass slide. (2mks)
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15. Figure 14 below shows a matchstick soaped on one end (end A) and placed on the surface
of water.

A B

a) The matchstick is moved observed to move in a certain direction. State the direction
and explain your answer. (2marks)

b) A crystal of potassium permanganate was carefully introduced at the bottom of water

column held in a gas jar. After sometimes the whole volume of water was
coloured.

i) Explain this observation. (1mark)

ii) State the effect of using warm water on the observation above. (1mark)

16. Figure 6 below shows a ray of light being incident on a mirror.

a.) What is the angle of reflection? (1mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the effect if any when there is an increase in the size of the hole of a pinhole

camera to;
i. The size of image. (1 mark)
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ii. The brightness of image. (1 mark)

iii. The sharpness of image. (1 mark)

c) A n object of height 5m is placed 10m away from a pinhole camera. Calculate:

i) The size of the image if its magnification is 0.01. (3 mrks)

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ii) The length of the pinhole camera (2 mks)

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d) Suggest;
i) How the thermal conductivity of a metal depends on its temperature (1 mark)
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ii) Why most ceiling boards in hot areas should be painted white (1mark)
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iii) Distinguish between natural and forced convection currents (2marks)
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d) The figure below shows a glass tube with water fitted with two identical
thermometers A and B. It is heated as shown.

Water

Heat
i) Explain the observation made in the reading of the thermometers above. (2marks)

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ii) State how in the vacuum flask, heat loss is reduced by;

Radiation; (1mk)

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Conduction; (1mk)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Convection; (1mk)

17. a) The figure below shows a clinical thermometer which is not graduated.
A

B
i) Name the parts indicated with letters A and B. (2 marks)
A ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
B ………………………………………………………………………………………………...
ii) Give the range of the scale for the above thermometer. (1 mark)
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(b) State the purpose of the following features of a thermometer.

(i) Narrow capillary bore. (1mk)

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(ii) Thin bulb. (1mk)

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(iii) Thick glass stem. (1mk)

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(c). State two properties of mercury that makes it a good thermometric liquid. (2 mks)

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MERRY CHRISTMAS & HAPPY NEW YEAR 2025

The END

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TERM 3 - 2024
GEOGRAPHY
FORM 1
TIME: 2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

Name____________________________________ Class_______________AdmNo:_____________

Date______________________________________ Sign_______________

INSTRUCTIONS:
a). Write your name, class and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b). Answer all the questions
c). All answers must be written in the space provided in this booklet.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Candidate’s
Score

TOTAL SCORE

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1(a) List two types of environment [2marks]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) State three areas of study in physical geography [3marks]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(c) Explain the relationship between geography and mathematics [2 marks]

(d) State three social sciences studied in geography [3 marks]

2(a) Apart from the passing star theory, name two other theories that explain the origin of the solar
system [2 marks]

(b) Explain the origin of the solar system according to the passing star theory [3 marks]

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(c). The diagram below shows the structure of the earth

(i) Name the parts marked [3 marks]

P………………………………………………………………………………………………

Q ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

S ………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name the discontinuities marked [2 marks]

R ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

Z ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iii) Name three minerals that that make up the layer marked Q [3 marks]

(d) List the first three planets in their order from the sun [3 marks]

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(e) Distinguish between the rotation and the revolution of the earth. [2 marks]

(f) List any three components of the solar system [3 marks]

(g) Name any two main layers of the earth’s atmosphere [2 marks]

3(a) What is weather? [1mark]

(b) List down three elements of weather [3 marks]

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(d) (i) State two factors that are considered when classifying clouds. [2 marks]

(ii) Name two types of clouds that give rise to rainfall in the tropical regions. [2 marks]

(e) With aid of a well labelled diagram, describe the formation of relief rainfall. [6 marks]

(f). Your class intends to carry out a field study on weather experienced in the locality of your school.

(i) State three ways in which you would prepare for the study [3 marks]

(ii) State three methods you would use to record information collected during the field study [3 marks]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iii)List three secondary sources of information you are likely to use as you prepare for your study.

[3 marks]

4. The table below shows the approximate oil production in Africa for five years.

YEAR PRODUCTION IN TONNES

2017 686,000

2018 291,000

2019 648,000

2020 233,000

2021 486,000

(a) Calculate:

(i) The total production over the years [2 marks]

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) The average production. [2 marks]

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(b) (i) Draw a simple bar graph to represent the above data. Use the scale 1cm represents 50,000 tonnes
[8 marks]

(ii) Give three advantages of using bar graphs to represent statistical data [3 marks]
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. (a) Name two types of maps studied in Geography [2 marks]

(b) Give four marginal information found in maps [4 marks]

6. (a) What is a rock? [1mark]

(b) List three classifications of rocks according to their mode of formation [3 marks]

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(c)State three ways in which rocks are significant to man [3 marks]

7. (a) (i) Define mining [1 marks]

(ii) Name two methods of underground mining [2 marks]

(b) (i) Explain two factors that are considered before exploration of a mineral [4 marks]

(iii) Explain three problems facing mining in Kenya. [6 marks]

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TERM 3- 2024
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT (311)
FORM ONE (1)
Time: : 𝟐 ½ 𝐇𝐎𝐔𝐑𝐒

NAME: …………………………………………………… ADM NO: ……………….

SCHOOL: ………………………………………………… CLASS: …………………..

SIGNATURE: ……………………………………… DATE: …………………..

INSTRUCTIONS
 This paper has three sections i.e. Section A (25 marks), Section B (45 marks) and
Section C 30 marks)
 Section A has Q1-17, Section B has Q18-20 while Section C has Q21 and Q22
 Answer all the questions in this paper
 All answers must be written in English

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the Questions
1. State one unwritten source of Kenyan History (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Name the archaeological site where the remains of Kenyapithecus were discovered in
Kenya. (1 mark)

3. Identify one source of the creation theory ( 1 mark)

4. Give two reasons why human beings lived in groups during the Stone Age period.
(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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5. Identify two ways through which early agriculture spread during the Stone Age period.
(2 marks)

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6. What was the main reason for the dispersal of the coastal Bantus from Shungwaya? (1 mark)

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7. Give one reason for the migration of the Borana from Ethiopia into Kenya. (1 mark)

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8. State two functions of Njuri Ncheke among the Ameru. (2 marks)

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9. Identify the main reason why the Mijikenda lived in the Kaya (1 mark)

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10. Mention two cultural practices that were adopted by the Maasai from the Southern
Cushites. (2 marks)
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11. Name the missionary society that established a home for freed slaves at the coast. (1 mark)

12. Highlight two factors which led to the increase in demand for slaves along the East
African Coast during the 19th Century. (2 marks)

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13. Identify the two main items of trade from the interior during the long distance trade.
(2 marks)
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14. Give two reasons why Oman Rulers were interested in establishing their control over
the Kenyan Coast. (2 marks)
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15. Name the document which contains the Bill of Rights for Kenyan citizens. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. Give the meaning of citizenship. (1 mark)
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17. Mention two practices that may interfere with national unity in Kenya (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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SECTION B (45 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
18. a. State three reasons why Africa is considered the cradle of mankind. (3 marks)
B .Explain six results of the Agrarian Revolution in Britain. (12 Marks)

19. (a) Mention three age grades of the Council of elders among the Akamba. (3marks)
(b) D e scr i be s i x s oc i a l e f fe c t s of mi g r a ti on a nd s e t t le me n t of M i j i ke n d a
c o mmu ni t y i n to Ke ny a . (12 marks)

20. a) Identify three religious practices among the Somali (3 marks)

b) Describe six functions of the Oloiboni among the Maasai during the pre-colonial
period (12 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
21. a) Identify five written sources of History of East African Coast and Outside world
before 10th Century A.D (5 marks)
b) Explain five factors that promoted the trade between the East Africa and outside
world/Indian Ocean trade (10 marks)

22. a) Apart from Right to life, state other five rights and freedoms that are contained in
the Bill of rights (5 marks)
b) Explain six instances/ circumstances that limits right to life (10 marks)

WORKING SPACE FOR SECTION B AND C

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NAME……………………………………………………………………..ADM NO……….CLASS.......

FORM ONE EXAM

TERM THREE,2024
C.R.E
TIME 1 ¾ HOURS
Answer al the questions in the space provided.
1. Identify the reason for studying Christian Religious Education in secondary schools (6mks)

2. Mention the major division of the old testament (4mks)

3. Identify the causes of evils in Traditional African community (6mks)

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4. Give the differences between the first account and the second account of creation (10mks)

5. State the characteristics of the covenant between God and Abraham (6mks)

6. What shows that God took care of Israelites during the Exodus (6mks)

7. Identify the events that took place on the night of Passover (6mks)

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8. State the failures of king Saul of Israel. (5mks)

9. Which leadership qualities can a church leader learn from King David (6mks)

10. Describe the mount Carmel contest that was carried out by Elijah and the Baal prophets (7mks)

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11. State the attributes of God in Traditional African Community (6mks)

12. Identify the places of worship in Traditional African Community (5mks)

13. State the factors that promote harmony and mutual responsibility in Traditional African Community
(7mks)

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Term 3 - 2024
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (314)
FORM TWO (2)
Time: 2½ Hours

ATTEMPT ANY FIVE QUESTIONS

1 a). Explain the reasons for the revelation of the Quran. (6 marks)
b). Discuss six significance of the compilation of the Quran. (6 marks)
c). What are the lessons that Muslims can learn from the last three verses of Surah Al-Baqarah? (8 marks)

2. a). Explain the ways through which hadith evolved. (4 marks)

b). Discuss the contribution of hadith to Islamic culture. (8 marks)
c). What are the factors that necessitated the collection and compilation of Hadith? (8 marks)

3. a). State the acts forbidden to a Muslim in a state of Ihram. (8 marks)

b). Why do Muslims slaughter animals during Iddul-Adha? (8 marks)
c). Discuss four ways in which believing in the Day of Judgement affects the life of a Muslim. (4 marks)

4. a). Identify the significance of Tawheed in the life of a Muslim. (7 marks)

b). Explain the different types of Shirk. (6 marks)
c). Enumerate seven effects of sexual perversion in society. (7 marks)

5. a). Describe the types of Eddat. (8 marks)

b). Outline Umar ibn Khattab’s contribution to the cause of Islam during the prophet’s era. (7 marks)
c) What are the social achievements of the prophet (p.b.u.h)? (5 marks)

6. a). Explain eight contributions of Sheikh Al-Amin ibn Ali Al-Mazrui in promoting education among
Muslims in Kenya. (8 marks)
b). Outline the views of Hassan Al-Banna on Education. (6 marks)
c). Discuss the achievements of Sayyid Qutb. (6 marks)

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NAME:……………………………..……CLASS:………ADM NO:……..…..

565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
FORM 1
END-OF-YEAR EXAM - 2024
TIME: 2 HOURS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN SPACES PROVIDED.

1. Outline four reasons for existence of a business. (4mks)

2. Give five components of business studies. (5mks)

3. Identify whether the following factors fall under micro environment or macro environment.
(4mks)

Macro Micro

a) Competitive environment

b) Business structure

c) Cultural environment

d) Human resource

Page 1 of 5

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4. Give four characteristics of human wants. (4mks)

5. Outline four types of utility. (4mks)

6. Highlight four functions of an office. (4mks)

7. Outline four characteristics of land as a factor of production. (4mks)

8. Give four sources of business ideas. (4mks)

Page 2 of 5

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9. Identify four market gaps. (4mks)

10. Give four advantages of an open office layout. (4mks)

11. Outline four characteristics of itinerant traders. (4mks)

12. Highlight four importance of entrepreneurship to the Kenyan economy. (4mks)

Page 3 of 5

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13. Outline four services rendered by retailers to consumers. (4mks)

14. Give four characteristics of services. (4mks)

15. Outline four characteristics of an entrepreneur. (4mks)

16. Give three examples of basic wants. (3mks)

Page 4 of 5

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17. Highlight four characteristics of a good filing system. (4mks)

18. Give four documents used in home trade. (4mks)

19. Explain four factors that should be considered when selecting office equipment. (8mks)

Page 5 of 5

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NAME____________________________________________ CLASS________ ADM__________

AGRICULTURE FORM ONE

END YEAR EXAM 2024

TIME: 2 HR

ANSWER ALL QUESTION IN THE SPACE PROVIDED

1. Define the following terms as used in agriculture (5 marks)

i) Ranching
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ii) Tool
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
iii) Ridging
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
iv) Pollution
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
v) soil fertility
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
2. Differentiate between the following terms (6 marks)
i) New Zealand white and Californian white
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
ii) Dam and weir
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
iii) Rip-saw and cross cut saw
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

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________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
3. State five uses of farm records (5 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
4. State and explain the importance of livestock to a Kenyan farmer(10marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
5. Name four types of dairy cattle breeds(4marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
6. Complete the table below stating the young one (5 marks)
ANIMAL YOUNG ONE
Cattle
Poultry
Goat
Rabbit
Sheep
7. State 4 characteristics of fertile soil (4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

8. Outline four the problem that associate the use of farm yard mature to small scale farmers only
(4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

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______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
9. Name 4 methods of preventing water pollution(4marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
10. Name four methods of drainage (4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
11. State 4 categories and give an example of a tool under which woodwork tools and equipment
are divided(8marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
12. Give 4 maintenance practices carried out on workshop tools (4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
13. Highlight four importance of land preparation (4 marks)
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

14. Study the diagram below and answer the questions below;

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i) What experiment is being investigated(1mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

ii) State and explain your observation of the lime water in flask X and Y after
24hrs(4marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
15. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow;

i)Name tool X, Y and Z and their functions (6 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

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State 5 precautions taken when using workshop tools(5marks)

16. The diagram below represents four Heap System

i)use arrow to complete it(1marks)

ii)Describe the procedure used in making manure by the above method(4marks)

17. Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

i) name parts A, B, C, D and E(5marks)

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Name:……………………………………………………………………………Class:…………AdmNo:……..
Computer Studies
Form 1 End Year Examination- Nov – 2024
Time: 2 Hours
Instructions: Answer All The Questions On the Space Provided

1. a) State three factors to consider when choosing a monitor. [3]

________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

b) What do the following acronyms mean in full: [6]

VDU
________________________________________________________________________________________
LCD
________________________________________________________________________________________
VGA
________________________________________________________________________________________
c) State Four differences between a CRT and a flat panel Screen. [4]
Cathode Ray Tube Flat panel screen

d) Give four advantages of using a screen as an output device. [4]

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b) Give four reasons why one may go for a hardcopy output. [4]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
c) State four differences between an impact and a non-impact printer. [4]
Impact printers Non-impact printers

3. a) Name five peripheral devices of a computer connected to the system unit. [5]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
b) Name three items that would be needed in order to listen to music from a computer. [3]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Give four reasons why laptops computers are quite popular than desktop computers among researchers.
[4]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Give six factors you need to consider before choosing a storage device. [6]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

6. A Student in Form 1 describes the computers found in their school as useless. When the teacher asked him
the reasons, he said that they did not have USB ports.
a) What does USB mean in full? [2]
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________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Name Six devices that may be connected through the USB port. [6]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
c) Give Two reasons why USB ports becoming quite popular with modern devices. [2]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
7. Name and explain three main components of a computer system. [6]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
8. State Six hardware considerations when purchasing a computer system. [6]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

9. List down four factors that dictate the cost of a computer system. [4]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

10. a) State four components of a computer that can be upgraded. [4]

c) State five functions of an operating system. [5]

d) Give four devices that work under the control of the operating system. [4]
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

12. a) What is the CPU? [1]

________________________________________________________________________________________
b) Name three main components of the CPU. [3]

________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

c) Give two examples of computer buses. [2]

________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

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Term 3 - 2024
ART AND DESIGN - Theory
FORM ONE (1)
Time: 2 HOURS

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...
Instructions:

a) Write your name, Class, house and date in the spaces provided above
b) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
c) Answer all questions in sections A and B and any ONE in Section C.
d) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.
e) Where drawings and diagrams are appropriate, they should be included within the text of your answers
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
________________________________________________________________

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Question Maximum Score

score

A 1 20

2 05
B 3 05
4 05
5 05
6 05
15
C
Max. Score 60

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1
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.

1. (a)Give any two characteristics of organic shapes (2marks)

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________

(b)Study the artwork below,

(i)Identify the type of perspective portrayed in the drawing above (1mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Name the part marked x (1mark)

____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________

(ii)Give two types of texture

……………………………………………………………………………………………………................ (2marks)

(d)Study the colour triangle below.

(i) Identify any two sets of complimentary colours (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Any three sets of triadic colours (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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2
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) Any three sets of analogous colours (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

(iv) State the resultant colour achieved when yellow is mixed with blue in the ratio of 2:1 respectively
(1mark).
________________________________________________________________________________________
(v)Blue+ little white gives light blue,State the term used for this process (1mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) (i)Define balance. (1mark)

(ii)Explain the type of balance depicted in the above picture (2marks)

SECTION B (25 MARKS)

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3
Answer all the questions in this section.

2. Study the composition below and answer the questions that follow.

a) State the category for such a type of artwork. (1mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Explain any two uses of the following elements in the above composition.
i. Tone (2marks)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

ii. Shape (2marks)

3. Study the letter anatomies below:

A C
a) Name parts A……………………………………………………….
B………………………………………………………
C………………………………………………………
D………………………………………………………
D
(4marks)

(b)What is the origin and meaning of the word Graphics? (1mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

4.a) What name is given to:

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4
(i) Small cut out pieces of coloured materials that create the composition in mosaic work?(1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii)Small road-like network of spaces left in between the mosaic artwork (1mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

(iii)State any to uses of lines(1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………..
b) Study the picture below.

Name & explain the principal that has not been properly observed in producing the above picture.
(2marks)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

5(i) Differentiate between dry and wet media tools in art. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

(ii)Name three approaches and stages of drawing (3marks)

Approaches……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………… (1 ½ mks)
Stages (1 ½ mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
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5
……………………………………………………………………………….
6. Outline the principles of art and design (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)Give any two reasons why African man painted in caves. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. (i) Give the difference between visual and performing art (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)Give any 6 design courses in art. (3mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

8(a) using any relevant illustration, differentiate between ascenders and descenders in the space bellow (2mks)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
(b)In the space below, construct the word Art in the following fonts:
(i) Block upper case (1 ½ mks)
(ii) Serif letters (1 ½ mks)

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

ANSWER ANY ONE QUESTIONS
EITHER
9.In the space below, use calligraphic texts to write the first two lines of the stanza for the kenya national anthem-
english version (15marks)

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6
_______________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

OR
10.In the space below, draw a simple landscape composition and label the following parts.
(i)Foreground,(ii)Middle ground (iii)Background (iv) Horizon (iv)Varnishing point ,(v) Apply linear and
Atmospheric perspective. (15mks)

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Term 3 - 2024
DRAWING AND DESIGN (449)
FORM ONE (1)
Time: 2½ Hours

Name: …………………………………………………………. Adm No: ……………….

School: ……………………………………………………….. Class: …………………..
Signature: …………………………………………………….. Date: …………………...

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 TOTAL

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.

You should have the following for this examination:

 Drawing instruments
 3 sheet of drawing paper size A3
Answer ALL the questions

Questions should be answered on the A3 drawing papers provided.

All dimensions are in millimeters unless otherwise stated.

Candidates may be penalized for not following the instructions given in this paper.

Answer ALL the questions in the A3 papers provided.

1. (a)state four factors to be considered in selecting materials used in design (4marks)

i. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….
1

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ii. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….
iii. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….
iv. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………….

2. State four characteristics of a good technical drawing paper (4mks)

i. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………
ii. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………
iii. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………
iv. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………...
3. List four information that can be obtained in a title block. (2 marks)
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
4. (a) What is the main aim of written notes in drawing? (1 marks)
________________________________________________________________________________

(b) what is the main purpose of symbols and abbreviation in drawings (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________

(c) write the following abbreviations in full (3 marks)

i. No. iii. int: v. NTS:

ii. C/C: iv. Ext: vi. A/C:

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5. Sketch the orthographic projections given below in isometric (6 marks)

6. Construct a square whose distance across the corners is 50mm. (6 marks)

7. Construct a trapezium JKLM with the base J K being 75 mm. Angle MJK is 750. ML is 47mm and is
parallel to JK and 54mm apart. (10 marks)

8. Using the diagram below, show how to dimension concentric circles (4 marks)
3

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9. Construct a diagonal scale in which 4 cm represent 1cm long enough to measure up to 3cm.
Mark on the scale a distance of 2.58 cm (6marks)
Use the scale to construct a right angle triangle whose adjucent sides are 1.45 and 1.75mm. (4 Marks)

10. Draw the three orthographic views of the block given below in 3rd angle projection. ( 6marks)

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11. Sketch the views given in two-point perspective. (15marks)

12. Two views of a block are shown in fig 6 below. Draw the full size the figure in isometric. (15 marks)

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13. Figure below shows a block drawn in isometric. (15 marks)

Draw full size in first angle projection the following views of the block.

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(a) Front elevation in the direction of arrow F
(b) End elevation in the direction of arrow L
(c) The plan

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Name……………………………………………………………………………………………….
Class:……………..Adm:.………..………Date………………………Sign……………………..

FORM TWO EXAMINATION

END TERM III
OCTOBER 2024
FRENCH
2 ¼ Hours
Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
4. This paper consists of 9 printed pages.
5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

For Examiner’s use only

Section Candidate’s Score

Compréhension

Grammar/ Com

Total

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SECTION I: COMPREHENSION DES ECRITES

1. Read the texts below and answer the following questions

PASSAGE I

Joanne va à Paris

Joanne est sortie de la maison à neuf heures et demie. Elle est allée à la gare en taxi. Elle a acheté
un aller-retour pour le train de 10h10 pour Paris. Elle a voulu monter dans le train tout de suite,
mais un passager lui a dit « Il faut composter votre billet, Mademoiselle. » Elle est vite allée
composter son billet.

Avant de monter dans le train, elle a aussi mangé un sandwich au fromage dans le buffet. Elle est
montée dans le train et il est bien parti à 10h10. Une heure plus tard, le train est arrivé à Paris.
Elle a cherché la consigne pour laisser sa valise, mais c’était fermé.

1. Questions

a) Le moyen de transport à la gare : ……………………………………………… (½ pt)

b) Elle a acheté……………………………………………………………….…… (½ pt)
c) Qui a parlé à Jeanne ? …………………………………………….……….…… (½ pt)
d) 4. Qu’est –ce qu’on lui a dit ? (½ pt)
e) A. Il faut valider le billet. B. Il faut monter dans le train. C. Il faut réserver une
place.
f) Avant de monter dans le train, elle est allée……………………………………. (½ pt)
g) 6 A quelle heure le train est-il arrivé à Paris …………………………..…………. (½ pt)
h) 8 Qu’est-ce que Joanne a voulu faire à la consigne ? …………………………….. (1pt)
i) 9. Donnez du passage ; les synonymes de (1pt)
« ticket » ……………………………………
« rapidement » ………..…………………………..

PASSAGE II

Jeune femme, 38 ans, mince, sans enfant, financièrement stable, aimant les animaux domestiques
de la ferme cherche jeune homme robuste de 38 à 40 ans, travailleur et bavard qui préfère la vie
du dehors, pour sortir ensemble et, si possible éventuellement pour mariage. Contactez les
Annonces, numéro 35.

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2. Questions
(a) Qui est l’auteur du texte ? …………………………………………………….. [½ point]
(b) Précisez deux qualités physiques que cherche l’auteur dans ce texte :
(i) ……………………………………………………………………………… [1 point]
(ii) ……………………………………………………...………………………
(c) Quelle est l’intention finale de l’auteur ? [½ point]
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Passage III
Je m’appelle Toussaint. Mon père s’appelle Diallo, il est ingénieur. Ma mère s’appelle Sarah,
elle est directrice. J’ai deux frères et une sœur. Elles s’appellent Philippe, Patrick et Agnès.
Philippe est l’ainé. Il est en premier à l’université de Kenyatta. Je suis le deuxième né. Je suis
étudiant au lycée Mang’u. Agnès est la troisième née et Patrick le benjamin. Ils sont élèves à
l’école primaire Kuraihia.
J’aime beaucoup ma famille. Mes parents sont gentils mais strictes. Mes frères et ma sœur sont
sympas.

a. Comment s’appelle l’auteur? …………………………………………………. [½ point]

b. Combien de membres y-a-t-il dans sa famille? ………………………………… [½ point]
c. Nommez la profession de sa mère ……………… et son père………………….. [1point]
d. Donnez du passage le synonyme de [1point]
« cadet » ……………………………………………….
« gentils » ……………………………………………….

SECTION II: LA GRAMMAIRE

4. Change the verbs in brackets into PASSÉ COMPOSÉ. (10 pts)

Rafael Nadal ………….. (naitre) le 3 juin 1986 à Manacor, à Majorque. Il ……………………

(commencer) à jouer au tennis à l’âge de 5 ans. Son oncle Toni …………………… (devenir)
son entraîneur en 1990. Il ………………….……..….. (entrer) dans le classement ATP à 16 ans.
Rafael …………………………..…. (participer) à la Copa Davis pour la première fois en 2004.
Pendant la saison 2004-2005, il …………………..…..……… (obtenir) plus de 40 victoires.
Ses parents ………………………… (pouvoir) assister à la finale de Roland-Garros de 2005. Il
……………………………… (ne pas perdre) la finale de Roland-Garros de 2006 contre Roger
Federer. En 2006, il ……………………. (avoir) un accident de voiture à Majorque. Il ne parle
pas bien français car il ………………………….….. (ne pas apprendre) cette langue à l'école.

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5. Respond to the following questions replacing with either y or en. (5 marks)
Exemple -Nous avons un auditeur en ligne. Monsieur, vous habitez à Nice ?

- Non, je n’y habite pas.

a. - Vous pouvez profiter de la mer?

-Eh bien, je n’……………….. profite pas beaucoup, je travaille.

b.. -Est-ce que ton frère va aux États-Unis ?

Oui, il …………………………………………………………………………………

c. -Est-ce que Jacques va chez toi ?

- Non, il ……………………………………………………………………………..

d. – Vous mangez du pain à tous les repas ?

-Non, nous……………………………………………………………………………..

e. -Vous parlez quelquefois de votre passé ?

-Non, je …………………………………………………………………………………

6. Use one word only to complete the following (5 marks)

(a) Il montre son livre de français ……………………………………. Paul.

(b) D’abord, je prends une douche. ………………………je prends mon déjeuner.
(c) Tu n’as pas……………………………….……….stylo.
(d) La cantine est près de …………………………………………… piscine.
(e) On continue ? Non, je………………………….…………….fatiguée.
(f) Ils vont ………………………………………………………… Etats-Unis.
(g) Il est six heures ………………………………………………. matin
(h) Où se trouve la voiture ? La voiture est dans …………………………garage.
(i) Dans mon école, il y ………………………………. presque 1,200 élèves.
(j) Ouvrez la porte, s’il vous …………………………………….. !

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7. Change the following sentences from direct to indirect speech (5mks)

1. Paul dit: “J’ai faim.”

________________________________________________________________________

2. Jacques conseille: « Ecoute la chanson. »

________________________________________________________________________

3. François dit : « Je cherche mon écharpe. »

________________________________________________________________________

4. Valentine et François disent : « Nous prenons nos manteaux. »

________________________________________________________________________

5. Elle dit : « Il ne chante pas. »

________________________________________________________________________

8. Complétez le dialogue en conjuguant les verbes: (5 marks)

« continuer », « traverser », « aller », « prendre », « tourner », « arriver » « être ». « attendre »

- Pardon, monsieur, la place Stanislas, s’il vous plaît ?

- Vous ………………….…….. tout droit puis vous ……………..………….. la première à

gauche. Ensuite vous ……………..………….. à un carrefour. Là, ………….…………….. la rue
à la droite, ………………………….. toujours tout droit jusqu’à un rond-point. Vous
………………..………….. le feu orange. Puis, vous ……………….…………….. à droite.
Après, …………………..………….. la rue pour aller en face et enfin
……………………………….. la deuxième sur votre gauche. Vous
………………………….…….. arrivé !

- Merci bien. Au revoir.

5
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SECTION III: L’ECRIT

9. In 120-150 words, answer ONE question according to the instructions given.

Either
a. Vous organisez une activité scolaire dans votre école ou région. Ecrivez une
lettre à votre ami(e) en lui expliquant vos projets. [10 points]

b. Vous avez beaucoup apprécié votre visite chez votre ami(e). Écrivez-lui une
lettre en lui remerciant pour l’invite. [10 points]

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FORM ONE
END OF YEAR EXAM

Name…………………….……………………………………………………… Adm No………………………

Class ………………………… Student’s Signature……………… Date…………………........

441/1
HOME SCIENCE
THEORY
Paper 1
September/October 2024
2 Hours

INSTRUCTIONS
 Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
 Answer ALL questions in section A, B and any TWO questions from C.
 Answers must be written in the spaces provided.

For Examiners use only.

Section Question Maximum Score Candidates Score
A 1-21 40

B 22 20

20
C
20

100 marks
Total

Students should check the question paper to ensure that all the pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)

Answer all the questions in the section in the spaces provided.

1. List two dry methods of cooking. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Mention two qualities of a good kitchen cleaning cloth. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. Differentiate between a textile fibre and a fabric. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. List two areas where daily Home Science activities apply scientific principles. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5. Mention three things that are important in grooming. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Give two points on the importance of learning First Aid. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Suggest four finishes that can be given to a wooden table. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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8. Identify two qualities of a good site for building a family home. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Mention two reasons why cooks should generally wear white uniform/aprons. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Give two reasons why needlework pins should be stored in a small box/pin cushion. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Identify two essential items when working stitches. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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12. Give two ways your family may benefit from your knowledge and skills in Home Science. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. List four methods that can be used to cook potatoes. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. Give two causes of shock. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Mention three ways of identifying textile fibres. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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16. Name four needles used in sewing. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Suggest two reasons why a school dining hall should be kept clean. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Name four tacking stitches used in sewing. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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19. Suggest two reasons why cleaning materials/equipment may be improvised. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Mention two reasons why a kitchen should be situated far from the bedrooms. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. Give two hygiene rules that should be observed before going to sleep. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Compulsory

Answer all sections of this question in the spaces provided.

22. Your family is planning to visit and spend a weekend with relatives at a campsite.
a) Giving reasons describe how you would thoroughly clean a pair of muddy black canvas shoes
with laces that you will wear when travelling. (10mks)

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b) While at the camp your brother is injured on the leg by a sharp stick. Describe how you would go
about administering First Aid to him. (5mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Describe the procedure you would follow to clean a chopping board used when cutting meat.
(5mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section in the space provided after question 25.

23.
a) Outline four points to note when working hand stitches. (4mks)

b) Mention six different functions that a swing-needle machine can do. (3mks)

c) Explain three qualities of a fabric that would be best for a student learning to make needlework
stitches. (6mks)

d) Suggest four reasons why hair should be cleaned and oiled frequently. (4mks)

e) Mention three safety rules that should be observed when constructing a pit latrine.
(3mks)

24.
a) Explain three qualities of a good kitchen work surface. (6mks)

b) Outline four rules on care of cutting equipment. (4mks)

c) Mention four guidelines that may help a family avoid food spoilage and poisoning.
(4mks)

d) Discuss three reasons why meat should be cooked. (6mks)

25.
a) Explain three properties of cotton that make it suitable for making bath towels.
(6mks)

b) Suggest four reasons why a family would prefer to build rather than buy a family home.
(4mks)

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c) Outline four ways of avoiding burns and scalds in the home.
(4mks)

d) Permanent stitches can be divided into three categories. Name the three categories and give two
examples of stitches in each (6mks)

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