SEC:SR_STAR SUPERCHAINA (REV) GRAND TEST-06 Ex.

Dt: 17 – 02 – 2024
TIME: 3 HRS 20 MINUTES NEET MAX. MARKS : 720
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Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In
case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions
will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will
be considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking
responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet
only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any
stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except
in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet
 PHYSICS
(SECTION - A)
1. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List - II
A) Angular momentum I) ML2T 2 
B) Torque II) ML2T 2 
C) Stress III) ML2 T 1 
D) Pressure gradient IV) ML1T 2 
1) A - I, B – IV, C – III, D – II 2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I 4) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D - III
2. If the screw on a screw -gauge is given six rotations, it moves by 3 mm on the main scale. If there
are 50 divisions on the circular scale the least count of the screw gauge is
1) 0.001 cm 2) 0.02 mm 3) 0.01 cm 4) 0.001 mm
3. The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for which current flows
is an electrical circuit are 1 %, 2% and 3 % respectively. The maximum percentage error in the
detection of the dissipated heat will be
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
4. An automobile, travelling at 40 km/h, can be stopped at a distance of 40m by applying brakes. If
the same automobile is travelling at 80 km/h, the minimum stopping distance. (in metres) if
(assume no skidding)
1) 75 m 2) 160 m 3) 100 m 4) 150 m
5. The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when
(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism
(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence
(D) Angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are true 2) Only Statement (D) is true
3) Only statement (B) and (C) are true 4) Statement (C) only true
6. An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclei which move away with velocities in the
ratio of 8:27. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei (assumed to be spherical) is:
1) 8:27 2) 2:1 3) 3:2 4) 4:9
7. Statement I: A truck and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying
brakes which provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distance.
Statement II: A car moving towards east takes a turn and moves towards north, the speed remains
unchanged. The acceleration of the car is zero.
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3) Both statements are incorrect
4) Both statements are correct

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8. The variation of angular position θ of a point on a rotating rigid body with time ‘t’ is shown in
figure.
In which direction, the body is rotating?

1) Clock wise 2) Anti – clock wise

3) May be clockwise or anti-clockwise 4) Body is at rest
9. A projectile is fired at an angle and it was following a parabolic path. Suddenly, it explodes into
fragments. Choose the correct statement regarding this situation.

1) Due to explosion centre of mass shifts upwards

2) Due to explosion centre of mass shifts downwards
3) Due to explosion centre of mass traces its path back to origin
4) Centre of mass continues to move along same parabolic path
10. Identify the logic operation performed by the given circuit

1) AND gate 2) OR gate 3) NOR gate 4) NAND gate

11. A mass attached to a spring is free to oscillate, with angular velocity ω , in a horizontal plane
without friction or damping. It is pulled to a distance x0 and pushed towards the centre with a
velocity v0 at time t = 0. The amplitude of the resulting oscillations in terms of the parameters ω ,
x0 and v0 . [ x = Acos(ωt + θ) ]
2 2
  v2 2 x 
1) A  x0   0  2) A  02  x02 3) A  x02  02 4) A  v02   0 
     
12. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to the that of the earth. An
object weighing W on earth will weigh on the planet
1) 22/3 W 2) W 3) 21/3 W 4) 2 W
13. Assertion (A): When you squeeze one end of a tube to get toothpaste out from the other end,
Pascal’s principle is observed
Reason (R): A change in the pressure applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted
undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of its container.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
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 1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
14. If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the
Young’s modules of the material of the wire will
1) Remains same 2) Become 8 times its initial value
3) Become 1/4th of its initial value 4) Become 4 times of initial value
15. The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the figure. Between upper fixed
point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on scale Q.
The relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by

tQ t p  180 tQ t p  30
1)  2) 
150 100 100 150
tp t Q  40 tp tQ  180
3)  4) 
180 100 100 150
16. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as
shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 00C and
900C, respectively. The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

1) 450C 2) 900C 3) 300C 4) 600C

17. The band gap in Germanium and Silicon in eV respectively are
1) 0.7, 1.1 2) 1.1, 0.7 3) 1.1, 0 4) 0, 1.1
18. A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB. When path ACB is
used 60 J of heat flows into the system and 30 J of work is done by the system. If path ADB is used
work done by the system is 10 J. The heat flow into the system in path ADB is

1) 80 J 2) 20 J 3) 100 J 4) 40 J

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19. The average kinetic energy of a monoatomic molecule is 0.414 eV at temperature
(Use KB = 1.38×1023 J / K )
1) 3000 K 2) 3200 K 3) 1600 K 4) 1500 K
20. One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other to a small peg
on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v, the net force on the
particle directed towards the centre is (where, T is the tension in the string)
mv 2 mv 2
1) T 2) T  3) T  4) 0
l l
21. A particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘v’ collides with a stationary particle of mass ‘2m’.
After collision, they stick together and continue to move together with velocity
v v v
1) v 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
22. An average force of 125 N is applied on a machine gun firing bullets each of mass 10 grams at the
speed of 250 m / s to keep it in position. The number of bullets fired per second by the machine
gun is
1) 5 2) 50 3) 100 4) 25
23. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius
1) Decreases
2) Increases
3) Remains unchanged
4) Nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient
24. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1 gram of water by 10C
and it is defined under, which of the following conditions?
1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg 2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg
3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg 4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg
25. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that plane of coil is perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be changed.
A) By changing the magnitude of the magnetic field within the coil.
B) By changing the area of coil within the magnetic field
C) By changing the angle between the direction of magnetic field and the plane of the coil.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) A and C only 2) A only 3) A and B only 4) A, B and C only
26. The correct match between the entries in Column I and Column II are:
Column – I Column - II
q
A) Gauss’s law of magnetostatics I)  E. ds 
0
B) Faraday’s law of electro magnetic induction II)  B. ds  0
d B
C) Ampere’s law III)  E. dl   dt
D) Gauss’s law of electrostatics IV)  B . dl   I 0

1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II 2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I 4) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D - I
27. Statement I: For Diamagnetic substances  1  x  0 , where x is the magnetic susceptibility.
Statement II: Diamagnetic substances when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move
from stronger to weaker part of the field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
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28. A charge of 4 C is to be divided into two. The distance between the two divided charges is
constant. The magnitude of the divided charges so that the force between them is maximum, will
be
1) 1 C and 3 C 2) 2  C and 2  C
3) 0 and 4 C 4) 1.5 C and 2.5 C
29. Two particles X and Y having equal charges are being accelerated through the same potential
difference. Thereafter they enter normally in a region of uniform magnetic field and describes
circular paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The mass ratio of X and Y is
2 2
R  R  R  R 
1)  2  2)  1  3)  1  4)  2 
 R1   R2   R2   R1 
30. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of current carrying circular coil to its magnet moment is
x. If the current and radius of each of them are made three times, the new ratio become
1) 3x 2) 9x 3) x / 9 4) x / 27
31. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a distance ‘d’ carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same
direction. The force per unit length between the two conductors is
1)  0 i / (2 d ) 2)  0 i 2 / (2 d 2 ) 3)  0 i 2 / (2 d ) 4)  0 i / ( d )
32. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt and 100 watt power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt
is
1) 50 watt 2) 75 watt 3) 90 watt 4) 25 watt
33. The same size images are formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 20 cm or at 10 cm
before the lens. The focal length of convex lens is ______ cm
1) 12 cm 2) 15 cm 3) 8 cm 4) 5 cm
34. The resistivity ( ρ ) of semiconductor varies with temperature(T). Which of the following curve
represents the correct behaviour

1) 2)

3) 4)

35. A capacitor of capacitance 50 pF is charged by 100 V of source. It is then connected to another

uncharged identical capacitor. Electrostatic energy loss in the process ____ in nano joule
1) 12.5 2) 125 3) 250 4) 1.25

(SECTION - B)
36. A metallic shell has a point charge ‘q’ kept inside its cavity. Which one of the following diagrams
correctly represents the electric lines of forces

1) 2) 3) 4)

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37. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 in vacuum combine under isothermal conditions. The
resulting bubble has a radius equal to
rr r r
1) 1 2 2) r1r2 3) r12  r22 4) 1 2
r1  r2 2
38. If n represents the actual number of deflection in a converted galvanometer of resistance G and
shunt resistance S. Then the total current I when its figure of merit is K will be:
KS (G  S ) nKS nK (G  S )
1) 2) 3) 4)
(S  G ) nKS (G  S ) S
39. Light travels in two media M 1 and M2 with speeds 1.5 108 ms 1 and 2.0 108 ms 1 respectively. The
critical angle between them is:
1  3  2 3 2
1) tan   2) tan 1   3) cos 1   4) sin 1  
 7 3 4 3
40. Assertion (A): Work done by electric field in moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface
is always zero.
Reason (R): Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
41. Resistance of the wire is measured as 2 and 3 at 100 C and 300 C respectively. Temperature
coefficient of resistance of the material of the wire is
1) 0.0330 C 1 2) 0.0330 C 1 3) 0.0110 C 1 4) 0.0550 C 1
42. A plane glass slab is kept over various coloured letters, the letter which appears least raised is
1) Blue 2) Violet 3) Green 4) Red
43. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between
the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are (normal adjustment)
1) 10 cm, 10 cm 2) 15 cm, 5 cm 3) 18 cm, 2cm 4) 11 cm, 9 cm
44. In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide
as the other. Then in the interference pattern
1) The intensity of both the maxima and the minima increase
2) The intensity of maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity
3) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of the minima increases
4) The intensity of maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity
45. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source (V) is
connected in the circuit.

The current (I) in the resistor (R) can be shown by

1) 2)

3) 4)

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46. The orbit of a geo-stationary satellite is circular. The time period of satellite depends on
I) Mass of the satellite II) Mass of the earth
III) Radius of the orbit
IV) Height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
Which of the above statement (s) is / are correct?
1) Only I 2) Both I and II 3) I, II and III 4) II, III and IV
47. Consider two containers A and B containing identical gases at the same pressure, volume and
temperature. The gas in container A is compressed to half of its original volume isothermally while
the gas in container B is compressed to half of its original value adiabatically. The ratio of final
pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is
 1 2 2
 1 1  1   1 
1) 2 2)   3)   4)  
2  1     1 
48. An electron of hydrogen atom in an excited state is having energy En =  0.85 eV . The maximum
number of allowed transitions to lower energy level is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 8
49. A disc with a flat small bottom beaker placed on it at a distance R from its center is revolving
about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity
ω . The coefficient of static friction between the bottom of the beaker and the surface of the disc is
μ . The beaker will revolve with the disc if
g g g g
1) R  2
2) R  2 3) R  2
4) R  2
2  2 
50. The variation of stopping potential (V0 ) as a function of the frequency (v) of the incident light for
a metal is shown in figure. The work function of the metal surface is

1) 18.6 eV 2) 2.98 eV 3) 2.07 eV 4) 1.36 eV

CHEMISTRY
(SECTION - A)
51. Azimuthal quantum number of last electron of sodium (atomic number 11) is:
1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
52. Shape of XeO3 molecule is
1) Linear 2) Tetrahedral 3) Pyramidal 4) Bent T - shape
53. If an ideal gas expanded against 1 atm pressure from 10 L to 20 L at 300 K then select the correct
option among the given
1) W = 0 2) U  0 3) W = 20 L atm 4) Q = 10 L atm
54. Oxidation state of ‘K’ in KO2
1 1
1) + 1 2)  3) – 1 4) 
2 2
55. Select the functional group among the following with highest priority
1) – COOH 2) – SO3 H 3) – HC = O 4) > C = O

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56. Which of the following compounds will undergo complete inversion when solution of KOH
hydrolyses?

1) 2)

Cl
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3) (CH 3 )3 C  Br 4) CH 3  CH  C3 H 7
57. Select the pair of compounds that can be distinguished by iodoform test
1) CH 3CH 2OH and CH 3CHO 2) CH 3OH and HCHO
3) 2 – pentanone and CH 3CHO 4) CH 3CH 2CH 2OH and CH 3CH 2OH
58. Kinetic energy of an electron in first Bohr’s orbit of Li2+ ion is
1) 17 eV 2) 122.4 eV 3) 13.6 eV 4) 30.6 eV
59. In the Haber’s process of synthesis of ammonia, 28 g of N2 is mixed with 10 g of hydrogen.
Maximum number of moles of ammonia produce in the reaction is
1) 1.5 2) 3.5 3) 2 4) 0.5
60. In which of the options, order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property
indicated against it?
1) C < N < O < F : (Electro negativity)
2) C < B < Be < Li : (Atomic radius)
3) F < N < Be < Ne : (First ionisation enthalpy)
4) He < Xe < Ar < Ne : (Positive electron gain enthalpy)
61. Among the following which species is least likely to exist?
1) CCl4 2) SiCl4 3) PbO2 4) PbO
62. The compound which will react fastest by SN 1 mechanism is

1) 2) 3) 4)
63. The osmotic pressure of 0.2 M aq. Glucose solution at 270C is
1) 2.46 atm 2) 4.92 atm 3) 3.12 atm 4) 1.20 atm
64. The major product (A) of the following reaction is:

1) 2)

3) 4)

65. The correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is

1) Zn > Co > Cu > Ni 2) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
3) Zn > Cu > Ni > Co 4) Ni > Co > Zn > Cu
66. In Victor Meyer test of alcohols, which among the following will give red colour?
1)  CH 3 2 CH  OH 2) CH 3CH 2  OH

3) (CH 3 )3 C  OH 4)

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67. Consider the following reaction

Major product P is:

1) 2) 3) 4)

68. Which among the following is an intensive property?

1) Mass 2) Volume 3) Entropy 4) Pressure
69. 40 gr of CaCO3 on heating gives 2.24 lit of CO2 measured at S.T.P. Find purity of CaCO3
1) 50 % 2) 75 % 3) 25 % 4) 100 %
70. If molar solubility of Ni (OH)2 is ‘s’, then value of Ksp for Ni (OH)2 is
1) s2 2) s3 3) 4s2 4) 4s3

71.

Product C in the reaction is

1) 2) 3) 4)

'X ' 'Y '

72. Nitrobenzene   Anilene   p – bromo anilene . X and Y are
1) Br2 / CS2 & Br2 / H 2O 2) Zn  HCl & Br2 / CS2
3) NH 4OH , Br2 / H 2O 4) Zn  HCl , Br2 / H 2O
73. Zn on reaction with dilute HNO3 gives
1) NO 2) NO2 3) N2 4) N2O
74. For a multielectron atom, energy of which of the following orbital would be maximum?
1) 5d 2) 4f 3) 6p 4) 7s
75. Molecule having both polar and non-polar bonds is
1) CH 3Cl 2) N 2 H 4 3) H 2O 4) PCl3
76. Oxidation state of C in HCN is
1) + 4 2) + 2 3) – 2 4) – 4
77. Select the reagent which is used to distinguish chemically ethene and ethyne
1) Br2 in CCl4 2) Baeyer’s reagent
3) Ammonical AgNO3 4) HBr
78. Equal volumes of three solutions whose pH values 2, 4 & 5 are mixed. Find pH of resultant
solution
1) 5.3010 2) 2.3010 3) 4.6990 4) 5.5
79. Which of the following mixture can act as a buffer?
1) 2 mole CH3COOH + 1 mole NaOH 2) 1 mole CH3COOH + 2 mole NaOH
3) 2 mole NaCN + 1 mole HCl 4) Both (1) and (3)
80. Amount of charge required to reduce 1 mole of Mn3O4 to MnO42 in alkaline medium is
10 8
1) F 2) 10 F 3) F 4) 6F
3 3

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81. Which of the following can form ethane gas from ethyl magnesium bromide?

1) 2) 3) 4)

82. For the reaction, 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g) , which of the following relationship is correct at
constant temperature and pressure?
1) H  E 2) H  E 3) H  E 4) H  0
83. Highest stability for +1 oxidation state is exhibited by:
1) Al 2) Ga 3) Tl 4) ln
84. No. of alcoholic isomers exhibited by compound of molecular formulae C4H10O
1) 8 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
85. Most acidic compound among the following is
1) CF3COOH 2) NO2CH 2COOH 3) CH 3COOH 4) C6 H 5COOH

(SECTION - B)
86. Order of B.P of hydrides of VA group elements
1) PH 3  AsH 3  NH 3  SbH 3  BiH 3 2) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3  BiH 3
3) BiH 3  SbH 3  AsH 3  PH 3  NH 3 4) NH 3  BiH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3  PH 3
87. The metal having highest conductivity is
1) Copper 2) Silver 3) Sodium 4) Iron
88. Ion having largest size is
1) Al 3 2) Mg 2  3) Na  4) F 
89. Which of the following is true for an isolated system?
1) Energy and matter exchange is possible 2) Matter can be exchanged but not energy
3) Energy can be exchanged but not matter 4) Neither energy nor matter can be exchanged
CHCl 3
90. Phenol 
Alc KOH
?
1) Salicylaldehyde 2) Salicylic acid 3) Succinic acid 4) Benzaldehyde
91. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard’s reagent followed by hydrolysis give tertiary
alcohol?
1) CO2 2) HCHO 3) CH3CHO 4) CH3COCH3
92. Initial rate and rate constant of reaction
2N 2O5  2N 2O4 + O 2 are ‘3’ mole / lit-sec and 1.5 sec-1. Find initial concentration of N2O5
1) 1 M 2) 2 M 3) 3 M 4) 1.5 M
93. Which of the following pair represents functional isomers?
O
||
1) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3 and CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CHO
2) CH 3  CH 2  O  CH 2  CH 3 and CH 3  O  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
OH
||
3) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  OH and CH 3  CH  CH 3
O O
|| ||
4) CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2 and CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 2  CH 3

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94.

(x) and (y) respectively are

1)

2)

3)

4)

95. IUPAC name is:

1) 1, 5 – epoxy hex – 3 – ene 2) 2, 6 – epoxy hept – 3 – ene

3) 2 – epoxy hex – 3 – ene 4) 1 – epoxy hex – 3 – ene

96.

True statement is :
1) A is 20 Alcohol, B is 20 Amine 2) A is 20 Alcohol, B is 10 Amine
0 0
3) A is 1 Alcohol , B is 3 Amine 4) A is 10 Alcohol, B is
97. The bond angle Cl – B – Cl in BCl3 is
1) 600 2) 1090 7' 3) 120 0 4) 900
98. What is the mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase at 250C above a benzene- toluene
solution. The mole fraction of benzene in the solution phase is 0.5 (vapour pressure of pure
benzene and toluene is 96 torr and 28 torr respectively)
1) 0.318 2) 0.23 3) 0.5 4) 0.46
99. Assertion : Decomposition of H2O2 is a disproportionation reaction
Reason : H2O molecules simultaneously undergoes both oxidation and reduction
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
4) Assertion and reason both are false

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100. Assertion: Anisole on reaction with HI gives phenol and CH3I
Reason: Phenyl-oxygen bond is stronger than methyl oxygen bond in anisole and hence is not
cleaved by HI
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
4) Assertion and reason both are false
BOTANY
(SECTION - A)
101. Which one of the following statements about Nucleus is wrong?
(1) The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin
(2) As a cell organelle was first described by Robert Hooke as early as 1831
(3) Nuclear pores are the passages through which movement of RNA and protein molecules
takes place in both directions between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
(4) Erythrocytes of many mammals and sieve tube cells of vascular plants lack nucleus
102. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Cells with casparian strips (i) Medullary rays
(b) Tissue having dead lignified cells (ii) Endodermis of root
(c) Tissue present between vascular (iii) Epidermis
bundles of dicot stem
(d) Cells of tissue covered by cuticle (iv) Xylem
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
103. During isolation of the Genetic Material, DNA that separates out can be removed by
1) heating 2) spooling 3) cutting 4) destroying
104. Given below are two statements
Statement I: DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides and amino acids
Statement II: In some viruses the flow of information is in reverse direction, that is,
from RNA to DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
105. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one flower to stigma of
another flower of same plant is:
1) Xenogamy 2) Geitonogamy 3) Chasmogamy 4) Cleistogamy
106. In which of the following stages of meiosis synaptonemal complex is formed?
1) Metaphase I 2) Prophase II 3) Anaphase II 4) Prophase I
107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in transcription?
1) Initiation, elongation, termination 2) Elongation, termination, initiation
3) Extension, initiation, termination 4) Initiation, termination, elongation
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108. Non- motile male and female gametes are unexceptionally present in:
1) green algae 2) pteridophytes 3) angiosperms 4) liverworts
109. Emasculation refers to:
1) removal of anthers from male parent
2) removal of anthers from female parent
3) removal of all essential organs of a flower
4) covering the male flower with a polythene sheet to prevent loss of pollen
110. Following are the statements with reference to ‘amino acids’.
(a) lysine is an acidic amino acid
(b) in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids changes
(c) The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially of the amino,
carboxyl and the R functional groups
(d) glycine has 20 carbon atoms
(e) Alanine amino acid has 16 carbon atoms
Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (b) and (e) only
111. Sporophytes of genera like Pinus and Hibiscus produce two kinds of spores.
Gametophytes of such plants are known as:
1) autotrophic 2) decomposers 3) monoecious 4) dioecious
112. Plasticity is not found in
1) leaf of cotton 2) leaf of coriander
3) zygote of angiosperms 4) vegetative organs of plants
113. Which of the following are not primary metabolites in plants?
1) glucose, fructose 2) amino acids, cellulose
3) Vinblastin, curcumin 4) nucleic acids and rubber
114. Complete the flow chart on lac operon.
(a) (b)
Z structural gene  mRNA  (c)
1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c) -Permease
2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;(c)-Transcription
3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Translation; (c)-transacetylase
4) (a)-Transcription; (b)-Translation; (c) β- galactosidase
115. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Plants can get along without respiratory organs
Reason (R): Plants do not present great demands for gas exchange
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
116. In Polymerase Chain Reaction, multiple copies of the gene of interest (DNA) is
synthesised in vitro using
(1) two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase
(2) two sets of primers and the enzyme RNA polymerase
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 (3) helicase enzyme and plasmid
(4) host and plasmid
117. In most higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the lateral buds, a
phenomenon called apical dominance, due to
(1) ethylene (2) ABA (3) GAs (4) auxins
118. Which stage of meiosis shows replication of DNA as its distinctive feature?
(1) S phase (2) Zygotene (3) Diakinesis (4) G2 phase
119. Which of the following plants is thalloid?
1) Carica papaya 2) Eucalyptus amygdalina
3) Marchantia polymorpha 4) Cycas circinalis
120. The organelles/structures of eukaryotic cell that have DNA are :
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Ribosomes
(2) Nucleus, Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(4) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and Lysosomes
121. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Collagen (i) Primary constriction in chromosome
(b) Photosynthetic pigments (ii) 80S ribosomes
(c) kinetochore (iii) Heteropolymer of amino acids
(d) Rough ER (iv) Lipid soluble and attached to proteins
of thylakoid membranes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
122. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without
overlapping, the aestivation is said to be
1) twisted 2) vexillary 3) valvate 4) imbricate
123. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) any part of a plant taken (i) Totipotency
out and grown in a test tube
(b) The capacity to generate a whole plant from (ii) explants
any cell/explant
(c) somatic hybridisation (iii) Somaclones
(d) Micropropagation (iv) pomato
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
124. Identify the incorrect pair.
(1) Glycerol - trihydroxy propane (2) Adenosine - Nucleoside
(3) Pentose sugar – Biomicromolecule (4) Gingelly oil – higher melting point
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125. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
1) The cells of the endodermis of monocot stem are rich in starch grains and the layer is
also referred to as the starch sheath
2) The monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis
3) Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells – both eukaryotic as
well as prokaryotic
4) A special membranous structure is the mesosome which is formed by the extensions of
plasma membrane into the cell is found in bacteria
126. A typical female gametophyte of gymnosperms is:
1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled 2) multicellular
3) uninucleated 4) motile and independent
127. The chief reserve food material in pyrenoids is
1) starch 2) lipid 3) protein 4) cellulose
128. The plant hormone that hasten ripening of fruits is
1) IAA 2) NAA 3) ethylene 4) IBA
129. Which of the following is not an objective and product of bacterial application?
(1) dough of dosa and idli (2) curd
(3) swiss cheese (4) roquefort cheese
130. Antibiotics can be produced by :
1) fungi and viruses 2) bacteria and prions
3) fungi and bacteria 4) all plants and animals
131. The chromosomes undergo division during:
(1) S-phase (2) Prophase (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
132. During the process of genetic engineering using cloning vectors that have an ori, if an
antibiotic resistance is not available, then which of the following steps of gene
manipulation will be affected?
(1) selection of transformed host cells (2) collection of restriction enzymes
(3) isolation of recombinant protein (4) ligation of gene with cloning vectors
133. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts
at specific positions within the DNA is Palindromic Nucleotide sequence
Reason (R): DNA dependent RNA polymerase is an enzyme that can catalyse Initiation,
Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
134. When the centromere is situated slightly away from the middle of the Chromosome, the
chromosome is referred as :
1) Metacentric 2) Telocentric 3) Sub-metacentric 4) Acrocentric

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135. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I (organism) List – II (order)
(a) Homo sapiens (i) diptera
(b) Musca domestica (ii) poales
(c) Mangifera indica (iii) Primata
(d) Triticum aestivum (iv) sapindales
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(SECTION - B)
136. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is called glycolysis
2) The enzymes, pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyse the
reactions of lactic acid fermentation
3) Aerobic respiration is most common in higher organisms
4) pyruvic dehydrogenase is located in mitochondrial matrix
137. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and
rich in nectar.
Reason (R): Never, pollen of the wrong type, either from other species or from the
same plant (if it is self-incompatible), land on the stigma.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
138. Identify the correct statement.
1) In all members of Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain
viability for months
2) The number of ovules in an ovary may be one to many
3) A typical angiosperm anther is bi to tetrasporangiate
4) In the lower plant groups such as algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes the pollen grains
to stigma are carried by water
139. Find incorrect statement from the following
1) Genetic modification has enhanced nutritional value of food
2) Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide
resistance to insects without the need for insecticides
3) Genetic modification has increased mineral usage by plants
4) GM has been used to create tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources to industries,
in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.

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140. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Seed (i) crucial for storage of seeds
(b) Dehydration and dormancy of (ii) excavated from Arctic Tundra
mature seeds
(c) Lupinus arcticus (iii) King Herod’s palace near the Dead Sea
(d) Phoenix dactylifera (iv) the basis of our agriculture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
141. The onion plant has 16 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the
number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 16, what would be the number of chromosomes
after S phase?
(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 32
142. Production of seeds without fertilisation is
(1) amphimixis (2) syngamy (3) triple fusion (4) apomixis
143. Study the given figure and choose the correct answer

It is a
1) punnet square showing Mendel’s monohybrid cross
2) diagrammatic representation of a monohybrid test cross
3) model that supports chromosomal theory of inheritance
4) diagrammatic representation of a dihybrid test cross
144. Consider the following statements
a) Monerans are prokaryotes with cellulosic cell wall
b) All heterotrophic organisms are included in the kingdom fungi
c) Plantae is only the kingdom with autotrophic organisms
d) The three-domain system has been proposed that divides the Kingdom Monera into two
domains, leaving the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms in the third domain and thereby a
six-kingdom classification
Choose the correct answer
1) b and c are correct 2) d is incorrect
3) a and d are incorrect 4) a, b and c are incorrect

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145. Choose the incorrect match from the following with respect to the colour of the
photosynthetic pigments
(1) Chlorophyll a - bright blue
(2) chlorophyll b - yellow green
(3) xanthophylls - yellow
(4) carotenoids - yellow to yellow-orange
146. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) The products of light reaction are ATP, NADPH and O2
(2) The biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis does not directly depend on the presence of light
but is dependent on the products of the light reaction
(3) Immediately after light becomes unavailable, the biosynthetic process stops.
(4) O2 diffuses out of the chloroplast while ATP and NADPH are used to drive the processes
leading to the synthesis of food
147. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(1) Amoeboid protozoans – Entamoeba
(2) Flagellated protozoans - Trypanosoma
(3) Ciliated protozoans – Euglena
(4) Sporozoans - Plasmodium
148. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
(a) Viruses (i) Phosphodiester bonds
(b) Viroids (ii) Peptide bonds
(c) Prions (iii) Cellular organisms
(d) Lichens (iv) Peptide bonds and phosphodiester bonds
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
149. Which of the following enzymes is not required for the expression of lac genes in
prokaryotes?
(1) 23S rRNA (2) 28S rRNA (3) ribozyme (4) accessory proteins
150. Solanum nigrum is commonly known as
1) makoi plant 2) ashwagandha
3) tulasi plant 4) brinjal

ZOOLOGY
(SECTION - A)
151. Statement(s): Anamnestic response is specific and highly intensified immune response.
Reason (R): Humoral immune response is acquired immune response – antibody mediated.
(1) S and R are Correct; R explains S (2) S and R are Correct; R does not explain S
(3) S is correct; R is incorrect (4) Both S and R are incorrect

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152. Choose the correct combination from the following

Animal Feature - I Feature -II

(1) Pleurobrachia Bioluminescence Locomotion by Flagellated Comb plates

(2) Petromyzon Placoid Scales Branchial Respiration
(3) Pterophyllum Operculum on each side Air bladder regulates buoyancy
(4) Psittacula Pneumatic bones Incomplete double circulation

153. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called upon
(1) To reduce Climate moderation and promote use of pest control methods
(2) For conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
(3) To assess threat posed to alien species by invasive native species
(4) To take immediate steps to discontinue use of in-situ conservation methods
154. The conditions which favour the given graph to shift to right are:-

(1) high pO2 and low temperature

(2) low pCO2 and low H+ concentration
(3) high pCO2 and higher temperature
(4) high pO2 and low pCO2

155. The correct option w.r.t CNS of Frog is

(1) Medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum as spinal cord
(2) 10 pairs of cranial nerves originate from cranium
(3) Diencephalon is an unpaired part of mid brain
(4) All the above
156. Fill up the blanks: (Human Endoskeleton)
‘Each _______ is formed by the fusion of three bones – ilium, ischium and pubis. At the point of
fusion of the above bones is a cavity called ______ to which the thigh bone articulates.’
(1) Coxal bone; Glenoid cavity (2) Coccyx; Infundibulum
(3) Coracoid bone; Osculum (4) Coxal bone; Acetabulum
157. Study the given information about renal vein and blood it transports
(A) Valvular and thin tunica media (B) Partial pressure of oxygen is 45 mm of Hg
(C) It joins with Dorsal aorta (D) Plasma rich in bicarbonate ions
Which of the above statements are true
(1) (C) and (D) (2) (A) and (B) (3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and (D)
158. What is the probability of an off spring to be affected by erythroblastosis foetalis born to the
parents heterozygous for Rh factor?
(1) 75% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) 0%

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159. Select the incorrect pair from the following
(1) Zoological Park, Safari Park – Ex- situ conservation method
(2) IUI and GIFT - In-vitro fertilisation
(3) Biodiversity hot spots, Biosphere reserves – In - situ conservation method
(4) ICSI and ZIFT – Ex -vivo fertilisation
160. Read the given statements related to a cardiac cycle and spot the right option
Statement I (SI): Action potential generated from SAN cannot reach ventricles directly from
atria
Statement II (SII): AV valves are already open even before SAN generates action potential.
(1) SI and SII are incorrect (2) SI and SII are correct
(3) SI is incorrect and SII is correct (4) SI is correct and SII is incorrect
161. All the following exemplify adaptive divergence except
(1) Vertebrate hearts or brains (2) Banded ant eater and sugar glider
(3) Sweet potato and Potato (4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
162. In a Human body, calcium is not required for
(1) Muscle Contraction (2) Blood clotting
(3) Hormonal action (4) Repolarization
163. Match the following. (Human physiology)
List –I List –II
(A) Lactic acid i Being least toxic, it is removed with a minimum loss of water
(B) Amino acid ii Gastrin acts and stimulates its secretion from gastric glands
(C) Uric acid iii Formed when oxygen depletes in Skeletal muscles
(D) Hydrochloric acid iv Uptake by cells inhibited by Cortisol
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
164. If the frequency of dominant allele is 0.4 then find out frequency of homozygous genotype in a
random mating population in hardy Weinberg equilibrium
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.36 (3) 0.52 (4) 0.48
165. Find out the correct statement(s)
(1) Kidneys do play any significant role in ammonia removal in bony fishes.
(2) Human kidneys can produce hypertonic urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate.
(3) Urea is secreted into collecting duct after reabsorbing from thin segment of Ascending limb
(4) All the above
166. Assertion: (A): Red muscle fibres are called aerobic muscles.
Reason: (R): Red muscles contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of
oxygen stored in them for ATP production.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true; (R) is false
167. Find the correct set from the following
(1) Synovial joints: Saddle joints and Sutures
(2) Bacterial Diseases: Tuberculosis and Genital warts
(3) Auto immune disorders: Myasthenia gravis and Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Viral Diseases: Genital Herpes, Syphilis and chikungunya
168. The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk which contains
(1) alpha-lactalbumin (2) alpha-l-antitrypsin
(3) alpha-chain of Hb (4) alpha-interferons

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 169. How do you symbolise the interaction between Flamingo and zooplankton in South American
shallow water lake?
(1) ‘+’ ‘+‘ (2) ‘—’ ‘—‘ (3) ‘0’ ‘—‘ (4) ‘+’ ‘—‘
170. The fact that sparrows with average-sized wings survive severe storms better than those with
longer or shorter wings illustrates Natural selection in which more individuals acquire
(1) Value other than the mean character value
(2) Mean character value
(3) Peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve
(4) More than one option
171. ‘Acrosome’ is found exclusively in
(1) Appendicular skeleton (2) Pectoral girdle
(3) Male gametes (4) More than one option
172. From the given combinations spot the incorrect
Ecological pyramids Structure
(1) Pyramid of Biomass in sea Inverted
(2) Pyramid of Energy on land Always upright
(3) Pyramid of number in Grass land ecosystem Inverted
(4) Pyramid of energy, number and biomass in most ecosystems Upright

173. Which one of the following is not the function of glucocorticoids?

(1) Maintaining the cardio-vascular system
(2) Stimulate blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate
(3) Suppresses anti - inflammatory reactions
(4) Stimulate erythropoiesis and Lipolysis
174. The given diagram of human developmental stage as well as its attribute from the given options
is

(1) Blastocyst – Implanted into myometrium of Womb

(2) Morula – With outer trophoblast and inner cell mass
(3) Blastocyst – Implanted into endometrium of Uterus
(4) Gastrula – with outer zona glomerulosa and inner trophoblast
175. Match the following. (Human physiology)
List –I - biocatalyst List –II -
(A) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase i s RNA Converted into ds DNA in macrophages
(B) Adenosine deaminase ii Catalyses phenyl alanine to tyrosine
(C) Restriction endonucleases iii Genetically engineered lymphocytes produce them
(D) Reverse transcriptase iv Digestion of DNA ( DNA finger printing)
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
176. Statement I (S I): Electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical synapse.
Statement II (S II): Chemical synapse includes pre and post synaptic membranes separated by
synovial fluid
(1) SI and SII are Incorrect (2) SI is incorrect; SII is correct
(3) SI and SII are correct (4) SII is incorrect; SI is correct

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177. Observe the following pedigree chart, and identify the correct option

(1) X-linked dominant (2) Autosomal dominant

(3) Autosomal recessive (4) X-linked recessive
178. The terminal method of family planning in humans who are heterogametic is
(1) Lactational amenorrhea (2) Tubectomy
(3) OCP’s and Implants (4) Vasectomy
179. The plant from which given molecule is obtained is

(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Nicotiana tobacum

(3) Cannabis sativa (4) Rauwolfia vomitoria
180. Predict the results when inactivated vaccine is introduced into the human body
(1) Memory of the immune system deactivated
(2) Antibodies are produced against self-antigens
(3) Weakened pathogen neutralizes the antibodies
(4) Generate memory – B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen
181. A colour blind man with AB blood group marries a normal visioned woman with O blood group
(her father is colour blind) then what would be the probability of colour blind sons with A blood
group among the progeny?
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/2
182. The genome of the pathogen based on the given symptoms is
(A) Fever, diarrhoea and weight loss (B) Progressive decrease in TH cells
(C) Patient suffers from infections caused by fungi, bacteria etc.
(1) ds RNA (2) ds DNA (3) ss DNA (4) ss RNA
183. Which set of hormones are required for parturition?
(1) ANF, cortisol and Oxytocin (2) estrogen, cortisol and Oxytocin
(3) estrogen, ADH and Oxytocin (4) progestrogen, PRL and thymosins
184. Match the following.

(A) Primary immune response i Depends on plants and their photosynthetic capacity
(B) Primary carnivore ii Bone marrow and thymus
(C) Primary lymphoid organs iii Trophic level III , feed on herbivores
(D) Primary productivity iv Body encounters a pathogen for the first time
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
185. Select the combination which give opposite results
(1) RAAS and ANF (2) Anti heparin and Anti- coagulant
(3) Genetic equilibrium and Mutations (4) All the above
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 (SECTION - B)
186. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(A) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem
(B) In Thalassemia incorrectly functioning globin is synthesised
(1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct
187. Spot the Enzyme catalysed intracellular biochemical reaction when blood is passing through
pulmonary capillaries.
(1) Co2  H 2 o  H 2Co3 (2) H   HCo3   H 2 Co3
(3) Hb  4o2  Hb(o2 )4 (4) H 2 Co3  H   HCo3 
188. Which of the given term is correctly explained
(1) Osteoporosis: Decreased levels of oxytocin is a common cause.
(2) Amniocentesis: is used to test for the presence of certain nutritional disorders
(3) Diabetes insipidus: diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water leading to dehydration
(4) Turner’s syndrome: Tall sterile male with 44 autosomes
189. What is common to PCT and DCT of nephron?
(1) both are in renal cortex (2) Tubular secretion of H+ and NH3 occur in both
(3) both are lined by simple epithelium (4) all the above
190. In a cardiac cycle, duration is minimum for
(1) Joint diastole (2) atrial systole (3) Ventricular systole (4) atrial diastole
191. The correct sequence which justifies more biodiversity in tropics.
(1) Not subjected to frequent glaciations → Undisturbed for millions of years→ Long evolutionary
time
(2) More seasonal → Constant environment → Less evolutionary time
(3) More solar energy → less productivity → Greater speciation
(4) Subjected to frequent glaciations → Undisturbed for millions of years→ Long evolutionary time
192. Spot the incorrect pair.
(1) Sella turcica Skeletal system
(2) Dopamine Hallucinations
(3) Human Liver fluke Two hosts in life cycle
(4) Darwins finches Granivore and predator
193. In DNA fingerprinting hybridised DNA fragments are detected by
(1) Autoradiography (2) Radiography
(3) Electrocardiography (4) Computed tomography
194. Decomposition is inhibited in an ecosystem when
(1) Detritus is rich in nitrogen (2) Conditions are aerobic
(3) Moisture and temperature are low (4) more than one option
195. The cell(s) found in intertubular spaces of seminiferous tubules are
(1) Immunologically competent cells and Leydig cells
(2) Interstitial cells and JG cells
(3) Follicular cells and Mast cells
(4) Granulosa cells and Glial cells
196. A contraceptive pill that inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will:
(1) Increase the production of oestrogen and progesterone by ovaries
(2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to accelerate sperm entry
(3) Stimulate secretion of LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary
(4) Inhibit ovulation and implantation

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197. Arrange the following species of different trophic levels in a descending order based on their
biomass in a lake
(A) Tertiary Consumer (B) Secondary Consumer
(C) Primary Consumer (D) Producer
(1) A – B – C - D (2) D – C – B - A (3) B –C –D -A (4) A – B – D - C
198. The set of placental mammals which exhibit adaptive divergence in Australia are
(1) Tasmanian tiger cat, spotted cuscus and Flying Phalanger
(2) Lemur, Bobcat and Flying Squirrel
(3) Flying Phalanger, Tasmanian wolf and Marsupial mole
(4) Flying Squirrel, Tasmanian wolf and Bobcat
199. Choose the incorrect combination:
Column A Column B
(1) Mac Arthur Resource partitioning
(2) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck Acquired characters are inherited
(3) William Harvey Theory of Blood circulation
(4) David Tilman Rivet popper hypothesis
200. A person is injured and is likely to develop tetanus then he is administered
(1) Inactivated whole agent vaccine (2) Recombinant vector vaccine
(3) Preformed antibodies (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics

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