MOCK

1.Which IP address is the globally unique address? Select one:

a.private IP address
b.Private Subnet
c.Public Subnet
d.Public IP address

2.Which AWS services can host a Microsoft SQL Server database? (Select
TWO)
a.Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)
b.Amazon Aurora
c.Amazon Redshift
d.Amazon EC2

3.The name to ip address resolution is done by Select one:

a.RARP
b.reverse lookup
c.forward lookup
d.ARP

4.Which dimension of service management considers governance,

management, and communication?
a.Partners and suppliers
b.Value streams and processes
c.Organizations and people
d.Information and technology
5.What is the minimum RAM required to install windows 10- 64 bit operating
system?
a.2GB
b.4GB
c.1GB
d.6GB

6.Which protocol method is used to connect virtual private network? Select

one:
a.PPTP
b.SSHP
c.SFTP
d.HTTP

7.where will you enable an http port 80 request to allow the incoming traffic
to the system?
a.private
b.inbound
c.public
d.outbound

8.Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the

customer responsible for?
a.Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices
b.Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest
c.Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher
d.Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use
9.You need to remove all the data from the employee table while leaving the
table definition intact. You want to be able to undo this operation. How would
you accomplish this task?
a.DELETE FROM employee;
b.TRUNCATE TABLE employee;
c.This task cannot be accomplished.
d.DROP TABLE employee;

10.Which of the following refers to a user's (legitimate or illegitimate) right to

contest the performance of specific acts or transactions ?
a.Repudiation
b.Authentication
c.privacy
d.integrity

11.To find the secondary group of a user, what is/are the file/files that need to
be referred to?
a./etc/profile
b./etc/passwd
c./etc/shadow
d./etc/group

12.Which of the following is not a legitimate method of enhancing password

authentication's security?
a.Creating and enforcing a password policy.
b.Allowing users to use the same password several times
c.Using password cracking and password checking software
d.Account lockout controls can be allowed.
13.The information of the DHCP client leases are available in ___
a.dhcp.leases
b.dhcpd.leases
c.dhclient.leases
d.dhclient.address

14.Restore points save information such as drivers, programs, system files and
registry setting
False
True

15.Theft of pen drives and DVDs after tailgating is an indication of ___

failure.
Select one:
a.physical security
b.database security
c.network security
d.wireless security

16.What is the command used to display the current session of commands

used in powershell?
Select one:
a.get-command
b.new-history
c.get-history
d.set-history
17.Which option is used to create a new alias or changes the definition of an
existing alias?
a.new-alias
b.sets-alias
c.get-alias
d.set-alias

18.What is typically needed to assign complex incidents to support groups?

Select one:
a.The incident priority
b.A self-help tool
c.A change schedule
d.The incident category

19.For a network, a digital signature will provide ___

a.Accounting
b.Key
c.Lock
d.Authentication

20.Many network applications and protocols have security issues that can be
addressed over time with the use of devices such as…
a.Routers
b.Switches
c.Repeaters
d.Firewalls
21.In Which order is the Group policy object processed on client computers?
a.Domain, Local, Site, OU
b.Local,Site,Domain,OU
c.Local, Domain, OU, Site
d.Local, Domain, Site, OU

22.The file that contains the list of users who are not allowed to use the FTP
service is ___
Select one:
a.user_list
b.ftpuser_list
c.ftp_user
d.ftpusers

23.Which of the following are database objects?

Select one or more:
a.Relations
b.Columns
c.Attributes
d.Indexes

24.Which domain controller contains active directory database copy and

responds to authentication requests?
a.RODC
b.Additional
c.trust
d.Child
25.In the application layer, how can users gain access to the Internet ?
a.Web Browser
b.Command line
c.Thick client
d.Thin client

26.___authentication systems enable users to enter their password only once

in return for a unique encrypted string of random characters.
a.Authorization
b.Key Based
c.String-based
d.Token-based

27.If an unauthorised user executes a computer programme, the computer or

information stored on it can suffer severe harm. As a result, unauthorised
access to a computer device must be prevented. Security can be given by
a.Authentication
b.Key
c.Lock
d.Accounting

28.The time based scheduler that helps in scheduling jobs at regular intervals
is __
a.cron
b.at
c.scheduler
d.atcron
29.Which compute service allows users to lease virtual machines for 1 or
3year?
Select one:
a.Azure VirtualMachine
b.Azure Container Service
c.App Service
d.Azure Functions

30.Which one of these is an active directory database file?

Select one:
a.sysvol.dit
b.sysvol.tid
c.ntds.dit
d.ntds.tid

31.A set of permissions for a particular user can be configured by

a.ACL
b.umask
c.chown
d.chmod

32.How do consumers get access to cloud-based Software as a Service

services?
a.Web Browser
b.Thick client
c.Command line
d.Thin client
33.Which is the starting point for optimization?
a.Understanding the vision and objectives of the organization
b.Securing stakeholder engagement
c.Standardizing practices and services
d.Determining where the most positive impact would be

34.Which of the following inspects AWS environments to find opportunities

that can save the user's money and improve system performance?
Select one:
a.Detailed billing
b.Consolidated billing
c.AWS Cost Explorer
d.AWS Trusted Advisor

35.The user will have primary group and secondary group Select one:
a.1,many
b.no,1
c.1, no
d.no, many

36.The command to find the ip address of a particular network interface is

Select one:
a.ipcfg <interface name>
b.ipconfig <interface name>
c.ifcfg <interface name>
d.ifconfig <interface name>
37.Which of the following allows you to automate deployment and
configuration of resources.
Select one:
a.Azure Resource Manager
b.Azure Service Manager
c.Azure Manager
d.Azure Group

38.Where will you identify the hidden shares configured in the system? Select
one:
a.fsmgmt.msc
b.devmgmt.msc
c.dnsmgmt.msc
d.netsh.msc

39.The command to switch to the graphical run level is Select one:

a.systemctl isolate gui.target
b.systemctl isolate multiuser.target
c.systemctl isolate graphical.target
d.systemctl isolate runlevel5.target

40.Which type of disk can be used to access a Microsoft Disk Operating

system and All windows operating system?
a.Floppy Disk
b.Compact Disk
c.Basic Disk
d.Dynamic Disk
41.At the transport layer, which protocol provides security?
a.TCP
b.UDP
c.TLS
d.IP

42.The group of physical partitions that span through the different harddisk
to form a single block of partitions is called
Select one:
a.physical volume
b.volume group
c.logical volume
d.partition group

43.What are the three phases of 'problem management'? Select one:

a.Problem analysis, error identification, incident resolution
b.Incident management, problem management, change control
c.Problem identification, problem control, error control
d.Problem logging, problem classification, problem resolution

44.clause limits or filters the records of aggregated queries. Select one:

a.Having
b.Group By
c.Where
d.Order By
45. clause limits or filters the records of aggregated queries.
a.Having
b.Group By
c.Where
d.Orderby

46.Which user is created during the installation of the windows server

operating system
a.Admin
b.Guests
c.Guest
d.Administrator

47.he command to check the syntax of the configuration file in the apache
server is
Select one:
a.apachectl.chkconfig
b.apachectl.configtest
c.apachectl.conftest
d.apachectl.checkconfig

48. Contains formal definitions of each attribute which will exist in the
Active Directory object.
a.Active Directory Users
b.Active Directory Trust
c.Domain Controller
d.Active Directory Schema
49.Which of the group policy files are not stored in the group policy objects?
Select one:
a..admx
b..admn
c..adms
d..adm

51.What are the minimum NTFS permissions required to allow users to

change the document content stored in a shared folder?
Select one:
a.READ
b.None
c.READ & WRITE
d.FULL CONTROL

52.The concept in the Apache server which enables it to use different IPs for
the same server is called
Select one:
a.ServerHosting
b.Virtualhost Server
c.Slave apache server
d.VirtualHosting

53.We can attach an EBS volume to more than one EC2 instance at the same
time.
True
False
54.What should be done to determine the appropriate metrics for measuring a
new service?
a.Asking customers to provide numerical targets that meet their needs
b.Measuring the performance over the first six months, and basing a solution on
the results
c.Asking customers open questions to establish their requirement
d.Using operational data to provide detailed service reports

55.Where can I configure the data collector set in a windows server operating
system
a.Event Viewer
b.Reliability and Performance Monitor
c.Storaga Analysis
d.Task Manager

56. is/are a collection of database objects.

a.Records
b.Views
c.Schema
d.Tables

57.Which practice has a purpose that includes restoring normal service

operation as quickly as possible?
a.Deployment management
b.Problem management
c.Supplier management
d.Incident management
58.Which shared key encryption is a type of encryption that uses two or more
keys to encrypt data?
Select one:
a.Symmetric key
b.DES
c.AES
d.Paired key

59.What is the port number used by a Remote Desktop Service?

a. 3839
b. 3389
c. 3289
d. 3189

60.In the crontab file, the day of the week is specified in the field
a.fifth
b.fourth
c.second
d.first

61.This is the design of computers or nodes in a network. The machines are

organised, whether physically or theoretically.
Select one:
a.WAN
b.Protocols
c.LAN
d.Topology
62.The file that contains list of users who are restricted to use FTP service is
a.ftpusers
b.ftpuser_list
c.ftp_user
d.user_list

63.What are the ITIL guiding principles used for?

a.To ensure that an organization’s performance continually meets stakeholders’
expectations
b.To help an organization make good decisions
c.To identify activities that an organization must perform in order to deliver a
valuable service
d.To direct and control an organization

64.Which entity regulates or restricts sensitive information access to specific

individuals or groups of individuals?
a.Availability
b.Integrity
c.Confidentiality
d.Authorization

65.What is the refresh interval of policy settings in a computer configuration

for its clients
a.System start up
b.every 10 minutes
c.every 60 minutes
d.system startup and 90-120 minutes
66.To configure the ACL on the files located on a partition, it has to be
Select one:
a.mounted rw option
b.enabled with dump option
c.enabled with fsck option
d.mounted acl option

67. Bitlocker can be encrypted with 128 bit and 256 bit encryption.
True
False

68.Which Amazon service can I use to define a virtual network that closely
resembles
a traditional data center?
Select one:
a.Amazon ServiceBus
b.Amazon VPC
c.Amazon RDS
d.Amazon EMR

69.Which quota is allowed to store data even if the limit is reached?

Select one:
a.Central Quota
b.Soft Quota
c.General Quota
d.Hard Quota
70.How will you access the device manager from the command prompt?
a.device.msc
b.dev.msc
c.dev.mgmt
d.devmgmt.msc

71.Which one of the following is used for physical groupings of IP subnets that
are used to replicate information among Domain Controllers?
a.Active Directory Schema
b.Active Directory Trust Service
c.Active Directory Sites
d.Active Directory users and Groups

72.I have an array called $myarray=@(2,4,6,8,10). What will happen if I run

$myarray.setvalue(0,0)?
a. 0,2,4,6,8
b. 0,4,6,8,10
c. 2,4,6,8,10
d. 0,2,4,6,8,10

73.Identify the RDBMS terminologies for a row.

Select one or more:
a.Relation
b.Record
c.Degree
d.Tuple
74.Azure database services are services
Select one:
a.Fully Managed
b.Custom
c.Partially Managed
d.Unmanaged

75.Which of the following considerations must be considered when

transitioning from mobile execution to a cloud-based virtual machine?
a.Network bandwidth
b.Speed
c.Memory
d.Processor

76.The range of IP addresses that are available to be assigned to client

computers is called
a.DHCP Address
b.DHCP Scope
c.DHCP Range
d.DHCP Lease

77.The command to view the current runlevel of the system is

Select one:
a.systemctl status system.target
b.systemctl.showtarget
c.systemctl.get-default
d.systemctl.gettarget
78.The mkfs command by default creates a filesystem.
Select one:
a.ext3
b.ext5
c.ext2
d.ext4

79.Which is another data-hiding technique that can be combined with

cryptography to provide an extra-secure form of data protection.
Select one:
a.Tomography
b.Chorography
c.Steganography
d.Topography

80.The function acts on each row returned and returns one result per
row.
Select one:
a.Single Row
b.Per Row
c.Each Row

81.Which of these can be seen as the class of computer threats?

a.Spam
b.Phishing
c.DOS Attack
d.Soliciting
82.The command that lists the user's group details is .
a.user -G
b.user -g
c.id
d.user -list

83.Which network profile is for a trusted home or office networks?

Select one:
a.Network policy
b.Private Network
c.Domain Network
d.Public Network

84.Which of the following renders a network service unusable by

overburdening the server or networks
a.Virus
b.Denial of Service
c.Attacks
d.Worm

85.Which of the following is a fully managed open source analytics service for
enterprises.
Select one:
a.Azure HDInsight
b.Azure SQL Data Warehouse
c.Azure Data Lake Analytics
d.Azure SQL Database
86.Which group members can perform back up and restore of files and
folders?
Select one:
a.Backup Operators
b.Power Users
c.Guests
d.Users

87.What is the command to clear the command history?

a.ALT + F1
b.ALT +F2
c.ALT + F7
d.ALT+ F4

88.What can access resources in the operating system with limited security
features
a.Authentication
b.Validation
c.Access control
d.Allow

89.Which service uses the name resolution to communicate with the client
machines?
a.VPN
b.DNS
c.DHCP
d.ADDS
90.What is the primary focus of business capacity management?
Select one:
a.Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity
of individual elements of IT technology
b.Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity
of the live, operational IT services
c.Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with
supplier management
d.Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed,
planned and implemented in a timely fashion

91.Which of the following are considered as constraints?

Select one or more:
a.NULL
b.Unique
c.Check
d.NOT NULL

92.The block devices that are created from the physical extents of the same
volume group is called
Select one:
a.logical volume
b.physical volume
c.physical partition
d.logical partition
93.Importing security templates will get which of the following policies
Select one:
a.Partition policy
b.Account Policy
c.Control Panel
d.Network policy

94.The command that sets/changes the hostname of the system is

Select one:
a.hostnameconfig
b.hostname
c.hostnamecfg
d.hostnamectl

95.Intel's technology for virtualization on the x86 platform is

Select one:
a.X86
b.AMD-v
c.VT-x
d.Hyper-V

96.In which classes of IP does the IP address 193.139.100.1 reside?

a.Class B
b.Class A
c.Class C
d.Class D
97.Which is the technology that allows building fault-tolerant transport to a
storage server using redundant paths?
a.Data center bridge
b.MPIO
c.SMB
d.iSNS

98. can help to prevent phishing.

a.Spyware
b.anti-malware
c.Spam filtering
d.Antivirus

99.The harddisk partition that substitutes the RAM is called

a.IDE
b.Swap
c.LVM
d.RAID

100.Which AWS characteristics make AWS cost effective for a workload with
dynamic user demand?
(Select TWO.)
Select one or more:
a.High availability
b.Shared security model
c.Pay-as-you-go pricing
d.Elasticity
101: filters let you dynamically detect the scope of Group Policy objects,
based on the attributes of the targeted computer
a.WMI
b.NTDS
c.Group Policy
d.Win3

102: Which collection of protocols are used to create encrypted connections

between devices?
a.SSH
b.HTTP
c.IPSec
d.HTTPS

103: How many partitions can be created in GPT Disk in a windows 10

Operating system?
a.64
b.32
c.128
d.16

104: The Swap partition details can be known from the commands
Select one or more:
a.top
b.swapon
c.swapls
d.free
105: The partition id of the LVM partition is .
Select one:
a.fd
b.83
c.82
d.8e

106: A 32 bit recovery drive can be used to recover Windows 10 64 bit

operating system.
Select one:
True
False

107: Restrict drive mappings to an Active Directory security group is possible

through Group Policy Configuration
Select one:
True
False

108: Which of the following is assumed to obtain temporary credentials?

Select one:
a.Group
b.Role
c.Policy
d.Permission
109: Cloud computing is a method of hosting an application on the physical
server at the customer's location
Select one:
True
False

110: When you want a string to have multiple lines, which special character is
preceded and follow the string value?
Select one:
a.#
b.@
c.%
d.$

111: The file that has the list of users who are allowed to schedule the cron
jobs is
Select one:
a./etc/cron.allow
b./etc/cron.users
c./etc/cron_users
d./etc/cron_allow

112: The list of shared files can be viewed with the command
a.showmount -e
b.mount -a
c.mount.nfs
d.mountls
113: is the capacity of a single network to cover several physical networks.
a.Subnetting
b.Fragment
c.Masking
d.Segmenting

114: Which of the following is described as a record of results generated on a

specific job function or operation over a set period of time.
Select one:
a.Performance
b.Job Nature
c.Work funcltion
d.Lead

115: Which tool generates a notification when unauthorised files are saved?
Select one:
a.File Screening
b.Storage Report
c.Quota Template
d.File Partition

116: After creating the partitions with fdisk command, the command that
informs the partition changes to the kernel is
a.parted
b.partsave
c.partprobe
d.part –update
117: Which log levels are highly fatal and should be given more attention in
the windows 10 operating system?
Select one:
a.Critical
b.Error
c.Verbose
d.Information

118: Which zone resolves the IP addresses to the fully qualified domain name?
Select one:
a.Forward lookup zone
b.Stub zone
c.Reverse lookup zone
d.Secondary zone

119: The hostname for the system can be set permanently in the file
a./etc/hosts
b./etc/hostname
c./etc/network-scripts
d./etc/network

120: The DHCP server reserves an IP address for a system with the help of
a.Network Address
b.System id
c.MAC address
d.Port Address
121: You want to use a network medium that isn't affected by EMI. Which
cabling type should you use?
Select one:
a.Thinnet
b.UTP
c.Fiber optic cable
d.Thicknet

122: On a single chip, the modern combines the functions of a processor,

memory, and video.
a.microprocessor
b.RAM
c.SRAM
d.VRAM

123: On CDs and DVDs, the indentations are known as

Select one:
a.Sectors
b.Blocks
c.Clusters
d.Tracks
124: The private key is kept by the in an asymmetric key cryptography.
Select one:
a.sender & receiver
b.everyone
c.receiver
d.sender
125: Which of the following is not a group function?
a.LENGTH
b.COUNT
c.MAX
d.MIN

126: If the user is not set with the password, the user is considered as
Select one:
a.not created
b.locked
c.set the password at first login
d.login without password

127: A _____is a lack of access control policy.

Select one:
a.Bug
b.vulnerability
c.Threat
d.Virus
128: replication policy determines which user's or computer's credentials a
specific RODC caches
a.Windows Hello
b.PIN
c.Password
d.Fingerprint
129: What are the different types of instances? Choose all that apply
Select one or more:
a.General purpose
b.Computer Optimized
c.Power Optimized
d.Storage Optimized

130: pseudocolumn is used to generate the new sequence number.

a.NEW
b.NEXTVAL
c.SEQUENCE
d.CURRVAL

131: Which group type allows you to assign to the shared resources?
Select one:
a.Universal Group
b.Local Group
c.Global Groups
d.Security Group
132: The command to verify the zone files is
Select one:
a.named-chkzone
b.named-checkconf
c.named-chkconf
d.named-checkzone
133: A Storage pool is a collection of hard disk in which you can create
multiple virtual disks?
Select one:
True
False

134: refers to the fact that the information presented is accurate and has not
been tampered with or changed during transmission by an unauthorised
person or group of individuals.
Select one:
a.Authenticity
b.Data integrity
c.Confidentiality
d.Access

135: A private IP address is routed to the internet by default

Select one:
True
False

136: Lack of access control policy is a

a.Bug
b.Threat
c.Vulnerability
d.Attack
137: SQL is a case sensitive language and the data stored inside the table are
case in- sensitive. Say true or false?
Select one:
True
False

138: Which tool is used to gather information and troubleshoot record events
as logs?
Select one:
a.Event Viewer
b.Performance Monitor
c.Reliablity
d.TaskManager

139: is a technique for sniffing sensitive data as it travels through a network.

a.Eavesdropping
b.SMTP
c.Spam
d.POP

140: In which location is the Active Directory Database stored in the windows
server operating system?
Select one:
a.c:\windows\ndts
b.c:\windows\system32\etc\ntds
c.c:\windows\system32\ntds
d.c:\windows\ntds
141: Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
* 1. Design of the service metrics * 2. Business continuity strategy * 3.
Business impact analysis (BIA) * 4. Risk assessment
Select one:
a.1, 3 and 4 only
b.1, 2 and 3 only
c.1, 2 and 4 only
d.2, 3 and 4 only

142: Storage classes available with Amazon s3 are -

Select one or more:
a.Amazon S3 standard
b.Amazon S3 standard-infrequent Access
c.Amazon S3 Random Access
d.Amazon Glacier

143: A set of rules for the communication of data is

a.Ethernet
b.Channel
c.Modem
d.Protocols

144: What should all 'continual improvement' decisions be based on?

a.Details of how services are measured
b.Accurate and carefully analysed data
c.An up-to-date balanced scorecard
d.A recent maturity assessment
145: is a browser based scripting environment in Azure.
a.Azure Cloud Shell
b.Azure Portal
c.Azure CLI
d.Azure Powershell

146: Which static methods of the class is commonly used to convert the value
to an 8-bit unsigned integer?
a.ToChar()
b.ToBoolean()
c.ToString()
d.ToByte()

47: Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?

a.Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
b.The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to
ensure they can be implemented quickly
c.Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
d.The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly

148: The symbol that identifies the acl is set for a file or a directory is
a.*
b.-
c..
d.+
149: Which command is used to add a new column to the existing table?
Select one:
a.Add column
b.Truncate
c.Alter
d.Update

150: How does information about problems and known errors contribute to
'incident management'?
Select one:
a.It enables the reassessment of known erros
b.It enables quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents
c.It removes the need for regular customer updates
d.It removes the need for collaboration during incident resolution

TFA
1. What are two types of ip addresses that can be allocated?
a. Private and Public
b. Static and Dynamic
c. Short term and long term
d. None of the above
2. DHCP stands for _____
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

3. Client server model has the following advantages Centralized, Scalability &
Flexibility
a. True
b. False
4. DNS is responsible for converting domain name to corresponding ip-address.
a. True
b. False
5. What is the best AWS service to store our archived data for long term on
cloud?
a. S3 standard storage
b. S3 Glacier
c. Aws archive service
d. Non persistent data store
6. Which of the below mentioned services would you recommend monitoring
EC2 instances in AWS?
a. CloudWatch
b. CloudTrail
c. EC2 monitor
d. AWS monitoring service
7. Which of the following allows you to bid on spare Amazon EC2 computing
capacity?
a. Autoscaling
b. Spot Instances
c. Convertible Instances
d. Reserved instances
8. Which Azure service can be used to view any failures on azure services
a. Event Viewer
9. Which Service can be used to create OS images?
a. Cloud storage
b. Cloud server
c. Images
d. CD/DVD
10. Under the shared responsibility model which one below is service provider
responsibility?
a. Operating System Patching
b. Firmware Updates for Hardware
c. Antivirus Scanning
d. Data Encryption
11. What are the methods to access azure cloud?
a. Azure portal
b. Azure CLI
c. Azure SDK
d. All of the above
12. Compute Engines can be connected from where?
a. Office
b. Server
c. Anywhere
d. Some Network
13. *Which Services can be used as a bucket?
a. Cloud Storage
b. Compute Engine
c. Storage
d. disk
14. An Amazon EC2 instance running the Amazon Linux 2 AMI is billed in what
increment?
a. Per GB
b. Per Memory
c. Per CPU
d. Per hour
15. What is the purpose of block changing tracking file?
a. Improve the performance of increment database back
b. BCT is not related to backup Operation
16. Which type of backup options are available in Oracle?
a. Complete DB backup
b. Tablespace backup
c. Table level backup (Export)
d. Data file Backup
e. All of the above
17. What types of segments are available in Oracle?
a. Data Segment
b. Index Segment
c. Undo Segment
d. Temporary Segments
e. All of the above
18. What is the finest level granularity in the storage element?
a. Block
b. Segments
c. Tables
d. Tablespace
19. What type of databases are available?
a. Relational Database
b. Object Oriented Database
c. Distributed Database
d. No SQL Database
e. Graph Database
f. Cloud Database
g. All of the above
20. What is CMDB?
a. configuration management database
b. configured management database
c. configuration managementation database
d. configured management data striucture
21. What is Accenture’s IT Dept. known as?
a. EDS (Enterprise Data System)
b. CIO (Chief Information Officer)
c. IIS (Information Infrastructure Services)
d. ITG (Information Technology Group)
22. What is an IT asset?
a. IT asset is any financially valuable component that can contribute to the
delivery of an IT product or service
23. What is response time?
a. The time taken to change the status of ticket from “Assigned” to any
other status on….
24. Why do we need VNET security group?
a. Create a Secure Disk
b. Create a Database
c. To allow or deny access
d. To create a resource group.
25. Which will enable Operating system virtualization
a. Hyper-V
b. Containers
c. Virtual Machines
d. Hyper-V Host
26. Identify the missing word.
A service is defined as a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating
outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to
manage specific ______ and risks
Ans: costs

27. What is the command to rename a file?

a. Cp
b. Cat
c. Echo
d. Mv
28. What Virtualization technology that Microsoft offers?
a. Hyper V
b. VMware
c. HyperVM
d. Container
29. On which Cylinder does MBR lie on the hard disk?
a. 0
b. 1
 c. 2
d. 3
30. How many levels are there in Linux Boot process?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
31. Password Management Services enables the clients to store and distributes
the admin credentials in a secured way?
a. True
b. False
32. What is a command to create folder in a tree structure?
a. Mkdir
b. Mkdir -p
c. Rmdir
d. None
33. WPA stands for
a. Wifi Private Access
b. Wifi Provided Access
c. Wifi Protocol Access
d. Wifi Protected Access
34. Security and compliance Monitoring is the process of quality Assurance testing
carried out over a period of time inline with the policies and procedures
defined in an organization
a. True
b. False
35. What does INIT3 do?
a. Boots the linux server in GUI mode
b. Restarts the Linux Server
c. Boots the linux server in Full multiuser mode
d. None of the above
36. What is the command to check the current directory which your are working?
a. pwd
b. Present working directory
c. cdr
 d. None
37. What is a command to create a new user?
a. Useradd
38. What is the command to list all the hidden files?
a. Ls -la
b. Ls -l
c. Ls
d. None
39. In which level of Boot process does system integrity check happens?
a. GRUB
b. INIT
c. BIOS
d. MBR
40. What is the command to create an empty new file without opening it?
a. Vi
b. Touch
c. Cat
d. Vim
41. What is the command to delete a file or directory forcefully and recursively?
a. rm -rf
b. rm -r
c. rm
d. mkdir
42. Unprotected downloads are threat to ______
a. Vunerlabities
b. Malware
c. Spyware
d. Spam
e. Phising
43. The concept of ___ in an information security pertains to the protection of
unauthorized access or disclosure
a. Security
b. Confidentiality
c. Integrity
d. Non-Repudiation
44. What does AAA stands for
a. Authentication, authorization and accounting
45. What is Security?
a. Security is a compromise between opening the systems up to the wond
and vocking them down so no one can use them.
46. Which server role provide authentication and authorization?
a. Active directory domain service
b. Active directory certificate service
c. Active directory federation services
d. Dynamic host control protocol
47. Access Management is sub classification of?
a. Managed Cyber Defense
b. Managed Identity
c. Managed Compliance
d. None
48. If you have unintentionally modified data, which security feature have you
violated?
a. Availability
b. Integrity
c. Accountability
d. Confidentiality
49. GCP Cloud can be connected from where?
a. GCP CLI
b. GCP SDK
c. GCP Portal
d. All
50. Which role server enable you to take backup on windows server OS?
a. Windows file backup Service
b. Windows System Backup service
c. Windows Server Backup
d. Windows system backup
51. What is the ultimate objective of the Service value system? (Single choice)
a. To maintain the practices
b. To follow governance
c. To deliver value
 d. To keep continually improving
52. What is VPN?
53. Which Service provide High Availability?
a. Failover Nodes
b. Failover Clusters
c. Failover Computing
d. Load Balancing
54. What is the Latest Client Operating System?
a. Windows server 2019
b. Windows 10
c. Windows 8
d. Windows 2020
55. IPV6 provides large address space compared to IPV4
a. True
b. False
56. What are two most important components in the Oracle 12C multitenant
architecture?
a. CDB- Container Database and PDB – Pluggable Database
b. MTDB
c. ASM
57. Where do you check the system logs on windows system?
a. Task Manager
b. Performance Manager
c. Event Viewer
d. Log Manager
58. Tool used for to check how the program you run affect your server
performance in a real time and data for later analysis?
a. Event Viewer
59. GPOs are used to create Policies for user and computers
a. True
b. False
60. What do you use to run a script at a scheduled time?
a. Task Manager
b. Task bar
c. Task Schedular
 d. Event Viewer
61. Which Fundamental of security is hampered by natural disasters like storms,
earthquakes, Floods etc.
a. Accountability
b. Integrity
c. Availability
d. Confidentiality
62. How many control files can we use in production environment?
a. 8
b. 6
c. 3
d. 5
63. Why do we need subnet on Azure?
a. To create blob in the storage account
b. To create storage account
c. To delete virtual machines
d. To create CIDR block under V-Net in respective regions and zones.
64. What types of Constraints are available in Oracle?
a. Primary Key
b. Check
c. Not null
d. Unique
e. Foreign Key
f. All of the above
65. Which Dimensions includes a workflow management system
a. Organization and People
b. Partners and Suppliers
c. Information and Technology
d. Value Streams and Process.
66. Who Requires ITIL in an Organization?
a. IT dept and end user.
67. What is the command to rename a file?
a. Mv
68. What is command to change owner of file or directory?
a. Chown
69. Which server role resolve IP to name and name to IP resolution?
a. DNS
70. What is the latest Windows Server Operating System?
a. Windows Server 2019
71. DHCP server is responsible for___
a. Assigning an IP address to a device.
72. APIPA Stands for_____
a. Automatic Private IP Addressing.
73. What is SAN stands for_____
a. Storage Area Network.
74. Which Azure Service can be used to pool OS images?
a. OS Image Store.
75. In which 2 Situations should the ITIL guiding principles can be considered?
a. In every initiative.
b. In relationships with all stockholders.
c. Only in specific initiatives where the principle is relevant.
d. Only in specific stockholder relationships where the principle is relevant.
76. What is the command to check Hostname of the Linux server?
a. Hostname
77. Which command provides the IP configuration information?
a. Ipconfig
78. What is the purpose of the information security management practise?
a. Protecting and organization by understanding & managing risk to the
confidentiality, integrity & availability of information
79. How many bits is an IPV6 address made up of?
a. 128 bits
80. List out 3 physical files in Oracle?
a. Tablespaces, REDO Log Files, Control Files | Data File if Available
81. ____is a command that is commonly used to identify the IP information of a
computer on a network.
a. Ipconfig
82. The Azure Virtual Machine Service belongs to _________
a. Infrastructure As a Service (IaaS)
83. What are the two kinds of network based on entity?
a. LAN & WAN
84. GCP VPC has 3 types______
a. Default, Auto, Custom
85. Your company plan to migrate all its network resources to Azure.You need to
start the planning process by exploring Azure. What should you create first?
a. Subscription
b. Resource group
c. Virtual Network
d. A Management groups
86. Intranet is a generic term for private network of an organization.
a. True
87. GCP Compute Engine comes under which services?
a. IaaS (Infrastructure As a Service)
88. Project teams demands to create GCP resources for department, what
sequence you will create?
a. Subscription, Folder, Project
b. Folder, Subscription, Project
c. Project, Subscription, Folder
d. Folder, Department, Service
89. How do you create a storage account?
a. Subscription, Resource, Storage
90. GCP Network Service is called as____
a. VPC
91. What are the files containing in the Full Database Backup?
a. All data files with control files
92. An incident refers to (Single Choice) _____.
a. An unplanned event in the IT infrastructure of an enterprise which &
reduction in the quality of an IT service.
93. Select the Operating System with Minimal footprint______.
a. Nano Server
94. A____ is an individual who is skilled at bypassing controls and accessing data
or information that he or she has not been given authorization to do so?
a. Masquerader
95. Which Azure service can be used for automations____ ?
a. The Azure API Management Service
b. Management Group
 c. Azure resource management service
d. Virtual Machine scale sets
96. What we need to create to enable communication between 2 VPCs with in a
region?
a. VPC Peering
97. John as a user on EC2 instance has a requeriment to host an application for use
for at least 1 year. Which of the following will be the most cost-effective
solution to use in this case?
a. Reserved instance
98. How GCP billing calculated_____.
a. Per Hour Billing
99. MAC address is the________
a. Unique address assigned to the NIC (Network Interface Card)
100. VPN connection is possible without an internet connection.
a. True.
101. Which is not a component of the service value systems?
a. The four dimensions of service management.
102. A masquerade is a person who has obtained another person’s credentials
on authorized system
a. True
103. Hub is a_____ & Switch is a _____device.
a. Broadcast, Unicast
104. What are the 5 Accenture’s business?
a. Strategy, Consulting, Digital, Technology, Operation.
105. Identify the command used to check if a device is available on a network?
a. Ping
b. Traceart
c. Netsh
d. Nslookup
106. If you have installed outside software on a company owned information
infrastructure, which security feature have you violated?
a. Accountability
107. Which file system consist of all the configuration files?
a. /etc
108. For a P1 incident a problem record should be created.
 a. True
109. Project demands to create a virtual machine on a azure cloud. How will you
sequence your creation?
a. Subscription, resource group, VNET, Virtual machine
110. For an incident to be resolved a server component needs to be refreshed.
What should you do to resolve the ticket?
a. Incident Identification Logging & Categorization
b. Incident Notification & escalation
c. Investigation & diagnosis
d. Resolution and Recovery
e. Incident closure
f. All of the above
111. Which service used to create Virtual Machine in GCP?
a. Virtual Machine
b. Compute Engine
c. EC2
d. Network
112. The command helps to check the communication between the networking
devices
a. Ping
b. Traceart
c. Ipconfig
d. Ipconfig /all
113. DHCP is responsible for
a. Assigning an IP address to a device
b. Automatically assigning an IP address to a device from a certified range of
IP address
c. Transferring IP address to a domain name
114. What is the purpose of Information security management practice?
a. To observe services & service components to plan & manage the full cycle
of IT asset
b. to protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its
business.
115. Star topology is based on a central device that can be____
a. Hub
116. Which one of these is not a guiding principle?
a. Demand co-creation
b. Start where you are
c. Keep it simple & practice
d. Focus on value
1. Which is a file level data storage device connected to a TCP/IP network - NAS

2. Which is a storage device in a computer that is used for storing files -

Server
3. Which has many of the characteristics of what is now being called cloud
computing - Internet
4. Which delivery model is an example of a cloud computing environment that
provides users with a web based email service? - SaaS
5. The process of handling individuals to achieve better results is - HRM
6.The software that lies between an operating system and the programs that run
on it is - Middleware
7. Which cloud infrastructure is operated for the exclusive use of an
organizational purpose - Private
8. What's the most basic level of storage -DAS
9. The elasticity and the flexibility in the Cloud are built on the foundation
of - Virtualization
10. For long-term storage (archival) of data used typically by the following
storage equipment - Tape Cartridges
11.What are true in mirrored volume? - Minimum 2 HDD needed
12. What Is ESD? - Electrostatic Discharge
13. Identify memory module form factors that are widely used by laptops? -
SODIMM
14. In Windows 7, the default display resolution is - 800 x 600
15. The power connector with 24 pins used in - ATX MB
16. Which is the high-speed network technology that interconnects network
elements and allows them to connect with one another - Fibre Channel
17. Using a portion of hard disk space to serve as RAM is called? - Virtual
memory
18. Which storage device is currently used in Desktops -SATA
19. You are the server administrator. You want to correct any errors in the file
system and restore any bad sectors on the hard disk of your machine. Which tool
do you use? - Check disk
20. Which part of the hardware used to connect the LAN is -NIC
21. which port is used to connect a digital camera to a computer? - USB port
22. Zip drive is - a medium capacity removable disk storage system
23. What Is The Voltage Of The Power Good Signal? - 5v Dc
24. Which processor is widely used in servers - Xeon
25. How many number of HDD required to configure RAID-5? - 3
26. Which hardware component that is used to transmit data over
telecommunications lines is called- modems
27. What is the industry standard protocol for directory access is - LDAP
28. Identify the solution to the power failure over here? - UPS
29. What must you do after replacing the CMOS battery? - Set the date and time
30. This is the newest technology for hard drives that uses flash memory instead
of Platter and Read/Write head and mechanical components? - SSD
31. What are the NTFS characteristics? - Security for each Files and
Directories
32. Time to move read/write heads to a spot on medium is defined as the - seek
time
33. This preserves CMOS memory time, date, hard disk and other configuration
settings - CMOS Battery
34. In network interface cards, the term 10/100 refers to - Nic's bandwidth
35. Which Intel's technology for virtualization on the x86 platform - VT-x
36. What makes the first activity of BIOS the right operation of computer
hardware - POST
37. How MBR data is stored - track 0 sector1
38. Which disks are widely used in servers - SCSI
39. SCSI stands for - small computer system interface
40. When you want to connect a part of your hardware as a card, which slot is
often used - PCI/PCI Express
41. What kind of BIOS is currently used on the motherboard - UEFI
42. Identify the architecture of the processor with 18 cores - i9
43. How many users will log in to a client device using Windows 7 simultaneously
using a remote desktop? - 1
44. What is true in RAID-5 volume? - Offers fault tolerance
45. What is the program name used for BIOS? - Firmware
46. If the hard disk is formatted, it will be divided into - Tracks
47. Identify the component that provides the fastest time for data access? - RAM
48. What do you name the memory stored inside the CPU? - Cache
49. What is the Maximum data rate acheived in DD4 RAM is - 3200Mb/s
50. What does VRAM stands for - Video RAM
51. In binary, what is the address range of a Class B network address? -
10xxxxxx
52. What method of switching checks the destination MAC address as the frame is
received and then starts to forward the frame until the entire frame is
received? - cut through
53. What is the SMTP protocol port number? - 25
54. what is the translation scheme used for converting all private ip in a
domain to a single public ip. - PAT
55. Which Protocol facilitates the exchange of management information between
network devices ? - SNMP
56. Inside the DoD TCP/IP comparison model, where does routing occur? - network
57. What IP address class has a limit of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
- Class C
58. A physical or logical subnetwork that includes and exposes the external
services of an entity to a wider untrusted network, is generally referred to as
the Internet. - DMZ
59. Bluetooth technology uses radio waves have a range of - 20ft
60. What protocol is used to resolve an IP address to a MAC address? - ARP
61. SWAP partition doesn’t need a mount point? - True
62. What is swap - Virtual memory, a space in Hard disk, where the inactive
memory pages are stored
63. what is ipaddress - A logical address to uniquely identify the system in the
network
64. Who is the administrator for Linux System - root
65. what is DNS Server - A server which is responsible for converting names to
IP address and vice versa
66. What is a mountpoint - A directory where the partition is logically
attached to the single rooted hierarchy
67. How would you add new user abc, to the system with the project as the
primary default group and test as a secondary group? - useradd -g project -G
test abc
68. User’s password information has been stored in - /etc/shadow
69. The entries about the primary group of a user can be found from _________
file. - etc/passwd
70. Which command is used to modify the user? - usermod
71. Information about all the users are maintained in a file called -
/etc/passwd
72. Command to create partition in Linux - fdisk
73. what s the purpose of partprobe command - To update the kernel with the
changes made to the partition table
74. How will you find the uuid of a partition - using the command blkid
75. What does the command mkfs do - Create a filesystem on a partition
76. what is the usage of /etc/fstab file -It Contains a list of partitions that
are to be mounted during boot time.
77. What is the command to uninstall packages using yum - yum remove
78. What is the command to install a package - rpm -i
79. What is the command to query a package - rpm -q
80. What is command to install packages using yum - yum install
81. Which is the command that will create a repository for the package manager?
- createrepo
82. how will you make a service to start after reboot - systemctl enable service

83. What will happen if the default run level is set to 6. - System will be kept
on reboot
84. To reset a forgotten root passwd you need to use - Single user mode
( runlevel 1)
85. What is the command to switch targets in RHEL7 - systemctl isolate
graphical.target
86. What is the command to set a default target to boot in RHEL7 - systemctl
set-default multi-user.target
87. ONBOOT=yes parameter in ifcfg-ifname file means - enable the device when the
system boots up
88. Command to set the hostname - hostnamectl set-hostname
89. location of ifcfg-ifname - /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-ifname
90. Command to check the IP address - ifconfig
91. mount the directory in the NFS Client using the following command syntax: -
mount -t nfs :
92. How will you start nfs in RHEL7 - systemctl start nfs-server
93. After updating the /etc/exports file, the _______ command must be run for it
to take effect (with option(s)). - exportfs -a.
94. What is the package required for nfs - nfs-utils
95. To view the list of shared directories on NFS server, run the following
command - showmount
96. Forward lookup zone means - resolves name to IP
97. The package required to install DNS - bind
98. Reverse lookup zone means - resolves IP to name
99. DNS used to convert IP adddress to Names and vice versa - true
100. Main configuration file for DNS Server - /etc/named.conf
101. Static IP address means - IP address manually assigned by the administrator
102. client lease database is - var/lib/dhcpd/dhcpd.leases
103. Dynamic IP means - IP address automatically assigned from a DHCP Server
104. Configuration file for DHCP - /etc/dhcp/dhcpd.conf
105. Command to release renew IP address - dhclient -r
106. Apache Configuration file and its location - /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf
107. Command to start apache server - systemctl start httpd
108. Package name for apache http server - httpd
109. Command to check the syntax of configuration file - httpd -t
110. Default DocumentRoot location - /var/www/html
111. Configuration files for vsftpd - /etc/vsftpd/vsftpd.conf
112. The protocol used to transfer files -FTP
113. Port number for FTP data transfer - 20
114. Whats the purpose of NTP server - synchronize computer’s clock time in a
network
115. Port number of NTP Server is - 123
116. Configuration file for NTP Server is - /etc/ntp.conf
117. In which command we can use causal words - at
118. which command is use to create one time activity - at
119. How to disable particular user in cron job? - /etc/cron.deny
120. which command is use to create multiple schedule - crontab
121. How to allow particular user in cron job? - /etc/cron.allow
122. Running A CRON Job At 2:30 AM Every Day - 30 2 * * * /your_command
123. How to save a particular at event - ctrl+d
124. How to disable particular user in at job? - /etc/at.deny
125. How Would I Get A Cron Job To Run Every 30 Minutes? - 30 * * * *
/your_command
126. mkswap command is used to - convert a partition to swap
127. In Linux, SWAP memory can be added at any point - true
128. To make the swap available after reboot, an entry should be made in
/etc/fstab - true
129. swapon command is used to Enable files/partition for paging - true
130. SWAP memory can be a file or a partition - true
131. Which of the following are considered as constraints? - Unique , check,
NOT NULL
132. Which of the following represents the degree of the relation? - No of
Attributes
133. Which of the following are DML statements? - INSERT , SELECT
134. Which of the following are data models? - Hierarchical, relational, network
135. Database is a shared collection of logically unrelated data, designed to
meet the needs of an organization. State True or False. - false
136. SQL is a case sensitive language and the data stored inside the table are
case in-sensitive. Say true or false? - false
137. Data is represented in the form of a graph - network
Data is represented in the form of a table - relational
Data is represented in the form of a tree - hierarchical
138. : ______ refers to the columns of the table → Attribute, _______ refers to
number of columns in the table → Degree, ______ refers to the rows of the table
→ Tuples, ________ refers to number of rows in the table → cardinality, _______
refers to the range of values that can be stored for an attribute → Domain
139. Tom has designed a payroll software for XYZ technology.The software will
store the salary details into the database and later he can retrieve the same
for future references. Tom falls under which category of user. - Application
Programmer
140. Which of the following is not a valid relational database?- unify
141. A relational database consists of a collection of - tables
142. In a relational database a referential integrity constraint can be done
using - foreign key
143. Which of the following is not modification of the database - sorting
144. Column header is referred as - attributes
145. _____ is called as meta data. - data dictionary
146. Which of the following options is not correct? - alter table emp drop
column_name;
147. creditcardno → primary key, cardholdername → not null, cardholderphoneno →
unique, creditcardtype should be silver or platinum only → check, validitydate →
not null
148. We need to ensure that the amount withdrawn should be less then the credit
card limit amount, to ensure this integrity what type constraint will be used? -
table level check constraint
149. A table consists of ______ primary keys. - 1
150. An emp table contains fields employ name, desig and salary. How do you drop
column salary? - alter table emp drop column salary;
151. How would you add a foreign key constraint on the dept_no column in the EMP
table, referring to the id column in the DEPT table? - Use the ALTER TABLE
command with the ADD clause on the EMP table
152. When we attempt to create the salary table with this command:
1.CREATE TABLE salary
2.(employee_id NUMBER(9)
3.CONSTRAINT salary_pk PRIMARY KEY,
4.1995_salaryNUMBER(8,2),
5.manager_name VARCHAR2(25)
6.CONSTRAINT mgr_name_nn NOT NULL,
7.$salary_96NUMBER(8,2));
Which two lines of this statement will return errors? - 7
156. Which statement would you use to add a primary key constraint to the
patient table using the id_number column, immediately enabling the constraint?
- ALTER TABLE patient
ADD CONSTRAINT pat_id_pk PRIMARY KEY(id_number);
157.To permanently remove all the data from the STUDENT table, and you need the
table structure in the future. Which single command performs this? - TRUNCATE
TABLE student;
158. The EMPLOYEES table has these columns:
LAST NAMEVARCHAR2(35)
SALARYNUMBER(8,2)
HIRE_DATEDATE
Management wants to add a default value to the SALARY column. You plan to alter
the table by
using this SQL statement:
ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEES
MODIFY (SALARY DEFAULT 5000);
What is true about your ALTER statement? - A change to the DEFAULT value
affects only subsequent insertions to the table.
159. Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid? - CREATE TABLE ord_details
(ord_no NUMBER(2),
item_no NUMBER(3),
ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no,item_no));
160. insert into employee(empid,empname)values('123','John');
When we issue the above insert command and if the statement fails,
what would be the reason. - Value for phoneno is missing.
161. Which statement inserts a new row into the STUDENT table? - INSERT INTO
student (stud_id, address, name, dob)
VALUES (101,'100 Main Street','Smith','17-JUN-99');
162. DELETE FROM dept WHERE dept_id = 901;
The above delete statement throws an integrity constraint error because a child
record was found. What could we do to make the statement execute? - Delete the
child records first.
163. Which SQL statement needs both insert and update privilege on the target
table and select privilege on the source table? - merge
164. Which update statement produces the following error?
ORA-02291: integrity constraint (SYS_C23) violated - parent key not found -
UPDATE Employee SET Deptid=3 WHERE Empid = 101;
165. [select] statement/command would not cause a transaction to end
166. Delete → Removes all or only the rows specified from the table., Drop →
Removes the table itself from the database., Truncate → Removes the entire data
from the table, while the structure remains intact.
167. It is possible to update more than one column with a single UPDATE
statement. State true or false. - true
168. To have all the rows deleted from the table using delete statement, you
must specify the query with WHERE clause that specifies all the rows. State true
or false. - false
169. To change the structure of the table we use [ALTER TABLE] Syntax.
170. The SQL statements executed in a user session as follows:
create table product(pid number(10),pname varchar(10));
Insert into product values(1,'pendrive');
Insert into product values(2,'harddisk');
savepoint a;
update product set pid=20 where pid=1;
savepoint b;
delete from product where pid=2;
commit;
delete from product where pid=10;
Which statements describe the consequence of issuing the ROLLBACK TO SAVE POINT
a command in the session? - No SQL statements are rolled back., The rollback
generates an error.
171. Which statements are true regarding constraints? - A constraint can be
disabled even if the constraint column contains data., A columns with the UNIQUE
constraint can contain NULL values
172. You need to remove all the data from the employee table while leaving the
table definition intact. You want to be able to undo this operation. How would
you accomplish this task? - DELETE FROM employee;
173. Which statement is true when a DROP TABLE command is executed on a table?
- The table structure and its deleted data cannot be rolled back and restored
once the DROP TABLE command is executed.
174. select the student details whose firstname starts with 'A' or whose city is
'Chennai' and firstname ends with 'n' - select * from CSR_STUDENT where
firstname like 'A%' [OR] city ='Chennai' [AND] firstname like '%n';
175. Which statement about SQL is true? - Null values are displayed last in
ascending sequences.
176. How to retrieve department_id column without any duplication from employee
relation? - select distinct department_id from employee;
177. Select the suitable option for retrieving all the employees whose last name
is "kumar"? - select * from employee where empname like '%kumar';
178. Select the suitable option for retrieving all the employees who have a
manager? - select empname, manager_id from employee where manager_id is NOT
NULL;
179. Select the suitable option for retrieving all the employees whose salary
range is between 40000 and 100000? - select name,salary from employee where
salary between 40000 and 100000;, select name,salary from employee where
salary>=40000 and salary<=100000;
180. The SELECT statement is used to describe the table and the table data from
a database. State true or false. - false
181. [*] should be used if you want to select all the fields available in the
table.
182. Which of the following are the correct syntaxses for displaying the
StudentName and Department from Student table? - SELECT STUDENTNAME, DEPARTMENT
FROM Student;, select studentname, department FROM Student;, SELECT StudentName,
Department FROM Student;, select studentname, department FROM STUDENT;
183. Select the suitable option for fetching the output of the following query.
select substr("Oracle World",1,6) from dual; - Oracle
184. To display the names of employees that are not assigned to a department.
Evaluate this SQL statement: SELECT last_name, first_name
FROM employee
WHERE dept_id = NULL;
Which change should you make to achieve the desired result? - Change the
operator in the WHERE condition.
185. ABC company wants to give each employee a $100 salary increment. You need
to evaluate the
results from the EMP table prior to the actual modification. If you do not want
to store the results in the database, which statement is valid? - You need to
give the arithmetic expression that involves the salary increment in the DISPLAY

clause of the SELECT statement.

186. Generate a list of all customer last names with their credit limits from
the CUSTOMERS table. Customers who do not have a credit limit should appear last
in the list. kindly note that customers who do not have credit card will have
NULL against credit limit.
Which query would achieve the required result? -SELECT
cust_last_name,cust_credit_limit
FROM customers
ORDER BY cust_credit_limit;
187. Which statement is true regarding the default behavior of the ORDER BY
clause? - In a character sort, the values are case-sensitive
188. The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the
CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output? - SELECT 'Dear Customer ' ||
customer_name || ',' FROM customers;
189. To display the names of all promos done after January
1, 2001 starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.) - SELECT
promo_name,promo_begin_date "START DATE"
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_begin_date > '01-JAN-01'
ORDER BY "START DATE" DESC;, SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_begin_date > '01-JAN-01'
ORDER BY 2 DESC;
190. To update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where

CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will
accomplish the task? - UPDATE customers
SET cust_credit_limit = NULL
WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
200. To generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for
all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the
message "Not Available" displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result? - SELECT
NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),'Not Available') "NEW CREDIT"
FROM customers;
201. To calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which SQL statements would give the required output? - SELECT SYSDATE -
TO_DATE('01/JANUARY/2007') FROM DUAL;, SELECT SYSDATE - TO_DATE('01-JANUARY-
2007) FROM DUAL;
202. The PART table contains these columns:
ID NUMBER(7) PK
COST NUMBER(7,2)
PRODUCT_ID NUMBER(7)
Evaluate these two SQL statements:
1.SELECT ROUND(MAX(cost),2),
ROUND(MIN(cost),2),ROUND(SUM(cost),2),
ROUND(AVG(cost),2)
FROM part;
2.SELECT product_id, ROUND(MAX(cost),2),
ROUND(MIN(cost),2),ROUND(SUM(cost),2),
ROUND(AVG(cost),2)
FROM part
GROUP BY product_id;
How will the results differ? - Statement 1 will only display one row of
results; statement 2 could display more than one.
203. We need to analyze how long your orders take to be shipped from the date
that the order is placed. To do this, you must create a report that displays the
customer number, date ordered, date shipped, and the number of months in whole
numbers from the time the order is placed to the time the order is shipped.
Which statement produces the required results? - SELECT custid, orderdate,
shipdate, ROUND(MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipdate, orderdate)) "Time Taken" FROM ORD;
204. All columns in the SELECT list that are not in group functions must be in
the GROUP-BY clause. State True or False. - True
205. SELECT lot_no "Lot Number", COUNT(*) "Number of Cars Available"
FROM cars
WHERE model = 'Fire'
GROUP BY lot_no
HAVING COUNT(*) > 10
ORDER BY COUNT(*);
In the above statement which clause restricts which groups are displayed? -
HAVING COUNT(*) > 10
206. We need to analyze how long your orders take to be shipped from the date
that the order is placed. To do this, you must create a report that displays the
customer number, date ordered, date shipped, and the number of months in whole
numbers from the time the order is placed to the time the order is shipped.
Which statement produces the required results? - SELECT custid, orderdate,
shipdate,
ROUND(MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipdate, orderdate))
"Time Taken" FROM ord;
207. Group functions can be used in the where clause. State True or False. -
false
208. Single row functions can be nested to any level. State true or False. -
true
209. Evaluate these two SQL statements:
1. SELECT CONCAT(first_name, last_name),
LENGTH(CONCAT(first_name, last_name))
FROM employee
WHERE UPPER(last_name) LIKE '%J'
ORUPPER(last_name) LIKE '%K'
ORUPPER(last_name) LIKE '%L';
2. SELECT INITCAP(first_name) || INITCAP(last_name),
LENGTH(last_name) + LENGTH(first_name)
FROM employee
WHERE INITCAP(SUBSTR(last_name, 1, 1)) IN ('J', 'K', 'L');
How will the results differ? - The statements will retrieve different data from
the database.
210. We need to create a report to display the order id, ship date and order
total of your ORDER table. If the order has not been shipped, your report must
display 'Not Shipped'. If the total is not available, your report must display
'Not Available'.
In the ORDER table, the SHIPDATE column has a datatype of DATE. The TOTAL column
has a datatype of INT. Which statement do you use to create this report? -
SELECT ordid, IFNULL(shipdate, 'Not Shipped') SHIPDATE,
IFNULL(total,'Not Available')TOTAL FROM order;
211. Select the suitable option for displaying the average commission percentage
of all employees, where the commission percentage column of certain employees
include NULL value. - select AVG(NVL(commission_pct,0)) from emp;
212. ORDER BY must be the [last] clause in the SELECT statement. You [can]
specify any combination of numeric positions and column names in the order by
clause.
213. Which statement would display the highest credit limit available in each
income level in each city in the Customers table? - SELECT cust_city,
cust_income_level,MAX(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers
GROUP BY cust_city, cust_income_level;
214. The following query is written to retrieve all those product IDs from the
SALES table that have more than 55000 sold and have been ordered more than 10
times:
SELECT prod_id FROM sales WHERE quantity_sold > 55000 AND COUNT(*)>10
GROUP BY prod_id HAVING COUNT(*)>10;
Which statement is true regarding this SQL statement? - It produces an error
because COUNT (*) should be only in the HAVING clause and not in the
WHERE clause.
215. To create a report displaying employee last names, department names, and
locations. Which query should you use to create an equi-join? - SELECT
e.last_name, d.department_name, d.location_id
FROM employees e, departments d
WHERE e.department_id =d.department_id;
216. Which statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table
joins? - The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have
different names but compatible data types., The WHERE clause can be used to
apply additional conditions in SELECT statement
containing the ON or the USING clause.
217. Which statements would execute successfully? - SELECT SUM (DISTINCT
NVL(subject1,0)),MAX(subject1)
FROM marks
WHERE subject1 > subject2;, SELECT SUM (subject1+subject2+subject3)
FROM marks
WHERE student_name IS NULL
218. SELECT cust_city. COUNT(cust_last_name)
FROM customers
WHERE cust_credit_limit > 1000
GROUP BY cust_city
HAVING AVG(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN 5000 AND 6000;
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query? - It
executes successfully.
219. Which SQL statement produces an error? - None of the statements produce
an error; all are valid.
220. To display the names of employees who earns more than the average salary of
all employees.
SELECT last_name, first_name
FROMemployee
WHEREsalary > AVG(salary);
Which change should you make to achieve the desired results? - Use a subquery
in the WHERE clause to compare the average salary value.
221. Where can subqueries be used? - Field names in the SELECT statement., The
FROM clause in the SELECT statement, The HAVING clause in the SELECT statement,
The WHERE clause in the SELECT as well as all DML statements
222. The NOT operator can be used with IN, ANY, and ALL operators in multiple-
row subqueries. State true or false. - true
223. Main query and subquery can/must get data from [different] tables.
224. Equijoin is called as ______. - Simple join
225. The _______ join is based on all columns in the two tables that have the
same column name. - Natural
226. Mr. John is the president of a company. Five managers report to him. All
other employees report to these managers.
Examine the code:
SELECT employee.ename FROM emp employee
WHERE employee.empno NOT IN (SELECT manager.mgr
FROM emp manager);
The above statement returns no rows selected. as the result. Why? - A NULL
value is returned from the subquery.
227. There is only one customer with the CUST_LAST_NAME column having value
Roberts. Which INSERT statement should be used to add a row into the ORDERS
table for the customer whose CUST_LAST_NAME is Roberts and CREDIT_LIMIT is 600?
- INSERT INTO orders VALUES( 1,'10-mar-2007','direct', (SELECT customer_id FROM
customers WHERE cust_last_name ='Roberts' AND
credit_limit =600) ,1000 );
228. What would be the outcome of executing the below SQL statement?
select prod_name from products where prod_id in(
select prod_id from products where prod_list_price=(
select max(prod_list_price) from products where prod_list_price<(
select max(prod_list_price)from products))); - It shown the names of products
whose list price is the second highest in the table
229. To display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit.
Which SQL statements would accomplish the task? - SELECT custname, grade
FROM customers, grades
WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers)
AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;, SELECT custname, grade
FROM customers, grades
WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit)
FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval
AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
230. _____ is used to retrieve records that do not meet the join condition -
Outer Join
231. The _______ join produces the cross product of two tables. - cross
232. Joining a table to itself is called as ______. - Self Join
234. To delete rows from the SALES table, where the PROMO_NAME column in the
PROMOTIONS table has either blowout sale or everyday low price as values.
Which DELETE statements are valid? (Choose all that apply.) - DELETE
FROM sales
WHERE promo_id = (SELECT promo_id
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_name = 'blowout sale')
OR promo_id = (SELECT promo_id
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_name = 'everyday low price');, DELETE
FROM sales
WHERE promo_id IN (SELECT promo_id
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_name = 'blowout sale')
OR promo_name = 'everyday low price';, DELETE
FROM sales
WHERE promo_id IN (SELECT promo_id
FROM promotions
WHERE promo_name IN ('blowout sale','everyday low price'));
235. Which object privileges can be granted on a view? - DELETE, INSERT,
SELECT, UPDATE
236. The owner has all the privileges on the object. State true or False. - true
237. Which SQL statement grants a privilege to all the database users? - grant
select on department to PUBLIC;
238. A/an ______ index is based on expressions. - Function Based
239. CREATE INDEX emp_dept_id_idx
ON employee(dept_id);
Which of the following statements are true with respect to the above index? -
May reduce the amount of disk I/O for SELECT statements.
240. You need to create the patient_id_seq sequence to be used with the patient
table's primary key column. The sequence should begin at 1000, have a maximum
value of 999999999, never reuse any numbers, and increment by 1.
Which statement would you use to complete this task? - CREATE SEQUENCE
patient_id_seq
START WITH 1000
MAXVALUE 999999999
NOCYCLE;
241. Which SQL statement would you use to remove a view called EMP_DEPT_VU from
your schema? - DROP VIEW emp_dept_vu;
242. An owner can give specific privileges on the owner's objects to others.
State... - true
243. ITIL consists of ….. - A Process, A Framework, A Policy
245. ITIL is implemented - Within an organization
246. What is the full form for ITIL? - Information Technology Infrastructure
Library
247. Is change request and service request the same? - No
248. From which country did ITIL roll out - United Kingdom
249. ITIL is ….. - Descriptive, Perspective
250. ITIL Involves - Vendors, Customers, Staff of the Organization
251. Branding Value is the type of - Return on Investment, Value on Investment
252. KB stand for - Knowledge Base
253. What does SLA stand for? - Service Level Agreement
254. Which describes outputs? - Tangible or intangible deliverables
255. Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. Utility is the [?]
offered by a product or service to meet a particular need. - Functionality
256. What is the purpose of the 'information security management' practice? -
Protecting an organization by understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information
257. Which of these are a key focus of the ‘organization and people’ dimension?
- Roles and responsibilities
258. What is defined as the practice of ensuring that accurate and reliable
information about the configuration of services, and the configuration items
that support them, is available when and where needed? - Service configuration
management
259. What is the purpose of the 'incident management' practice? - Minimizing
the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as
quickly as possible
260. What operating model outlines the key activities required to respond to
demand and facilitate value realization through the creation and management of
products and services? - Service value chain
261. Which describes the nature of the guiding principles? - A guiding principle
is a recommendation used as guidance in all circumstances
262. Which guiding principle is most affected by the customer experience (CX)? -
Focus on value
263. You are working to design a new service for internal use across your
organization. As part of your design efforts, you form a small team with
relevant stakeholders from the human resources, information technology, sales,
and other relevant departments to ensure the service adequately meets each
department's needs and hope this results in great acceptance of the service when
delivered. Which guiding principle best describes this scenario? - Collaborate
and promote visibility
264. Which of these are NOT a key focus of the ‘partners and suppliers’
dimension? - Workflow management and inventory systems
265. What is the definition of a service? - A means of enabling value co-
creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the
customer having to manage specific costs and risks
267. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The [?] is the
practice of capturing demand for incident resolution and service requests -
Service desk
268. Which ITIL concept describes the service value chain? - Service value
system
269. What term best describes a person or a group of people that has its own
functions with responsibilities, authorities, and relationships to achieve its
objectives? - Organization
270. Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence. An event is any
change of state that has significance for the management of a(n) [?] or other
configuration items - Service
271. Rohan is currently working to create a new service that would allow a
customer to purchase a digital product online and have it delivered to the
user's inbox. Rohan is responsible for the payment portion of this service, but
Esther is responsible for the digital product fulfillment portion of the
service. Which of the following should John do in order to follow the principle
of 'think and work holistically'? - Rohan should meet with Esther to determine
how the digital product fulfillment will occur
272. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. [?] is the practice of
ensuring that risks are properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and
managing a change schedule in order to maximize the number of successful IT
changes. - Change control
273. Which value chain activity includes portfolio decisions for design and
transition? - Plan
274. What is the purpose of the 'monitoring and event management' practice? -
Systematically observing services and service components and recording and
reporting selected changes of state identified as events
275. Which statement about known errors and problems is CORRECT? - Known error
is the status assigned to a problem after it has been analysed
276. What is a recommendation of the ‘focus on value’ guiding principle? -
Focus on value at every step of the improvement
277. Which statement BEST describes the value of service strategy to the
business? - It enables the service provider to understand what levels of
service will make their customers successful
278. Which value chain activity communicates the current status of all four
dimensions of service management? - Plan
279. What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents? -
Problem
280. Which is the purpose of the 'monitoring and event management' practice? -
To systematically observe services and service components, and record and report
selected changes of state
281. How should an organization adopt continual improvement methods? - Select a
few key methods for the types of improvement that the organization handles
282. Which describes a standard change? - A change that is typically implemented
as a service request
283. Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT? - The assessment and
authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly
284. Which guiding principle helps to ensure that better information is
available for decision making? - Collaborate and promote visibility
285. Which dimension includes a workflow management system? - Value streams and
processes
286. What should all 'continual improvement' decisions be based on? - Accurate
and carefully analysed data
287. Which service catalogue view is considered beneficial when constructing the
relationship between services, SLAs, OLAs, and other underpinning agreement -
Supporting services view
288. Which guiding principle recommends standardizing and streamlining manual
tasks? - Optimize and automate
289. Which guiding principle recommends collecting data before deciding what can
be re-used? - Start where you are
290. Which practice provides a single point of contact for users? - Service desk
291. What is the purpose of service level management? - To ensure that all
current and planned IT services are delivered to agreed achievable targets
292. Which dimension considers how knowledge assets should be protected? -
Information and technology
293. What is the purpose of the 'relationship management' practice? - To
establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders
294. Where should all master copies of controlled software and documentation be
stored? - In the definitive media library
295. What should be done for every problem? - It should be prioritized based on
its potential impact and probability
296. Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning
contracts? - Supplier management and service level management
297. A customer is a person who defines the requirements for a service and takes
responsibility for the [?] of service consumption - Outcomes
298. Which service transition process provides guidance about converting data
into information? - Knowledge management
300. When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change? - When the procedure for the standard change is created
301. Which service level metrics are BEST for measuring user experience?
-Metrics linked to defined outcomes
302. Which practice is the responsibility of everyone in the organization? -
Continual improvement
303. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The purpose of the
[?] is to ensure that the organization continually co-creates value with all
stakeholders in line with the organization's objectives. - service value system
304. Which guiding principle recommends coordinating all dimensions of service
management? - Think and work holistically
305. Which practice has a purpose that includes helping the organization to
maximize value, control costs and manage risks? - IT asset management
306. Which guiding principle is PRIMARILY concerned with consumer's revenue and
growth? - Focus on value
307. Which is intended to help an organization adopt and adapt ITIL guidance? -
The guiding principles
308. How does a service consumer contribute to the reduction of disk? - By
communicating constraints
309. Which practice identifies metrics that reflect the customer's experience of
a service? - Service level management
310. Which term is used to describe the prediction and control of income and
expenditure within an organization? - Budgeting
311. How should the workflow for a new service request be designed? - Leverage
existing workflows whenever possible
312. In which TWO situations should the ITIL guiding principles be considered?
* 1. In every initiative
* 2. In relationships with all stakeholders
* 3. Only in specific initiatives where the principle is relevant
* 4. Only in specific stakeholder relationships where the principle is relevant
- 1 and 2
313. What should a release policy include? - The naming convention and expected
frequency of each type of release
314. What is the purpose of problem management? - Reduces the likelihood and
impact of incidents
315. What is NOT within the scope of service catalogue management? - Fulfilment
of business service requests
316. Which practice provides visibility of the organization's services by
capturing and reporting on service performance? - Service level management
317. What is the CORRECT definition of service management? - A set of
specialized organizational capabilities for delivering value to customers in the
form of services
318. Which competencies are required by the 'service level management' practice?
- Business analysis and commercial management
319. Which statement about costs is CORRECT? - Costs removed from the consumer
are part of the value proposition
320. Which term describes the functionality offered by a service? - Utility
321. What type of change is MOST likely to be managed by the 'service request
management' practice? - A standard change
322. What considerations influence the supplier strategy of an organization? -
Corporate culture of the organization
324. Which practice provides support for managing feedback, compliments and
complaints from users? - Service request managemen
325. What is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that
customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage specific costs
and risks? - A service
325. Which ITIL concept describes governance? - The service value system
326. Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes
and tools when improving services? - Start where you are
327. What are the three phases of 'problem management'? - Problem
identification, problem control, error control
328. What is the expected outcome from using a service value chain? - Value
realization
329. How should automation be implemented? - By replacing human intervention
wherever possible
330. Which of the following is an example of incident? - An application is not
available during the business hours
331. Which statement about the 'service desk1 practice is CORRECT? - It needs a
practical understanding of the business processes
332. What type of change is pre-authorized, low risk, relatively common, and
follows a procedure or work instruction? - A standard change
333. Which guiding principle recommends using the minimum number of steps
necessary to achieve an objective? - Keep it simple and practical
334. Which of the following can be used to access service desks? - All of the
above
335. What takes place in the “Did we get there?” step of the continual service
improvement (CSI) approach? - Verifying that improvement targets have been
achieved
336. What is an IT asset? - Any financially valuable component that can
contribute to delivery of an IT product or service
337. What is the purpose of the ‘deployment management’ practice? - To move new
or changed components to live environments
338. Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The purpose of the
supplier management practice is to ensure that the organization’s suppliers and
their [?] are managed appropriately to support the seamless provision of quality
products and services. - Performances
339. What are the ITIL guiding principles used for? - To help an organization
make good decisions
340. hy should service desk staff detect recurring issues? - To help identify
problems
341. Which statement about change management is CORRECT? - It ensures that all
changes are authorized by the change advisory board (CAB)
342. Which practice identifies metrics that reflect a customer experience of a
service? - Service level management
343. Which value chain activity ensures the availability of service components?
- Obtain/build
344. Which of these is a part of the identification of the network? - UserID
345. In which year was the first computer worm (virus) created? - 1970
346. Your password should be atleast - 6 characters
347. Malware is the short form of ? - malicious software
348. Which is the central node of 802.11 wireless operations. - accesspoint
349. Which protocol is the Active Directory database based on? - LDAP
350. which is the port number used for HTTP - 80
351. MCAfee is an example of - Antivirus Software
352. Which port does Telnet use? - 23
353. To protect a computer from virus, you should install -------- in your
computer. - antivirus
356. WPA2 is used for security in - WIFI
357. Digital signature can provide _________ for a network. - All of the
above( nonrepudiation, integrity, authentication)
358. Which of these uses public key encryption to secure channel over public
Internet? - SSL
359. Which is a longer version of a password, and in theory, a more secured one.
- Passphrase
360. What is data encryption standard (DES)? - block cipher
361. Which protocol provides security at the transport layer level? - TLS
362. One that makes a network service unusable, usually by overloading the
server or networks is - DOS
363. Identify two components of cryptography. - Authentication, Encryption
364. Which of these seems to be a high availability solution? - RAID
365. Which one of the following is an active attack? - Masquerade
366. IPSec is designed to provide protection at the - Network Layer
367. Which process determines whether an entity is allowed access to a given
asset or resource. - Authorization
368. __________ is the encryption which may also be referred to as the shared
key. - Symmetric key
369. A secured way to connect to the remote host is - SSH
370. Which process verifies if the identified user is the real owner of his/her
identity? - Authentication
371. What controls or limits access of critical information to certain
individuals or group of individuals? - Confidentiality
372. Which of the following defines the ability to verify that an e-mail message
received has not been modified in the transit? - Integrity
373. Many network applications and protocols have security problems that are
fixed over time by using devices like… - Firewalls
374. Encrypting plaintext results in an unreadable language called _______. -
Cipher text
375. A private key is maintained in an asymmetric key cryptography by - receiver
376. What can be an accidental or Intentional error. - Human error
377. AWS eliminate guessing on your infrastructure capacity needs. - true
378. Cloud computing is the on-demand delivery of cloud services via the
Internet with pay-as-you-go pricing. - true
379. _______ eliminates the management of the underlying infrastructure (usually
hardware and operating systems) and allows customer to focus on deploying and
managing the applications. - PaaS
380. Which of the following consists of one or more data centres? -Availability
zone
381. Which one of the following is Cloud Platform by Amazon? -AWS
382. __________is a master image which provides the information required for the
creation of virtual servers known as EC2 instances in the AWS environment. - AMI
383. An Amazon EBS volume can be attached to multiple instances at a time. -
false
384. EC2 instance type – _________ for compute-intensive workloads. - Compute
Optimized
385. What is a virtual server platform that allows users to create and run
virtual machines on Amazon’s server farm. - EC2
386. Amazon EC2 Instances utilizes Intel® Xeon® processors for providing
customers with high performance and value. - true
387. What type of storage is S3? - Object storage
389. What feature required to keep multiple variants of an object in the same
bucket? -Versioning
390. When you create a bucket or an object, Amazon S3 creates a default ACL that
grants the resource owner full control over the resource. - true
391. In AMazon S3 a single object size can be ? - 5Terabytes
392. Which of the following storage types suitable for performance sensitive
data? - Amazon S3 Standard
393. In the default VPC, all the necessary network components like subnet,
internet gateway, route table, security settings will be created and configured
by default. - true
394. An _____ acts as a firewall that controls the traffic allowed to reach one
or more instances. - Security group
395. Which component acts as a virtual firewall at subnet level? - Network ACL
396. Which component enable an instance in private subnet to communicate with
the internet. - NAT Gateway
397. Which of the following VPC component determines where the network traffic
should be directed. - Route table
398. Cloudwatch can monitor custom metrics in-addition to built-in metrics. -
true
399. Choose the infrastructure automation service from the given list? - Amazon
CloudFormation
400. Which of the following provides shared storage for Linux workloads - EFS
401. Which of the following database services support dynamic schema. - Amazon
DynamoDB
402. Which of the following is a serverless computing? - Amazon Lambda
403. Which of the following load balancers support content based routing? -
Application Load Balancer
404. Which of the following messaging services is based on pub/sub messaging
model. -SNS
405. Which is the AWS service used for configuring Content Delivery
Network(CDN)? - Amazon CloudFront
406. Which AWS service protects applications running on AWS against DDoS
attacks. - AWS Shield
407. Which of the following entity allow a user to access AWS resources
temporarily? - IAM Role
408. Which AWS service used for automated security assessments - AWS Inspector
409. AWS is responsible for protecting the Global infrastructure based on shared
responsibility model . - true
410. Which AWS service provides access to security and compliance documents? -
AWS Artifact
411. Which of the following are best practices of IAM? - Delete access keys of
root user, Enable Multifactor authentication
412. Which attribute determines the costing of an on-demand EC2 instance? -
Instance type, AMI type, Region
413. Which tool is used for getting the estimated monthly cost for your setup? -
Simple Monthly Calculator
414. Which of the following Amazon EC2 pricing models allow customers to use
existing server-bound software licenses? - Dedicated Hosts
415. Amazon EC2 ________ allow you to request spare Amazon EC2 computing
capacity for up to 90 percent off the On-Demand price. - Spot Instances
416. Now that you have started your migration to the cloud, you want to find out
which service you use the most and where the majority of your traffic is coming
from. Which tool should you use? - AWS Cost Explorer
417. Which pillar is a combination of processes, continuous improvement, and
monitoring system that delivers business value and continuously improve
supporting processes and procedures. - Operational excellence
418. The AWS Well-Architected Tool provides a plan on how to architect for the
cloud using established best practices. - true
419. A pillar focuses on ensuring a system/workload delivers maximum performance
for a set of AWS resources utilized. - Performance efficiency
420. ___________focuses on achieving the lowest price for a system/workload.
Optimize the cost while considering the account needs without ignoring factors
like security, reliability, and performance. - Cost optimization
421. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of the AWS Well-Architected
Framework? - Persistence
422. Which of the following cloud concept is related to pooling and sharing of
resources ? - Virtualization
423. Cloud environment always costly when compared to a traditional desktop
environment. -false
424. Which of the below cloud feature allows the service to change in size or
volume in order to meet a user’s needs. - Scalability
425. In which of the following model in which applications are hosted and made
available by a service provider. - Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
426. A Cloud environment can be accessed from anywhere in the world as long as
the user has access to the Internet. - true
427. Which of the following are cloud benefits? (Select two) - Reduced IT costs,
Highly Available
428. Which of the statement is true for cloud computing. - Delivering computing
power as a service over Internet
429. The _____________ is that through modern scalable systems involved in cloud
computing and software as a service (SaaS), providers can create a sense of
infinite or immediately available resources by controlling resource adjustments
at a meta level. - Resource pooling
430. Which cloud network operated within a company's firewall? - Private Cloud
431.Lack of control over performance is one of the common risk of cloud
computing. -true
432. Which of the following layers managed by Cloud vendor in IaaS? - Storage,
Servers
433. In IaaS model Customers can increase and decrease the infrastructure
capacity as needed(True or False) - true
434. In which type of virtualization, virtual machine software installed in the
physical server. - Hardware Virtualization
435. Which of the cloud model exposes services only to specific organization? -
Private
436. Which type of IaaS security threats, where data is exposed? - data leaks
437. PaaS offered services may not be flexible enough for user needs(True of
False) - true
438. Which service is an example in PaaS for application deployment? - Elastic
Beanstalk
439. Which of the following is an Open source PaaS? - Cloud Foundry
450. Which of the following layer managed by customer in PaaS model? -
Application, Data
451. Which of the following layers managed by Cloud vendor in PaaS? - Network,
Storage
452. In SaaS model Servers are managed by the customers (True or False) - false
453. Open source software used in a SaaS is called _______ SaaS. - open
454. In SaaS model which of the layers managed by cloud vendor - all of the
options ( Runtime,Network,Application)
455. Low cost of ownership is one the user benefit in SaaS (True or False) -true
456. Which software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a
vendor and made available to customers. - SaaS
457. Which of the following storage is an object storage in Azure ? - blob
458. Which Azure management tool analyzes resources and provides recommendations
to optimize deployments? - Azure Advisor
459. Azure IOT hub is a managed service hosted in the cloud that acts as a
Message Hub? - true
460. Which of the following are azure management tool? - Azure portal, Azure CLI
461. Azure VMs and storage services fall under which of the following cloud
computing models? - IaaS
462. Economies of scale is. - Purchase computing resources in massive quantities
at lower costs
463. Which instance type allows you to choose for one or three years? - Reserved
instance
464. In well-architected framework, which pillar is used to recover from
failures and continue to function? - Reliability
465. In Well architected framework, which pillar is used for protecting
application data from threats? - Security
467. 80 % of fortune 500 companies are using Microsoft Azure as their cloud
computing model - true
468. Which availability sets provide a physical separation of workloads across
different hardware in a data center. - Fault domains (FD)
469. Which service in Azure is used to manage resources in Azure? - Azure
Resource Manager
470. Every resource created in Azure must exist in - Resource group
471. Availability zones allow customers to run mission-critical applications
with high availability and low-latency replication. (True or False) - true
472. Which architectural components contains two or more regions that preserve
data residency and compliance boundaries - Geographies
473. Which virtual machine service also called serverless computing? - Functions
474. Which azure storage is used to store different type of data as object? -
Blob storage
475. Which of the following database service is a NoSQL database? - Azure Cosmos
DB
476. ________________is a distributed network of servers that can efficiently
deliver web content to users? - Content Delivery Network
477. Which of the following is not an azure compute service. - OpenStack
478. Right time to consider for migration to cloud - Server hardware is reaching
end of its lifecycle
479. When migrating to the cloud an organization must evaluate its security and
regulatory compliance needs.(True or False) - true
480. What are the issues with on-premise when compared to cloud? - All of the
options (High maintenance cost, Scalability, Availability)
481. You have to choose the deployment model suitable for your application and
business. They have sensitive data which cannot be move to public cloud. -
Hybrid Cloud
482. Take care of these points while choosing a cloud service - Administration
support, Security practices
483. Which windows version operating system can be upgraded to windows 10 single
edition? - Windows 8 single edition
484. Which installation method is used to install Windows operating systems
concurrently for 100 systems - Network Installation
485. Which windows 10 edition not comes with Hyper-V? - Windows 10 Single
Edition
486. Virtual Desktops are used to keep the opened apps better organized (Say
True or False) - true
487. Which applications can be seen in the taskbar in windows 10 operating
system - Running
488. which one of the feature comes along with windows 10 operating system?
(Select Two) - virtual Desktop, Cortana
489. Where can you find the connected speakers in the system? - devices and
printers
490. Drivers are stored in drive store. In which location the driver store is
located? - c:\windows\system32\driverstore
491. Which command is used to check the driver is signed or not - sigverif.exe
492. Which tool is used to analyse the performance of the system? - Monitoring
tool
493. what is the tool name that the event information is captured in the system?
- Event Veiwer
494. Which log level is highly fatal and needs to give attention? - critical
495. Broadcast IP address can be assigned to the system? (Say True or False) -
true
496. How the communication happens between two computers - ip address
497. What protocol can be used as authentication protocol in VPN? (Choose Two) -
CHAP, PAP
498. What is the command used to create invitations in Remote assistance? - msra
499. Which service is used to manage communication and authentication in
powershell? - WinRM
500. Which tool is used to manage the computer system remotely without user
intervention? - Remote Destop
501.During the installation of windows 10 operating system, the user account is
created. What effective permission is available for the user? - Adminstrators
502. Which method can be used for authentication in Windows 10 Operating system?
( Select Two) - Biometric, Password
503. Where the credential informations are stored for credential manager in
windows 10 operating system? - Vault
504. In bitlocker, the credentials are stored in which location? - TPM Chip
505. What type of mechanism is used if the hard disk is stolen from the system
and the data is protected? - bitlocker
506. Fault tolerance partition can be configured in basic disk of windows 10
operating system?(Say True or False) - false
507. What are the types of storage disks available in windows 10 operating
system? - Basic Disk
508.
509.How many maximum partitions can be created in GPT disk ? - 128
510. Once the folder is shared, how will you access the shared folder in windows
10 operating system?( Select Two) - system name, IP address
511. Folders and files can be deleted, if the user is having read & execute
permission - false
512. Which protocol is used to share the folder in windows 10 operating system?
- SMB
513. Backed up files are stored in the format of ___________ - zip format
514. Select the one which backups only libraries, desktop and favourites -File
History
515. Is there any possibility to use 32 bit operating system recovery drive for
64 bit operating system?(Say True or False) - false
516. Who developed the powershell ? - Microsoft
517. Windows Powershell is a_______ - Scripting Language
518. Windows Powershell isdesigned to______ - Automate Tasks
519. In which year the powershell was introduced? - 2006
520. Windows PowerShell has both a command-line environment and a graphical
environment for running commands and scripts - true
521. PowerShell passes objects from one command to another via what? - Pipeline
522. What naming convention do PowerShell cmdlets adopt that makes them easy to
learn? - Verb-Noun
523. What can you use to find information about a given object? - Get-member
524. How do you use a power shell to show all of the options for a particular
command? - typing "help *command*"
525. Syntax for displaying the methods and properties by which we can pipe our
output to Get-Member by_____ - Get-Process | Ger-Member
526. What is the purpose of a brace bracket {}? - These types of brackets are
used in the blocked statements.
527. What is a string type variable? - A string of text
528. A script is just a set of commands which are stored in a ? - Text file
529. Linux counterpart is referred to as __________ - bash scripting
530. Which perform an action that is available to the file name extension of the
file specified? - verb
531. What is the character that specifies a variable? - $
532. What is the command to write something to the console display? - write-host
533. When you want to enter multiple commands on a single command line which
charcter is used to separate each command. - :
534. Which combination of keys used to clear the command history ? - Alt +F7
535. Which mode is intended to parse arguments and command parameters in a shell
environment ? - Argument mode
536. Which command writes to the standard output stream ? - write-host
537. Which command sends the specified object down the pipeline to the next one?
- write-output
538. Which command's output as a list of properties in which each property is
shown on a separate line? - Format-List
539. Which cmdlet selects the properties of an object or a group of objects ? -
select-object
540. Which command displays objects in groups based on the value of the property
you specified ? - Group-object
541. A list of snapins, .NET assemblies, or both loaded by the module. -
NestedModules
542. Which Imports one or more available modules into the current session. -
Import-module
543. Which removes a module that you added to the current session? - Remove-
Module
544. Which Creates a module based on script blocks, functions, and cmdlets that
you specify ? - New-Module
545. Which command can list the available modules? - get-module -listavailable
546. "*=" is an one of the assignment operator in windows powershell. - true
547. ________is the element of an expression that tells PowerShell how to
perform the calculation. - Operator
548. Which option is used to group collections of statements. The grouped
commands are executed, and then results are returned. - $()
549. Which one matches one character in a specified subset of characters? - []
550. Which one is not a comparison operator? - -rename
551. Which command is used to set the variable value to NULL? - clear-variable
552. Which option lists all or specified variables set in the current session by
name and value? - get-variable
553. $mynumber=1, $mynumber=2. What will the final value of a variable mynumber?
- 2
554. A Boolean value is always either True or False? - true
555. Variables are the placeholders for _____ - values
556. _______ is a series of alphanumeric or non-alphanumeric characters. -
string
557. Which options are used to Joins strings by adding them together with or
without delimiters - -join
558. Which character to force PowerShell to interpret a single quotation mark, a
double quotation mark, or a variable literally. - apostrope
559. Which format specifier is used to convert a numeric format to currency
format? - :c
560. Data strings are one of the type of multiline string - true
561. With multidimensional arrays, you access elements in the array by
specifying ______ index values. - multiple
562. How will you ensure an array can store only strings, numbers, or objects of
a particular type? - array type
563. _______are data structures for storing a series of values - arrays
564. Which array is used like spreadsheet with rows and colums? - two-
dimentional
565. which option is used instead of commas to separate values in cast array
structure? - semicolon
566. Script functions that are made available through_____ - .psm1files
567. The Get-Help cmdlet is the equivalent command of a _____ - shells man
568. Which format specifier is used to convert a numberic value to a percentage?
- :p
569. How Snapins of PowerShell made available in ? - .dll files
570. Which key is used to switch between insert mode and overwrite mode.? -
insert
571. _____ scopes are created automatically each time a function, script, or
filter runs - local
572. Which cmdlet sends the output to a file ? - out-file
573. What is the platform of Powershell? - .NET Framework
574. which scopes are not shared across instances of PowerShell? - global
575. Which operator is used to converts the input to the specified .NET
Framework type.? - -as
576. Which will load the profile of the Windows user for the current user.? -
LocalUserProfiel
577. When using the PowerShell CLI, the basic syntax of a Power-Start cmdlet
is_____ - PS C:\> Start-Process <String>
578. which options is used to separate a string on spaces or a specified
delimiter? - -split
579. Which cmdlet creates a credential object for the specified username and
password ? - get-credential
580. ________ scope applies to an entire PowerShell instance. - global
581. Which character is used to match at the end character? - $
582. In PowerShell, what is the basic command element? - cmdlet
583. what is the command to lists all or specified aliases set in the current
session by name and definition - get-alias
584. Which operator is used when both the statements are true? - AND
585. Which command outputs the entire file of logging.txt to the PowerShell ISE
screen.? - get-content
586. In which format the Powershell scripts are stored in the system? - .ps1
587. What is the default history commands in powershell ? - 50
588. How wil you import the WebAdminstration module? - import-module
webadministration
589. Identify Which sends the output of the first command to be the input of the
second command. - command1 | command2
590. A safer alternative to Command Prompt in windows operating system? -
powershell
591. Which instance member is used to return the character length of the string?
- Length
592. Which operator is used to change the format of the output from any cmdlet?
- pipe
593. What combination of keys use to exit the subprompt or terminate execution?
-Ctrl +C
594. which parameter is used to import aliases that are already defined and set
as read-only? - -force
595. Which variable stores the current object in the pipeline object set? - S_
596. which read-only attribute is set to prevent automatic overwriting of an
existing alias file? - -noclobber
597. In LVM managed setup, the logical volumes can span multiple disks - true
598. Logical volumes are created inside a Volume group - true
599. pvcreate command is used to initialize storage for use by LVM - true
600. Logical extents maps to a physical extents - true
601. A message's content to someone or something that doesn't have a suitable
cryptographic key is _____ - mail
602. Which practice identifies metrics that reflect a customer's experience of a
service? - Service level management
603. The first step in hacking an IT device is to compromise which security
foundation? - Confidentiality
604. Which of the following are the different kinds of scanning? - Network,
vulnerability, and port
605. _____ is the process of determining plain text or a key. - Cryptanalysis
606. A hash function ensures that a message is complete. It ensures that the
message is not ___ - Changed
607. The Secure Socket Layer (SSL) is intended to provide security and
compression services to data granted by_____- Transport Layer
608. TCP's services are used by ___ on the well-known port 80. - HTTP
609. The sender of the message creates cypher text using his or her ___ in the
digital signature technique. - own private key
610. Which of these systems use a timestamp to determine when something is no
longer valid? - Public-Key Certificates
611. To secure data and passwords, one of the following options used is __ -
Encryption
612. HTTP connections use port _, while HTTPS connections use port___and use
SSL. - 80 & 443
613. What should be used to set user expectations for request fulfilment times?
- The time needed to realistically deliver the service
614. Which of the following is an example of workaround? - A server is restarted
to resolve an incident
615. Which service management dimension is focused on activities and how are
these coordinated? -Value streams and processes
616. The plaintext is encrypted with DES as blocks of how many bits. - 64
617. _____ are attempts by people to acquire sensitive information from you by
impersonating someone else. - Phishing scams
618. Since a transposition is a rearrangement of a message's symbols, it's also
known as ? - Permutation
619. Which process works with incident management to ensure that security
breaches are detected and logged? - Access management
620. Which of the following is the most significant activity in system hacking?
- Cracking passwords
621. What are MD4 and MD5? - Hashing algorithms
622. What does the acronym MitM stand for? - Man In The Middle
623. To shield our computer from hackers, we should turn on the ___ - Firewall
624. What security concept is exemplified by "if your manager requests root
access to a system you run, he or she should not be granted the right unless he
or she has a duty that needs that degree of access"? - Least Privilege
625. SSL is an abbreviation for- Secure Socket Layer
626. Which process is used to compare the value that new services offer with the
value of the services they have replaced? - Service portfolio management
627. Which of the following best defines programmes that can travel from system
to system and cause computer communication to be disrupted? -worm
628. What is the purpose of the 'service desk' practice? - To capture demand for
incident resolution and service requests
629. What enables you to connect to and log into a remote computer. Telnet
630. Which are the elements of process control? - Process owner, policy and
objectives
631. Which of the following is a valid technique for encryption? - Public key
encryption
632. The term "virus detection and removal software" refers to a programme that
can detect and remove viruses from a computer called - malware
633. This is a term used to describe when one person pretends to be another. -
Masquerade
634. Which is the most effective method that allows two parties to share a
symmetrical key in a secure manner. - RSA
635. Many applications use ____ authentication, where the user is identified by
two separate factors. - 2-factor
636. Which competencies are required by the 'service level management'
practice?- Business analysis and commercial management
637. Which statement about service desks is CORRECT? - The service desk should
work in close collaboration with support and development teams
639. The user is given a hardware system that creates a secret id that is linked
to the user id. Any time the user logs in, the user needs to provide the secret
id to the system. What is it? - secret key
640. The option of yum command that gives the information of installed packages
is ___ - list
641. Cloud services are delivered______ - Virtaully
642. A cmdlet always consists of a verb and a noun, separated by a hyphen. Pick
up the cmdlet verbs from the options. - put
643. The file resolv.conf contains the information of - DNS Server
644. Which of the files contain the file system details that need to be mounted
on the system boot? - /etc/fstab
645. Which of the cloud computing models offer a complete product for the
customers - SaaS
646. The user with the user id 300 is categorized as - Administrator
647. ____ is a package containing members of the PowerShell, such as cmdlets,
suppliers, features, workflows, variables, and aliases. - module
648. Which type of expressions are supported by a powershell? - arthimetic
expression
649. Which of the storage is a low cost storage used for storing rarely accessed
data? - Archive storage
650. Which feature of the cloud allows users to request for additional space -
rapid elasticity
651. Which of the load Balancers support path based routing - Application
Loadbalancer
652. To a host computer to participate in the network, it should be configured
with ___. - hostname and ip address
653. Which of the following database is offered by the Amazon database. - Aurora
654. What is the limitation for the number of VPCs per region? - 5
655. Which of the following are the benefits of PaaS? - lower total cost of
ownership,
656. ___ is a fully-managed, intelligent event routing service that uses a pub-
sub model for uniform - azure event grid
657. Which option is used as a placeholder for values in a powershell? - string
658. _____ contains two or more regions and preserves data residency. -
geographies
659. Amazon S3 has durability below __ - 99.999999999
660. The command to know the last synchronized time between a client and server
is ___ - ntpq-p
661. In which year was Microsoft Azure released - 2010
662. The services that run in the background is called ____ - background service
663. As an administrator, you need to install the OS for all the machines in the
network through network installation. Which are the services you choose? - DNS
664. Which Well Architected Framework pillars recommend implementing a strong
identity foundation? - security
665. What does the following command do?
who | wc –l - List the number of users logged in
666. Which is the command used to run the executable file from the powershell
command? - start-process <filename.exe>
667. An Example for a SaaS model is____ - Openshift
668. Payment options available for reserved instance are - No upfront, partial
payment
669. Which option provides alternate names for commands, functions, scripts,
files, executables, and other command elements? - module
671. NFS Service helps to share the files between ____ - to all available
network
672. ___ is a series of alphanumeric or non-alphanumeric characters - String
673. What are the points to be consider before migrating your application to
cloud - Consider your application and data, Consider Cloud storage capacity
674. Which command's output has a list of properties in which each property is
shown on a separate line? - Format-list
675. What is the command used to get the content in a file? - Get-content
<Filename.txt>
676. Which of the following AWS services is an example of IaaS? - Amazon EC2
677. Same AMI can be used to create instances in different regions - true
678. What is the powershell version of the Windows Server 2016 Operating system
- Powershell 5.1
679. Which IP address is the globally unique address? - public ip address
680. Which AWS services can host a Microsoft SQL Server database? (Select TWO) -

Amazon rds and Amazon redshift

681. The name to ip address resolution is done by - Amazon rds and Amazon
redshift
682. Which dimension of service management considers governance, management, and
communication? - Value streams and processes
683. What is the minimum RAM required to install windows 10- 64 bit operating
system? - 2GB
684. Which protocol method is used to connect virtual private network? - pptp
685. where will you enable an http port 80 request to allow the incoming traffic
to the system? -
686. Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the
customer responsible for? - Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest.
687. You need to remove all the data from the employee table while leaving the
table definition intact. - Truncate table employee
You want to be able to undo this operation. How would you accomplish this task?
- DELETE FROM employee;
688. Which of the following refers to a user's (legitimate or illegitimate)
right to contest the performance of specific acts or transactions ? - integrity
689. To find the secondary group of a user, what is/are the file/files that need
to be referred to? - /etc/passwd
690. Which of the following is not a legitimate method of enhancing password
authentication's security? - Account lockout controls can be allowed.
691. The information of the DHCP client leases are available in __ -
dhcpd.leases
692. Restore points save information such as drivers, programs, system files and
registry settings - true
693. Theft of pen drives and DVDs after tailgating is an indication of _______
failure. - phsical security
694. What is the command used to display the current session of commands used in
powershell - get-command
695. Which option is used to create a new alias or changes the definition of an
existing alias? - set- alias
696. What is typically needed to assign complex incidents to support groups? -
697. For a network, a digital signature will provide __ - the incident
cattegory
698. Many network applications and protocols have security issues that can be
addressed over time with the use of devices such as… - firewalls
699. In Which order is the Group policy object processed on client computers? -
Local , site , domain , OU
700. The file that contains the list of users who are not allowed to use the FTP
service is ____ - ftpusers
701. Which of the following are database objects? - index, attributes
702. Which domain controller contains active directory database copy and
responds to authentication requests? - RODC
703. In the application layer, how can users gain access to the Internet ? -
thin client
704. ____ authentication systems enable users to enter their password only once
in return for a unique encrypted string of random characters. - token based
705. If an unauthorised user executes a computer programme, the computer or
information stored on it can suffer severe harm. As a result, unauthorised
access to a computer device must be prevented. Security can be given by - lock
706. The time based scheduler that helps in scheduling jobs at regular intervals
is ____ - cron
707. Which compute service allows users to lease virtual machines for 1 or
3year? - Azure VirtualMachine ntds.dit
708.Which one of these is an active directory database file? - ntds.tid
709. A set of permissions for a particular user can be configured by ____ -
chmod
710. How do consumers get access to cloud-based Software as a Service services?
- Thin client
711. Which is the starting point for optimization? - Understanding the vision &
objectives of the organisation
712. Which of the following inspects AWS environments to find opportunities that
can save the user's money and improve system - AWS Trusted Advisor
713. The user will have ___ primary group and ___ secondary group - 1,many
714. The command to find the ip address of a particular network interface is ___
- ifconfig<interface name>
715. Which of the following allows you to automate deployment and configuration
of resources. - Azure resource management
716. Where will you identify the hidden shares configured in the system? -
fsmgmt.msc
717. The command to switch to the graphical run level is - Isolate
graphical.target
718. Which type of disk can be used to access a Microsoft Disk Operating system
and All windows operating system? - Dynamic
719. To Install the DNS Server Role in the windows server environment, What are
the pre-requirements to be setup before installing DNS Server Role? - Primary
DNS Suffix Name, Preferred DNS IP, Static IP
720.At the transport layer, which protocol provides security? - TLS
721. The group of physical partitions that span through the different harddisk
to form a single block of partitions is called __ - Physical volume
722. What are the three phases of 'problem management'? - Problem
identification, problem control , error control
723.______ clause limits or filters the records of aggregated queries. - Group
clause
724. Which user is created during the installation of the windows server
operating system - ADMINISTRATORS
725. Arithmetic expressions containing NULL value evaluate to NULL . State True
or False. - true
726. he command to check the syntax of the configuration file in the apache
server is ___ - Apachectl.chkconfig.
727. _____Contains formal definitions of each attribute which will exist in the
Active Directory - Active Directory Schema
728.Which of the group policy files are not stored in the group policy objects?
- .adm
729. The name to ip address resolution is done by - forward lookup
730. we can attach an EBS volume to more than one EC2 instance at the same time
- true
731. intel"s technology for virtualization on the X86 platform is _____ - VT-x
732. how will you access the device manager from the command prompt? -
devmgmt.msc
733. the mkfs command by default creates a ____ filesystem - ext4
734. to configure the ACL on the file located on a partition, it has to be ____
- mounted acl option
735. the harddisk partition that substitues the RAM is called _____ - swap
736. what should be done to determine the appropriate metrics for measuring a
new service? - using operational data to provide detailed service reports
737. azure database services are ____ services - fully managed
738. the block devices that are created from the physical extends of the same
volume group is called _____ - logical volume
739. the concept in the apache server which enables it to use different ips for
the same server is called - virtual hosting
740. the range of ip adresses that are available to be assigned to the client
computer is called _____ - dhcp range
741. which practice has a purpose that includes restoring normalservice
operation as quickly as possible? - incident management
742. which of these can be seen as the class of computer threats? - dos attack
743. what are the ITIL guiding principles used for? - to help an organisation
make good decisions
744. which of the following considerations must be considered when transmitting
from mobile execution to a cloud-based virtual machine - memory
745. this is the design of computer or nodes in a network. The machines are
organised whether physically or thoretically. - topology
746. what is the primany focus of business capacity management? - future
business requirements for IT services are quantified, planned and implemented in
a timely fashion
747. which AWS characteristics make AWS cost effective for a workload with
dynamic user demanad? - pay as you go pricing, elasticity
748. ________ is/are a collection of database objects. - views
749. what are the minimum NTFS permissions required to allow users to change the
document content stored in a shared folder? - full control
750. the ___ funtion acts on each row returned and returns one result per row. -
single row
751. which amazon service can i use to define a virtual network that closely
resembles a traditional data center? - amazon vpc
752. i have an array called $myarray=@(2,4,6,8,10).what will happen of i run
$myarray.setvalue(0,0)? - 0,4,6,8,10
753. what can access resources in the operating system with limited features -
authentication
754. identify the RDBMS terminologies for a row - tuple
755. which is another data-hiding technique that can be combined with
cryptography to provide an extra-secure form of data protection - steganography
756. what is the refresh interval of policy settings in a computer configuration
for its clients - system statup and 90-120 minutes
757. which network profile is for a trusted home or office networks? - netwok
policy
758. which of the following are considered as constraints? - not null, unique
759. the command that sets/chaanges the hostname of the system is ____ -
hostnameconfig
760. which shared key encryption is a type of encryption that uses two or more
keys to encrypt data? - AES
761. the file that contains the list of users who restricted to use ftp srvice
is ________ - ftpusers
762. where can i configure the data collector set in a windows server operating
system - event viewer
763. the command to view the current runlevel of the system is ____ -
systemctl.get-default
764. what is the port number used by remote desktop service - 3389
765. what is the command to clear the commad history? - alt+f7
766. which of the following is a fully managed open source analytics servie for
enterprises. - azure sql databse
767. which of the technology that allows building fsult-tolerant transport to a
storage server using redundant paths? - iSNS
768. which quota is allowed to store data even if the limit is reach - soft
quota
769. _____ can help to prevent phishing - spyware
770. the command that lists the user's group details is ________ - user -list
771. bitlocker can be encrypted with 128 bit and 256 bit encryption - true
772. which of the following renders a network service usuable by overburdenign
the server or networks - worm
773. in the crontab file, the day of the week is specified in the ____ field -
first
774. which one the following is used for physical grouping of ip subnets that
are replicate informationamong domain - active directory scchema
775. which service uses the name resolution to communicate with the client
machines? - DNS
776. which group members can perform back up and restore of files and folders? -
backup operators
777. importing security templates will get which of the following policies -
account policy
778. which entity regulates or restricts sentsetive information access to
specific individuals or group of individuals - confidentiality
779. in which classes of ip does the ip address 193.139.100.1 reside? - class c
780. restrict drive mappings to an active directory security group is possible
through group policy configuration - true
781. what should all continual improvemment decisions be based on? - accurate
and carefully analysed data
782. when you want a string to have multiple lines, which special character is
preceded and follow the string value? - $
783. __ replication policy determines which user's or computer's credentials a
specific RODC caches - password
784. the files that has the list of the users who are allowed to schedule the
corn jobs is - /tec/cron.allow
785. the command to verify the zone files is _______ - named.checkzone
786. the dhcp server reserves an ip address for a system with the help of ______
- MAC.address
787. the private key is kept by the _________ in an asymmetric key cryptography
- receiver
788. which zone resolves the ip addresses to the fully qualified domain name? -
forward lookup zone
789. which static methods of the class is commonly used to convert the value to
an 8-bit unsigned integer? - toByte()
790. how many partitions can be created in GPT disk in a windows 10 operating
system? -128
791. the hostname for the system can be set permanently in the ______ file -
/etc/hostname
792. which group type allows you to assign you to the shared resources -
security group
793. in which loacation is the active directory database stored in the windows
server operating system? - c:\windows\system32\ntds
794. which log level are highly fatal and should be given more attention in the
windows 10 operating system? - critical
795. a priavte ip address is routed to the internet by default - false
796. the symbolthat identifies the acl is set for a file or a directory is
__________ - *
797. storage classes available with amazon s3 are- amazon s3 standard-infrequent
access, amazon s3 standard, amazon glacier
798. __________ pseudocolumn is used to generate the new sequence number -
sequence
799. a storage pool is a collection of hard disk in which you can create
multiple virtual disks - true
800. which of the statement about emergency changes is correct - the
assesssment and authorization of emergency changes is expeited to ensure they
can be implemented quickly
801. which fo the following sould IT service continuity strategy be bases on ?
*1. design of the service metrics *2. business contituity strategy *3. business
impact analysis (BIA) *4. risk assessment - 2,3 and 4 only
802. if the user is not set with the password, the user is considered as
________ - aet the password at the first login
803. which tool generates a notification when unauthorized files are saved? -
file screening
804. which command is used to add a new coulmn to the exsting table? - update
805. on a single chip, the mordern _______ combines the function of a processor,
memory, and video - SRAM
806. ________ refers to the fact that the information presented is accurate and
has been tampered with or changed during transmission by an unathorized person
or group of individuals - data intergrity
807. which of the following is assumed to obtain temporary credentials? - Role
808. the swap partition details can be known from the commands _______ - swapon,
free, top
809. on CDs and DVDs, the indentations are known as __________ - tracks
810. a set of rules for the communication of dataa is - protocols
811. _________ is a browser based scripting environment in azure - azure cloud
shell
812. how does information about problems and know errors contribute to incident
management? -it enable quick and efficient diagnosis of incidents
813. a ________ is a lack of access control policy - vulnerability
814. what are the differnent types of instances? choose all that apply - general
purspose, computer optimized, storage optimized
815. ______ is technique for sniffing sensitive data as it travels througha
network - eavesdropping.
817. the partition id of the LVM parttiton is _______ - 8e
818. you want to use a netwok medium that isn't affected by EMI. which cabling
type should you use? - fiber optic cable
820. sql is a case sensitive language and the data stored inside the table are
case in-sensitive- false
821. _______ filters let you dynamically detect the scope of the group policy
objects, based on the attributes of the targeted computer - WMI
822. which of the following is not a group function? - length
824. which load is used to gather information and troubleshoot record events as
logs? - event viewer
825. ___________ is the capacity od a single network to cover several physical
networks - subnetting
826. the list of shared files can be viewed with the ______ command - mount.nfs
827. which collection of protocols are usued to create encryted connections
between devices? - IPSec
828. which of the following is described as record od results generated on
aspecific job function or operation over a set period of time - performance
829. after creating the partiotion with fdisk command, the command that informs
the partition changes to the kernal is ____________ - partprobe
830. cloud computing is a method of hosting an application on the physical
server at the customer's location - true
831. the command that helps to monitor and debug the server is__________ -
journalctl
832._________ is a command that is commanly used o identify the ip information
of a computer on a network. - ipconfig
833.what are the 2 kinds of netwoks based on entity? - public n private
intranet is a generic term for private network of an organisation - true
star topology is based on a central device that can be - hub, switch,
router
which azure service can be used to view any failures on azure services?
- azure monitor
gcp compute engine comes under which services? - iaas
which services used to create virtual machine in GCP? - compute engine
under the shared responsibilty model, which one below is service provider
responsibility? - firmware updates for hardware
which services can be used as bucket? - storage
the azure virtual machine service belongs to - PaaS
what is the ultimate objective of the service valume system - to deliver
value
what is thew command to rename file - mv
what is the command to create an empty new file without opeing it. - touch
on which cylinder does MBR lie on the hard disk - 0
what is command to change the owner of a file or directory - chown
what is the command to create folders in a tree structure - mkdir -p
what is the command to list all the hidden files - ls -a
what is command to delete a file or dicetory forefully and reccursively -
rm -r
what is the command to check the hostname of the linux server - hostname
a ________ is an individual who is skilled at bypassing controls and
aessing data or information that he or she has not been given authorization to
do so ? - masquerader
the concept of ___ in information security pertains to the protection of
the information and previntio of unauthorized access or disclosure -
confidentiality
if you have unintentionally modified data, which security feature have you
violated ? - integrety
access management is a sub classicfication of ? - managed identity
security and compliace monitoring is the process of quality assurance
testing carried out over a period of time inline with th epolicies and produres
defined in an organization - true
 operating system with minimal footprint- container
which servier roles resolves ip to name and name to ip resolution ? - DNS
tool used for to check how the program you can affect your server's
performance in real time and by collecting log data for later analysis -
performance monitor
what virtualization technology that microsoft offers ? - hyper v
what is the latest windows server operaiting system - windows server 2019
which command provides the ip configuration information - ipconfig/all
what is the latest client operationg system - windows 10
an amazon EC2 instance running the amazon linux 2 AMI is billed in what
increment ? - per hour
project teams demands to create gcp recources for depaqrtment ? what sequene
you will create - folder , subscription, project
compute engines can be connected from where? -server
why do we need subnet on azure - to create CIDR block under V-Net in
repective regions and zones
how do we create a storage account - subscription-resource group-storage
account
which of the below mentioned services would you recomend monitoring EC2
instance in AWS -
GCP network service is called as - VPC
what are two most important components in the oracle 12C multitenant
architecture ? - CDB -customer database and PDB pluggable database
list out three physical files in oracle - datafile, controlfile, online
redo log files
what type of constraints are are available in oracle-
what type of segments are available in oracle ? - data, index, rollback,
temporary segment
what are the files containing in the full database backup? -
what does INIT3 do - netwrok isw p-0resent multitasking is present but
without gui
which dimenion includes a workflow management system - value streams and
processes
what type of databases are available - relational, object oriented,
distrubuted, nosql, graph, cloud
an incident refers to be - an unplanned event i the IT infrastruture of an
enterprise which causes
who reqiures ITIL in an organisation ? - operation deparment an end users
which server roles enables you to take backup on windows server OS? -
windwos server backup

Which services can be used as bucket…………..CLOUD STORAGE

What type of Constraints are available in Oracle?......primarykey ,check
,notnull,uniqe,foreignkey
What type of Segments are Available in Oracle?................ Data Segment,
Index Segment Rollback Segment and Temporary Segment.
What type of Databases are available?.... Centralized database Cloud
database Commercial database Distributed database End-user database
Graph database NoSQL database Object-oriented database Opensource database
Operational database Personal database Relational
database
Which dimension includes a workflow management system? …Value streams
and processes
What is the command to delete a file or directory forcefully and
recursively…rm-r
Who Requires ITIL in an Organization? (Single Choice)……IT dept and end user
What is the command to rename a file…mv
what is the command to create new user :…………….useradd
What is the command to create an empty new file without opening it…touch
What does INIT3 do…………Boots the linux server in full multiuser mode
On which Cylinder does MBR lie on the Hard Disk……0
What is the command to change the owner of a file or directory……chown
What is the command to create folders in a tree structure………..mkdir -p
What is the command to list all the hidden files…………..none of the above or H
Which Server roles resolves IP to name and name to IP resolution?........DNS
What is the latest Windows Server Operating System………. Windows Server
2019
What is the Latest Client Operating System?.............. Windows 10
Which will enable Operating System virtuation?............... virtual machine
Which Server Roles enables you to take backup on windows Server OS?....
Windows Server Backup
DHCP stands for…… Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Dhcp server is responsible for…………….assigning an ip address to a device
What Virtualization Technology that Microsoft Offers?............. Hyper-V
What do you use to run a script at scheduling time…………………task scheduler
What is cmdb……………………………: configuration management database
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. A service is a means of
enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to
achieve, without the customer having to manage specific [?] and
risks..................... : COSTS
Apipa stands for………………automatic private ip addressing
What is san stands for…………storage area network
Which azure service can be used to pull os images…………os image store
In which TWO situations should the ITIL guiding principles be
considered?...............1 and 2
1. In every initiative
2. In relationships with all stakeholders
3. Only in specific initiatives where the principle is relevant
4. Only in specific stakeholder relationships where the principle is relevant
What is the command to check the hostname of the linux
server………………hostname
In which level of boot process does system integrity check happen…… mbr
Which Command provides the IP Configuration information……… ipconfig /all
Which service provide high availability…………….. load balancing
Where do you check the all system logs on windows system………event viewer
An Amazon EC2 instance running the Amazon Linux 2 AMI is billed in what
increment?...per hour
What is the purpose of the information security management practise…
Protecting an organization by understanding and managing risks to the
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information
Which of the following allows you to bid on spare amazon ec2 computing
capacity……spot instances
How many levels are there in linux boot process……………………6
What is the command to check the current directory which you are
working…………pwd
How many bits is an ipv6 address made up of………………128 bits
What type of backup options are available in oracle……………………… (ALL)Whole
Database Backups,Tablespace Backups,Datafile Backups,Control File
Backups,Archived Redo Log Backups
List out three physica l files in Oracle…………….Tablespaces, Redo log files,
Control files
what is the finest level of granularity in the storage element………….tables
Star Topology is based on a central Device that can be………….hub and switch
Wpa full form………………Wi-Fi Protected Access
… is a command that is commonly used to identify the IP information of a
computer on a network.....ip config
The azure virtual machine service belongs to………………infrastructure as a
service(iaas)
What are the 2 kinds of networks based on entity…………public and private
network
What are two most important components in the Oracle 12C Multitenant
Architecture?...........CDB- Container databse and PDB-pluggatie database
Which of the below mentioned services would you recommend monitoring
EC2 instances in AWS?.....cloud watch
Gcp vpc has three types……………default, auto,custom
Your company plans to migrate all its network resource to azure. You need to
start the planning process by exploring azure. What should you create
first…………subscription
What are the methods to acces azure cloud…… azure portal, azure cli, azure
sdk
Intranet is a generic term for private network of an organization…………true
Which Azure service can be used to view any failures on Azure
services?..............azure virtual machines
GCP Compute Engine comes under which services?................iaas
Which services used to create virtual machine in GCP?............virtual machine
Project teams demands to create GCP resources for department? What
sequence you will create……………subscription folder project
Compute Engines can be connected from where?...........server
Why we need subnet on azure……to create cidr block under v-net in respective
regions and zones
How do you create a storage account?..............subscription -resource-storage
GCP network service is called as ?.............vpc
What are the files containing in the Full Database Backup?.............all data
files
with control files
An Incident refers to (Single Choice)………….. An unplanned event in the IT
infrastructure of an enterprise which and reduction in the quality of an it
service
What is the ultimate objective of the Service Value System? (Single Choice)… to
delivery value
Under the Shared responsibility model, which one below is service provider
responsibility?................firmware updates for hardware
Select the Operating System with Minimal footprint………nano server
If you have unintentionally modified data, which security feature have you
violated?.......integrity
Security and Compliance monitoring is the process of quality assurance testing
carried out over a period of time inline with the policies and procedures
defined in an organization……true
The concept of ......in information security pertains to the protection of
information and prevention of unauthorized access or
disclosure……………security
Access Management is a sub classification of ?.........managed identity
A......is an individual who is skilled at bypassing controls and accessing data
or
information that he or she has not been given authorization to do
so?..................masquerader
Which azure service can be used for automations………the azure api
management service
What is the purpose of block changing tracking file……improve the
performance of increment database back
What is an it asset…any financially valuable component that can contribute to
delivery of
What we need to create to enable communication between 2 vpcs with in a
region ……vpc peering
Which one of this is not a guiding principle ……demand co-creation
John as a user on EC2 instance has a requeriment to host an application for use
for at least 1 year Which of the following will be the mostcost-effective
solution to use in this case….reserved instance
How gcp billing calcaluted…per hour billing
Mac address is the …unique address assigned to the nic
Which server role provide authentication and authorization…active directory
federation services
Password management services enable the clients to store and distribute the
admin creditinals in a secured way………………false
Vpn connection is possible without an internet connection……………false
What are 2 types of ip address that can be allocated………private and public
Which is not a component of the service value systems……… The four
dimensions of service managent
A masquerade is a person who has obtained another persons creditinals on
authorized system………true
Client server has the following advantages 1.centalized 2.scalability
3.flexibility
……true
Vpn coonection is possible without an internet connection…………….false
Hub is a.. and switch is adevice…………..broadcast unicast
Which fundamental of security is hamepered by natural diasters like stroms ,
earthquakes,floods etc……….confidentiality
What are the 5 accenture business………strategy,
consulting,digital,techonology,operations
Gcp cloud can be connected from where……………………gcp sdk
Identify the command used to check if a device is available on a network….ping
How many control files can we use in production environment………………6
What is security…… Security is a compromise between opening the systems up
to the wond and vocking them down so no one can use them
Gpos are used to create policies for user and computer………………yes
Which service can be used to create os images……………cd/dvd
If you have installed outside software on a company owned information
infrasture, which security feature have you violated?......accountablity
Ipv6 provides larger address space compared to ipv4…………yes
Which file system consist of all the configuration file…………/etc/
Dns is responsible for converting domain name of corresponding ip
address……………true
What is the best aws service to store our achieved data for long term on
cloud…s3 glacier
What is response time…………time taken to resolve the incident from the time
of creation
For a p1 incident a problem record should be created…………true
Tool Used for to check how the programs you run affect your server's
performance in real time and by collecting log data for later
analysis………..event viewer
Project demands to create virtual machine in azure cloud how will you
sequence your creator…subscriptions-resourcegroup-vnet-virtual machine
Unprotected downloads are a threat to…… Vulnerabilities, Spyware, Spam,
Malware, Phishing
For an incident to be resolved a server component needs to be replaced what
should you do to resolve the ticket………… The Five Steps of Incident
Resolution
1. Incident Identification, Logging, and Categorization
2. Incident Notification & Escalation
3. Investigation and Diagnosis
4. Resolution and Recovery
5. Incident Closure
Why do we need vnet security group…… You can use an Azure
network security group to filter network traffic to and from Azure
resources in an Azure virtual network. A network security
group contains security rules that allow or deny inbound network traffic
to, or outbound network traffic from, several types of Azure resources.
What is vpn… vpn (virtual private network) vpn connections routed over the
internet encryptes your data between client machine and the internet
resources (ex : Web servers) VPN, allows you to connect to the internetvand,
browse websites privately, and securely. People also use it, to gain access to
restricted websites, and, overcome censorship blocks. VPN aren't just for
desktops, or laptops, but, can also be used on iPhone, iPad, or, an Android
phone too.
What is accenture’s it dept knowns as………… Accenture (formerly known as
Andersen Consulting) is a provider of strategy, consulting, interactive,
technology, and operations services with digital capabilities. The
company operates in five segments: Communications, Media &
Technology, Financial Services, Health & Public Service, Products, and
Resources. The Communications, Media & Technology segment helps
communications, media, high tech, and software and platform
companies accelerate and deliver digital transformation. The Financial
Services segment serves the banking, capital markets, and insurance
industries. The Health & Public Service segment offers consulting
services and digital solutions to healthcare payers and providers, as well
as government departments and agencies, public service organizations,
educational institutions, and non-profit organizations. The Products
segment delivers distribution, sales and marketing, research and
development, manufacturing, finance, human resources, procurement,
and supply chain digital solutions. The Resources segment helps
organizations to develop and execute strategies, improve operations,
manage change initiatives, and integrate digital technologies.