Class 11th JEE

MRJM/11 Milestone Test-6 Phase-3

DURATION: 180 Minutes DATE: 17/11/2024 M.MARKS: 300

Topic Covered

Physics : Motion in a Plane, Newton's Laws of Motion, Work, Energy & Power, Centre of Mass & System of
Particles
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure,
Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry, Redox Reaction
Mathematics : Quadratic Equations, Sequence and Series, Binomial theorem, Permutations and Combinations

GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (1-20) 6. Three boys are running on a equitriangular track
1. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different with the speed 5 ms–1. At starts, they were at the
velocities from the same height. Which will reach three corners with velocity along indicated
the ground first? directions. The velocity of approach of any one of
(1) Slower one them towards another at t = 10 s equals
(2) Faster one
(3) Both will reach simultaneously
(4) Cannot be predicted

2. A bullet is fired from a gun falls at a distance half

of its maximum range. The angle of projection of (1) 7.5 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1
the bullet can be: (speed of projection is fixed) (3) 5 ms–1 (4) 0ms–1
(1) 15º (2) 30º
(3) 60º (4) 75º 7. For the situation shown in figure, in Column I, the
statements regarding friction forces are mentioned,
3. The equation of motion of a projectile is while in Column II some information related to
3 friction forces are given. Match the entries of
y = 12 x − x 2 . The horizontal component of
4 Column I with the entries of Column II
velocity is 3 ms–1. What is the range of the (Take g = 10 ms–2)
projectile
(1) 18 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 21.6 m

4. The total work done on a particle is equal to the Column-I Column-II

change in its kinetic energy
(1) always Total friction force
A P Towards right
(2) only if the forces acting on the body are on 3 kg block is
conservative
Total friction force
(3) only in the inertial frame B Q Towards left
on 5 kg block is
(4) only if no external force is acting
Friction force on 2
5. In the shown figure two beads slide along a smooth C kg block due to 3 kg R Zero
horizontal rod as shown in figure. The relation block is
between v and v0 in the shown position will be
Friction force on 3
D kg block due to 5 kg S Non-zero
block is

A B C D
(1) v = v0 cot  (1) Q,S P,S P,S Q,S
(2) v = v0 sin  (2) P,S Q,S P,S Q,S
(3) v = v0 tan  (3) Q,S P,S Q,S P,S
(4) v = v0 cos  (4) P,S Q,R P,S Q,S
8. Statement-I: A cloth covers a table. Some dishes (1) directly proportional to m
are kept on it. The cloth can be pulled out without (2) directly proportional to m
dislodging the dishes from the table
(3) inversely proportional to m
Statement II: For every action there is an equal
and opposite reaction (4) independent on m
(1) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True,
Statement-II is a correct explanation for 13. Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively are
Statement-I placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They are
(2) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is True, connected by a light spring of force constant k =
Statement-II is NOT a correct explanation for 200 Nm–1. Initially the spring is unstretched and
Statement-I velocities of 1 ms–1 and 2ms–2 are imparted in
(3) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is False opposite directions to the respective blocks as
(4) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is true shown in figure. The maximum extension of the
spring will be
9. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an
angle of projection . From the same point and at
the same instant person starts running with a
v
constant speed 0 to catch the ball. Will the (1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm
2 (3) 25 cm (4) 30 cm
person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what
should be the angle of projection ? 14. An object is thrown horizontally from a tower H
(1) No (2) Yes, 30º
(3) Yes, 60º (4) Yes, 45º meter high with a velocity of 2gH m/s. Its
velocity on striking the ground will be
10. A particle is placed at rest inside a hollow (1) 2gH (2) 6gH
hemisphere of radius R. The coefficient of friction
1 (3) 2 gH (4) 2 2gH
between the particle and the hemisphere is  = .
3
The maximum height up to which the particle can 15. Three particles A, B and C of equal masses,
remain stationary is moving with the same speed v along the medians
R  3 of an equilateral triangle, collide at the centroid G
(1) (2) 1 − R
2  2  of the triangle. After collision A comes to rest and

B retraces its path with speed v. The speed of C
3 3R after the collision is
(3) R (4)
2 8

11. In the figure shown, the frictional coefficient

between table and block is 0.2. Find the ratio of
tensions in the right and left springs.

v
(1) Zero (2) along GB
2
(3) v along BG (4) v along CG

16. A body of mass m is kept stationary on a rough

(1) 17 : 24 (2) 34 : 12 inclined plane angle of inclination . The
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
magnitude of force acting on the body by the
inclined plane is equal to
12. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of mass m
(1) mg (b) mg sin 
in travelling a certain distance starting from rest,
under a constant force is (3) mg cos  (d) None
[3]
17. A ball is dropped at t = 0 from a height on a (3) 25 N (4) None of these
smooth elastic surface. Identify the graph which
correctly represents the variation of kinetic energy 20. A body of mass 5 ×103 kg moving with speed 2m/s
K with time t. collides with a body of mass 15 ×103 kg in
elastically and sticks to it. Then loss in KE of the
system will be
(1) (1) 7.5 kJ (2) 15 kJ
(3) 10 kJ (4) 5 kJ

Integer Type Questions (21-25)

21. A small block of mass 1 kg is kept on a rough
(2) inclined wedge of inclination 45º fixed in an
elevator. The elevator goes up with a uniform
velocity v = 2m/s and the block does not slide on
the wedge. Find the work done (in Joule) by the
force of friction on the block in 1s. (g = 10 m/s2)
(3)
22. A swimmer wants to cross a river from point B.
Line AB makes an angle of 30º with the flow of
river. Magnitude of velocity of the swimmer is
same as that of the river. The angle  with the line
(4)
AB should be xº, so that the swimmer reaches
point B. Find the value of x.

18. Assertion: A glass ball is dropped on concrete

floor can easily get broke compared if it is dropped
on wooden floor
Reason: On concrete floor glass ball will take less
time to come to rest
23. The coefficient of static friction between a wooden
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
block of mass 0.5 kg and a vertical rough wall is
reason is the correct explanation of assertion
0.2. The minimum magnitude of horizontal force
(2) if both assertion and reason are true, but
that should be applied on the block to keep it
reason is not the correct explanation of
adhere to the wall will be ______N. [g = 10 ms–2]
assertion
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
24. An ideal spring with spring-constant k is hung
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
from the ceiling and a block of mass M is attached
19. A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He to its lower end. The mass is released with the
pulls on the rope which is attached to the platform spring initially unstretched. Then the maximum
via the frictionless pulleys as shown in the figure. xMg
extension in the spring is . Find the value of x.
The platform moves upwards at a steady rate if the k
force with which the person pulls the rope is
25. (
A particle moves with a velocity v = 5iˆ − 3 ˆj + 6kˆ )
–1
ms under the influence of a constant force
( )
F = 10iˆ + 10 ˆj + 20kˆ N. The instantaneous power
(1) 500 N (2) 250 N (in W) applied to the particle is

[4]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions (26-45) (1) 497.2 J/K (2) –497.2 J/K
26. When a certain amount of ethylene was combusted, (3) 2094 J/K (4) 94.97 J/K
6226 kJ of heat was evolved. If the heat of
combustion of ethylene is 1411 kJ, the volume of 32. For the reaction
O2 (at NTP) that entered into the reaction is I− + CIO3− + H2SO4 → Cl− + HSO4− + I2
(1) 296.5 mL (2) 296.5 L The correct statement in the balanced equation is
(3) 6226×22.4 L (4) 22.4 L (1) Stoichiometric coefficient of HSO−4 is 6.
(2) Iodide is reduced
27. Which of the following reactions is an example of
(3) Sulphur is oxidised
redox reactions?
(4) H2O is one of the reactants
(1) XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2
(2) XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF]+ PF6– 33. The correct order of the size of Be, C, F and Ne is
(3) XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF (1) Be > C > F > Ne
(4) XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF (2) Be < C < F < Ne
(3) F < Ne < Be < C
28. Which of the following statement is wrong? (4) Be > C > F < Ne
(1) Among the following elements:
K, Mn, Ca, Cs, Fe, Cu, Pb, Os, Y 34. Which of the following statement concerning
The number of transition elements are 4 ionisation energy (IE) is not correct?
(2) All the lanthanides and actinides belong to III (1) The IE2 is always more than the IE1.
B or the 3rd group in the periodic table. (2) Within a group, there is a gradual increase in
(3) The inner transition elements belong to the ionisation energy because nuclear charge
f-block of the periodic table and are shown increases
separately at the bottom of the periodic table. (3) Ionisation energies of Be is more than B.
(4) The d-block elements have variable valency. (4) Ionisation energies of noble gases are high.

29. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas expands 35. Match the following:
adiabatically at initial temperature T against a Column-I Column-II
constant external pressure of 1 atm from one litre to Formal charge on the O-
three litres. The final temperature of the gas is: atoms in the ion
A P –1
(1) T ..
+
(2) T/3(5R/2) [:O = N = O]
(3) T – 2/(1.5 × 0.082)
Formal charge O-atom
(4) T + 2/(1.5 × 0.082)
2–
 O 
B
marked (1) in  ||  Q Zero
30. Find out the similarities between I2Cl6 and Al2Cl6:  O– C– O 
(1) Both have 3C – 4e– bond  (1) 
(2) Both have sp3-hybridization for the central
atom +
C No. of unpaired electrons in O2 R 1
(3) Both are non-planar
(4) Both have sp3d hybridisation for the central
D No. of unpaired electrons in B2 S 2
atom.
A B C D
(1) Q P R S
31. A certain reaction is spontaneous at 85°C. The
(2) P Q R S
reaction is endothermic by 34 kJ. The minimum
(3) S R Q P
value of ΔS for the reaction is
(4) P R Q S
[5]
36. One mole of a nonideal gas undergoes a change of 42. Assertion (A): In the balanced redox reaction
state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4 atm, 5 L, 245 K) xCu2O + y NO3– + 14 H+ → 6Cu2+ + NO + 7H2O,
with a change in internal energy, U = 30.0 L atm. the n-factor of Cu2O and NO3– is 2 and 3
The change in enthalpy, H, of the process in L. respectively.
atm is Reason (R): Reciprocal of n-factor’s ratio is molar
(1) 40.0 ratio and so, x : y = 3 : 2
(2) 42.3 (1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct
(3) 44.0 explanation of A
(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the
(4) not defined, because pressure is not constant
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
37. Match the stoichiometric coefficients in column II
(4) A is false but R is true
with the species in column I involved in the
balanced equation of the following reaction:
43. Select incorrect statement
H+ + FeC2O4 + MnO−4 → CO2 + Mn 2+ + H2O + Fe3+ (1) Element ‘x’ with electronic configuration
Column-I Column-II (n–1) d2ns2 (n = 4) belong to 4th period and
A FeC2O4 P 3 4th group.
B MnO– Q 5 (2) Element ‘y’ with electronic configuration
4 (n–2)f7 (n – 1)d1ns2 (n = 6) belongs to 6th
+
C H R 10 period and 3rd group and is lanthanide
D CO2 S 24 element.
A B C D (3) Element ‘z’ with electronic configuration
(1) Q P S R ns2np2 (n = 6) belong to 3rd period and 16th
(2) P Q S R group.
(3) Q P R S (4) All x, y, z elements are metals.
(4) Q S P R
44. Which of the following contains both polar and
38. Which of the following represents the correct order non-polar bonds?
of electron affinities? (1) NH4Cl (2) HCN
(1) F > Cl > Br > I (2) C < N < O < F (3) H2O2 (4) CH4
(3) N < C < O < F (4) C < Si < P < N
45. Which of the following molecules/ions has more
than one bond length
39. In Fe2+ vs MnO4– titration, HNO3 is not used
(1) SF4 (2) SiF4
because it:
(3) XeF4 (4) BF4–
(1) Oxidises Mn 2+
(2) Reduces MnO4–
(3) Oxidises Fe2+ (4) Reduces Fe3+ formed Integer Type Question (46-50)
46. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a
40. Select the correct statement: strong alkali is –57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat released
(1) If molecule has any polar bond, then it is when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution is mixed with 0.2
always polar mole of KOH is_______ kJ. (Nearest Integer)
(2) ClF3 is non-planar
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 (order of bond 47. How many grams of potassium dichromate are
angle) required to oxidise 15.2 g of FeSO4 in acidic
(4) XeF6 has distorted octahedral geometry medium? (Nearest Integer) (Atomic mass: Fe =
56u, S = 32u, O = 16u, K = 39u, Cr = 52u).
41. Difference between H and U for the combustion
of benzene at 300 K. is: 48. If IE and EA of an element are 280 and 90 Kcal
(1) 7.48 kJ (2) 3.74 kJ mol–1 respectively then EN of the element on
(3) 14.86 kJ (4) 5.73 kJ Pauling scale is: (nearest integer)
[6]
49. The equivalent weight in grams of the metal, when 50. Find the sum of bond order and number of -bonds
1.0 g of metal nitrate gave 0.86 g of metal sulphate in C2 molecule on the basis of molecular orbital
is theory.

SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (51-70) (1) 0 (2) 1
51. If  and  are the roots of the equation (3) −1 (4) None of these

ax2 + bx + c = 0 and, if px2 + qx + r = 0has roots

57. If ,  are the roots of x 2 + bx − c = 0, then the
1−  1− 
and , then r is equal to equation whose roots are b and c is
 
(1) x2 + a x −  = 0
(1) a + 2b (2) a + b + c
(3) ab + bc + ca (4) abc (2) x 2 − x (  +  +  ) −  (  +  ) = 0

(3) x 2 + (  +  −  ) x −  (  +  ) = 0
52. Given that n AM’s are inserted between two sets
(4) x 2 + x (  +  +  ) +  (  +  ) = 0
of numbers a, 2b and 2a,b where a, b  R. Suppose
further that m th mean between these sets of
numbers is same, then the ratio a : b equals 58. In a G.P. with alternatively positive and negative
terms, any term is the A.M. of the next two terms.
(1) ( n − m + 1) : m (2) ( n − m + 1) : n
Then, the common ratio of the G.P. is
(3) n : ( n − m + 1) (4) m : ( n − m + 1) (1) −1 (2) −3
1
(3) −2 (4) −
53. 2
(
The quadratic equations x + a − 2 x − 2a = 02
) 2 2

and x2 − 3x + 2 = 0 have
59. If the magnitude of the coefficient of x 7 in the
(1) No common root for all a  R 8
Exactly one common root for all a  R  1 
(2) expansion of  ax 2 +  , where a, b are positive
(3) Two common roots for some a  R  bx 
(4) None of these numbers, is equal to the magnitude of the
8
 1 
coefficient of x–7 in the of  ax − 2  , then a, and
54. The coefficient of x 20 in the expansion of  bx 
−5 b are connected by the relation
(1 + x )
2 40  2

1 
 x + 2 + 2  , is
x 
(1) ab = 1 (2) ab = 2
30 30 (3) a2b = 1 (4) ab2 = 2
(1) C10 (2) C25
(3) 1 (4) None of these
x+2
60. If x is real, then the set of values of
2 x + 3x + 6
2
55. Let , be the roots of the equation x2 − ax + b = 0
is equal to
and An =  +  . Then, An+1 − aAn + bAn−1 is equal
n n
 1 1
(1)  , 
to 13 3 
(1) −a (2) b  1 1
(3) 0 (4) a − b (2)  − , 
 13 3 
 1 1
56. If pth, qth and rth terms of a G.P. are x, y, z (3)  − , 
 3 13 
respectively, then xq −r y r − p z p −q is equal to (4) None of these
[7]
61. Match the column I and Column-II (1) 26 (2) 21
Column-I Column-II (3) 25 (4) None of these
If a, b, c are in G.P. then
A loga 10, logb10, logc10 are P A.P. 66. Statement-I: If an infinite G.P. has 2nd term x and
in its sum is 4, then complete solution set of x is (–8, 1)
Statement-II: Sum of an infinite G.P. is finite it for
If
its common ratio r, 0 < | r | < 1
a + be x b + ce x c + de x
B = = , Q H.P. (1) Both statement are true
a − be x b − ce x c − de x
(2) Both statement are false
then a, b, c, d are in
(3) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is false
IF a, b, c are A.P; a, x, b, (4) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true
C are in G.P. and b, y, c are in R G.P.
G.P., then x2, b2, y2 are in 67. The numbers of times the digits 3 will be written
If x, y, z are in G.P., when listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
None of
D ax = cy =cz, then log a, log b, S (1) 269 (2) 300
these
log c are in (3) 271 (4) 302
A B C D
(1) Q R P R 68. The number of permutations of the letters of the
(2) R P Q S word ‘CONSEQUENCE’ in which all the three E’s
(3) S R P Q are together, is
(4) P S R Q 9!
(1) 9!3! (2)
2!2!
62. The coefficient of the term independent of x in the 9! 9!
(3) (4)
 ( x + 1) ( x − 1)  is 2!2!3! 2!3!
10
expansion of  2/3 1/3 − 1/2 
 x − x +1 x − x 
(1) 210 (2) 105 69. Let (1 + x )n = 1 + a1x + a2 x2 + …. + an x n . If
(3) 70 (4) 112 a1 , a2and a3 are in AP, then the value of n is
(1) 4 (2) 5
5
63. The coefficient of x in the expansion of (3) 6 (4) 7
1 + x2
, x  1, is
1+ x 70. The number of group that can be made from 5
(1) −1 (2) 2 different green balls, 4 different blue balls and 3
(3) 0 (4) −2 different red balls, if atleast 1 green and 1 blue ball
is to be included, is
64. The sum of all that can be formed with the digits (1) 3700 (2) 3720
2,3,4,5 taken all at a time is (3) 4340 (4) None of these
(1) 93324
(2) 66666 Integer Type Questions (71-75)
(3) 84844 71. If ,,  are the roots of x3 + 2 x2 − 3x − 1 = 0 , then
(4) None of these
−2 + −2 +  −2 is equal to
65. The number of straight lines can be formed out of
10 points of which 7 are collinear 72. If 2/3, k , 5/8 are in AP, then value of 96 k is

[8]
73. If the last term in the binomial expansion of 74. Sita has 5 coins each of the different denomination.
 1/3 1 
n log3 8 The maximum number of different sums of money
 1 
2 −  is  5/3  , then the 5th term from she can form is
 2 3 
the beginning is
75. If nth term of the GP 3, 3 3,9 is 2187 then n

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