Questions and Answer bank For level 4

In the following section, we will look CCNA Dumps Part2 test yourself and finally get answer
with description on bottom side.

1. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. HDLC
D. LCP

2. Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long?

A. 4
B. 16
C. 32
D. 128

3. The RSTP provides which new port role?

A. Disabled
B. Enabled
C. Discarding
D. Forwarding

4. What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A. Set the Telnet password.
B. Shut down the router.
C. Set your console password.
D. Disable console connections.

5. How long is an IPv6 address?

A. 32 bits
B. 128 bytes
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits

6. What PPP protocol provides for dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LCP
D. X.25

7. What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A. shpvc
B. show interface
C. show frame-relay pvc
D. shorunn

8. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address
192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129–190
B. 192.168.168.129–191
C. 192.168.168.128–190
D. 192.168.168.128–192

9. What does the passive command provide to the RIP dynamic routing protocol?
A. Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates
B. Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates
C. Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates
D. Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates

10. Which protocol does Ping use?

A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP

11. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port
switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12

12. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco
router?
A. line telnet 0 4
B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
D. line con 0

13. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. show all access-lists
B. show access-lists
C. show ip interface
D. show interface

14. What does a VLAN do?

A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers
B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain

15. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A. erase startup
B. erase nvram
C. delete nvram
D. erase running
16. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to
originating hosts?
A. TCP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. BootP

17. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. A and B

18. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A. Never
B. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 30 seconds

19. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?

A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand
switches are allowed.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

20. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?

A. A
B. B
C. G
D. N

21. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port
switch?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 12

22. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow
many users to connect to the global Internet?
A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. PAT

23. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunking Protocol
B. VLAN
C. 802.1Q
D. ISL

24. What is a stub network?

A. A network with more than one exit point
B. A network with more than one exit and entry point
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point
D. A network that has only one entry and exit point

25. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A. Session layer
B. Physical layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Application layer

26. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)
A. Standard
B. IEEE
C. Extended
D. Specialized

27. To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A. backup IOS disk
B. copy iostftp
C. copy tftp flash
D. copy flash tftp

28. What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A. copy running backup
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. config mem
D. wr mem

29. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model
B. So application developers can change only one layer’s protocols at a time
C. So different networks could communicate
D. So Cisco could use the model

30. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP

31. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to
use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

32. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular

interface?
A. show access-lists
B. show interface
C. show ip interface
D. show interface access-lists

33. Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?

A. copy tftp run
B. copy tftp start
C. config net
D. copy tftp flash

34. The Protocol Data Unit Encapsulation (PDU) is completed in which order?
A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data
B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets
C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits
D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data

35. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What
can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. Send a different source port number.
B. Restart the virtual circuit.
C. Decrease the sequence number.
D. Decrease the window size.

36. When a station sends a transmission to the MAC address ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, what type of
transmission is it?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Anycast
D. Broadcast

37. Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment?
(Choose two.)
A. Switch
B. NIC
C. Hub
D. Repeater
E. RJ45 transceiver

38. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport

39. Which of the following describe the main router functions? (Choose four.)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Internetwork communication
F. Broadcast forwarding
G. Path selection

40. Routers operate at layer ___. LAN switches operate at layer ___. Ethernet hubs operate at
layer ___. Word processing operates at layer ___.
A. 3, 3, 1, 7
B. 3, 2, 1, none
C. 3, 2, 1, 7
D. 2, 3, 1, 7
E. 3, 3, 2, none

41. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?

A. Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
B. Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
C. Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
D. Data, segment, frame, packet, bit

42. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose
two.)
A. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus
aiding component development, design, and
troubleshooting.
B. It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus
saving research and development funds.
C. It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business
opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
D. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the
model.
E. It provides a framework by which changes in functionality in one layer require changes in
other layers.

43. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?

A. To add more broadcast domains
B. To create more collision domains
C. To add more bandwidth for users
D. To allow more broadcasts for users

44. Which of the following is not a cause of LAN congestion?

A. Too many hosts in a broadcast domain
B. Adding switches for connectivity to the network
C. Broadcast storms
D. Low bandwidth

45. If a switch has three computers connected to it, with no VLANs present, how many
broadcast and collision domains is the switch creating?
A. Three broadcast and one collision
B. Three broadcast and three collision
C. One broadcast and three collision
D. One broadcast and one collision

46. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7

47. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Buffering
B. Cut-through
C. Windowing
D. Congestion avoidance
E. VLANs

48. If a hub has three computers connected to it, how many broadcast and collision domains is
the hub creating?
A. Three broadcast and one collision
B. Three broadcast and three collision
C. One broadcast and three collision
D. One broadcast and one collision

49. What is the purpose of flow control?

A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D. To regulate the size of each segment

50. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the
network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Answers
1. A. Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the
packet.

2. B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits.

3. C. The port roles used within RSTP include discarding, learning, and forwarding. The
difference between 802.1d and RSTP is the discarding role.

4. C. The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console
user-mode password.

5. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, whereas an IPv4 address is only 32 bits long.

6. C. Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides negotiation of dynamic addressing,
authentication, and multilink.

7. B. The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an
interface.

8. A. 256 – 192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find our subnet:
64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid
host range is the numbers in between, or 129–190.
9. B. The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being sent
out an interface. However, the interface can still receive updates.
10. C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.

11. D. Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port.

12. C. The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change
your Telnet password.

13. B. To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.

14. C. VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.

15. A. The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.

16. C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an
originating router.

17. A. Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.

18. B. Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.

19. D. Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP
domain for this to occur. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN
information across a trunk link.
20. C. IEEE 802.11bg is in the 2.4GHz range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.

21. A. By default, switches break up collision domains on a per-port basis but are one large
broadcast domain.

22. D. Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address
translation.

23. C, D. VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN
information across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL encapsulations are used to configure trunking
on a port.
24. D. Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Default routes should be set
on a stub network or network loops may occur; however, there are exceptions to this rule.

25. B. Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.

26. A, C. Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a
router.

27. D. The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing file in flash to a
TFTP host.

28. B. The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-
config.

29. C. The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could
interoperate.

30. C. User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP
uses this connectionless service.

31. E. The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.

32. C. The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or
inbound access list set.

33. D. The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default
location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.
34. C. The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through each layer
of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the Transport later, packets created at the Network
layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a
digital signal.
35. D. A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses windowing
by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting
host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers.
36. D. A transmission to the MAC address ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff is a broadcast transmission to all
stations.
37. C, D. Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport
repeater) will provide this for you.

38. D. The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks these up
into smaller pieces called segments.

39. A, C, E, G. Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication,

and path selection. Although routers do create or terminate collision domains, this is not the
main purpose of a router, so option B is not a correct answer to this question.

40. B. Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer
1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface, but do not
operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none.

41. C. The encapsulation method is data, segment, packet, frame, bit.

42. A, D. The main advantage of a layered model is that,: It divides the network communication
process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and
troubleshooting; it allows multiplevendor development through standardization of network
components.

43. A, D. Unlike full duplex, half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain, and it
has a lower effective throughput than full duplex.

44. B. Adding switches for connectivity to the network would reduce LAN congestion rather
than cause LAN congestion.

45. C. If a switch has three computers connected to it, with no VLANs present, one broadcast
and three collision domains are created.

46. C. A reliable Transport layer connection uses acknowledgments to make sure all data is
transmitted and received reliably. A reliable connection is defined by a virtual circuit that uses
acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control, which are characteristics of the Transport layer
(layer 4).

47. A, C, D. The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion
avoidance.

48. D. If a hub has three computers connected to it, one broadcast and one collision domain is
created.

49. C. Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving
device’s buffer does not overflow.

50. A, B, E. Full duplex means you are using both wire pairs simultaneously to send and receive
data. You must have a dedicated switch port for each node, which means you will not have
collisions. Both the host network card and the switch port must be capable and set to work in
full-duplex mode.