Detention Work of SPPM

Unit Name:
1) Introduction to Software Engineering & Basic Software Process Models
2) Software Requirement Analysis, Specification
3) Software Process Management and Organization
4) Project Review
5) Software Quality Management
6) CCPDS – R

Group Member Name:

1) Makarand Jadhav (TY-B,70)
2) Krishna Shrangare (TY-B,69)
3) Sumit Lokhande (TY-B,67)
4) Shravani Wagh (TY-A,57)
5) Pratiksha Jadhav (TY-A,18)
6) Sayli Dabke (TY-A,07)
7) Sudiksha Narwade (TY-A,41)

Unit I: Introduction to Software Engineering & Basic Software Process Models

1. What is the primary purpose of SDLC?

o A) Coding
o B) System maintenance
o C) Structured development process
o D) Hardware testing
2. Which phase in SDLC involves gathering requirements?
o A) Design
o B) Testing
o C) Requirement Analysis
o D) Maintenance
3. The process of adapting a software process for a particular project is called:
o A) Customization
o B) Optimization
o C) Tailoring
o D) Development
4. Which of these is a key reason to implement process discipline in software
development?
o A) Faster coding
o B) Consistency and quality
o C) Lower costs
 o D) Less documentation
5. What is the main disadvantage of the Waterfall Model?
o A) It requires less documentation
o B) Changes are difficult to implement
o C) It has high flexibility
o D) There is no planning stage
6. In the Waterfall Model, when are requirements gathered?
o A) Throughout the process
o B) After development
o C) At the beginning
o D) During testing
7. Which model is useful when requirements are not well understood at the start?
o A) Waterfall
o B) Prototype
o C) Spiral
o D) RAD
8. The Prototyping Model is best suited for:
o A) Systems with well-defined requirements
o B) High-risk projects
o C) Projects requiring a mock-up for feedback
o D) Small-scale projects only
9. RAD stands for:
o A) Rapid Application Development
o B) Realistic Application Design
o C) Reactive Application Development
o D) Recursive Application Development
10. In RAD, development is characterized by:
o A) Slow development cycles
o B) Heavy documentation
o C) Quick prototypes
o D) Minimal testing
11. What is a key feature of the Incremental Model?
o A) Complete system delivered at once
o B) Parallel development
o C) System developed in small parts
o D) Lack of testing
12. Which model includes multiple cycles of planning, risk assessment, and
development?
o A) Incremental
o B) Agile
o C) Spiral
o D) Waterfall
13. The Spiral Model focuses on:
o A) High customer interaction
o B) Minimal risk analysis
o C) Risk management and iterative cycles
 o D) Large system testing
14. Who is credited with developing the Spiral Model?
o A) Winston Royce
o B) Barry Boehm
o C) Kent Beck
o D) Fred Brooks
15. In which model are customer feedback and prototypes used iteratively?
o A) Spiral
o B) Waterfall
o C) RAD
o D) Component Assembly
16. The Component Assembly Model relies on:
o A) Customized components
o B) Building each module from scratch
o C) Reusable software components
o D) Testing-heavy phases
17. Agile focuses on:
o A) Documentation-heavy processes
o B) Fixed requirements
o C) Iterative and incremental delivery
o D) Lack of customer involvement
18. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Agile development?
o A) Responding to change
o B) Following a strict plan
o C) Customer collaboration
o D) Individuals and interactions
19. Which of the following emphasizes customer satisfaction through rapid delivery?
o A) RAD
o B) Waterfall
o C) Agile
o D) Component Assembly
20. Which model is most suitable for projects where requirements change frequently?
o A) Waterfall
o B) Agile
o C) Incremental
o D) Prototype
21. Which process model is ideal for high-risk projects?
o A) RAD
o B) Spiral
o C) Agile
o D) Waterfall
22. Which Agile methodology uses Sprints?
o A) Scrum
o B) Extreme Programming
o C) Lean Development
o D) Kanban
 23. In which model does each phase serve as input for the next phase only?
o A) Agile
o B) Spiral
o C) Waterfall
o D) Incremental

24. The main goal of the Waterfall Model is:

o A) Flexibility
o B) High customer feedback
o C) Sequential development
o D) Quick prototyping
25. The RAD model is suitable when:
o A) Requirements are clear and fixed
o B) Prototypes are not needed
o C) System should be developed quickly
o D) Client involvement is low
26. Which model is specifically designed to accommodate frequent changes?
o A) Waterfall
o B) Incremental
o C) Agile
o D) Spiral
27. What is the purpose of risk analysis in the Spiral Model?
o A) Minimize documentation
o B) Reduce risk of project failure
o C) Speed up development
o D) Avoid customer feedback
28. The Incremental Model combines:
o A) Testing and design
o B) Waterfall and RAD
o C) Sequential and iterative development
o D) Agile and Prototype
29. Which model emphasizes reuse of components?
o A) RAD
o B) Spiral
o C) Component Assembly
o D) Waterfall
30. What is the main focus of the Agile model?
o A) Heavy documentation
o B) Customer satisfaction
o C) Minimal testing
o D) Large-scale systems

Unit II: Software Requirement Analysis, Specification

1. Which of the following is a primary activity in requirement analysis?
o A) System coding
o B) Defining requirements
o C) System testing
o D) Deployment
2. Requirement Analysis aims to:
o A) Develop the system
o B) Define and document system requirements
o C) Fix bugs
o D) Code the system
3. Which of these is NOT a type of requirement?
o A) Functional
o B) Non-functional
o C) Productive
o D) Regulatory
4. Feasibility study involves analyzing:
o A) Economic and technical factors
o B) Coding practices
o C) Testing procedures
o D) Deployment strategies
5. A Data Dictionary is primarily used to:
o A) Store user data
o B) Define data elements and structures
o C) Manage data flow
o D) Organize test cases
6. Which of the following is a requirement elicitation technique?
o A) Coding
o B) Interviews
o C) Deployment
o D) Compilation
7. SRS stands for:
o A) Software Requirement System
o B) Software Requirement Specification
o C) System Requirement Specification
o D) Structured Requirement System
8. A good SRS should be:
o A) Incomplete
o B) Complex
o C) Clear and unambiguous
o D) Flexible
9. Use Case Analysis helps in identifying:
o A) System coding
o B) User interactions with the system
o C) Hardware specifications
o D) Database schema
10. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a good SRS?
 o A) Clarity
o B) Flexibility
o C) Completeness
o D) Ambiguity
11. A Flow Diagram is used to represent:
o A) Database schemas
o B) Flow of data and processes
o C) Test cases
o D) User roles
12. Structured English is a technique used to:
o A) Write code
o B) Model requirements
o C) Design UI
o D) Manage projects
13. Decision Tables are used to represent:
o A) System architecture
o B) Logical rules and actions
o C) Testing plans
o D) Project timelines
14. Requirement Elicitation is primarily about:
o A) Gathering system requirements
o B) Testing the system
o C) Coding the project
o D) Documenting the system architecture
15. Non-functional requirements focus on:
o A) User interfaces
o B) Performance, security, and usability
o C) Application logic
o D) Data structures
16. Decision Trees are used in requirement analysis to:
o A) Visualize decisions and their consequences
o B) Organize project tasks
o C) Document coding standards
o D) Identify testing procedures
17. The SRS document is typically created during:
o A) System coding phase
o B) Requirement analysis phase
o C) Testing phase
o D) Deployment phase
18. The purpose of a feasibility study is to:
o A) Build the system
o B) Assess the viability of the project
o C) Document test cases
o D) Manage project timelines
19. Which of these is a primary output of the requirements analysis phase?
o A) System design blueprint
 o B) SRS document
o C) User manual
o D) Test cases
20. Data Flow Diagrams (DFDs) represent:
o A) Hardware components
o B) Flow of data in the system
o C) Project schedules
o D) Testing criteria

21. Requirement analysis ensures that:

o A) The project is completed on time
o B) The project meets user expectations
o C) Code is efficient
o D) Testing is effective
22. The process of documenting system requirements in detail is called:
o A) System analysis
o B) Requirement specification
o C) Coding
o D) Testing
23. In a decision table, decisions are represented based on:
o A) Project timelines
o B) Conditions and actions
o C) System design
o D) User roles
24. Non-functional requirements in SRS address:
o A) System architecture
o B) User interactions
o C) Performance and reliability
o D) Data structures
25. A feasibility study includes evaluating:
o A) Technical, economic, and operational feasibility
o B) Testing methodologies
o C) System coding requirements
o D) Project deployment strategies
26. Requirement Elicitation can involve all of the following EXCEPT:
o A) Interviews
o B) Questionnaires
o C) Prototyping
o D) Code optimization
27. Structured English is mainly used in:
o A) Requirement specification
o B) System design
o C) Testing documentation
o D) Coding
 28. Which of the following defines expected system behavior?
o A) Functional requirements
o B) Non-functional requirements
o C) Architectural requirements
o D) Maintenance requirements
29. DFDs are primarily used to:
o A) Test system functionality
o B) Represent data flow in the system
o C) Design the user interface
o D) Code the system

30. The primary purpose of the SRS document is to:

o A) Design the system
o B) Specify system requirements
o C) Test the system
o D) Deploy the system

Unit III: Software Project Management & Organization

1. Which of the following is a primary focus of software project management?

o A) Hardware testing
o B) System documentation
o C) Project planning and scheduling
o D) User interface design
2. Which of these is a vital aspect of software project management?
o A) Communication
o B) Coding efficiency
o C) Cost reduction
o D) Prototyping
3. A key responsibility of a project manager is:
o A) Writing code
o B) Creating user manuals
o C) Ensuring the project meets its objectives
o D) Handling customer support
4. What is project planning in software development primarily concerned with?
o A) Managing resources and timelines
o B) Writing code
o C) Implementing algorithms
o D) Final testing
5. Which of the following best defines project management?
o A) Completing the project as fast as possible
o B) Planning, organizing, and managing resources
o C) Coding and debugging software
o D) Conducting project testing
6. Leadership in software project management mainly involves:
o A) Writing documentation
o B) Leading and motivating the team
o C) Hardware management
o D) Data management
7. Effective communication in a project team helps to:
o A) Reduce project costs
o B) Improve code quality
o C) Minimize misunderstandings
o D) Speed up testing

8. Which phase focuses on controlling and monitoring the project progress?

o A) Project initiation
o B) Project execution
o C) Project closure
o D) Project planning
9. A successful project manager should possess which of the following skills?
o A) Coding
o B) Debugging
o C) Leadership
o D) Testing
10. Which of the following best describes “scope” in project management?
o A) Time required to complete the project
o B) Overall goals and objectives of the project
o C) Cost management
o D) Team assignments
11. In software project management, risk management is important because it:
o A) Reduces coding errors
o B) Ensures successful project completion
o C) Reduces documentation needs
o D) Avoids testing delays
12. A project manager is responsible for balancing which key constraints?
o A) Communication, testing, and coding
o B) Time, cost, and scope
o C) Hardware, software, and security
o D) Design, development, and deployment
13. Effective project planning helps to:
o A) Avoid any risks
o B) Establish clear goals and timelines
o C) Test the final product
o D) Implement the code faster
14. The process of determining project costs and resources is called:
o A) Risk management
o B) Cost estimation
 o C) Quality assurance
o D) Scope analysis
15. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of project management?
o A) Scheduling
o B) Budgeting
o C) Debugging
o D) Risk assessment
16. Which of these is a common tool for managing project schedules?
o A) Data dictionary
o B) Gantt chart
o C) Decision table
o D) Flowchart
17. A well-defined project scope helps in:
o A) Reducing the project timeline
o B) Clarifying the project goals and boundaries
o C) Increasing coding efficiency
o D) Reducing system requirements
18. The main goal of project monitoring and controlling is to:
o A) Code the system efficiently
o B) Keep the project aligned with the plan
o C) Minimize testing requirements
o D) Increase scope
19. Which type of communication is critical for project success?
o A) One-way communication
o B) Regular and two-way communication
o C) Delayed communication
o D) Avoiding communication
20. In project management, a milestone is:
o A) A risk management technique
o B) A significant point or event in the project
o C) A type of project documentation
o D) A testing phase
21. In software project management, what is “scope creep”?
o A) Reduction of project requirements
o B) Uncontrolled changes in project scope
o C) Reduction in project timeline
o D) Increased testing requirements
22. Which technique involves breaking down a project into smaller, manageable tasks?
o A) Task division
o B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
o C) Gantt chart analysis
o D) Data flow diagram
23. One important trait for effective project leadership is:
o A) Ignoring team concerns
o B) Strong decision-making
o C) Avoiding feedback
 o D) Working alone
24. What is the primary purpose of resource allocation in project management?
o A) Minimize communication
o B) Test the project thoroughly
o C) Allocate available resources efficiently
o D) Decrease project scope
25. A project report is useful because it:
o A) Reduces the need for testing
o B) Provides a summary of project status
o C) Avoids team meetings
o D) Increases coding efficiency
26. Which of the following focuses on team dynamics in project management?
o A) Data management
o B) Scheduling
o C) Resource allocation
o D) Human resource management
27. Which leadership style involves decision-making based on team input?
o A) Autocratic
o B) Democratic
o C) Laissez-faire
o D) Authoritative
28. The “critical path” in project management refers to:
o A) The longest path in a project schedule that determines the shortest completion
time
o B) The path with the least resources
o C) The path with the most coding
o D) The path with the most testing
29. Project scope defines:
o A) Only the timeline of the project
o B) The features and functions of the final product
o C) Budget for resources
o D) Coding practices
30. Project scheduling aims to:
o A) Minimize testing requirements
o B) Define timeframes for project tasks
o C) Optimize code efficiency
o D) Finalize project costs

Unit IV: Project Review and Project Engineering

1. Which tool is used for visualizing the project schedule over time?
o A) Data Flow Diagram
o B) ER Diagram
o C) Gantt Chart
o D) UML Diagram
2. Top-down planning in project management involves:
 o A) Breaking down tasks from a high-level perspective
o B) Organizing by departmental priorities
o C) Starting with detailed task assignments
o D) Limiting project scope
3. A PERT chart is primarily used for:
o A) Coding standards
o B) Project scheduling and time management
o C) Testing procedures
o D) Documenting requirements
4. Which of the following is a purpose of a project review?
o A) To update the codebase
o B) To assess project progress and identify any issues
o C) To train the development team
o D) To manage database systems

5. The main function of an escalation meeting is to:

o A) Perform system testing
o B) Resolve critical issues and track recovery plans
o C) Develop new project tasks
o D) Assign coding roles
6. In project management, tracking meetings are typically used to:
o A) Revise budget plans
o B) Monitor project progress and adjust timelines if needed
o C) Develop code more efficiently
o D) Conduct user testing
7. Which of these best describes "Project Engineering"?
o A) Coding best practices
o B) Project planning and scheduling
o C) Defining, analyzing, and solving project-related issues
o D) Writing technical documentation
8. A common technique for gathering initial requirements is:
o A) Feasibility study
o B) User testing
o C) Database design
o D) Requirement elicitation
9. Project duration estimation is essential because it helps to:
o A) Minimize resource requirements
o B) Develop a budget forecast
o C) Ensure timely project completion
o D) Streamline the coding process
10. A Schedule Work Breakdown (SWB) divides the project into:
o A) Different testing phases
o B) Smaller, manageable tasks
o C) User interface design components
 o D) Maintenance activities
11. The primary goal of project scheduling is to:
o A) Control testing procedures
o B) Minimize resource use
o C) Organize tasks within a set timeframe
o D) Develop detailed user interfaces
12. Which approach involves understanding the customer's problem to define
solutions?
o A) Project testing
o B) Project documentation
o C) Project engineering
o D) Quality assurance
13. Project tracking helps to:
o A) Improve coding standards
o B) Ensure project milestones are achieved
o C) Avoid project reviews
o D) Update the SRS

14. A PERT chart focuses on:

o A) Resource allocation
o B) Testing criteria
o C) Task dependencies and durations
o D) Data modeling
15. Which of these is not a project scheduling tool?
o A) Gantt Chart
o B) Flowchart
o C) PERT Chart
o D) Critical Path Method
16. Escalation meetings are generally needed when:
o A) Milestones are missed
o B) The project is ahead of schedule
o C) Documentation is incomplete
o D) Testing fails
17. Project requirements help to:
o A) Assign coding roles
o B) Establish a clear project roadmap
o C) Limit project budget
o D) Simplify testing procedures
18. Project engineering begins with:
o A) Gathering customer requirements
o B) Writing code
o C) Testing the system
o D) Creating the database
19. The critical path in project management is:
 o A) The longest path of planned activities
o B) The shortest task list
o C) A coding strategy
o D) A testing method
20. The main goal of a project review is to:
o A) Track milestones
o B) Write documentation
o C) Ensure project alignment with objectives
o D) Finalize the design
21. Recovery plans in project management are created to:
o A) Code the system faster
o B) Resolve issues that delay the project
o C) Simplify testing procedures
o D) Create new features
22. In project scheduling, a milestone is:
o A) A small project within a project
o B) An essential point in the project timeline
o C) A budget estimate
o D) A testing phase

23. Which of the following describes a bottom-up planning approach?

o A) Planning from the executive level down
o B) Creating tasks from the bottom layers of the team
o C) Focused on technical detail
o D) Starting with details and building up
24. The primary output of project planning is a:
o A) Requirement document
o B) Project schedule
o C) Test report
o D) Codebase
25. What is the purpose of a task dependency?
o A) To outline which tasks rely on others
o B) To schedule tasks simultaneously
o C) To reduce project scope
o D) To simplify task tracking
26. When a project is “on schedule,” it means:
o A) It has used minimal resources
o B) All tasks are completed ahead of time
o C) It meets set timeline expectations
o D) No delays have occurred
27. Project scope management aims to:
o A) Define what the project will not include
o B) Outline project expectations and deliverables
o C) Manage testing requirements
 o D) Assign coding tasks
28. Which of these terms relates to adjusting the schedule as new tasks are added?
o A) Project slippage
o B) Project adjustment
o C) Schedule revision
o D) Resource allocation
29. A Gantt chart can visually represent:
o A) Coding standards
o B) Task progress and timelines
o C) Project feasibility
o D) Quality metrics
30. The main purpose of tracking project performance is to:
o A) Improve coding speed
o B) Control cost and timelines
o C) Reduce project complexity
o D) Document requirements

Unit V: Software Quality Management

1. What does FURPS stand for in software quality management?

o A) Features, Usability, Reliability, Performance, and Supportability
o B) Functions, Usability, Reliability, Product, and Security
o C) Features, Usability, Resources, Performance, and Security
o D) Functions, Usability, Resources, Performance, and Supportability
2. The primary purpose of Software Quality Assurance (SQA) is to:
o A) Test the software thoroughly
o B) Improve the software’s user interface
o C) Ensure that software meets specified quality standards
o D) Reduce project costs
3. Which of the following is a software quality measure?
o A) Code complexity
o B) FURPS
o C) Gantt chart
o D) Flowchart
4. Reliability in software quality refers to:
o A) The speed of the software
o B) The software’s ability to perform without failure
o C) The ease of using the software
o D) The number of features in the software
5. Software reviews are conducted to:
o A) Identify and correct defects early in the development process
o B) Improve marketing strategies
 o C) Increase user engagement
o D) Enhance the software’s appearance
6. A Technical Review (FTR) in software quality management is:
o A) A test to assess software reliability
o B) A formal examination of a software product by a review team
o C) A method to increase productivity
o D) A cost analysis technique
7. Software reliability testing is primarily concerned with:
o A) User satisfaction
o B) Consistency of software performance under various conditions
o C) Improving the graphical interface
o D) Documenting project goals
8. The purpose of the Software Quality Assurance (SQA) plan is to:
o A) Outline project deadlines
o B) Ensure the software meets quality standards
o C) Improve system speed
o D) Allocate project resources
9. In SQA, which characteristic evaluates software’s ability to support upgrades and
modifications?
o A) Reliability
o B) Supportability
o C) Usability
o D) Performance

10. FURPS includes “Performance,” which means:

o A) How quickly the software is completed
o B) The software’s responsiveness and efficiency
o C) The software’s aesthetic appeal
o D) The simplicity of the code
11. Quality Assurance in software is concerned with:
o A) Only testing
o B) Monitoring processes and standards to improve quality
o C) User interface design
o D) Improving code writing speed
12. A software product’s “usability” refers to:
o A) The ease of understanding and using the software
o B) Its speed
o C) Its reliability
o D) Its supportability
13. The Quality Assurance team is responsible for:
o A) Developing the code
o B) Ensuring the software meets specific quality standards
o C) Marketing the software
o D) User training
14. In FURPS, “Supportability” is concerned with:
o A) Reliability of the software
o B) Ease of software maintenance and support
o C) User interface friendliness
o D) Software speed
15. Software Quality Management includes:
o A) Budget allocation
o B) Setting quality objectives, planning, and quality assurance activities
o C) Code optimization
o D) Enhancing user feedback
16. A software review typically involves:
o A) Marketing assessment
o B) Checking software performance
o C) Analyzing and verifying software products against requirements
o D) Customer feedback analysis
17. The purpose of a quality metric is to:
o A) Measure and assess software quality objectively
o B) Increase the number of features
o C) Improve the code readability
o D) Perform market analysis
18. Software reliability testing checks for:
o A) The software’s support for multiple devices
o B) Stability and error-free operation over time
o C) User interface clarity
o D) Faster code execution

19. In quality management, a format review is used to:

o A) Check code formatting
o B) Review the overall structure and presentation of documents
o C) Test software performance
o D) Evaluate budget allocations
20. An SQA Plan includes:
o A) Coding standards only
o B) Quality goals, tools, and responsibilities
o C) Project deadlines
o D) Marketing strategies
21. Which is NOT a part of software quality management?
o A) Software design
o B) Quality planning
o C) Quality control
o D) Quality improvement
22. A defect prevention plan focuses on:
o A) Testing the final product
o B) Preventing errors during the development process
 o C) Cost estimation
o D) Enhancing software speed
23. The purpose of usability testing is to:
o A) Determine software reliability
o B) Assess user-friendliness of the software
o C) Check software speed
o D) Improve software security
24. Software performance testing measures:
o A) User satisfaction
o B) Response time and processing capacity
o C) Software design
o D) Software documentation
25. Which quality metric is used to evaluate system’s ease of use?
o A) Performance
o B) Reliability
o C) Usability
o D) Supportability
26. Quality assurance primarily focuses on:
o A) Coding efficiency
o B) Defining processes to achieve high-quality software
o C) Software speed
o D) Customer acquisition
27. Failure to meet quality requirements typically results in:
o A) Increased customer satisfaction
o B) Software errors and performance issues
o C) Reduced development time
o D) Better marketing opportunities

28. A quality control activity includes:

o A) Project budgeting
o B) Testing and inspections to identify defects
o C) Coding practices
o D) User interface design
29. SQA is essential for:
o A) Improving project deadlines
o B) Ensuring consistency and reliability of software
o C) Increasing profit margins
o D) Writing better code
30. The software testing life cycle includes:
o A) Requirement gathering
o B) Test planning, design, and execution
o C) Marketing strategies
o D) Software coding
Unit VI: Case Studies and Future Software Project Management Practices

1. Which of the following is NOT a primary focus of modern software project

management?
o A) Flexibility
o B) Customer collaboration
o C) Fixed schedules
o D) Adaptive planning
2. A case study in software project management is primarily used to:
o A) Develop new programming languages
o B) Document project requirements
o C) Analyze and learn from real-world project experiences
o D) Write detailed project code
3. Next-generation software economics aims to:
o A) Increase project costs
o B) Reduce software development time and costs
o C) Focus on traditional development methods
o D) Implement outdated technologies
4. In modern project management, Agile methodology emphasizes:
o A) Strict planning and documentation
o B) High-level design only
o C) Iterative development and customer feedback
o D) Limiting customer interactions
5. In Agile, which of the following is considered essential for project success?
o A) Detailed documentation
o B) Customer feedback and adaptation
o C) Reducing team interactions
o D) Avoiding changes to project scope
6. A transition phase in project management is best described as:
o A) Finalizing project documentation
o B) Moving from one project phase to the next smoothly
o C) Testing the software
o D) Delivering the product to the customer
7. The Agile approach is often preferred for:
o A) Projects with strict deadlines and fixed requirements
o B) Long-term projects without client interaction
o C) Projects requiring flexibility and client feedback
o D) Highly regulated projects with no changes
8. Which aspect of project management focuses on minimizing project delays and
optimizing resources?
o A) Scheduling tools
o B) Budget management
o C) Time-tracking
o D) Project transitions
9. Which of the following is a common characteristic of next-generation software
projects?
 o A) Limited customer involvement
o B) Focus on speed over quality
o C) Emphasis on adaptability and future-proofing
o D) Fixed, rigid planning
10. CCPDs in project management are concerned with:
o A) Collaborative and customer-oriented design processes
o B) Traditional hierarchical structures
o C) Software testing phases
o D) Code writing techniques
11. The main goal of studying software project management case studies is to:
o A) Create standard documentation formats
o B) Replicate project outcomes exactly
o C) Learn from past successes and mistakes
o D) Avoid customer feedback
12. What is one benefit of Agile over traditional project management methodologies?
o A) More predictable budgets
o B) Reduced client involvement
o C) Increased flexibility and faster adaptation
o D) Avoiding changes to the project
13. A key concept in next-generation software economics is:
o A) Minimizing all types of software testing
o B) Reducing client meetings
o C) Balancing cost-effectiveness with high quality
o D) Focusing only on coding speed
14. In modern project management profiles, customer value is:
o A) Secondary to project deadlines
o B) Central to decision-making and planning
o C) Avoided to reduce scope changes
o D) Not important

15. Which project management methodology relies on continuous delivery and

integration?
o A) Waterfall
o B) Spiral
o C) Agile
o D) RAD
16. Case studies are useful in project management because they:
o A) Provide hypothetical examples
o B) Show only the successful parts of a project
o C) Offer real-world insights and lessons
o D) Increase project costs
17. Transitioning in a project means:
o A) Testing every feature in isolation
o B) Planning the next project phase without communication
 o C) Gradually shifting responsibilities and processes
o D) Ending the project abruptly
18. Next-generation project profiles aim to:
o A) Limit software updates
o B) Decrease customer engagement
o C) Enhance flexibility and responsiveness to change
o D) Avoid technological advancements
19. Which approach is more suited to managing uncertainty and changing
requirements?
o A) Waterfall
o B) Agile
o C) Sequential
o D) Prototype
20. The "software economics" aspect of project management is concerned with:
o A) Customer satisfaction surveys
o B) The cost-effectiveness of development practices
o C) Programming languages used
o D) The software’s user interface
21. An essential characteristic of modern software project management is:
o A) Rigidity in project phases
o B) Flexibility in adapting to changes
o C) Avoiding customer interactions
o D) Minimizing team collaboration
22. Which of these is NOT a feature of Agile methodology?
o A) Iterative development
o B) Strict phase-wise planning
o C) Regular feedback loops
o D) Flexibility to adapt to change
23. In project transitions, communication with stakeholders is important to:
o A) Justify additional costs
o B) Minimize changes to the original plan
o C) Ensure alignment and update them on progress
o D) Avoid client questions
24. Which type of project management tool is most likely used to track project timelines
and milestones?
o A) Gantt Chart
o B) Data Dictionary
o C) Use Case Diagram
o D) Entity-Relationship Diagram
25. A project management case study typically includes:
o A) Budget breakdowns only
o B) Specific code snippets
o C) Key lessons learned, successes, and challenges
o D) Marketing strategies
26. Agile is preferred over Waterfall in modern software projects due to its:
o A) Rigid structure
 o B) High cost
o C) Flexibility and iterative approach
o D) Lack of documentation
27. A project manager uses CCPDs to:
o A) Track code quality
o B) Increase coding speed
o C) Enhance project control and collaboration
o D) Reduce client meetings
28. What is a key characteristic of next-generation software management tools?
o A) Focus on traditional coding practices
o B) Emphasis on flexibility and future scalability
o C) Limiting change requests
o D) Avoiding client feedback
29. The primary goal of continuous integration in Agile is to:
o A) Increase documentation
o B) Facilitate early detection and resolution of issues
o C) Increase project costs
o D) Reduce customer feedback
30. An important aspect of modern software project economics is:
o A) Eliminating flexibility in the budget
o B) Prioritizing low costs over quality
o C) Achieving a balance between budget, resources, and quality
o D) Focusing only on the speed of delivery
Unit I: Introduction to Software Engineering & Basic Software Process Models

1. C) Structured development process

2. C) Requirement Analysis
3. C) Tailoring
4. B) Consistency and quality
5. B) Changes are difficult to implement
6. C) At the beginning
7. B) Prototype
8. C) Projects requiring a mock-up for feedback
9. A) Rapid Application Development
10. C) Quick prototypes
11. C) System developed in small parts
12. C) Spiral
13. C) Risk management and iterative cycles
14. B) Barry Boehm
15. A) Spiral
16. C) Reusable software components
17. C) Iterative and incremental delivery
18. B) Following a strict plan
19. C) Agile
20. B) Agile
21. B) Spiral
22. A) Scrum
23. C) Waterfall
24. C) Sequential development
25. C) System should be developed quickly
26. C) Agile
27. B) Reduce risk of project failure
28. C) Sequential and iterative development
29. C) Component Assembly
30. B) Customer satisfaction

Unit II: Software Requirement Analysis, Specification

1. B) Defining requirements
2. B) Define and document system requirements
3. C) Productive
4. A) Economic and technical factors
5. B) Define data elements and structures
6. B) Interviews
7. B) Software Requirement Specification
8. C) Clear and unambiguous
9. B) User interactions with the system
10. D) Ambiguity
11. B) Flow of data and processes
 12. B) Model requirements
13. B) Logical rules and actions
14. A) Gathering system requirements
15. B) Performance, security, and usability
16. A) Visualize decisions and their consequences
17. B) Requirement analysis phase
18. B) Assess the viability of the project
19. B) SRS document
20. B) Flow of data in the system
21. B) The project meets user expectations
22. B) Requirement specification
23. B) Conditions and actions
24. C) Performance and reliability
25. A) Technical, economic, and operational feasibility
26. D) Code optimization
27. A) Requirement specification
28. A) Functional requirements
29. B) Represent data flow in the system
30. B) Specify system requirements

Unit III: Software Project Management & Organization:

1. C) Project planning and scheduling

2. A) Communication
3. C) Ensuring the project meets its objectives
4. A) Managing resources and timelines
5. B) Planning, organizing, and managing resources
6. B) Leading and motivating the team
7. C) Minimize misunderstandings
8. B) Project execution
9. C) Leadership
10. B) Overall goals and objectives of the project
11. B) Ensures successful project completion
12. B) Time, cost, and scope
13. B) Establish clear goals and timelines
14. B) Cost estimation
15. C) Debugging
16. B) Gantt chart
17. B) Clarifying the project goals and boundaries
18. B) Keep the project aligned with the plan
19. B) Regular and two-way communication
20. B) A significant point or event in the project
21. B) Uncontrolled changes in project scope
22. B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
23. B) Strong decision-making
24. C) Allocate available resources efficiently
 25. B) Provides a summary of project status
26. D) Human resource management
27. B) Democratic
28. A) The longest path in a project schedule that determines the shortest completion time
29. B) The features and functions of the final product
30. B) Define timeframes for project tasks

Unit IV: Project Review and Project Engineering

1. C) Gantt Chart
2. A) Breaking down tasks from a high-level perspective
3. B) Project scheduling and time management
4. B) To assess project progress and identify any issues
5. B) Resolve critical issues and track recovery plans
6. B) Monitor project progress and adjust timelines if needed
7. C) Defining, analyzing, and solving project-related issues
8. D) Requirement elicitation
9. C) Ensure timely project completion
10. B) Smaller, manageable tasks
11. C) Organize tasks within a set timeframe
12. C) Project engineering
13. B) Ensure project milestones are achieved
14. C) Task dependencies and durations
15. B) Flowchart
16. A) Milestones are missed
17. B) Establish a clear project roadmap
18. A) Gathering customer requirements
19. A) The longest path of planned activities
20. C) Ensure project alignment with objectives
21. B) Resolve issues that delay the project
22. B) An essential point in the project timeline
23. D) Starting with details and building up
24. B) Project schedule
25. A) To outline which tasks rely on others
26. C) It meets set timeline expectations
27. B) Outline project expectations and deliverables
28. C) Schedule revision
29. B) Task progress and timelines
30. B) Control cost and timelines

Unit V: Software Quality Management

1. A) Features, Usability, Reliability, Performance, and Supportability

2. C) Ensure that software meets specified quality standards
3. B) FURPS
4. B) The software’s ability to perform without failure
 5. A) Identify and correct defects early in the development process
6. B) A formal examination of a software product by a review team
7. B) Consistency of software performance under various conditions
8. B) Ensure the software meets quality standards
9. B) Supportability
10. B) The software’s responsiveness and efficiency
11. B) Monitoring processes and standards to improve quality
12. A) The ease of understanding and using the software
13. B) Ensuring the software meets specific quality standards
14. B) Ease of software maintenance and support
15. B) Setting quality objectives, planning, and quality assurance activities
16. C) Analyzing and verifying software products against requirements
17. A) Measure and assess software quality objectively
18. B) Stability and error-free operation over time
19. B) Review the overall structure and presentation of documents
20. B) Quality goals, tools, and responsibilities
21. A) Software design
22. B) Preventing errors during the development process
23. B) Assess user-friendliness of the software
24. B) Response time and processing capacity
25. C) Usability
26. B) Defining processes to achieve high-quality software
27. B) Software errors and performance issues
28. B) Testing and inspections to identify defects
29. B) Ensuring consistency and reliability of software
30. B) Test planning, design, and execution

Unit VI: Case Studies and Future Software Project Management Practices:

1. C) Fixed schedules
2. C) Analyze and learn from real-world project experiences
3. B) Reduce software development time and costs
4. C) Iterative development and customer feedback
5. B) Customer feedback and adaptation
6. B) Moving from one project phase to the next smoothly
7. C) Projects requiring flexibility and client feedback
8. A) Scheduling tools
9. C) Emphasis on adaptability and future-proofing
10. A) Collaborative and customer-oriented design processes
11. C) Learn from past successes and mistakes
12. C) Increased flexibility and faster adaptation
13. C) Balancing cost-effectiveness with high quality
14. B) Central to decision-making and planning
15. C) Agile
16. C) Offer real-world insights and lessons
17. C) Gradually shifting responsibilities and processes
18. C) Enhance flexibility and responsiveness to change
19. B) Agile
20. B) The cost-effectiveness of development practices
21. B) Flexibility in adapting to changes
22. B) Strict phase-wise planning
23. C) Ensure alignment and update them on progress
24. A) Gantt Chart
25. C) Key lessons learned, successes, and challenges
26. C) Flexibility and iterative approach
27. C) Enhance project control and collaboration
28. B) Emphasis on flexibility and future scalability
29. B) Facilitate early detection and resolution of issues
30. C) Achieving a balance between budget, resources, and quality