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Unit 8: CHEMICAL EQILIBRIUM
1. If Kb and Kf for a reversible reactions are 0.8 ×10–5 and 1.6 × 10–4 respectively, the value of the equilibrium
constant is,
a) 20 b) 0.2 × 10–1 c) 0.05 d) none of these
2. At a given temperature and pressure, the equilibrium constant values for the equilibria
K1 K2
3 1
3A2 + B2 + 2C ⇌ 2A3BC and A3BC ⇌ [𝐴2 ] + B2 + C The relation between K1 and K2 is
2 2
−1
1 𝐾1
a) K1 = b) K2 = 𝐾1 2 c) 𝐾1 2 d) = K2
√𝐾2 2
3. The equilibrium constant for a reaction at room temperature is K1 and that at 700 K is K2. If K1 > K2, then
a) The forward reaction is exothermic b) The forward reaction is endothermic
c) The reaction does not attain equilibrium d) The reverse reaction is exothermic
4. The formation of ammonia from N2(g) and H2(g) is a reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + Heat
What is the effect of increase of temperature on this equilibrium reaction
a) equilibrium is unaltered b) formation of ammonia is favoured
c) equilibrium is shifted to the left d) reaction rate does not change
5. Solubility of carbon dioxide gas in cold water can be increased by
a) increase in pressure b) decrease in pressure c) increase in volume d) none of these
6 Which one of the following is incorrect statement ?
a) for a system at equilibrium, Q is always less than the equilibrium constant
b) equilibrium can be attained from either side of the reaction
c) presence of catalyst affects both the forward reaction and reverse reaction to the same extent
d) Equilibrium constant varied with temperature
7. K1 and K2 are the equilibrium constants for the reactions respectively.
K1 K2
N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) and 2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ NO2(g) What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction
NO2(g) ⇌ ½ N2(g) + O2(g)
3
1
1 1 1 2
a) b) (𝐾1 = 𝐾2 ) 2 c) 2𝐾 d) (𝐾 )
√𝐾1 𝐾2 1 𝐾2 1 𝐾2

8. In the equilibrium, 2A(g) ⇌ 2B(g) + C2(g) the equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C2 at 400 K are 1 × 10–4
M, 2.0 × 10–3 M, 1.5 × 10–4 M respectively. The value of KC for the equilibrium at 400 K is
a) 0.06 b) 0.09 c) 0.62 d) 3 × 10–2
9. An equilibrium constant of 3.2 × 10–6 for a reaction means, the equilibrium is
a) largely towards forward direction b) largely towards reverse direction
c) never established d) none of these
𝐾
10. 𝐾𝐶 for the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) is
𝑃
1
a) 𝑅𝑇 b) √𝑅𝑇 c) RT d) (RT)2
11. For the reaction AB (g) ⇌ A(g) + B(g), at equilibrium, AB is 20% dissociated at a total pressure of P, The
equilibrium constant KP is related to the total pressure by the expression
a) P = 24 KP b) P = 8 KP c) 24 P = KP d) none of these
12. In which of the following equilibrium, KP and KC are not equal?
a) 2 NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g) b) SO2 (g) + NO2 ⇌ SO3(g) + NO(g)

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c) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) d) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
13. If x is the fraction of PCl5 dissociated at equilibrium in the reaction PCl5 ⇌ PCl3 + Cl2
then starting with 0.5 mole of PCl5, the total number of moles of reactants and products at equilibrium is
a) 0.5 – x b) x + 0.5 c) 2x + 0.5 d) x + 1
14. The values of KP1 and KP2 for the reactions X ⇌ Y + Z A ⇌ 2B are in the ratio 9 : 1 if degree of dissociation
and initial concentration of X and A be equal then total pressure at equilibrium P1, and P2 are in the ratio
a) 36 : 1 b) 1 : 1 c) 3 : 1 d) 1 : 9
3+ – –
15. In the reaction, Fe (OH)3 (s) ⇌ Fe (aq) + 3OH (aq), if the concentration of OH ions is decreased by . times,
then the equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will
a) not changed b) also decreased by times c) increase by 4 times d) increase by 64 times
16. Consider the reaction where KP = 0.5 at a particular temperature PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
if the three gases are mixed in a container so that the partial pressure of each gas is initially 1 atm, then which one
of the following is true
a) more PCl3 will be produced b) more Cl2 will be produced c) more PCl5 will be produced d) none of these
17. Equimolar concentrations of H2 and I2 are heated to equilibrium in a 1 litre flask. What percentage of initial
concentration of H2 has reacted at equilibrium if rate constant for both forward and reverse reactions are equal
a) 33% b) 66% c) (33)2 % d) 16.5 %
2
18. In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant for the forward reaction is 2.5 × 10 and the equilibrium constant is
50. The rate constant for the reverse reaction is,
a) 11.5 b) 5 c) 2 × 102 d) 2 × 10–3
19. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of equilibrium involving physical process
a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature
b) The opposing processes occur at the same rate and there is a dynamic but stable condition
c) All the physical processes stop at equilibrium
d) All measurable properties of the system remains constant
20. For the formation of Two moles of SO3(g) from SO2 and O2, the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium
constant for the dissociation of one mole of SO3 into SO2 and O2 is
1
1 2 1 2 𝐾1
a)𝑘 b) 𝐾1 c) (𝐾 ) d) 2
1 1
21. Match the equilibria with the corresponding conditions,
i) Liquid ⇌ Vapour
ii) Solid ⇌ Liquid
iii) Solid ⇌ Vapour
iv) Solute (s) ⇌ Solute (Solution)
1) melting point 2) Saturated solution 3) Boiling point 4) Sublimation point 5) Unsaturated solution
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 5
22. Consider the following reversible reaction at equilibrium, A + B ⇌ C, If the concentration of the reactants A
and B are doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
a) be doubled b) become one fourth c) be halved d) remain the same
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23. [Co(H2O)6]2+ (aq) (pink) + 4Cl– (aq) ⇌[CoCl4]2– (aq) (blue)+ 6 H2O (l) In the above reaction at equilibrium,
the reaction mixture is blue in colour at room temperature. On cooling this mixture, it becomes pink in colour. On
the basis of this information, which one of the following is true ?
a) ΔH > 0 for the forward reaction b) ΔH = 0 for the reverse reaction
c) ΔH < 0 for the forward reaction d) Sign of the ΔH cannot be predicted based on this information.
24. The equilibrium constants of the following reactions are :
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ; K1 N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO ; K2 H2 + ½ O2 ⇌ H2O ; K3 The equilibrium constant (K)
5
for the reaction ; 2NH3 + O2 ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O; will be
2
𝐾2 3 𝐾3 𝐾1 𝐾3 3 𝐾2 𝐾3 3 𝐾2 𝐾3
a) b) c) d)
𝐾2 𝐾2 𝐾1 𝐾1
25. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2 (g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of
solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container.
The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value will be : Given that :
SrCO3 (S) ⇌ SrO (S) + CO2(g) KP = 1.6 atm (NEET 2017)
a) 2 litre b) 5 litre c) 10 litre d) 4 litre
Unit: 9 Solutions
1. The molality of a solution containing 1.8g of glucose dissolved in 250g of water is
a) 0.2 M b) 0.01 M c) 0.02 M d) 0.04 M
2. Which of the following concentration terms is / are independent of temperature
a) molality b) molarity c) mole fraction d) (a) and (c)
3. Stomach acid, a dilute solution of HCl can be neutralised by reaction with Aluminium hydroxide Al (OH)3+
3HCl (aq) → AlCl3 + 3 H2O How many millilitres of 0.1 M Al(OH)3 solution are needed to neutralise 21 mL of
0.1 M HCl ?
a) 14 mL b) 7 mL c) 21 mL d) none of these
4. The partial pressure of nitrogen in air is 0.76 atm and its Henry's law constant is 7.6 × 104 atm at 300K. What is
the molefraction of nitrogen gas in the solution obtained when air is bubbled through water at 300K ?
a) 1 × 10–4 b) 1 × 10–6 c) 2 × 10–5 d) 1 × 10–5
5. The Henry's law constant for the solubility of Nitrogen gas in water at 350 K is 8 × 104
atm. The mole fraction of nitrogen in air is 0.5. The number of moles of Nitrogen from air dissolved in 10 moles of
water at 350K and 4 atm pressure is
a) 4 × 10–4 b) 4 × 104 c) 2 × 10–2 d) 2.5 × 10–4
6. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution ?
a) DHmix = 0 b) DUmix = 0 c) DP = Pobserved – P Calculated by raoults law = 0 d) DGmix = 0
7. Which one of the following gases has the lowest value of Henry's law constant ?
a) N2 b) He c) CO2 d) H2
8. P1 and P2 are the vapour pressures of pure liquid components, 1 and 2 respectively of an ideal binary solution if
x1 represents the mole fraction of component 1, the total pressure of the solution formed by 1 and 2 will be
a) P1 + x1 (P2 – P1) b) P2 – x1 (P2 + P1) c) P1 – x2 (P1 – P2) d) P1 + x2 (P1 – P2)
9. Osometic pressure (p) of a solution is given by the relation
a) p = nRT b) pV = nRT c) pRT = n d) none of these
10. Which one of the following binary liquid mixtures exhibits positive deviation from Raoults law ?
a) Acetone + chloroform b) Water + nitric acid c) HCl + water d) ethanol + water

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11. The Henry's law constants for two gases A and B are x and y respectively. The ratio of mole fractions of A to
B is 0.2. The ratio of mole fraction of B and A dissolved in water will be
2𝑥 𝑦 0.2𝑥 5𝑥
a) 𝑦
b) 0.2𝑥 c) d)
𝑦 𝑦
o
12. At 100 C the vapour pressure of a solution containing 6.5g a solute in 100g water is 732mm. If Kb = 0.52, the
boiling point of this solution will be
o o o o
a) 102 C b) 100 C c) 101 C d) 100.52 C
13. According to Raoults law, the relative lowering of vapour pressure for a solution is equal to
a) mole fraction of solvent b) mole fraction of solute c) number of moles of solute d) number of moles of solvent
14. At same temperature, which pair of the following solutions are isotonic ?
a) 0.2 M BaCl2 and 0.2M urea b) 0.1 M glucose and 0.2 M urea
c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M K2SO4 d) 0.1 M Ba (NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2 SO4
15. The empirical formula of a nonelectrolyte(X) is CH2O. A solution containing six gram of X exerts the same
osmotic pressure as that of 0.025M glucose solution at the same temperature. The molecular formula of X is
a) C2H4O2 b) C8H16O8 c) C4H8O4 d) CH2O
4
16. The KH for the solution of oxygen dissolved in water is 4 × 10 atm at a given temperature.
If the partial pressure of oxygen in air is 0.4 atm, the mole fraction of oxygen in solution is
a) 4.6 × 103 b) 1.6 × 104 c) 1 × 10–5 d) 1 × 105
17. Normality of 1.25M sulphuric acid is
a) 1.25 N b) 3.75 N c) 2.5 N d) 2.25 N
18. Two liquids X and Y on mixing gives a warm solution. The solution is
a) ideal b) non-ideal and shows positive deviation from Raoults law
c) ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
19. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of a sugar solution in water is 3.5 × 10–3. The mole fraction of water
in that solution is
a) 0.0035 b) 0.35 c) 0.0035 / 18 d) 0.9965
–1
20. The mass of a non-voltaile solute (molar mass 80 g mol ) which should be dissolved in 92g of toluene to
reduce its vapour pressure to 90%
a) 10g b) 20g c) 9.2 g d) 8.89g
–1
21. For a solution, the plot of osmotic pressure (p) verses the concentration (c in mol L ) gives a straight line with
slope 310R where 'R' is the gas constant. The temperature at which osmotic pressure measured is
o o 310
a) 310 × 0.082 K b) 310 C c) 37 C d) 0.082 K
22. 200ml of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26g of protein. At 300K, the osmotic pressure of this
solution is found to be 2.52 × 10–3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be
(R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1)
a) 62.22 Kg mol–1 b) 12444g mol–1 c) 300g mol–1 d) none of these
23. The Van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong elecrolyte barium hydroxide is (NEET)
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
24. What is the molality of a 10% W/W aqueous sodium hydroxide solution ?
a) 2.778 b) 2.5 c) 10 d) 0.4
25. The correct equation for the degree of an associating solute, 'n' molecules of which undergoes association in
solution, is
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𝑛(𝑖 −1) 2 𝑛(1−𝑖) 𝑛(𝑖 −1) 𝑛(1 −𝑖)
a) ∝ = 𝑛−1
b) ∝ = 𝑛−1
c) ∝ = 1−𝑛
d) ∝ = 𝑛(1−𝑖)
26. Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point ?
a) 0.1 M KNO3 b) 0.1 M Na3PO4 c) 0.1 M BaCl2 d) 0.1 M K2SO4
o -1
27. The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 K Kgmol . If 5g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45g water,
the depression in freezing point is 3.64oC. The Vant Hoff factor for Na2SO4 is
a) 2.50 b) 2.63 c) 3.64 d) 5.50
28. Equimolal aqueous solutions of NaCl and KCl are prepared. If the freezing point of
o
NaCl is –2 C, the freezing point of KCl solution is expected to be
o o o o
a) –2 C b) – 4 C c) – 1 C d) 0 C
29. Phenol dimerises in benzene having van't Hoff factor 0.54.What is the degree of association ?
a) 0.46 b) 92 c) 46 d) 0.92
30. Assertion : An ideal solution obeys Raoults Law Reason : In an ideal solution, solvent solvent as well as
solute-solute interactions are similar to solute-solvent interactions.
a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) assertion is true but reason is false
d) both assertion and reason are false
Unit : 10 Chemical Bonding
1. In which of the following Compounds does the central atom obey the octet rule?
a) XeF4 b) AlCl3 c) SF6 d) SCl2
2. In the molecule OA ═ C ═ OB, the formal charge on OA, C and OB are respectively.
a) -1, 0, + 1 b) +1, 0,-1 c) -2,0,+2 d) 0,0,0
3. Which of the following is electron deficient?
a) PH3 b) (CH3)2 c) BH3 d) NH3
4. Which of the following molecule contain no л bond?
a) SO2 b) NO2 c) CO2 d) H2O
5. The ratio of number of sigma (σ) and pi (л) bonds in 2- butynal is
a) 8/3 b) 5/3 c) 8/2 d) 9/2
6. Which one of the following is the likely bond angles of sulphur tetrafluoride molecule?
a) 1200,800 b) 1090.28 c) 900 d) 890,1170
7. Assertion: Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic.
Reason : It has two unpaired electron in its bonding molecular orbital
a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c) assertion is true but reason is false d) Both assertion and reason are false
8. According to Valence bond theory, a bond between two atoms is formed when
a) fully filled atomic orbitals overlap b) half filled atomic orbitals overlap
c) non- bonding atomic orbitals overlap d) empty atomic orbitals overlap
9. In ClF3 ,NF3 and BF3 molecules the chlorine, nitrogen and boron atoms are
a) sp3 hybridised b) sp3 ,sp3 and sp2 respectively c) sp2 hybridised d) sp3d, sp3 and sp hybridized respectively
10. When one s and three p orbitals hybridise,
a) four equvivalent orbitals at 900 to each other will be formed
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b) four equvivalent orbitals at 1090 28' to each other will be formed.
c) four equivalent orbitals, that are lying the same plane will be formed d) none of these
11. Which of these represents the correct order of their increasing bond order.
a) C2 < C22- < O22- < O2 b) C22- < C2 + < O2 < O22- c) O2 2- < O2 < C2 2- < C2+ d) O22- < C2+ < O2 < C2 2-
12. Hybridisation of central atom in PCl5 involves the mixing of orbitals.
a) s, px, py, dx2 , dx2-y2 b) s, px . py, pxy . dx2-y2 c) s, px , py , pz , dx2-y2 d)s, px , py , dxy , dx2-y2
13. The correct order of O-O bond length in hydrogen peroxide, ozone and oxygen is
a) H2O2 > O3 > O2 b) O2 > O3 > H2O2 c) O2 > H2O2 > O3 d) O3 > O2 > H2O2
14. Which one of the following is diamagnetic.?
a) O2 b) O22- c) O2+ d) None of these
15. Bond order of a species is 2.5 and the number of electons in its bonding molecular orbital is formd to be 8 The
no. of electrons in its antibonding molecular orbital is
a) three b) four c) Zero d) can not be calculated form the given unformation.
16. Shape and hybridisation of IF5 are
a) Trigonal bipyramidal, Sp3d2 b) Trigonal bipyramidal, Sp3d c) Square pyramidal, Sp3d2 d) Octahedral, Sp3d2
17. Pick out the incorrect statement from the following
a) Sp3 hybrid orbitals are equivalent and are at an angle of 1090 28' with each other
b) dsp2 hybrid orbitals are equivalent and bond angle between any two of them is 900
c) All five sp3d hybrid orbitals are not equivalent out of these five sp3d hybrid orbitals, three are at an angle of
1200, remaining two are perpendicular to the plane containing the other three
d) none of these
18. The molecules having same hybridisation, shape and number of lone pairs of electons are
a) SeF4, XeO2 F2 b) SF4, Xe F2 c) XeOF4, TeF4 d) SeCl4, XeF4
- 2
19. In which of the following molecules / ions BF3, NO2 , H2O the central atom is sp hybridised?
a) NH2- and H2O b) NO2- and H2O c) BF3 and NO2- d) BF3 and NH2-
- +
20. Some of the following properties of two species, NO3 and H3O are described below. which one of them is
correct?
a) dissimilar in hybridisation for the central atom with different structure.
b) isostructural with same hybridisation for the Central atom.
c) different hybridiration for the central atom with same structure d) none of these
21. The types of hybridiration on the five carbon atom from right to left in the, 2,3 pentadiene.
a) sp3, sp2, sp, sp2, sp3 b) sp3, sp, sp, sp, sp3 c) sp2, sp, sp2,sp2, sp3 d) sp3, sp3, sp2, sp3, sp3
22. Xe F2 is isostructural with
a) SbCl2 b) BaCl2 c) TeF2 d) ICl2–
23. The percentage of s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethane, ethene and ethyne are respectively
a) 25, 25,33.3,50 b) 50,50,33.3,25 c) 50,25,33.3,50 d) 50,25,25,50
24. Of the following molecules, which have shape similar to carbon dioxide?
a) SnCl2 b) NO2 c) C2H2 d) All of these.
25. According to VSEPR theory, the repulsion between different parts of electrons obey the order.
a) l.p – l.p > b.p–b.p> l.p–b.p b) b.p–b.p> b.p–l.p> l.p–b.p
c) l.p–l.p> b.p–l.p > b.p–b.p d) b.p–b.p> l.p–l.p> b.p–l.p
26. Shape of ClF3 is
a) Planar triangular b) Pyramidal c) 'T' Shaped d) none of these
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27. Non- Zero dipole moment is shown by
a) CO2 b) p-dichlorobenzene c) carbontetrachloride d) water.
28. Which of the following conditions is not correct for resonating structures?
a) the contributing structure must have the same number of unpaired electrons
b) the contributing structures should have similar energies
c) the resonance hybrid should have higher energy than any of the contributing structure.
d) none of these
29. Among the following, the compound that contains, ionic, covalent and Coordinate linkage is
a) NH4Cl b) NH3 c) NaCl d) none of these
30. CaO and NaCl have the same crystal structure and approximately the same radii. It U is the lattice energy of
NaCl, the approximate lattice energy of CaO is
a) U b) 2U c) U/2 d) 4U

Unit : 11 Fundamentals Of Organic Chemistry

1. Select the molecule which has only one π bond.
a) CH3– CH = CH – CH3 b) CH3– CH = CH – CHO c) CH3– CH = CH – COOH d) All of these
2. In the hydrocarbon
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
CH3– CH2 – CH = CH– CH2– C ≡ CH The state of hybridisation of carbon 1,2,3,4 and 7 are in the following
sequence.
a) sp, sp, sp3, sp2, sp3 b) sp2, sp, sp3, sp2, sp3 c) sp, sp, sp2, sp, sp3 d) none of these
3. The general formula for alkadiene is
a) CnH2n b) CnH2n-1 c) CnH2n-2 d) CnHn-2
4. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 5,6 - dimethylhept - 2 - ene is

a) b) c) d) None of these

5. The IUPAC name of the Compound is

CH3
H3C CH3
CH3
a) 2,3 – Diemethylheptane b) 3- Methyl -4- ethyloctane
c) 5-ethyl -6-methyloctane d) 4-Ethyl -3 - methyloctane.
6. Which one of the following names does not fit a real name?
a) 3 – Methyl –3–hexanone b) 4–Methyl –3– hexanone
c) 3– Methyl –3– hexanol d) 2– Methyl cyclo hexanone.
7. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3–CH= CH – C ≡ CH is
a) Pent - 4 - yn-2-ene b) Pent -3-en-l-yne c) pent – 2– en – 4 – yne d) Pent – 1 – yn –3 –ene
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8. IUPAC name of
H C4H9
│ │
CH3– C––– C – CH3 is
│ │
C2H5 CH3
a) 3,4,4 – Trimethylheptane b) 2 – Ethyl –3, 3– dimethyl heptane
c) 3, 4,4 – Trimethyloctane d) 2 – Butyl -2 –methyl – 3 – ethyl-butane.
9. The IUPAC name of CH3
│
H3C– C – CH = C(CH3)2
│
CH3 is
a) 2,4,4 – Trimethylpent -2-ene b) 2,4,4 – Trimethylpent -3-ene
c) 2,2,4 – Trimethylpent -3-ene d) 2,2,4 – Trimethylpent -2-ene
10. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3–CH = C – CH2–CH3
│
CH2 – CH2 – CH3 is
a) 3 – Ethyl -2– hexane b) 3 – Propyl -3– hexane
c) 4 – Ethyl – 4 – hexane d) 3 – Propyl -2-hexene

11. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3–CH – COOH is

│
OH is
a) 2 – Hydroxypropionic acid b) 2 – Hydroxy Propanoic acid
c) Propan – 2– ol –1 – oic acid d) 1 – Carboxyethanol.
12. The IUPAC name of
CH3
CH – CH – COOH
Br │
CH3 is
a) 2 – Bromo -3 – methyl butanoic acid b) 2 - methyl - 3- bromobutanoic acid
c) 3 - Bromo - 2 - methylbutanoic acid d) 3 - Bromo - 2, 3 - dimethyl propanoic acid.
13. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2–
CH3
│
b) CH3 – C
│
CH3
c) CH3 – CH – CH2 –
│
CH3
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d) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
│
14. The number of stereoisomers of 1, 2 – dihydroxy cyclopentane
a) 1 b)2 c) 3 d) 4
15. Which of the following is optically active?
a) 3 – Chloropentane b) 2 Chloro propane c) Meso – tartaric acid d) Glucose
16. The isomer of ethanol is
a) acetaldehyde b) dimethylether c) acetone d) methyl carbinol
17. How many cyclic and acyclic isomers are possible for the molecular formula C3H6O?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 9 d) 10
18. Which one of the following shows functional isomerism?
a) ethylene b) Propane c) ethanol d) CH2Cl2
19. CH2–C–CH3 and CH2 = C – CH3 are
║ │
O O
a) resonating structure b) tautomers c) Optical isomers d) Conformers
20. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue
colour formed is due to the formation of.
a) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2 d) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]3
21. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in
a) H2N – CO– NH.NH2.HCl b) NH2 – NH2. HCl c) C6H5 – NH – NH2. HCl d) C6H5 CONH2
22. Connect pair of compounds which give blue colouration / precipitate and white precipitate
respectively, when their Lassaigne’s test is separately done.
a) NH2 NH2 HCl and ClCH2–CHO b) NH2 CS NH2 and CH3 – CH2Cl
c) NH2 CH2 COOH and NH2 CONH2 d) C6H5NH2 and ClCH2 – CHO.
23. Sodium nitropruside reacts with sulphide ion to give a purple colour due to the formation of
- -
a) [Fe(CN)5 NO]3 b) [Fe(NO)5 CN]+ c) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4- d) [Fe (CN)5 NOS]3
24. An organic Compound weighing 0.15g gave on carius estimation, 0.12g of silver bromide. The percentage of
bromine in the Compound will be close to
a) 46% b) 34% c) 3.4% d) 4.6%
25. A sample of 0.5g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia evolved
was absorbed in 50mL of 0.5M H2SO4. The remaining acid after neutralisation by ammonia consumed 80mL of
0.5 MNaOH, The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is.
a) 14% b) 28% c) 42% d) 56%
26. In an organic compound, phosphorus is estimated as
a) Mg2P2O7 b) Mg3(PO4)2 c) H3PO4 d) P2O5
27. Ortho and para-nitro phenol can be separated by
a) azeotropic distillation b) destructive distillation c) steam distillation d) cannot be separated
28. The purity of an organic compound is determined by
a) Chromatography b) Crystallization c) melting or boiling point d) both (a) and (c)
29. A liquid which decomposes at its boiling point can be purified by
a) distillation at atmospheric pressure b) distillation under reduced pressure
c) fractional distillation d) steam distillation.
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30. Assertion: CH3 – C = CH – COOH is
│
COOC2H5
3– carbethoxy -2- butenoicacid.
Reason: The principal functional group gets lowest number followed by double bond (or) triple bond.
(a) both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) assertion is true but reason is false (d) both the assertion and reason are false.

Unit 12 : Basic Concepts of Organic reactions

1. For the following reactions
(A) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH →CH2 = CH2 + KBr +H2O
(B) (CH3)3CBr + KOH → (CH3)3 COH + KBr
Br
(C) + Br2 →

Br
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) (A) is elimination, (B) and (C) are substitution
(b) (A) is substitution, (B) and (C) are elimination
(c) (A) and (B) are elimination and (C) is addition reaction
(d) (A) is elimination, B is substitution and (C) is addition reaction.
2. What is the hybridisation state of benzyl carbonium ion?
(a) sp2 (b) spd2 (c) sp3 (d) sp2d
3. Decreasing order of nucleophilicity is
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(a) OH- > NH2 - > -OCH3 > RNH2 (b) NH2 - > OH- > -OCH3 > RNH2
(c) NH2 - > CH3O- > OH- > RNH2 (d) CH3O- > NH2 - > OH- > RNH2
4. Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature?
(a) Cl+ (b) BH3 (c) H3O+ (d) +NO2
5. Homolytic fission of covalent bond leads to the formation of
(a) electrophile (b) nucleophile (c) Carbo cation (d) free radical
6. Hyper Conjugation is also known as
(a) no bond resonance (b) Baker - nathan effect (c) both (a)and (b) (d) none of these
7. Which of the group has highest +I effect?
(a) CH3- (b) CH3-CH2- (c) (CH3)2-CH- (d) (CH3)3-C-
8. Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect?
(a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5Cl (c) C6H5NH2 (d) C6H5N+H3
9. -I effect is shown by
(a) -Cl (b) –Br (c) both (a) and (b) (d) -CH3
10. Which of the following carbocation will be most stable?
+ + +
+
(a) Ph3C- (b) CH3-CH2- (c) (CH3)2-CH (d) CH2= CH - CH2
11. Assertion: Tertiary Carbocations are generally formed more easily than primary Carbocations ions.
Reason: Hyper conjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl group stabilize tertiary carbonium
ions
(a) both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false (d) Both assertion and reason are false
12. Heterolytic fission of C-Br bond results in the formation of
(a) free radical (b) Carbanion (c) Carbocation (d) Carbanion and Carbocation
13. Which of the following represent a set of nuclephiles?
(a) BF3, H2O, NH2- (b) AlCl3, BF3, NH3 (c) CN-, RCH2 -, ROH (d) H+, RNH3 +, :CCl2
14. Which of the following species does not acts as a nucleophile?
(a) ROH (b) ROR (c) PCl3 (d) BF3
15. The geometrical shape of carbocation is
(a) Linear (b) tetrahedral (c) Planar (d) Pyramidal
Unit 13: Hydrocarbons
1. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is (NEET)
a) the eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed
conformation has torsional strain.
b) the staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered
conformation has no torsional strain.
c) the staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation
has torsional strain.
d) the staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation
has no torsional strain.
2. C2H5 Br + 2Na dry ether C4H10 + 2NaBr The above reaction is an example of which of the following
a) Reimer Tiemann reaction b) Wurtz reaction c) Aldol condensation d) Hoffmann reaction
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3. An alkyl bromide (A) reacts with sodium in ether to form 4, 5– diethyloctane, the compound (A) is
a) CH3 (CH2)3 Br b) CH3(CH2)5 Br
c) CH3(CH2)3 CH(Br)CH3 d) CH3 – (CH2)2 – CH (Br) – CH2
|
CH3
4. The C – H bond and C – C bond in ethane are formed by which of the following types of overlap
a) sp3 – s and sp3 – sp3 b) sp2 – s and sp2 – sp2 c) sp – sp and sp – sp d) p – s and p – p
5. In the following reaction, CH3

Br2
hυ
The major product obtained is
a) CH2 – Br b) CH3 c) CH3 d) CH3
Br Br
Br
6. Which of the following is optically active
a) 2 – methyl pentane b) citric acid c) Glycerol d) none of of these
7. The compounds formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aquous solution of potassium acetate are
a) CH4 and H2 b) CH4 and CO2 c) C2H6 and CO2 d) C2H4 and Cl2
8. The general formula for cyclo alkanes
a) CnHn b) CnH2n c) Cn H2n–2 d) Cn H2n+2
9. The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula (NEET)
a) C3H6 b) C2H2 c) C4H10 d) C2H4
10. Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination
(or) only direct elimination reaction (NEET)
a) b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH c) H2C = C = 0 d) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br
11. Which among the following alkenes on reductive ozonolysis produces only propanone ?
a) 2 – Methyl propene b) 2 – Methyl but – 2 - ene
c) 2, 3 – Dimethyl but – 1 – ene d) 2, 3 – Dimethyl but – 2 – ene
12. The major product formed when 2 – bromo – 2 – methyl butane is refluxed with ethanolic KOH is
a) 2 – methylbut – 2 – ene b) 2 – methyl butan – 1 – ol
c) 2 – methyl but – 1 – ene d) 2 – methyl butan – 2 – ol ICl
13. Major product of the below mentioned reaction is, (CH3)2 C = CH2
a) 2–chloro –1– iodo – 2 – methyl propane b) 1–chloro–2–iodo–2–methylpropane
c) 1,2 – dichloro – 2 – methyl propane d) 1, 2 – diiodo – 2 – methyl propane
14. The IUPAC name of the following compound is Cl CH2–CH3
C=C
H3C I
a) trans–2–chloro–3–iodo – 2 – pentane b) cis–3 – iodo – 4 – chloro – 3 – pentane
c) trans–3–iodo–4–chloro – 3 – pentene d) cis–2 – chloro – 3 – iodo – 2 – pentene
15. Cis – 2 – butene and trans – 2 – butane are
a) conformational isomers b) structural isomers
c) configurational isomers d) optical isomers
16. Identify the compound (A) in the following reaction
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O
i)O3 O
ii) Zn/ H2O + (A)

a) CHO b) CHO c) OH d) COOH

(A)
17. CH2 – CH2 CH ≡ CH,where A is,
| |
Br Br
a) Zn b) Conc H2SO4 c) alc. KOH d) dil H2SO4
18. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed con H2SO4 and HNO3 if a large quantity of KHSO4 is added to
the mixture, the rate of nitration will be
a) unchanged b) doubled c) faster d) slower
19. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are co-planar
a) b) c) d) both (a) and (b)

20. Propyne on passing through red hot iron tube gives

a) CH3 b) CH3 c) d) None of these
CH3

H3 CH3 C3H CH3

CH3 CH3
21. CH2–CH=CH2 HCl (A) is

a) CH2 – CH = CH2 b) Cl CH2 – CH = CH2

Cl
c) both (a) and (b)
d)
Cl
CH2 – CH = CH2
22. Which one of the following is non aromatic ?
a) b)
c)
S
d)
23. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal – crafts reaction easily ? (NEET)
a) Nitro benzene b) Toluene c) Cumene d) Xylene
24. Some meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating ?
a) – COOH b) – NO2 c) – C ≡ N d) – SO3H
25. Which of the following can be used as the halide component for friedal – crafts reaction ?
a) Chloro benzene b) Bromo benzene c) chloro ethane d) isopropyl chloride
26. An alkane is obtained by decarboxylation of sodium propionate. Same alkane can be prepared by
a) Catalytic hydrogenation of propene b) action of sodium metal on iodomethane
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c) reduction of 1 – chloro propane d) reduction of bromomethane
27. Which of the following is aliphatic saturated hydrocarbon
a) C8 H18 b) C9 H18
c) C8 H14 d) All of these
28. Identify the compound 'Z' in the following reaction
C H O Al O X Y
K
O Zn H O
26
2332
_6_23___ ___ _____ / (Z)
a) Formaldehyde
b) Acetaldehyde
c) Formic acid d) none of these
29. Peroxide effect (Kharasch effect) can be
studied in case of
a) Oct – 4 – ene b) hex – 3 – ene
c) pent – 1 – ene d) but – 2 – ene
30. 2 – butyne on chlorination gives
a) 1 – chloro butane
b) 1, 2 – dichloro butane
c) 1, 1, 2, 2 – tetrachlorobutane
d) 2, 2, 3, 3 – tetra chloro butane
Unit 14 : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
1. The IUPAC name of
H3C H
H H
Br
H3C
a) 2-Bromo pent – 3 – ene b) 4-Bromo pent – 2 – ene
c) 2-Bromo pent – 4 – ene d) 4-Bromo pent – 1 – ene
2. Of the following compounds, which has the highest boiling point?
a) n-Butyl chloride b) Isobutyl chloride c) t-Butyl chloride d) n-propyl chloride
3. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their density
A) CCl4 B) CHCl3 C) CH2Cl2 D) CH3Cl
a) D < C < B < A b) C > B > A > D c) A < B < C < D d) C > A > B > D
4. With respect to the position of – Cl in the compound CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – Cl, it is classified as
a) Vinyl b) Allyl c) Secondary d) Aralkyl
5. What should be the correct IUPAC name of diethyl chloromethane?
a) 3 – Chloro pentane b) 1-Chloropentane
c) 1-Chloro-1, 1, diethyl methane d) 1 –Chloro-1-ethyl propane
6. C -X bond is strongest in
a) Chloromethane b) Iodomethane c) Bromomethane d) Fluoromethane
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7. In the reaction N= N-Cl
Cu
HCl X + N2

X is _________ Cl
a) b) c) Cl d) Cl
Cl

Cl Cl
8. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH- ion?
i) CH3- CH – CH2Br ii) CH3 iii) H
│ │ │
C2H5 H3C – C – C2H5 CH3 – C – C2H5
│ │
Br Cl
a) (i) b) (ii) and (iii) c) (iii) d) (i) and (ii)
9. The treatment of ethyl formate with excess of RMgX gives
a) R- C – R b) R CH R c) R – CHO d) R – O - R
║ │
O OH
10. Benzene reacts with Cl2 in the presence of FeCl3 and in absence of sunlight to form
a) Chlorobenzene b) Benzyl chloride c) Benzal chloride d) Benzene hexachloride
11. The name of C2F4Cl2 is ___________
a) Freon – 112 b) Freon – 113 c) Freon – 114 d) Freon – 115
12. Which of the following reagent is helpful to differentiate ethylene dichloride and ethylidene chloride?
a) Zn / methanol b) KOH / ethanol c) aqueous KOH d) ZnCl2 / Con HCl
13. Match the compounds given in Column I with suitable items given in Column II
Column I(Compound) Column II (Uses)

A Iodoform 1 Fire extinguisher

B Carbon Tetra chloride 2 Insecticide

C CFC 3 Antiseptic
D DDT 4 Refrigerants
Code
a) A → 2 B → 4 C →1 D →3 b) A → 3 B → 2 C →4 D →1
c) A → 1 B → 2 C →3 D →4 d) A → 3 B → 1 C →4 D →2
14. Assertion: In mono haloarenes, electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and para positions.
Reason: Halogen atom is a ring deactivator
(i) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) If assertion is true but reason is false. (iv) If both assertion and reason are false.
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15. Consider the reaction, CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN → CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr This reaction will be the fastest in
a) ethanol b) methanol c) DMF (N, N' – dimethyl formanide) d) water
16. Freon-12 is manufactured from tetrachloro methane by
a) Wurtz reaction b) Swarts reaction c) Haloform reaction d) Gattermann reaction
17. The most easily hydrolysed molecule under SN1 condition is
a) allyl chloride b) ethyl chloride c) ispropylchloride d) benzyl chloride
18. The carbo cation formed in SN1 reaction of al kyl halide in the slow step is
a) sp3 hybridised b) sp2 hybridised c) sp hybridised d) none of these
19. The major products obtained when chlorobenzene is nitrated with HNO3 and con H2SO4
a) 1-chloro-4-nitrobenzene b) 1-chloro-2-nitrobenzene
c) 1-chloro-3-nitrobenzene d) 1-chloro-1-nitrobenzene
20. Which one of the following is most reactive towards Nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
a) Cl b) c) Cl d)
Cl Cl
21. Ethylidene chloride on treatment with aqueous KOH gives
a) acetaldehyde b) ethylene glycol c) formaldehyde d) glycoxal
22. The raw material for Rasching process
a) chloro benzene b) phenol c) benzene d) anisole
23. Chloroform reacts with nitric acid to produce
a) nitro toluene b) nitro glycerine c) chloropicrin d) chloropicric acid
24. acetone i) CH3MgI X,X is
–1
ii) H2O / H
a) 2-propanol b) 2-methyl-2-propanol c) 1-propanol d) acetonol
25. Silverpropionate when refluxed with Bromine in carbontetrachloride gives
a) propionic acid b) chloro ethane c) bromo ethane d) chloro propane
Unit 15: Environmental Chemistry
1. The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The region lying between an altitudes
of 1-50 km is __________
a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Thermosphere d) stratosphere
2. Which of the following is natural and human disturbance in ecology?
a) Forest fire b) Floods c) Acid rain d) Green house effect
3. Bhopal Gas Tragedy is a case of _____________
a) thermal pollution b)air pollution c) nuclear pollution d) land pollution
4. Haemoglobin of the blood forms carboxy haemoglobin with
a) Carbon dioxide b) Carbon tetra chloride c) Carbon monoxide d) Carbonic acid
5. Which sequence for green house gases is based on GWP?
a) CFC > N2O > CO2> CH4 b) CFC > CO2> N2O > CH4
c) CFC > N2O > CH4> CO2 d) CFC > CH4> N2O > CO2
6. Photo chemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of
a) Ozone, SO2 and hydrocarbons b) Ozone, PAN and NO2
c) PAN, smoke and SO2 d) Hydrocarbons, SO2 and CO2
7. The pH of normal rain water is
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a) 6.5 b) 7.5 c) 5.6 d) 4.6
8. Ozone depletion will cause
a) forest fires b) eutrophication c) bio magnification d) global warming
9. Identify the wrong statement in the following
a) The clean water would have a BOD value of more than 5 ppm
b) Greenhouse effect is also called as Global warming
c) Minute solid particles in air is known as particulate pollutants
d) Biosphere is the protective blanket of gases surrounding the earth
10. Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous because it
a) Combines with O2 present inside to form CO2
b) Reduces organic matter of tissues
c) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to absorb oxygen
d) Dries up the blood
11. Release of oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons into the atmosphere by motor vehicles is prevented by
using __________
a) grit chamber b) scrubbers c) trickling filters d) catalytic convertors
12. Biochemical oxygen Demand value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be
a) highly polluted b) poor in dissolved oxygen c) rich in dissolved oxygen d) low COD
13. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I List II
A Depletion of ozone 1 CO2

B Acid rain 2 NO

C Photochemical smog 3 SO2

D Green house effect 4 CFC

Code:
A B C D
a 3 4 1 2
b 2 1 4 3
c 4 3 2 1
d 2 4 1 3
14.Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I List II
A Stone leprosy 1 CO
B Biological magnication 2 Green house gases
C Global warming 3 Acid rain
D Combination with haemoglobin DDT

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Code:
A B C D
a 1 2 3 4
b 3 4 2 1
c 2 3 4 1
d 4 2 1 3
The questions gives below consists of an assertion the reason. Choose the correct option out of the
choices given below each question
i) Both (A) and R are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
ii) Both (A) and R are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
iii) Both (A) and R are not correct iv) (A) is correct but( R) is not correct
15. Assertion (A): If BOD level of water in a reservoir is more than 5 ppm it is
highly polluted
Reason(R) : High biological oxygen demand means high activity of bacteria in water
a) I b) ii c) iii d) iv
16. Assertion (A): Excessive use of chlorinated pesticide causes soil and water pollution.
Reason (R) : Such pesticides are non-biodegradable.
a) i b) ii c) iii d) iv
17. Assertion (A): Oxygen plays a key role in the troposphere
Reason (R): Troposphere is not responsible for all biological activities
a) i b) ii c) iii d) iv

E.MUTHUSAMY MSc.(Che), MSc.(Psy), MEd., MPhil., MA(T).,MA(En)., MA(Soc)., MA(P.Ad).,BLISc.,DMLT, PGDCA

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