DEPARTMENT OF SCHOOL EDUCATION

PUDUCHERRY
CBSE BIOLOGY NOTES – 2024-2025

MARKS WEIGHTAGE FOR SESSION 2022-23

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 CLASS XII
BIOLOGY (044)
Time: 03 Hours Max. Marks: 70
Unit Title Marks

Unit-VI Reproduction 16

Chapter1: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering

Plants Chapter-2: Human Reproduction
Chapter 3: Reproductive Health

Unit-VII Genetics and Evolution 20

Chapter-4: Principles of Inheritance and

Variation Chapter-5: Molecular Basis of
Inheritance
Chapter-6: Evolution
Unit-VIII Biology in Human Welfare 12

Chapter-7: Human Health and

Disease Chapter-8: Microbes in
Human Welfare
Unit-IX Biotechnology 12

Chapter-8 Biotechnology : Principles and

Processes Chapter-9: Biotechnology and its
Applications
Unit-X Ecology 10

Chapter-10: Organisms and

Populations Chapter-11: Ecosystem
Chapter-12: Biodiversity and
Conservation Chapter-13:
Environmental Issues

Total marks 70

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Chapter 1 : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Flower Reproductive part of plant
Stamen Pollen-producing reproductive organ of a flower.
Dithecous Two theca in each lobe in anther
Pollen sac The microsporangium in which pollen is produced
Tapetum Innermost layer of microsporangium nourishes the developing pollen grains.
Sporogenous Compactly arranged homogenous cells in the center of microsporangia, undergo
tissue meiosis
(Microsporogenesis) to form tetrads of microspores
Microspore Male gamete/ pollen grain
Sporopollenin Present in outermost layer of pollen grain, highly resistant protein
Germ pore Apertures in pollen grain, facilitate exchange of gases and water, help in emerging
of pollen tube
Autogamy When pollination occur in between same flower of same plants
Egg apparatus Consists of synergids and filliform apparatus, help in entry of pollen tube into
embryo sac
Synergid Present in embryo sac, two in number
Filliform Present in synergids , guider pollen tube entry into embryo sac
apparatus
Megaspore Four megaspore are formed after meiotic division MMC
Monosporic Out of four megaspore develops into embryo sac
Development
Geitnogamy Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the
same Plant
Xenogamy Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant
Triple fusion Male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form triploid endosperm
Embryogeny Formation of embryo
Cotyledons the embryonic leaf in seed-bearing plants
Scutellum Cotyledons of monocotyledon plants
Dormancy State of inactiveness
Parthenocarpy Development of fruit without fertilization ex- banana , orange
Polyembryony Occurrence of more than one embryo in seed Ex- lemon
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1. How many thecas are present in bilobed anther?
Ans: four
2. In a bilobed anther one locule contains 100 pollen mother cells. Calculate the
amount of pollen tetrad that plant will form.
Ans: 100 x 4 = 400
3. Compare the role of Tapetum and Sporogenous tissues in male flower.
Ans: Tapetum: provide nourishment to developing pollen Sporogenous tissue: divide to form
pollen grains.
4. Exine is not in continuous fashion. Write its advantage.
Ans: Form germ pore. Germ pore is site for gaseous exchange and pollen tube emergence
5. How many male gametes are present in 3- celled stage pollen grains?

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 6. Ans: 2
7. Mention one method by which pollen grains can be preserved.
Ans: cryopreservation
8. What is Monosporic development of embryo sac?
Ans: only one megaspore is functional and develops into the female gametophyte
or the embryo sac
9. Embryo sacs are 7 celled and 8 nucleate. Explain.
Ans: Cells – 3 antipodal + 2 synergids + 1 egg cell+ 1 central cell
Nucleus: 3 antipodal + 2 synergids + 1 egg cell+ 2 Polar nuclei
10. What is role of egg apparatus?
Ans: Egg: fuses with male gamete to form zygote
Synergids: to guide the entry of pollen tube and release of male gamete
11. Give an account of the significance of double fertilization?
Ans: formation of embryo Formation of endosperm cell
Short Answer Type Questions
1- Why geitnogamy do is considered as genetically autogamy?
Ans: in thisis the transfer of pollen to stigma takes place from another flower of the same
plant.
2- Write the pollination pattern in the – Vallisnaria, Hydrilla, Zostera, water lily.
Ans: Valisnaria, Hydrilla, Zoostera- water pollination Water lily- Insect pollination or
wind pollination
3- Briefly explain the floral reward provided by yucca plant.
Ans: providing safe place to lay eggs, provide nector
4- How does self-incompatibility restrict autogamy?
Ans: Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollination. This is
done by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
5- What is advantage of emasculation and bagging ion artificial hybridization?
Ans: Emasculation is removal of anther before attaining maturity Bagging is
covering of emasculated flower by paper.
The advantage of both is that self-pollination can’t occur i.e. prevention from
inbreeding depression.
6- Write name of different layers of anther. Mention role of any one of these.
Ans: epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, and Tapetum. Tapetum provides
nourishment to developing pollen.
7- If ploidy on egg is “n”, what will be ploidy of endosperm of same plant? Why
endosperm is supposed as nutritive tissue?
Ans: ploidy of egg – haploid – n Ploidy of endosperm- Triploid- 3n
Endosperm provides nutrition to the developing embryo therefor supposed as
nutritive tissue.
8- What is the fate of floral parts after fertilization?
Ans: After fertilization the petals, stamens, style and stigma degenerates. Calyx
sometimes degenerates or remains intact in dried form. Ovary becomes fruit and ovules
become seeds. Ovary wall becomes pericarp of the fruit.
9- Describe double fertilization in flowering plants. Also mention the products of
double fertilization.
Ans: Syngamy: One male gamete fuses with egg to form zygote which later develops into
embryo.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 Triple fusion: other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form triploid endosperm.
10- Differentiate between parthenocarpy and parthenogenesis. Give one example of each?
Answer: Parthenocarpy- Development of fruit without fertilization
Parthenogenesis- development of new individual without fertilization. E.g. Turkey birds,
few lizards

Long Answer Types Questions

1- Compare adaptation in flowers showing different pollination pattern.
Ans:Wind pollination - The flowers are small, inconspicuous, colourless, odourless and
nectarless, Pollen grains are light, small, powdery and produced in large numbers, The stigmas
are large, sometimes feathery and branched adapted to catch the pollens.
Insect pollination- The flowers are showy, brightly coloured and scented, The
flowers produce nectar or edible pollen Water pollination: Flowers are light,
small and inconspicuous; Pollen grains are light, protected by mucilage
covering, Stigma long and sticky.
2- Give importance of out breeding devices. How can be it achieved?
Ans: Outbreeding devices refers to plants’ processes or mechanisms to avoid self-
pollination and encourage cross pollination.
It can be achieved by
i-Unisexual flower- in this only cross-pollination is possible.
Non-Synchronization in release of pollen and stigma receptivity and vice versa.
Position of anther and stigma- anther and stigma are placed at different positions so
that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower
Self-incompatibility: This is a genetic mechanism and prevents self-pollen from fertilizing the
ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
3- Does apomixis require fertilization and pollination? Write any two ways
by which apomictic seeds may be developed in angiosperms?
Ans: No,the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude into the em diploid
egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops intothe embryo without fertilization
embryo sac and develop into the embryos
4- With a neat labeled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule?

Explain the development of embryo in a dicotyledonous plant with neatly labeled diagrams.
Ans:The embryo develops at the micropylar end where the zygote is located.
The zygote starts developing only after certain amount of endosperm is formed to assure

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
nutrition to the embryo.The zygote divides mitotically to form various stages including pro-
embryo, globular, heart shaped and finally the mature embryo.

CHAPTER – 2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

Key Words
Scrotum It is pouch like structure outside the abdominal cavity in which the testes is situated.
It helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5o C lower than the
normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
Somniferous In each testicular lobule 1- 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms are
tubule produced.
Male germ cell Present in seminiferous tubule. These undergo meiotic division to form sperms.
Sertoli cells Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the male germ cells.
Leydig cell Present in interstitial space (regions outside the seminiferous tubules). It secrete
testicular hormones called androgens
Urethral meatus It is external opening of penis.
Seminal plasma Secretion of the male accessory glands (seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral
gland) constitute the seminal plasma.
Male accessory Paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral glands
glands
Endometrium Inner lining of uterine wall. Undergo cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.
Lactiferous duct Through which milk is sucked out.
Spermatogonia Immature diploid male germ cells (Spermatogonia) produce sperms by
spermatogenesis.
These are present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubule.
Spermatogenesis Formation of sperm
Acrosome Cap like structure on sperm head. it is with enzymes that help fertilization of the
ovum.
Semen The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitutes the semen.
Oogonia Gamete mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each fetal ovary which later
develops into egg.
Antrum Fluid filled cavity in Graafian follicle.
Graafian follicle Mature follicle formed during oogenesis. When it own ruptures releases the
secondary oocyte (ovum) and reaming part forms carpus luteum.
Zona pellucida Membrane on secondary oocyte, prevent polyspermy
Menstrual cycle In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29
days, and this cyclic events is called the menstrual cycle
Carpus luteum After ovulation remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform in corpus luteum. It
secretes progesterone hormone, which is essential for maintenance of the

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 endometrium.

Polar body It is a small haploid cell that is formed during oogenesis. It doesn’t have the ability to
be fertilized.
Cleavage The mitotic division in zygote is called cleavage.
Trophoblast Outer layer of blastocyst get attached to endometrium to form chorionic villi and
placenta.
Implantation Blastocyst embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation.
Placenta The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and
jointly form a structural and functional unit called placenta
Chorionic villi After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic
villi which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
Stem cell Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give
rise to all the tissues and organs.
IMPORTANT DIFFERENCES
SPERMATOGENESIS AND OOGENESIS
SPERMATOGENESIS OOGENESIS
Formation of spermatozoa Formation of ovum
PRIMARY OOCYTE AND SECONDARY OOCYTE
PRIMARY OOCYTE SECONDARY OOCYTE
Oogonia that divide enter into Meiotic Formed from the primary oocyte after meiosis I (
prophase-I and arrest at that stage are called haploid)
primary oocytes (Diploid)
MENARCH AND MENOPAUSE
MENARCH MENOPAUSE
Start of menstrual cycle menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age;
that is termed as menopause
BLASTOMERE AND BLASTOCYST
BLASTOMERE BLASTOCYST
After cleavage zygote divides in to 2, 4,8,16 Blastomere form Morula and Morula develops into
celled stage. These cells are called blastocyst. It consists of an outer cell layer called
Blastomere. the Trophoblast and the inner cell mass
PARTURITION AND LACTATION
PARTURITION LACTATION
Process of child birth The mammary glands start producing milk towards
the end of pregnancy by the process of lactation.
OXYTOCIN AND RELAXIN
OXYTOCIN RELAXIN
Help in strong uterine contraction during child it relaxes the ligaments in the pelvis and softens
birth. and widens the cervix and thus help in parturition.
TROPHOBLAST AND INNER CELLMASS
TROPHOBLAST INNER CELLMASS
Outer layer of blastocyst which get attached Inner cell mass gets differentiated as the embryo
with endometrium.

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- What is the significance of LH surge through the menstrual cycle?
Ans: Luteinizing hormone causes ovulation by rupture of Graafian follicle.
2- Failure of testes to descend into scrotal sacs leads to sterility. Why?
Ans: High temperature of abdomen kills the Spermatogonia tissue of the testes, so
spermatogenesis (formation of sperm) takes place.
3- Despite the presence of So many sperms in the vicinity of an egg cell, only one
sperm enters the ovum. Why?
Ans: Because when a sperm comes in contact with ovum (Zona pellucida) & induces
changes in membrane to block entry of other sperms
4- Define spermiogenesis. Where does it occur?
Ans: The transformation of non-motile spermatids into motile spermatozoa is called
spermiogenesis. It occurs inside seminiferous tubules of testes.
5- Name the cells which produce testosterone. What is the function of this hormone?
Ans: Interstitial cells (Leydig’s cells) of testis secrete the testosterone hormone.
Function. Theycontrol secondary sexual characters.

6- The Spermatogonia cell has 46 chromosomes in human male. Give the number of
chromosomes in (a) Primary spermatocyte (b) Spermatid
Ans: (a) Primary spermatocyte – 46 (b) Spermatid- 23
7- How does colostrum provide initial protection against diseases to new born infants?
Give one reason.
Ans: Colostrum contains immunoglobin which provide immunity to the infants.
8- Name the embryonic stage which gets implanted in the uterine wall of a human female.
Ans: blastocyst stage
9- Name the hormone which causes strong uterine contraction during parturition.
Does the parturition signal originate from the mother or the fetus?
Ans: Hormone - is Oxytocin
The signal originates from the placenta and fully developed fetus.
10- Where are sperms stored in males?
Ans: Epidedymis
Short Answer Type Questions
1- How is a primary oocyte different from a secondary oocyte?
Ans: The primary oocyte is a diploid cell (2n) whereas secondary oocyte is a haploid cell
(n). The primary oocyte is formed when oogonia are at the prophase-I of the meiotic
division in the foetal ovary whereas secondary oocyte is formed from primary oocyte
after meiosis – I division to produce ova in females during the stage of puberty.
2- Name the muscular and glandular layer of the human uterus. Which one of these
layers undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle? Name the hormone
essential for the maintenance of this layer.
Ans: Muscular layer –
Myometrium Glandular layer –
Endometrium.
Endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 cycle. LH hormone maintains the lining of the uterus.
3- State the fate of the Trophoblast of a human blastocyst at the time of implantation
and that of the inner cell mass immediately after implantation.
Ans: The Trophoblast layer of the human blastocyst gets attached to the endometrium and
the inner cell mass gets differentiated into an embryo. After attachment, the uterine cells
divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst. As a result, the blastocyst becomes embedded in
the endometrium of the uterus. It is termed Implantation.
4- Where are fimbriae present in human female reproductive system? Give their function.
Ans: Fimbriae are fingerlike projections present at the end of the fallopian tubes.
Through fimbriae eggs move from the ovaries to the uterus.
5- Name the muscular and glandular layer of the human uterus. Which one of these
layers undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle? Name the hormone
essential for the maintenance of this layer.
Ans: Muscular layer –
Myometrium Glandular layer –
Endometrium.
Endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual
cycle. Progesterone hormone maintains the lining of the uterus.
6- What are the functions of placenta other than its endocrine function?
Ans: The placenta helps in the supply of nutrients and oxygen to the embryo.
Placenta also helps in elimination of excretory wastes and carbon dioxide produced
by the embryo.
7- What is corpus luteum? How does it function as endocrine gland?
Ans. During LH surge the Graafian follicle ruptures to release secondary oocyte. The
remaining part of Graafian follicle forms corpus luteum. Corpus luteum functions as
endocrine glands as they secrete progesterone.
8- Differentiate between Sertoli cells and Leydig cells with reference to their location
in the organ
and their function.
Ans: Sertoli cells are the nutritive cells present inside seminiferous tubules. They
provide nourishment to the male germ cells.
Leydig cells are present outside the seminiferous tubules in the interstitial spaces, they
secrete androgens.
9- Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of human female and label any four parts.
Ans: fig 3.4, page 47, NCERT
10- What are the various male accessory glands? Give their function.
Ans. The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate gland and paired
bulbourethral glands.
These glands secrete seminal plasma rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
Secretions of bulbourethral glands help in lubrication of the penis.
Long Answer Type Questions
1- Explain the organization of the mammary gland with the help of a diagram.
Ans: Mammary gland occurs in pair. It contains glandular tissues which are organized
into 15-20 mammary lobes in each breast. Mammary lobes possess alveolar cells. These
cells secrete milk. The alveoli open into the mammary tubules which combine to form the
mammary duct. Mammary ducts join to form a mammary ampulla that is connected to the
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 lactiferous ducts. Through these structures, milk is sucked.
Fig- 3.4, page 46, NCERT
2- Explain the menstrual cycle in human female by giving suitable diagram.
Ans: Menstrual cycle has three phases: menstrual, proliferative and secretory.
a) Menstrual Phase (3-5 days)- During the endometrial lining of the uterus is ruptured
and is released out from vagina along with blood vessels and mucus.
b) Proliferative or Follicular Phase 9about 11 days): in this phase ovarian follicle is
matures into Graffian follicle. The endometrial layer again proliferates. In this phase
ovulation occurs.
c) Secretory Phase 9about 12 days)- Corpus Luteum is formed from ruptured Graffian
follicle. The endometrium grows and thickens further.
Fig-3.9, page 50, NCERT
3- Explain the changes that take place during maturation of a follicle top Graffian
follicle in ovary.
Ans: Oogonia (gamete mother cells) are formed within each fetal ovary. No more
Oogonia are formed after birth.
Oogonia enter into the prophase-I stage of meiotic division and form primary oocyte.
The primary oocytes get surrounded by granulosa layers form the primary follicle and
then secondary follicles.
The secondary follicle is transformed into a tertiary follicle characterized by antrum (a
fluid-filled cavity).
The tertiary follicle matures into the Graafian follicle.
4- Give schematic representation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Ans: Fig 3.8, page 49, NCERT
5- Describe the hormonal control of the male reproductive system.
Ans:Hypothalamus: It releases GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormones) which stimulate the
pituitary glands to secrete gonadotropins.
LH and FSH
i- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): It stimulates spermatogenesis in
seminiferous tubules of the testis.
ii- LH stimulates testosterone production from the interstitial cells of testes.
iii- Sertoli cells secrete androgen binding protein (ABP) which concentrates
testosterone in the seminiferous tubules.
CHAPTER- 3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
Periodic abstinence couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
cycle when ovulation could be expected
Withdrawal or coitus Male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation
Interruptus so as to avoid insemination
Lactational amenorrhea as long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception
are almost nil (up to 6 months)
Barrier methods Ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help
of barriers.

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
Condoms Made of thin rubber/ latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the
male/ vagina or cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the
semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract.
Also protect from STDs
Other examples of Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults.
barrier methods
IUDs These are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through
vagina.
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu
ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity
of sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the
uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the
sperms.
Non-medicated Lippes loop
Copper releasing CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
Hormone releasing Progestasert, LNG-20
IUDs
Pills Pills of either progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations
Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably
within the first five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days
(menses) it has to be repeated in the same pattern.
Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation, alter the quality of cervical
mucus to prevent/ retard entry of sperms.
CDRI:- Central drug research institute (Lucknow)
It develops Saheli–a new oral contraceptive pill for the females. Saheli
–the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal
preparation. It is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects and
high contraceptive
value.
Injection Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used by
females as injections or implants under the skin. Administration of
progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs within 72
hours of coitus have been found to be very effective as emergency
contraceptives as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to
rape or casual
unprotected intercourse.
Surgical methods/ Sterilization

Vasectomy in male a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a
small incision on the scrotum
Tubectomy a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small
incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Define reproductive health according to WHO. Which society will be called a
reproductively healthy society?

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Ans: According to the World Health Organisation (WHO) - reproductive health means a
total Well-being in all aspects of reproduction i.e. physical, emotional, behavioral and
social. Reproductively healthy society includes people having physically and functionally
healthy reproductive organs. They have normal behavioural and emotional interaction in
sex-related matters.
2- Give the term for prenatal diagnostic technique aimed to know the sex of developing
foetus and to detect congenital disorders.
Ans: Amniocentesis
3- Which research institute develops contraceptive pill “Saheli”?
Ans: CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) located at Lucknow.
4- Why tubectomy is considered a contraceptive method?
Ans: In tubectomy, a small part of fallopian tube is cut and tied up to block the entry of
sperm, so as to prevent fertilization.
5- Which methods of contraception are also known as sterilization method?
Ans: Tubectomy and Vasectomy
6- Expand ICSI.
Ans: Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection.
7- Categorize the following contraceptive methods as natural, IUDs, Barrier or hormonal-
Lippes loop, lactation amenorrhea, Vault, Saheli
Ans: Lippes loop- IUD, Lactational amenorrhea – Natural, Vault- Barrier, Saheli- Hormonal
8- Why has the Government imposed a statutory ban on amniocentesis?
Ans: The Government has banned amniocentesis to check on the incidences of female
foeticides.
9- Name two STDs that can be transmitted through contaminated blood.
Ans: Hepatitis, HIV-AIDS
10- How can a possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse avoided?
Ans: Administration of progestogens or progestogens-estrogen combinations or IUDs
within 72 hours of coitus
Short Answer Types Questions
1- Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Justify.
Ans: Removal of gonads leads to sterility of individuals therefore it is not considered as a
contraceptive option.
2- What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives.
Ans: Oral contraceptive or pills are either progestogens or progestogen- estrogen combinations.
They function as contraceptives by
(i) Inhibiting ovulation.
(ii) Inhibiting implantation.
(iii) Altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or stop the entry of sperms
3- Mention simple principles by which one could be free of STDs?
Ans- i- Avoid sex with unknown partner/ multiple partner.
Ii-Always use barrier method of contraceptive
Iii-Consult doctor in case of any symptom for early detection and treatment
4- Fill the a. b, c, d with appropriate answer in the given table-

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Method of Birth Control Device
1. Barrier a
2. IUD b
3. Surgical Technique c
4. Natural d
Ans: a- Condom, b- Cu- t, Vasectomy d- Coitus interruptus
5- Mention at least four reason of sterility?
Ans: physical, congenital diseases, drugs, immunological or physiological
6- Expand ZIFT and IUT. How these are different from each other?
Ans: ZIFT (zygote intra fallopian transfer) – it is transfer of the zygote or early embryos
(with up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube.
IUT– intra uterine transfer- in this Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred
into the uterus
7- Mention one positive and one negative application of amniocentesis.
Ans- Positive- helpful in detection of congenital
disorder Negative- used in sex determination and
female foeticides
8- An infertile couple is advised to adapt test tube baby programme. Describe two
principle procedures adapted to such technologies.
Ans: In-vitro fertilization (IVF): In this process, the fertilization takes place outside the
body (test tube baby). The following techniques are included in IVF:
ZIFT - In this sperm from a male donor and ovum from a female donor are fused
in the laboratory. The zygote (8 blastomere stage) so formed is transferred into the
fallopian tube.
GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer)- In GIFT, females who cannot produce ovum, but
can provide suitable conditions for the fertilization of ovum, are provided with ovum from
a donor.
9- Describe Lactational amenorrhea method of birth control.
Ans: Lactational Amenorrhea is a natural method of contraception. In lactating mother
there is complete absence of menstruation and the chances of conceiving are almost
negligible.
10- How are non-medicated IUDs different from hormone releasing IUDs? Give examples.
Ans. (a) Non- medicated IUDs - Lippes loop, Copper releasing IUDS (CuT, Multiload
375), these increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus and release copper ions which
suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm.
(b) Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert, LNG-20 -These makes uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Long Answer Type Questions
1- What is MTP? What is its safety concern and in what cases MTPs are allowed in India.
Ans: MTP is Medical termination of pregnancy or induced abortion.
MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy. Second trimester abortions are much more risky
Government of India legalized MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its
misuse. It is to get rid of unwanted
pregnancies either due to casual unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptive

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 used during coitus or rapes. MTPs are also essential in cases where pregnancy could be
harmful or even fatal to the mother/ foetus or both.
2- Some contraceptive can be taken orally. Give examples of such contraceptives and
explain mechanism of their action. In what dose it is advised to take by females?
Ans: Oral contraceptives (pills) contain progestogens or progestogen–estrogen
combinations. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably
within the first five days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days (during which
menstruation occurs) it has to be repeated in the same pattern.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent retard entry of sperms.
Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably within the first five
days of menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has
to be repeated in the same pattern.
Example- Saheli
3- Describe any three types of contraceptive methods widely used by couple to avoid pregnancy.
Natural Method
Periodic abstinence couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected
Withdrawal or coitus Male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just
interruptus before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination
Lactational as long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances
amenorrhea of
conception are almost nil (up to 6 months)
IUDs These are inserted by doctors in the uterus through vagina.
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the
Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing
capacity of sperms. It also make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
Non-medicated -Lippes loop
Copper releasing - CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
Hormone releasing - Progestasert, LNG-20
Injection Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen.

4- What are STDs? Give five examples of STDs and also suggest ways to prevent them.
Ans: Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are
collectively called sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
Examples- HIV-AIDS, Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital
warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B.Ways to prevent-
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get
complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.
5- Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programs are currently in operation.
One of the major tasks of these programs is to create awareness amongst people
about the wide range of reproduction-related aspects. This is important and essential
for building a reproductive health society.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four
points in support of your opinion regarding this statement. Also List any two
indicators that indicate a reproductively healthy society.
Ans: Sex education is important in schools:
(a) To aware about myths and misconceptions.
(b) For awareness about reproduction.
(c) To aware STDs
(d) Proper guidance about sex abuse, sex-related crimes,
etc. Indicators about a reproductively healthy society-
(a) Low infant mortality rate (IMR)
(b) Low maternal mortality rate (MMR)

Key words
CHAPTER – 4
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
Genetics Study of inheritance, heredity and variation of characters or Study
of genes and chromosomes.
Inheritance Transmission of characters from parents to progeny.
Variation Difference between offspring and parents
Gene It is short fragment of DNA that encodes for a certain trait
Allele An allele is a variant form of a gene
Homozygous Individuals carrying two identical alleles (RR or rr) are known
as homozygous.
Heterozygous individual organisms bearing different alleles (Rr) are known
as heterozygous
Hybrid An individual produced by the mating of genetically unlike parents
Mendelian factors Genes
Dominance It can express in both homozygous and heterozygous condition
Recessive It can express only in homozygous
F Filial generation
Test cross Cross between offspring and recessive parent
Back cross It is crossing of a hybrid with one of its parents or an
individual genetically similar to its parent
Co dominance Codominance is a heterozygous condition in which both alleles at
a gene locus are fully expressed in the phenotype
Incomplete dominance Both alleles of a gene at a locus are partially expressed,
often resulting in an intermediate or different phenotype.
Multiple allelism occurrence of three or more than three alleles for a particular gene
Linkage Tendency of closely situated gene to inherit together
Crossing over It is exchange of genetic material during sexual reproduction
Genotype Specific combination of alleles for a given gene
Phenotype An individual's observable traits
Punnet square Square diagram used to predict the genotypes of a particular cross
Monohybrid Offspring with one particular character
Dihybrid Offspring with two different character

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Polygenic inheritance The inheritance of a trait governed by more than one genes
Pleiotropy In which a single gene has multiple phenotypic expressions
Mutation A change in the DNA sequence of an organism
Sex-linked disorder Inherited through sex chromosomes ( X or Y chromosomes)
Autosome-linked It is the pattern of inheritance in which the transmission of traits
disorder depends on the genes in the autosome
Chromosomal A disorder due to change in the chromosome number
Disorders
Aneuploidy Aneuploidy is a type of chromosomal aberration, where there is
one extra chromosome or one missing chromosome
Polyploidy cells of an organism have more than one pair of chromosomes.
Syndrome A syndrome is a set of medical signs and symptoms which are
correlated with each other and often associated with a particular
disease or disorder.

Gregor Johann Mendel

Father of genetics
Proposed law of inheritance
Worked on Pea plant (Pisum sativum)

Alleles Blood group Phenomenon

I AI A, I A i A Dominance
IBIB, IBi B Dominance
IAIB AB Co-dominance
ii O Recessive

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
VERY SHORT ANSWER
1- Name the scientists who rediscovered the Mendel’s work.
Ans: Hugo DeVries, Carl Correns and Tschermak.
2- Write the karyotype of Klinefelter’s Syndrome and Turner’s syndrome.
Ans: 47, XXY and 45 with X0
3- Give an example of XO type of sex determination.
Ans: Grasshopper
4- Who observed that during spermatogenesis only 50 % of insect sperm received a
specific structure, whereas 50 % sperm did not receive it? Also mention the name of
that specific structure.
Ans: Henking, X-body
5- What is the cross known as when the F1 progeny is crossed with homozygous
recessive parent? Write one advantage of such cross.
Ans: The cross is a test cross.
It is advantageous to determine the genotype of the parent plant.
6- Write the Dihybrid cross ratio when self-cross is carried out between two

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 heterozygous gametes.
Ans: 9:3:3:1
7- Name any one plant that shows the phenomenon of incomplete dominance during
the inheritance of its flower colour.
Ans: Dog flower (Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.)
8- For which types of reproduction Mendel's laws of inheritance are applicable?
Ans: Sexual reproduction
9- What term used in which there are extra set of chromosome is present.
Ans: aneuploidy
10- A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability
that their daughter will be haemophilic?
Ans: no chance (0%), she will be carrier only
SHORT ANWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1- In a plant 2n= 12 and in other plant 2n= 20. What will be the ploidy of plant
obtained by crossing of these plants?
Ans- 2n = 12 then gamete (n)= 6 2n = 20 then gamete (n)= 10
Progeny = n+n = 6+ 10 = 16
2- What observations we can get from law of dominance.
Ans: Law of inheritance provide knowledge The law of dominance is used to explain the
expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1 and the
expression of both in the F2. It also explains the proportion of 3:1 obtained at the F2

3- The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son. Why is it so?
Ans: haemophilia is sex (X) linked recessive disorder. The male can transfer only ‘Y’
chromosome to his son.
4- The child has a blood group of O. If the father has blood group A and mother has
blood group B, work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of
the other Offsprings. Ans: Genotype of father IAIA
Genotype of mother IB
IO Genotype of child
IOIO

5- In Snapdragon, a cross between true-breeding red-flowered (RR) plants and

true-breeding white-flowered (RR) plants showed a progeny of plants with all pink
flowers.
(i) The appearance of pink flowers is not known as blending. Why?
(ii) What is this phenomenon known as?
Ans: i- This is not blending as neither of genes can express in heterozygous condition
but can express when they are in homozygous condition.
Ii-Incomplete dominance.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 6- What are the possible effects of modified alleles?
Ans: (i) the normal/less efficient enzyme, or ii- a non-functional enzyme, or
iii- no enzyme at all
7- Differentiate between co-dominance and incomplete dominance.
Ans: Co-dominance –condition when phenotypes of all the alleles are expressed.
Incomplete dominance- When both alleles of a gene at a locus are partially
expressed and produce an intermediate phenotype, such phenomenon is called as
incomplete dominance
8- Describe multiple allelism by citing one example?
Ans: when a single trait is controlled by more than 2 alleles, it is called as multiple
allelism. Example: Human blood group is controlled by three alleles IA,IB and i.
9- Explain the cause of Klinefelter’s syndrome. Give any three symptoms shown by
sufferer of this syndrome.
Ans. Caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X chromosome resulting into a
karyotype of 47, XXY.
Features- individual has overall masculine development, however, the feminine development
(development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed. Such individuals are sterile.
10- How does distance between genes affect linkage and crossing over?
Ans: (a) closely situated genes shows more linkage and less crossing over
(b) Distantly located gene shows more crossing over and less linkage.
Very Long Answer Type Questions
1- Discuss in detail the contributions of Morgan and Sturtevant in the area of genetics.
i- Morgan worked on fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster).
ii- He stated and established that genes are located on the
chromosome. iii- He established the principle of linkage.
iv- Established the technique of chromosome
mapping. Sturtevant was student of Morgan .His
contributions are-
i- He constructed the first genetic map of a chromosome while working on the
Drosphila genome.
ii- Established concept of linkage group.
iii-
2- Diagrammatically represent results of a dihybrid cross where the two parents
differed in two pairs of contrasting traits: seed colour and seed shape of pea plant.
Ans: 5.7, page 79, NCERT
3- What is recombination? Mention its applications with reference to genetic engineering.
Ans: Recombination is the process of producing a new combination of genes by
crossing over during meiosis. It is characteristic feature of sexually reproducing
organisms.
Applications:
i- It causes variation in a population.
ii- Variability leads to better adaptation and survival
iii- With help of linkage groups, chromosome map can be
prepared. iv- The desired recombinants can be produced.
4- A cross between a red flower-bearing plant and a white flower-bearing plant of
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 Antirrhinum produced all plants having pink flowers. Work out across, to explain
how is this possible?
Ans: It is due to incomplete dominance. In this both alleles of a gene at a locus are
partially expressed and produce an intermediate phenotype

5- A dihybrid heterozygous round, yellow seeded garden pea (Pisum sativum) was
crossed with a double recessive plant.
a- What type of cross is this?
b- Workout on the genotype and phenotype of the progeny.
c- What principle of Mendel is illustrated through the result of this cross?
a- It is a dihybrid test cross b-

c- It illustrates the Principle of independent assortment.

CHAPTER- 5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

Key words
DNA Deoxyribonucleic acid
RNA Ribonucleic acid
Nitrogenous Bases Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
Phosphodiester bond Bond between two nucleotide
Ribose sugar Pentose sugar
Histone Positively charged proteins
Nucleosome Histone octamer + DNA
Chromatin Chromatin is a complex of DNA and protein found in eukaryotic cells
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
Euchromatin Loosely packed chromatin, transcriptionally active
Heterochromatin Densely packed chromatin, transcriptionally inactive
Transformation Transfer of DNA into bacteria
Replication Synthesis of new DNA from parental DNA
Transcription Synthesis of RNA from DNA
Translation Protein synthesis
Ribosome Organelles for protein synthesis
Genetic code Set of codons
Operon Set of genes that regulate gene expression
HGP Human genome project
VNTR Variable number of tandem repeats
Cistron As a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
Exons Coding sequence on mRNA
Introns Intervening sequences do not appear in mature or processed RNA
Splicing Mechanism of removal of introns and ligation of exons.

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- By which method detection of hybridized DNA fragments is possible.
Ans: Autoradiography
2- Who invented methodologies of automatic DNA sequencing and Lac operon?
Ans: Frederick Sanger, Alec Jefferys
3- Give name of commonly used vectors in human genome project.
Ans: BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome), YAC (yeast artificial chromosome)
4- What are two basic approach adapted as methodologies in HGP.
Ans: Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) and Sequence Annotation
5- What are inducers in lac operon, give two examples of inducer.
Ans: inducer binds with repressor protein so that they can’t bind on operator gene.
Example- Lactose and Allolactose
6- What are untranslated regions (UTR)? Give their importance.
Ans: The UTRs are present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop
codon). They are required for efficient translation process.
7- What are initiator tRNA? How many tRNAs are present in cell for 20 different amino acid?
Ans: Initiator tRNA is for initiation of translation process. It always carries
methionine amino acid.
There are 20 different tRNAs for 20 different amino acids.
8- What is dual nature of codon AUG?
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 Ans: It codes for amino acid methionine.
This is also known as initiation codon responsible for initiation of translation process.
9- What is the role of sigma factor and DNA ligase?
Ans: Sigma factor initiates the process of ranscription DNA ligase is to join adjacent nucleotides.
10- Name the bacteria used by Fredrik Griffith in his experiment. Also mention
the types of strain he used to prove the nature of genetic material.
Ans: Bacteria- Streptococcus pneumonia
Strain- S strain (virulent) R strain (non- virulent)
Short Answer Type Questions
1- The sequence of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is
mentioned below 3′ TATAGCATCTATTAGG 5′
Write the sequence of RNA formed on this DNA.
Ans: 3′ UAUAGCAUCTAUUAGG 5′
2- Three codons on mRNA are not recognised by tRNA during translation process.
Mention these codons? Write the importance of these in protein synthesis?
Ans: Stop codons- UAA, UAG and UGA
Help in termination of translation process and release of polypeptide into cytoplasm
3- Label the parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ of the transcription unit given below

Ans: A- Promoter B- Coding strand

4- Describe any three steps required for maturation of nascent mRNA into the cell.
Ans: Splicing- Primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns. Introns are
removed by splicing process and exons are joined in a defined order.
Capping- addition of unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) at 5’ end (capping)
Tailing- adding of polyadenylate residue at 3’ end.
5- List the features which must be present in a good genetic material.
Ans: (i) It should be able to generate its replica (Replication). (ii) It should be stable
chemically and structurally. (iii) It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation)
that are required for evolution. (iv) It should be able to express itself in the form of
'Mendelian Characters’.
6- Describe role of the followings-Sigma factor, Rho factor, Release factor, Histone protein
Sigma factor- initiate transcription process
Rho factor- termination the transcription process
Release factor- help in termination of translation and dissociate ribosome
subunits, release of polypeptide
Histone Protein- help in formation of nucleosome
7- Give two reasons why both the strands of DNA are not copied during transcription process?
Ans: 1- If the strands codes for RNA, two different RNA molecules & two different
proteins are formed.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 2- The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to each
other, hence would form a double stranded RNA. This would prevent RNA from being
translated into protein.
8- RNA was the first genetic material, DNA evolved later on. Explain.
Ans: RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the
characters. RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst.
Essential life processes like metabolism, translation, splicing, etc. evolved around RNA.
9- Briefly describe the termination of a polypeptide chain.
Ans: When ribosome reach to the Stop codons (UAA, UAG, and UGA) on mRNA, RF
Protein (Release factor) binds on it and dissociate subunits of ribosome and polypeptide
is released in cytoplasm.
10- List two essential roles of ribosome during translation.
Ans: i- provide attachment site for mRNA
ii) Provide site of polypeptide synthesis
Long Answer Type Questions
1- a- What is DNA fingerprinting?
b- What are the steps of DNA fingerprinting? C-Mention its application
Ans: a- DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of
certain areas (VNTRs) of DNA which are different in different individual
b- 1- Isolation of DNA 2- Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases 3- Separation
of DNA fragments by electrophoresis 4- Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA
fragments to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon 5- Hybridization using
labelled VNTR probe 6-
Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography c- Paternity disputes can
be solved by DNA fingerprinting
It is useful in detection of crime and legal pursuits.
(i) a- Differentiate between the genetic codes given below:Unambiguous
(ii) Degenerate b- What is significance of Severo Ochoa enzyme?
Ans: a- i- Unambiguous: one Condon code for only one amino acid.
Ii-Degenerate: When an amino acid is coded by more than one codon
b- Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) is useful in
polymerizing RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner
(enzymatic synthesis ofRNA)

2- i- Write the stages at which Regulation of gene expression can be achieved in

eukaryotes. ii-What is meaning of I, p and o in operon?
Ans: i- transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript), processing level (regulation
ofsplicing), transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm, translational level.
ii-Regulator gene (i) Codes for the repressor of the lac operon, promoter (p) is binding
site for RNA Polymerase and operator gene (o) It is binding site for repressor.
3- i- Why is DNA molecule a more stable genetic material than
RNA? Explain ii-Draw double helical diagram of DNA showing
phosphodiester bond.
Ans: the hydrogen between purine and pyrimidine provide stability to DNA. The DNA lacks
2’OH group which makes it less reactive than RNA.

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 The thymine in DNA is less reactive than Uracil in RNA. RNA mutates easily.
ii-Fig6.2, page 98 NCERT
4- Provide any five silent feature of human genome.
Ans: The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp., The total number of genes is
estimated at 30,000, Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases are exactly the same in
all people, The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes, Less
than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins, Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968),
and the Y has the fewest (231), there are about 1.4 million locations where single base
DNA differences (SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism : ‘snips’) occur in humans.
Chapter-6 Evolution
key words
Evolution Evolution is a process of gradual change that takes place over many
generations, during which species of animals, plants, or insects
slowly
change some of their physical characteristics
Big bang theory Explains the origin of the earth
Homologous organs organs having the same basic structure but different functions.
Analogous organs organs having different basic structures but have a similar appearance
and
perform similar functions.
Adaptive radiation This is an evolutionary process of organisms that are grouped into a
wide
variety of types adapted to specialized modes of life.
branching descent The process of developing a new species from a single
common
descendant is known as branching descent
Natural selection Process through which populations of living organisms adapt and
change
Saltation Single step large mutation
mya Millom years ago,
CHAPTER 6
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Name the scientist who used pre-sterilized flasks and yeast to disprove the theory of
abiogenesis?
Ans: Louis Pasteur
2- What postulate was given by Oparin and Haldane about the origin of life?
Ans: The first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules. evolution.
3- Which scientist come to the same conclusion as Darwin?
Ans: Alfred Wallace (worked in the Malay Archipelago)

4- What was the observation of Ernst Heckel regarding evidence of the origin of
life?
Ans: Embryological support for evolution
5- Give two examples of adaptive radiation.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 And: Darwin finches, Australian marsupials.
6- What is speciation? What is the main cause of speciation according to Hugo
DeVries?
Ans: speciation is the formation of new
species. The mutation is the main cause of
speciation.
7- Would you consider the wings of a butterfly and a bat as homologous or analogous?
Ans: It is an example of the analogous organ as the basic structure is different but the
function is the same.
8- State the significance of biochemical similarities among diverse organisms in evolution.
Ans: Similarities in biochemicals like DNA, help in deriving the line of evolution.
Organisms with more similar DNA sequences are shows the same ancestor.

9- What is the basis of the Darwinian theory of evolution?

Ans: Branching descent and natural selection
10- What do you mean by panspermia?
Ans: Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called spores were transferred to different
planets including earth.
Short answer types questions
1- What is the founder effect? Mention its importance,
Ans: When a population gets separated from the existing population it becomes the
founder of a new population. This is known as the founder effect. The founder effect
affects the genetic diversity of a population.
2- Explain convergent evolution by giving a suitable example?
Ans: when two different species with different ancestors tend to develop similar traits
during the course of evolution Examples: Some of the marsupials of Australia resemble
placental mammals that live in similar habitats to other continents.
3- Illustrate contribution of the Lamarck to the understanding of evolution?
Ans: he proposed the theory of Inheritance of Acquired characters, Use, and disuse of organs.
4- identify the following pairs as homologous of analogous
organs: (i)Sweet potato and potato (ii) Eye of Octopus and
eye of mammals.
(iii)Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbits (iv)Forelimbs of bat and whale.
Ans: (i) and (ii) Analogous organs, (iii) and (iv) Homologous organs.
5- Compare the brain capacity of Homo habilis and Homo erectus.
Ans: Homo habilis- 650-800cc, Homo erectus- 900cc
Long Answer Type Question
1- Describe the three different ways by which natural selection can affect the
frequency of a heritable trait in a population. Provide a diagram also in support
of your answer.
Ans- The three different ways by which natural selection can affect the frequency of a
heritable trait in a population are
(i) Stabilisation It results in a greater number of individuals acquiring the mean character
value, i.e., variation is much reduced.
(ii) Directional change It results in more individuals acquiring value other than mean
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 character value, i.e., the peak shift towards one direction.
(iii) Disruption In this more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve, i.e., two peaks are formed at the periphery
Fig, 7.8 page 136, NCERT
2- Diagrammatic representation of Miller’s experiment and label any ten parts.
Ans: fig 7.1, page 128 NCERT
3- hich law states that the sum of allelic frequencies in a population is constant?
Write its mathematical formula used to derive allelic frequency. List the five
factors that influence the law.
Ans: The law is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Mathematical equation- P2 + 2pq + q 2= 1 where p and q are allelic frequencies
Factors affecting are - Genetic drift, Mutation, Gene flow, Genetic Recombination,
NaturalSelection
4- Study the figures given below & answer the following question.
i) Under the influence of which type of
natural selection would graph (a) become
like (b).
ii) What could be the likely reason for
new variations arising in a population.
iii) Who suggested natural selection as the
mechanism of evolution?
Ans: (i) Disruptive & elective.
(ii) Individuals at the extremes contribute more offspring compared to those in the
centre & produce two peaks in the distribution of a trait.
(iii) Charles Darwin
5- Explain the evolution of human beings in a sequential manner.
Ans: Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus - about 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and
Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
Australopithecus- about two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African
grasslands, they hunted with stone weapons, essentially ate the fruit.
Homo habilis- Brain capacities - 650-800cc, they probably did not eat meat.
Homo erectus- about 1.5 mya, brain capacity- 900cc., Homo erectus probably ate
meat. Neanderthal man- brain size- 1400cc, they used buried their dead.
Homo sapiens or modern man- Arose in Africa, During the ice age between 75,000-
10,000 years ago.
Chapter-8 Human Health and Diseases
Key words
Health complete physical, mental and social well-being
Disease Any condition which impairs health, or interferes with the
normal
functioning of the body is called a disease
Infection The invasion and growth of the pathogen in the body
Pathogen Disease-causing organisms
Infectious diseases Diseases that are easily transmitted from one person to another
Immunity The ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organisms
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
Interferons Proteins are secreted by virus-infected cells and protect non-infected
cells
from further viral infection.
Primary response The encounter of body pathogen for the first time
Allergy The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain
antigens
present in the environment
MALT Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
AIDS Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
Retrovirus RNA containing virus
Carcinogens Cancer causing agents

INFECTIOUS AND NON-INFECTIOUS DISEASE

Infectious transmitted from one person to another like AIDS
Non- infectious Not transmitted from one person to another like Cancer
COMMON DISEASES IN HUMAN
Typhoid Salmonella typhi Test- Widal Test Intestinal perforation Sustain high fever (39-40 0
C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
appetite
Pneumonia Streptococcu Infects the alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs.Problems in
s pneumoniae respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache, lips and fingernails
Haemophilus may turn grey to bluish in colour
influenzae
Commo Rhino Virus Infection of the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
n cold Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
headache, tiredness.
Malaria Plasmodium Chill and high fever recurring every three to four days
Amoebiasi Entamoeb Infection of large intestine Constipation, abdominal pain and
s (amoebic histolytica cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
dysentery)
Ascariasis Ascaris Infect intestine internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia
and blockage of the intestinal passage

Elephantiasi Wuchereria (W. Infect lymphatic vessels Chronic inflammation of the organs like
s or bancrofti and lower limbs and genitals.
Filariasis W. malayi)
Ringworms Microsporum, Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body
Trichophyton such as skin, nails and scalp
and
Epidermophyton
AIDS HIV Syndrome
Dengue Dengue virus high fever, headache, joint pains, chill, rashes, abdominal pain,
Liver disorder, fall in platelets
Chikunguny Virus rashes on limbs and trunk, arthritis of multiple joints, high
a fever, conjunctivitis
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Give any two molecular diagnosis techniques used to diagnose disease.
Ans: Widol test for typhoid Biopsy- Cancer
2- Malignant malaria is caused by which pathogen?
Ans: Plasmodium falciparum
3- Interferons are secreted by which type of cell. What is the chemical nature of interferon?
Ans: interferon is secreted by virus infected cell. Interferons are protein.
4- Name the infective stage of malaria parasite in human. In which organ of
mosquito that is situated?
Ans: Sporozoite. Situated in mosquito salivary gland
5- Malaria parasite requires two hosts to complete its life cycle. Identify the
host where following events takes place-
(i) Asexual reproduction and gametocyte formation (ii) Fertilization (fusion of
gametocyte) Ans: (i) Human (ii) Mosquito
6- Name any four types of immunoglobin present in human immune system.
Ans: IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG
7- Provide two means of passive immunity through which foetus and newly born
baby get protected from infection.
Ans: The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation.
The foetus also receives some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta during
pregnancy.
8- Identify the type of immunoglobins in the followings- (i)In colostrum (ii) released
during allergic response
Ans: (I) Ig A (II) Ig E
9- Why it is not possible to treat autoimmune diseases. Give one example of such disease.
Ans: there is no treatment of such diseases because immune system of body attacks self-cells.
Example- Rheumatoid arthritis
10- Mention any two drugs that are used treat mental illnesses like depression and insomnia.
Ans: Barbiturates, Amphetamines
Short Answer Type Question
Give detailed account on factors which affects disease.
(i) genetic disorders – deficiencies with which a child is born and deficiencies/defects which the
child inherits from parents from birth Infections Life style including food and water we take
1- Explain disease and its type with two examples of each.
Ans: Complete physical, mental and social well-being is known as health. Infectious disease –
cancer, arthritis
Non infectious disease- flu, tuberculosis
2- Primary immune response is of slow intensity than secondary immune response.
Justify the statement.
Ans: when our body pathogen for the first time it produces primary response which is of low
intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen shows quick and highly intensified
secondary or anamnestic response. This is because in primary response antibodies are formed
which have property of memory.
3- (i) Draw the structure of immunoglobin.
(ii) Why immunoglobins are called as H2L2 molecules.
Ans: (i) fig 8.4, page 151, NCERT
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 (ii) Because it contains two heavy chains (H2) and two light chains (L2) of polypeptide
4- (i) What is allergy?
(ii) Name two factors which are responsible for allergy in out body.
(iii) List any two medicine advised by doctors to reduce the effect of allergy.
Ans: (i) he exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy Histamine and serotonin and Anti-histamine, adrenalin
5- Which cell is known as factory of HIV and why?
Ans: Macrophages are called as HIV factory. After entering into the e host body, HIV moves
into macrophages where its RNA replicates to form viral DNA. This viral DNA gets incorporated
into the host cells' DNA and directs the infected cells to produce more viruses. Hence
macrophages continue to produce viruses and act as HIV factories.
6- What are the different diagnosis techniques to detect cancer in a patient?
Ans: CT scan, MRI, Biopsy, Blood and bone marrow tests are done for increased cell counts in
case of leukaemia, X ray, Monoclonal antibodies test
7- (i) Name two recent incidences of wide-spread diseases caused by Aedes mosquitoes.
(ii) Mention the name of two pathogens which are responsible ringworm disease.
(iii) Which pathogen infects alveoli (of the lungs that result in severe breathing problem?
Ans: (i) Dengue and Chikungunya
(ii) Microsporum, Trichophyton
(iii) Streptococcus pneumoniae or Haemophilus influenzae
8- Differentiate between two different types of tumours? Which one is lethal and why?
Ans: (i) Benign tumour - tumour remain confined to place of origin or affected organ. Rate of
growth oftumour is low.
(ii) Malignant tumour- it invades surrounding tissue & spread throughout the body. Rate of
growth oftumour is rapid
Malignancy is lethal as it spreads all over body through the process of metastasis.
(i) A person undergoes ELISA testing and tested positive-ELISA is widely conducted to
diagnose which disease.Write the causative agent of that disease.Which organization in
India educates people about that disease? Ans:
(i) AIDS , (ii) HIV , (iii) NACO (National AIDS Control Organisation)
Long Answer Type Question
1- Describe different mechanism by which innate immunity protect the human body
since birth. Ans: Physical barriers - Skin prevents entry of the micro-organisms. Mucus
coating of the epithelium lining (respiratory, gastrointestinal &urogenital tracts also help in
trapping microbes entering our body) Physiological barriers- Acid (stomach), saliva (mouth) ,
tears (eyes) prevent microbial growth.
Cellular barriers- Leukocytes (WBC) like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils),
monocytes and natural killer in the blood, macrophages in tissues can phagocytose and destroy
microbes Cytokine barriers- Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which
protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
2- A disease has symptoms of high fever with chill. The causative agents depend on red
blood cells of human body for their life cycle. Based on the statement answer the
following questions-
(i) Why do patients suffer from high fever with chill?
(ii) Name the disease and its causative agent.
(iii) Represent the life cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
Ans. (i) due to release of chemical haemozoin from ruptured RBC, (ii) Malaria, Plasmodium (P.
vivax, P. Malariae and P. falciparum). (iii) Life cycle of Plasmodium: Fig. 8.1 Page 148, NCERT
3- How addiction and dependence differ to each other? What are consequences of
withdrawal syndrome?
Ans: Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects –such as euphoria and a
temporary feeling of well-being – associated with drugs and alcohol.
Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal
syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.
Withdrawal syndrome occurs if regular dose of drugs/alcoholic abruptly discontinued. This is
characterised by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved when use is
resumed again. In some cases, withdrawal symptoms can be severe and even life threatening and
the person may need medical supervision
4- How does humoral immune system works when our body is infected?
Ans: Humoral immunity is also called as antibody mediated immunity. In this
Immunoglobins (antibodies) are developed from - lymphocytes.
These antibodies (B-cell) have receptors on its surface that recognize a specific antigen.
The antibody binds to antigen- forming an antigen-antibody complex which is later digested
by phagocytic cells like macrophages.
5- By observing the diagram answer the flowing questions-
(i) Mention the group of drug this structure represents.
(ii) How these drugs are taken by drug abusers?
(iii) Name the source of plant from which these are isolated.
(iv)Which part of human body is affected by this drug?
(v) Provide any two common names for this drug.
Ans: (i) Cannabinoids (ii) Oral Ingestion or inhalation (iii) Cannabis sativa
(iv) Cardiovascular system (v) Charas, ganja
LAB lactic acid bacteria
Fermenters Large vessels used to culture microorganisms
Antibiotics Substance produced by microorganism, that is detrimental to other microorganisms
Sewage Sewage is a type of wastewater that is produced by a community of people
STPs Sewage treatment plants
Flocs masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments form mesh like structures
BOD biochemical oxygen demand
Methanogens Methane producing bacteria
IARI Indian Agricultural Research Institute
KVIC Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Bio fertilizer Microorganism used as fertilizer to improve soil quality
Bio pesticide Living organisms used as pesticide
Mycorrhiza Association between fungus and root of plants
Biocontrol use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests
IPM Integrated pest management

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Which organism is involved in curd formation? Mention the process of curd formation.
Ans: Lactic acid bacteria are used in formation of curd.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 The LAB produces lactic acid which coagulates and partially digests the milk proteins.
2- Swiss cheese has large holes. Give the reason. Also mention the name of
microorganism responsible for this.
Ans: the large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of
CO2 by a bacterium named Propionibacterium sharmanii.
3- Full potential of Penicillin is established by which scientist?
Ans: Ernest Chain and Howard Florey
4- Write scientific name of baker’s yeast and brewer’s yeast.
Ans: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
5- What for Nucleopolyhedra viruses (NPV) are being used nowadays?
Ans: NPV is used as bio control agents for insect control
6- Name a biological product which is used to remove stain from the clothes?
Ans: Lipase
7- List an immune immunosuppressive agent and also, mention the name of source organisms.
Ans: Cyclosporin A, source organism: Trichoderma polysporum
8- Why bottled juice looks clearer than homemade juice.
Ans: Proteases and pectinases are used which digest pectin and make juice clearer.
9- Why is secondary treatment of water in sewage treatment plant called biological
treatment? Ans: In this treatment Organic wastes of sewage water are decomposed by
certain microorganisms in presence of water.
10- Name the plant whose sap is used in making Toddy. Mention the process involved in it.
Ans: Palm tree, Fermentation process
Short Answer Types Questions
1- Expand BOD. Mention its significance in sewage treatment plant.
Ans: BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic
matter in one liter of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the
BOD is reduced. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluted.
2- Alexander Fleming observed that in presence of Penicillium notatum a particular
species “A” can’t grow. Give the reason and also identify “A”.
Ans: “A” is Staphylococci bacteria.
 ‘A’ is unable to grow because chemical Penicillin (now called as antibiotic) is
released by Penicillium notatum
3- Give two examples each of distilled and non-distilled beverages.
Ans: Wine and beer (without distillation), whisky, brandy (distillation) of the fermented broth
4- Name the type of association that genus Glomus exhibits with the higher plant. How
it is beneficial for plants?
 Ans: Mycorrhiza
 The fungal mycelium absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.
Such plants also show resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and
drought.
5- From which organism we can obtain clot buster. Write its use.
Ans: clot buster is obtained from Streptococcus. It is used for removing clots from the
blood vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial infarction.
6- How Flocs are formed during sewage treatment. Mention its application.

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
  Ans: Flocs are mesh like structure containing aerobic bacteria and fungal mycelium.
 These are forms in aerobic tank when organic matter is abundant.
 Flocs digest organic matter and reduce the BOD of sewage water.
7- Why is sewage water treated until the BOD is reduced? Give a reason.at which
stage of sewage treatment BOD reduces significantly.
 Ans: The greater the BOD of sewage water more is its polluting potential. So,
the sewage water is treated, till its BOD is reduced to reduce the organic matter
present in it.
 At secondary level during biological treatment flocs reduces BOD significantly.
8- A farmer is advised to add a culture of microorganisms in the soil before sowing the
crop. Name two microorganisms which can be helpful for farmer. How these
microbes useful to the crop?
bio fertilizers: Rhizobium, Cyanobacteria These microorganisms enrich the nutrient quality of the
soil. They can fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plants as nutrient.
9- Why are biofertilizers or biopesticides preferred to chemical fertilizers or pesticides?
Ans: They do not cause any pollution. They do not spoil the quality of the soil.
Biopesticides are target specific.They are less expensive and are biodegradable.
10- Write the chemical nature of biogas. Name one organism which produces biogas.
Name the institutions that developed technology of biogas production in India.
Ans: Chemical nature of biogas – CH4 , CO2 , H2.
Organism: Group of bacteria known as methanogens. E.g. Methanobacterium
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Long Answer Type Questions
Explain the process of secondary sewage treatment.
Ans: •The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly
agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it.
•This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes as flocs. These microbes
consume the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD.
•Once the BOD of sewage reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a
settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called
activated sludge.
•The major part of the sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters. Here anaerobic
bacteria produce biogas (methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide).
•The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water
bodies like rivers and streams.
1- (i) Draw a typical biogas plant.
(ii) Describe how biogas is obtained from the activated sludge?
Ans: (i) Fig. 10.8, Page 186, NCERT
(ii) Biogas formation from activated sludge:
 Major portion of activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters.
 Here, anaerobic bacteria digest the organic material of the sludge.
 During this digestion, the methanogen bacteria produce biogas (methane,
carbon dioxide hydrogen sulphide)
2- Organic farmers use microbes to decrease the use of chemical pesticides. By
giving five examples, Explain how can this be accomplished?
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 Ans: Organic farmer believes that use of bio control measures will greatly reduce our
dependence on toxic chemicals and pesticides.
Ladybird Aphids
Dragonflies Mosquitoes
Bacillus thuringiensis Insects caterpillar
Trichoderma Several plant pathogens
Baculoviruses, NPV Insects
3- Microbes may be very useful for human being. Give at least five examples in
favour of your answer.
Ans: Microbes are the major components of biological systems on this earth. They may
be veryuseful for mankind in following ways-
 As biofertilizers- Rhizobium, Cyanobacteria, Azotobacter are goof nitrogen fixing organisms
 Biopesticides- Trichoderma, NPV, Dragonfly, and Bacillus thuringiensis are good biopesticides.
 Sewage treatment and Biogas formation- Aerobic bacteria and methanogens
 Antibiotics- Penicillum ntatum produce Penicillin
 Food and beverages – LAB- curd formation, (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) in bakery and
brewers industry
4- Various bioactive molecules and chemical are produced from
microorganisms by using modern technology. Give a brief account on them
Microorganism Name Product
Fungus Aspergillus niger Citric acid
Bacterium Acetobacter aceti Acetic acid
Bacterium Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid
Bacterium Lactobacillus Lactic acid
Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ethanol
Lipases are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains
from the laundry.
Bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at
home. This is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of pectinases and
proteases.
Product Microorganism Use
Streptokinase Streptococcus clot buster
Cyclosporin A Trichoderma polysporum immunosuppressive agent
Statins Monascus purpureus Blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
CHAPTER11
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
Biotechnology ‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts
thereof,and molecular analogues for products and services.
Recombinant DNA Desired DNA + Vector DNA
Origin of replication which is responsible for initiating replication
Plasmid autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA
Restriction enzymes Cut DNA at specific locations
Vector Transfer DNA/r-DNA to the host
Cloning Obtaining multiple copies of r-DNA
Exonucleases Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
Endonucleases Cuts at a specific position in palindromic sequence within the DNA
Palindromic sequences The same reading frame on opposite polarity strand of DNA
ampR , tet R Ampicillin and Tetracycline resistant gene
DNA ligases Ligate adjacent nucleotides
Electrophoresis Separation of charged particles under influence of electric current.
Elution Obtaining DNA from agarose gel
Downstream It is the separation and purification of the product.
processing

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Define biotechnology as given by the European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB).
Ans: ‘The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and
molecular analogues for products and services.
2- Why alien DNA is linked with the origin of replication sequence?
Ans: Alien DNA is linked with the origin of replication, so that, this alien piece of
DNA can replicate and multiply itself in the host organism.
3- Write the recognition sequence/ cleavage site of Eco RI.
Ans:

4- Nowadays says which matrix is used in gel electrophoresis? From which source one
can get gel used in electrophoresis?
Ans: Nowadays the most commonly used matrix is agarose. The main source of this is seaweeds.
5- Which dye is used to visualize DNA bands on electrophoresis?
Ans: Ethidium bromide-stained gel exposed to UV light
6- Give examples of any four antibiotics which are used as selectable markers in
the cloning vector.
Ans: ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin
7- Why it is considered that a single recognition site in a vector is better than
multiple recognition?
Ans: The presence of more than one recognition site within the vector will generate
several fragments, which will complicate gene cloning.
8- Why are proteases added while isolating the DNA?
Ans: to remove histone proteins from DNA
9- What is T- DNA? Write its importance in genetic engineering.
Ans: it is a piece of DNA of Agrobacterium tumifaciens. T-DNA transform normal
plant cells into tumour cell.
10- Name one widely used artificial vector and one natural vector used to make GMOs.
Ans: pBR322, Retrovirus

Short Answer Type Questions

1- Write nomenclature method of restriction endonuclease EcoRI.
Ans: E -Genus, Escherichia, co - Species, coli, R- Strain, I- Order of isolation
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 2- Explain the one advantage of using Agrobacterium in genetic engineering?
Ans: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a bacterial plant pathogen. It infects plants and causes
crown gall disease. This disease is induced by Ti plasmid (tumour-inducing plasmid). The
Ti plasmid incorporates T-DNA into the host plant cell.
3- What are two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern biotechnology.
Ans: Genetic engineering: Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA
and RNA). Bioprocess engineering: Maintenance of sterile (microbial contamination-
free) for optimal growth of desired microbes.
4- What do you understand by the term selectable marker? Give two examples of
selectable markers.
Ans: A selectable marker is a gene which is used in the selection of
transformants and recombinants.
Example: phenotypic marker (antibiotic resistant gene like ampR, tetR) and genotypic
marker (beta-galactosidase)
5- List three basic steps required in the creation of GMOs (genetically modifying an organism).
Ans: (i) identification of DNA with desirable genes;
(ii) introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
(iii) maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
6- Draw a typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of DNA fragments
and label any four parts.
Ans: Fig11.3, page 198, NCERT
7- What are restriction enzymes? From where one can isolate it? How many linear
DNA fragments will be produced when a circular plasmid is digested with a
restriction enzyme having two sites?
Ans: Restriction enzymes are a type of nuclease enzyme that can cut DNA
fragment. One can isolate it mainly from bacteria and a few other
microorganisms.
Four fragments will produce.
8- Who constructs the recombinant DNA? Which organism does he use for this purpose?
Ans: Cohen and H. Boyer constructed the first r- DNA using antibiotic resistance genes
present on the plasmid.
He used the bacterium Salmonella typhimurium.
9- What features make plasmid a good cloning vector?
Ans: Plasmids are low molecular weight extrachromosomal genetic material, it has an
origin of replication centre, self-replication, have cleavage site for restriction
endonucleases, selectable markers and are easily available.
10- (i) Name the enzymes that are used for the isolation of DNA from bacterial and
fungal cells for rDNA technology.(ii) Why is enzyme cellulase used for isolating
genetic material from plant cells and not from animal cells?
Ans: (i) Lysozyme for bacterial cell and chitinase for the fungal cell.
(ii) Cellulase is used to break plant cell wall, animal cells lack a cell wall therefore
cellulose will not work on animal cells.
Long Answer Type Questions
(i) Explain the correct sequential step of polymerase chain reaction.
(ii) Which enzyme is used for PCR and why?
(iii) What s the source of that enzyme?

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Ans: (i) the correct steps are
 Denaturation- separation of ds DNA into ss DNA at high temperature (92℃).
 Annealing- attachment of primers towards 3’ end of both strands.
 Extension- To polymerization on primer to form new ds DNA.
(ii) Enzyme used is Taq DNA Polymerase.
(iii) Source of the enzyme is bacteria Thermus aquaticus.
1- What is Bioreactor? What are the advantages of Stirred tank Bioreactor? Show
diagrammatically a simple Stirred tank Bioreactor?
Ans: Bioreactors are large vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into
specific biological products.
Stirred tank Bioreactor provides optimal conditions (temp., pH etc), it also has an
agitation system, and foam control system for better growth.
Fig. 11.7 (a), page 204, NCERT
2- Diagrammatically represent the steps in the formation of recombinant DNA by
the action of restriction endonuclease enzyme – EcoRI.
Ans: Fig. 11.1 page 196 NCERT
3- What is genetic engineering? Explain briefly the different steps involved in genetic
engineering technology.
Ans: Genetic engineering is a technique of modification/alteration of the genome and its
application for human welfare.Steps:
 Isolation of genetic material containing the desired gene.
 Cleavage of the sequence of DNA containing the gene of interest and vector
gene with the same restriction endonuclease.
 Amplification of gene using PCR.
 Formation of r- DNA by ligating vector DNA and gene of interest
 Using gene transfer technology transfer of r- DNA into the host cell.
4- Explain any four methods of vector-less gene transfer and one method which involve vectors.
Method Explanation
Vector less Method
Divalent cation Treating a cell with a specific concentration of a divalent
cation,such as calcium, increases the cell’s efficiency to take DNA.
Heat and shock incubating the host cell under heat and then ice, create pores
on the wall through which DNA enters the bacterium.
Micro-injection r- DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell
Biolistic/ Gene plant cells are bombarded with high-velocity micro-particles of
gun method gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
Vector mediated
Disarmed Infect host cell and transfer r- DNA into them
pathogen

CHAPTER 12 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION

KEYWORDS
GMOs Genetically modified organisms these are genetically modified living
organisms like plants, animals and microorganisms.
Biopesticide The pesticide of biological origin

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 PCR Polymerase chain reaction
ELISA Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Bt Bacillus thuringiensis
Transposons These are mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
Biopiracy Use of bioresources with proper authentication
Important Question
Very short answer type questions
1- Cry gene is extensively used in genetic engineering to develop transgenic plants like cotton.
Name the source organism from which one can get the cry gene.
Ans: Bacillus thuringiensis
2- Which organism badly affects the crop of tobacco.
Ans: Nematode-Meloidogyne incognita
3- Human proinsulin has three polypeptide chains. Name all these chains and which
chain is not present in mature insulin.
Ans: chain A, B and C. Chain C are not present in mature insulin.
4- Expand ELISA and mention the principle on which it is based.
Ans: Enzyme-Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay
It is based on antigen-antibody interaction
5- How human protein (α-1-antitrypsin) is used in the medical field.
Ans: to treat emphysema
6- What is GEAC? Write its role.
Ans: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee), which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM organisms to public
services.
7- By giving one example clarify that GMOs enhance the nutritional value of food.
Ans: Golden rice, i.e., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
8- Which vector is used to create a pest-resistant tobacco plant?
Ans: Agrobacterium vectors
9- Specify one consequence of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Ans: adenosine deaminase (ADA) is crucial for the immune system to function
10- Write any two roles of PCR in molecular diagnosis technique.
Ans: HIV detection, identification of mutated gene.
Short answer type questions
1- How is a probe used in molecular diagnostics?
Ans: A probe is a ss DNA or RNA used to search for its complementary sequence in a
sample genome.By the process of hybridization and autoradiography, the probes can be
identified.
2- What is biopiracy?
Ans: use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without
proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment.
3- Developed nations are exploiting the bioresources of under-industrialised nations.
Justify the statement with a suitable example.
27 varieties of Basmati are grown in India. There is a reference to Basmati in ancient
texts, folklore and poetry, as it has been for centuries. In 1997, an American company got

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office. This
allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad.
4- Transgenic animals can be used in various ways. How could be a transgenic mouse
helpful?
Ans: Transgenic mice are developed for testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on humans. example: polio vaccine.
5- How crystal protein acts in Bt Cotton?
Cry gene of Bacillus thuringiensis is introduced in the cotton plant to form insect resistant
plant. When insects feed on the cotton plant the inactive crystal protein becomes active due to
the alkaline pH in the midgut of insects. The protein creates pores in the midgut and ultimately
insects die.
6- Give two examples of biological products obtained by using genetic engineering?
Ans: human protein (α-1-antitrypsin) is used to treat emphysema. Rosie cow produced
2.4 g/ The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin and was nutritionally a more
balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk
Long Answer Type Questions
1- Plants bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation
are called Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). GM plants have been useful in
many ways. Give at least five examples in support of the statement.
 made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
 reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
 helped to reduce post-harvest losses.
 increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants
 enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., golden rice, i.e., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice
2- What are the advantages of insulin obtained from genetic engineering? Explain the
process of its formation.
Ans: Insulin obtained from genetic engineering is cast effective and shows no adverse
effect on the body.Insulin has polypeptide chains A and B.The chain A and B is
synthesized in the different host using r—DNA technology. These chains are isolated and
joined with the help of a disulphide bond.
3- Explain different processes of Gene Therapy.
Ans: • Lymphocyte culture - Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a
culture outside the body and a functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then
introduced into these lymphocytes using a retroviral vector which is returned to the
patient. It is not a permanent method as lymphocytes are not immortal.
•Enzyme replacement- in this functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. This
required periodic infusion of injection.
•Bone marrow transplantation- If the ADA gene from marrow cells is introduced into
cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.
4- What is RNA Silencing? How is this strategy used to create pest-resistant plants?
Ans: RNA silencing involves silencing specific mRNA. This causes a stoppage of
translation. This is achieved in the bacco plant against nematode Meloidogyne
incognita.In RNAi complementary ds RNA is produced against specific mRNA.
Using the Agrobacterium vector, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host
plant. The introduction of DNA was such that it produced both sense &anti-dense RNA in
the host cell. These two RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a ds RNA that

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 initiated RNAi.
5- What are transgenic animals? Enlist any four reasons for their production.
Ans: Transgenic animals or GMOs are those organisms whose genetic material has been
altered by using genetic engineering techniques.
Reason of their production
 To study the effect of genes on normal physiology and development
 To study diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s
 To obtain biological products. E.g. human protein (α-1-antitrypsin)
 For study of Vaccine and chemical testing and safety
Chapter-12 Organisms and Populations
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Define competitive release in reference to population interaction.
Ans: Competitive release is the mechanism in which the species expands its
distribution range when the competitor species is removed.
2- What is emigration? How does it affect population density?
Ans: It is outward movement of some individuals of the species from a local population
during the time period under consideration. It decreases the population density.
3- What are two parameters by which population can be measured?
Ans: Biomass and Number
4- Name the orchid plant which undergoes sexual deceit phenomenon?
Ans: Mediterranean orchid Ophrys
5- The given age of pyramid represents
– Ans: stable population

6- Penicillium placed with streptococcus will show which type of population interaction?
Ans: Amensalism
7- Why do certain exotic species (like Parthenium in India) become too much invasive
in certain geographical area?
Ans: because those areas do not have natural predators of weed
8- In which specific condition ‘J shaped’ population growth curve may be observed?
Ans: when there is unlimited natural resources are available, and no competition takes place.
9- If ‘+’ sign is positive interaction and ‘-‘ sign is detrimental, then which type of
population interaction will be shown by ‘+’ ‘-‘
Ans: Parasitism
10- An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch shows which type of
population interaction?
Ans: Commensalism
Short answer Type questions
1- 8 individual in a laboratory population of 80 fruit fly died in a week. Calculate the death rate.
Ans: Death rate= no of individual die/ total number = 8/80 = 10
2- Fill the ‘a’ and ‘b’ with appropriate population attributes-

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
Ans: A= Natality or Immigration B=
Mortality or Emigration

3- Give an example for each of these:

a) Chemical defence agent b) Predator animal c) Migratory animal d) Camouflaged
animal Ans: a- alkaloids b- Lion c- Bird d- Frog
4- Mention the attributes which a population has but not an individual organism.
Ans: Natality, Mortality, Sex ratio, age groups.
5- List any two examples of defense mechanism in plants against herbivorous predators?
Ans. i) Thorn in acacia. ii) Cardiac glycosides in Calotropis
Long Answer Type Questions
(ii) (i) Discuss the role of predators in an ecosystem.What is brood parasitism? Give an example
Answer: (i) Predators feed on prey and by doing so they acts ‘conduits’ for energy
transfer across trophic levels and keep prey populations under control. In absence of
natural predators the prey species could achieve very high population densities and cause
ecosystem instability. Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a
community, by reducing the intensity ofcompetition among competing prey species.
(iii) Phenomenon in which one (parasitic) bird species lays its eggs in the nest of
another bird species. Cuckoo lays her egg in crow nest.

1- (i)How does age distribution help in the study of the population?

(ii) How does an age pyramid, for the human population at a given point of time
helps the policymakers in planning the future?
(iii) Draw the different types of age pyramid.
Ans: (i)The relative abundance of the organisms of various age groups in the population
is called the age distribution of the population. Age may be grouped into pre
reproductive, post reproductive and reproductive
With regard to age distribution, there are three kinds of
populations: Expanding, stable and decline.
(ii) The shape of the age pyramid reflects the growth status of the population. Thus age
pyramid for the human population at a given time helps the policymakers in planning for
the future.
(iii) Fig 13.4, page 227, NCERT
2- (i)Compare exponential and logistic growth curve by giving diagram only.
(ii) Write mathematical equation to determine population density in logistic growth.
(iii) Mention the significance of ‘r’ value.
Ans: (i) Fig 13.6 page 230 NCERT
(ii) Nt = N 0 ert
Nt = Population density after time t N0 = Population density at time
zero r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828)
(iii)‘r’ is very useful in assessing impacts of any biotic or abiotic factor on
population growth.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 3- What is ‘sexual deceit’? Explain by giving suitable example.
Ans: one petal of orchid flower resembles as female bee in size, colour and marking.
The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female, ‘pseudocopulates’ with the
flower, During this bee is dusted with pollen from the flower.
When this same bee ‘pseudocopulates’ with another flower, it transfers pollen to it and
thus, pollinates the flower.
4- What are different types of interaction in a habitat? Explain with the help of chart.
Ans: fig 13.1, page 232, NCERT
Chapter-14 Ecosystem
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Type Questions
1- Give two examples of manmade ecosystem.
Ans: Crop fields, Aquarium
2- Why decomposition occurs at a faster rate in the tropics?
Ans: high humidity and temperature favour the rapid rate of decomposition
3- How do decomposers like fungi obtain their food?
Ans: Decomposers release their enzymes to decompose dead and decaying remains of
pants and animal absorb the simple inorganic substances.
4- Name the trophic level occupied by secondary consumers & tertiary consumers?
Ans. Third trophic level by secondary consumer and fourth trophic level by tertiary consumer
5- What is the shape of pyramid of biomass in sea? Why?
Ans: Inverted, because biomass of fishes are too much as compare to very smaller
phytoplankton.
Short answer types questions
1- Describe stratification by citing three examples.
Ans: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called
stratification. For example, trees occupy top vertical strata a forest, shrubs the second and
grasses occupy the bottom layers.
2- What are four basic functional components of an ecosystem?
Ans: (i) Productivity; (ii) Decomposition; (iii) Energy flow (iv) Nutrient cycling.
3- Give two examples of autotrophic component in food chain of aquatic ecosystem.
Ans: phytoplankton, some algae
4- Which metabolic process causes reduction in gross primary productivity? Explain
Ans: A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration.
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity
(NPP). GPP – R = NPP
5- Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Ans: Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
The Sun is ultimate source of energy. It is used in photosynthesis process to make food in
autotrophs. This energy is transferred from autotrophs to next trophic level. Only 10% of
energy is transferred to next trophic level, rest amount is lost as heat.
Very Long Answer Type Questions
1- Describe steps in the process of decomposition of detritus in DFC (detritus food chain).

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 Fragmentation of Detritus - Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into
smaller particles.
Leaching- Water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get
precipitated as unavailable salts.
Catabolism- Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic
substances Humification- Accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance
called humus
Mineralization- Degradation of humus microbes and release of inorganic nutrients in soil.
2- Provide diagrammatic representation of decomposition cycle in a terrestrial
ecosystem.
Ans: Fig. 14.1 page 244, NCERT
3- What is meant by ecological pyramid? Distinguish between upright & inverted pyramids?
Explain with the help of diagram.
Ans: The graphic representation of the trophic structure of a food chain is known as
ecologicalpyramid.
In upright pyramid the number or biomass of producers is more in compare to
consumers in an ecosystem.
In inverted pyramid the number / biomass of producer is less as compare to
consumers. Fig. 14.4 (a, b, c) page 248 NCERT
4- (i)How does rate of decomposition affected by abiotic factors in an ecosystem?
(ii) Construct a pyramid of biomass starting with phytoplankton.
Ans: (i) Decomposition rate will be slow when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
and rate increases when detritus is rich in nitrogen and water soluble substances like
sugars.Warm and moist environment favour decomposition and low temperature and
anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition.
(ii)

5- Describe the components of an ecosystem?

Ans: i) Abiotic components – Inorganic substances (P, N, K, C, H etc.) b) Organic
substances (Protein, carbohydrates, lipids), Climatic (water, air, soil, temperature etc.)
ii) Abiotic components-
Producers (make their own food like plants)
Consumers (Depend on producers for food. Consumers are of following
types- i) Primary consumers - herbivores e.g. deer, cow
ii) Secondary consumers – feed on primary consumers like cat, fox
iii) Tertiary consumers- feed on secondary consumers like Lion
Decomposers: - Decompose dead and decaying objects like fungi, bacteria

Chapter-15 Biodiversity and its Conservation

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Very Short Answer Questions
1- Name the method of ex situ conservation by which gametes of threatened

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 species can be preserved.
Ans: Cryopreservation

2- List some important conventions held at international level for biodiversity conservation.
Ans: The Earth Summit- Rio de Janeiro in 1992, World Summit - Johannesburg, South
Africa in 2002
3- Make your statement in favor of India as a major mega biodiversity country.
Ans: India has only 2.4 % of the world’s land area but its biodiversity is 8.1 %.
Therefore India is in one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
4- Give example of any two alien species that become threat to indigenous plant species.
Ans: Parthenium, water hyacinth (Eichornia)
5- How exotic species differ from endemic species.
Ans: Exotic species are derived into a geographical area from any other
geographical area. Endemic species are native species restricted to a particular
geographical area.
Short Answer Type Questions
1- (i) Hot spots of biodiversity show high degree of endemism. Explain the statement.
(ii) Give three examples of hot spots.
Ans: (i) species confined to a region and not found anywhere else. Example: Polar beer
(ii) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma and Himalaya
2- It is very difficult to study the pattern of biodiversity of prokaryotes. Give reason.
Ans: The problem is that conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying
microbial species and many species are simply not culturable under laboratory conditions.
3- What are evil quarters responsible for loss of biodiversity?
Ans- Habitat loss, over exploitation, Alien species invasion, co-extinction
4- Give four examples of recent extinction due to biodiversity loss and over exploitation.
Ans: Example of recent extinction: the dodo, quagga, thylacine, Steller’s Sea Cow
5- Explain co-extinction and its consequence with a suitable example.
Ans: Co-extinction refers to the disappearance of species with extinction of another
species ofplant or animal.
E.g. Plant-pollinator mutualism, In absence of pollinators the plant cannot survive.
6- What could have triggered mass extinctions of species in the past?
Ans: Glaciation, melting of snow, the eruption of large volcanoes, earthquakes,
movement of continents, large meteorites falling on the earth, drought, etc.
7- Describe sixth extinction. How it is different from previous episodes? What is
major concern of ecologist about sixth extinction?
Ans: In past five episode of mass extinction takes place. In present sixth Extinction’ is in
progress.The current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times
faster than in the pre-human times.Ecologists warn that if the present trends continue,
nearly half of all the species on earth might be wiped out within the next 100 years
“Amazonian rain forest in south America has the greatest bio-diversity on earth”.
Justify the statement.
Ans: Amazonian rain forest in south America has the greatest biodiversity on earth; it
harbors about40000 species of plants, 1,25,000 species of insects, 3000 species of fishes,
427 of amphibians, 378 ofreptiles, 1300 of birds & 427 of mammals.
COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM
PUDUCHERRY
 8- Provide examples of the followings –
(i) Over exploitation (ii) Alien species invasion (iii) Co extinction
Ans: (i) extinction of Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon
(ii) Alien species invasion- Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria (East Africa)
causes extinction more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.
(iii) Co extinction- plant-pollinator mutualism where extinction of one invariably
leads to the extinction of the other.

9- What is the special about tropics that might account for their greater biodiversity?
Ans: (i) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
(ii) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant and predictable.
(iii) More solar energy available in the tropics that results in higher productivity.
Very Long Answer Type Questions
1- Identify the type of biodiversity with the help following statements
(i) Variation in number Amphibians of eastern ghat and western ghat
(ii) Alpine meadow has greater ecosystem diversity than Scandinavian country
(iii) Rauwlofia vomitaria in different Himalaya range
(iv) Thousands species of Rice
(v) Desert, coral reefs and mangroves in Indian sub-continent
Ans: (i) species diversity (ii) and (v) ecological diversity (iii) and (iv) (genetic diversity
2- (i) Represent global biodiversity of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates by giving
suitable pie charts.
(ii) As per IUCN data how many species were become extinct in recent past?
Ans: (i) fig 15.1 , [page 260 NCERT
(ii) 784 species (including 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants)
3- Who proposed Species-Area relationships? Explain by giving graphical representation.
Ans: Species area relationship was given by Alexander Von Humboldt
According to this within a region species richness increased with increasing
explored area, but only up to a limit.
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is a straight line described by the
equation log S = log C + Z log A
Where, S= species, A= Area, Z= slope of the line, C =Y- ntercept. Fig. 15.2, page 262
NCERT
4- (i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity?
(ii) Name and explain any two ways that are responsible for the loss of biodiversity.
Ans: (i) The narrowly utilitarian- Biodiversity provides direct economic benefits from
nature like food, firewood, fibres, medicinal plants, industrial products etc.
The Broadly Utilitarian- Biodiversity plays a major role in ecosystem services like
productions of Oxygen during photosynthesis, pollination without natural pollinator,
pleasure from nature are priceless.
Ethical- for conserving biodiversity relates to what we own to millions of plants, animals
and microbes species with whom we share this planet.
(ii) Over-exploitation- Many species extinctions in the last 500 years were due to

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY
 overexploitation by humans. For example- Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon.
Alien species invasions- Some of alien species turn invasive and cause decline or
extinction of indigenous species. E.g. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in
east Africa led eventually to the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the
lake. Invasive weeds species like carrot grass (parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth
causing threats to indigenous species.
5- What are the different approaches for biodiversity conservation in India?
Ans: There are two major approaches for conservation of biodiversity:-
i)In-situ conservation - it is protecting of the endangered species in the natural habitat.
Biosphere Reserves, National park, wildlife Sanctuaries, Sacred Grooves are example
of In-situ conservation India has 14 biosphere reserves, 90 national parks and 448 wildlife
sanctuaries. Ex- situ Conservation- It is the process of protecting of the species rearing
them under human care. It includes Botanical garden, zoological park. Cryopreservation is
the modern method of ex-situ preservation where gametes can be stored at very low
temperature for long time.

COMPILED BY J.S CHITHRA LECTURER IN BOTANY JEEVANANDHAM G.H.S.S KARAMANIKUPAM

PUDUCHERRY