LEADERSHIP

Chapter 1
1. Leadership is the influencing process between leaders and followers to achieve
organizational objectives through change (True/False)
2. If a person is not interested and not willing to be in charge, he or she may still
be well-suited as a follower. (True/False)
3. Taking advantage of followers for personal gain is a part of leadership.
(True/False)
4. Research indicates that leadership success is associated with being a hard-
nosed, tough manager. (true/false)
5. Leaders tend to be born with some leadership ability and develop that ability
over time. (true/false)
6. The interpersonal leadership roles include figurehead, leader, and monitor.
(true/false)
7. Spokesperson is a decisional role. (true/false)
8. Individual and group performance are based on organizational performance.
(true/false)
9. Relationships are critical to leadership success, and they are built on
interpersonal skills. (true/false)
10. Out of Henry Mintzberg's ten managerial roles, the leader role is the most
important. (true/false)
11. The leader-follower relationship represents the influence:
A. of the leader on the follower.
B. of the follower on the leader.
C. of the leader on the group.
D. between the leader and the follower.
12. Successful leaders need these three managerial leadership skills:
A. technical, intrapersonal, and decision-making.
B. planning, decision-making, and organizing.
C. decision-making, interpersonal, and technical.
D. leading, planning, and decision-making.
13. Most employees are promoted to their first management position primarily
because of their ____ skills.
A. Interpersonal
B. team building
C. decision-making
D. technical
14. Which of the following is NOT one of Mintzberg's interpersonal leadership
roles?
A. Figurehead
B. Entrepreneur
C. Leader
D. Liaison
15. Which of the following is an example of a spokesperson role?
A. Reporting information to the government.
B. Attending professional/trade association meetings.
C. Visiting competitor facilities
D. Purchasing new equipment.
16. The ____ level of analysis can also be called the dyadic process.
A. Group
B. Individual
C. Organizational
D. Executive
17. Leadership theory classifications include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Behavioral
B. Intergrative
C. contingency.
D. Individual
18. The leadership paradigm that assumes leaders are born, not made, is ____
theory.
A. Trait
B. Behavioral
C. integrative
D. contingency
19. ____ and ____ leadership theories are also called universal theories.
A. Contingency; integrative
B. Trait; behavioral
C. Behavioral; contingency
D. Trait; integrative
20. Contingency leadership theories attempt to explain the appropriate leadership
style based on the:
A. leader, followers, and situation.
B. leader, manager, and subordinates
C. leader, mentor, and entrepreneur.
D. individual, group, and situation.
Chapter 2
1. Research has confirmed that there is a limited number of confirmed and agreed
upon traits this leaders have. (true/false)
2. The Big Five Model of Personality is the most widely accepted way to classify
personalities. (true/false)
3. The majority of CEOs, but not all CEOs are extroverts. (true/false)
4. The four components of emotional intelligence are self-awareness, self-
efficacy, social awareness, and self-management. (false)
5. People with strong n Pow tend to seek entrepreneurial type positions and are
attuned to power and politics. (false)
6. Without power, there is no leadership. (true)
7. People with Theory X attitudes hold that employees like to work and do not
need to be closely supervised. (false)
8. Self-efficacy is the belief in your own capability to perform in a specific
situation. (true)
9. An effective leader tends to have Theory X attitudes with a positive self-
concept. (false)
10.Which of the following statements regarding personality is NOT true?
A. Personality is developed based on genetics and environmental factors.
B. Personality involves distinguishing personal characteristics.
C. Personality affects behavior as well as perceptions and attitudes.
D. Personality predicts behavior and job performance.
11.Ethics are the standards of right and wrong that influence behavior. (true)
12.Which of the following is NOT a Big Five personality dimension?
A. Surgency.
B. Agreeableness.
C. Adjustment.
D. Attractivene
13.Of the Big Five personality dimensions, the highest correlation with leadership
is:
A. conscientiousness.
B. openness to experience.
C. surgency.
D. Adjustment
14. Emotional intelligence includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. self-awareness
B. social awareness.
C. self-management.
D. self-concept.
15.The Leader Motive Profile (LMP) defines which motive as the highest need for
leaders?
 A. Achievement
B. Power
C. Affiliation.
D. Enjoyment
16. ____ are positive or negative feelings about people, things, and issues.
A. Attitudes
B. Norms
C. Beliefs
D. Traits
17. Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines to developing a more
positive attitude and self-concept?
A. Be a positive role model.
B. Accept compliments.
C. Set and achieve goals.
D. When things go wrong, buy yourself something nice.
18.Ethics is defined as:
A. the standards of right and wrong that influence behavior.
B. creating a win-win situation for all stakeholders.
C. adhering to legal limits.
D. what top management thinks is right.
19.All of the following affect ethical behavior EXCEPT:
A. personality traits.
B. attitudes.
C. leader−follower relations.
D. the situation.
20.The three levels of moral development are:
A. preconventional, conventional, and postconventional.
B. pre-ethical, ethical, and postethical.
C. bad choice, neutral, and good choice.
D. undeveloped, developed, and well developed.
Chapter 3
1. According to studies at The University of Iowa, leadership styles include
autocratic, democratic, and participative.(false)
2. The high-high leader has concern for both production and people, which is also
called the team leadership style. (true)
3. Through the motivation process, employees go from motive to need to
behavior to consequence to satisfaction. (false)
4. Like traits, a person's motives can be observed. (false)
5. Based on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a major recommendation to leaders is
to meet employees' higher level needs first. (false)
6. Herzberg contends that providing maintenance factors will make employees
satisfied or motivate them. (false)
7. The three process motivation theories are equity theory, hierarchy of needs
theory, and expectancy theory. (false)
8. Instrumentality refers to belief that the performance will result in getting the
reward. (true)
9. "To increase sales by 50 percent and decrease turnover by 25 percent in 2011"
is an effective objective. (false)
10."You're a good worker" is an effective statement for giving praise. (false)
11.All of the following are levels of needs in the hierarchy of needs theory
EXCEPT:
A. physiological.
B. safety.
C. social.
D. psychological.
12.All of the following are considered extrinsic motivators in Herzberg's two-
factor theory EXCEPT:
A. weekly paycheck.
B. finge benefits.
C. the work itself.
D. the working conditions.
13.The process of building motivators into the job itself by making it more
interesting and challenging is known as:
A. job enlargement.
B. job enrichment.
C. job enhancement.
D. job performance.
14.Which of the following is NOT a category of needs in the acquired needs
theory?
A. Success
B. Power
 C. Achievement
D. Affiliation
15.The process motivation theories are alike in that all focus on:
A. understanding how people choose behavior to fulfill their needs.
B. explaining and predicting behavior based on people's needs.
C. reinforcement of positive behaviors.
D. giving praise.
16.Managers should be aware that equity is based on:
A. Rewards
B. employee perceptions.
C. exerted effort.
D. performance.
17.According to expectancy theory_______ refers to the person's perception of his
or her ability to accomplish an objective
A. Expectancy
B. Instrumentality
C. Valence
D. Capability
18.Which of the following is NOT a criteria for writing an effective objective?
A. An action verb.
B. A singular, specific, and measurable result to be achieved.
C. A target date.
D. A plan of action.
19.Which of the following is NOT a type of reinforcement?
A. Positive
B. Extinction
C. Continuous
D. Avoidance
20.Fines and demotions are examples of which type of reinforcement?
A. Positive
B. Avoidance
C. Punishment
D. extinction
Chapter 4:
1. Contingency leadership theories require that managers adapt different
leadership styles to meet the situation (true)
2. Fred E. Fiedler's Contingency Theory of Leadership states that leadership
styles are basically constant. (true)
3. Situational favorableness refers to the degree a situation enables the leader to
exert influence over the followers. (true)
4. The three variables of situational favorableness include task structure, position
power, and leadership style. (false)
5. If the leadership style does not match the situation, Fiedler recommends to
change the leadership style (false)
6. The two major continuum leadership model styles are boss-centered and
subordinate-centered. (true)
7. Fred E. Fiedler developed the path-goal leadership theory. (false)
8. Path-goal leadership theory is based on motivation theories of goal setting and
expectancy theory. (true)
9. Environment situational factors include task structure, formal authority, and
work group. (true)
10.Normative leadership theory led to the development of the theory of
charismatic leadership. (false)
11.A ____ is an example for use in a given situation
A. Leadership theory
B. Leadership model
C. Contingency theory
D. Substitute for leadership
12.The contingency leadership model variables include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A. The leader
B. The followers
C. The situation
D. The task
13.Fiedler believed that one's leadership style is a reflection of ____________.
A. Heredity
B. Personality
C. behavior and personality
D. heredity and behavior
14.The most powerful determinant of overall situational favorableness is:
A. task structure.
B. locus of control.
C. position power.
D. leader-member relations.
15.Unlike other contingency leadership models, the path-goal leadership model
does not have a ____ trait.
A. Followers
B. Leaders
C. Situation
D. Behavior
16.The path-goal leadership styles include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. affiliation-oriented.
B. directive.
C. Supportive
D. participative.
17. ______ is the degree to which employees defer to others, want to be told what
to do and how to do the job.
A. Locus of control
B. Authoritarianism
C. Formal authority
D. Path clarification
18.Based on the situational factors, the ____ leadership style provides high
structure.
A. Directive
B. Supportive
C. Participative
D. achievement-oriented
19.Based on the situational factors, the ____ leadership style is most appropriate
when followers want to be involved.
A. Directive
B. Supportive
C. Participative
D. achievement-oriented
20.The normative leadership model has ____ leadership styles.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Chapter 5
1. Position power is power is derived from top management, and it is delegated
down the chain of command. (true)
2. Referent power is a form of personal power. (true)
3. When you use rational persuasion, you should develop a persuasive case based
on your needs. (false)
4. To increase your legitimate power, you should be persistent. (false)
5. Leaders use information power when making rational persuasion. (true)
6. Politics is the process of gaining and using power. (true)
7. One of the guidelines for developing political skills is to learn the power
players in your organization. (true)
8. Negotiation is often a zero-sum game in which one party's gain is the other
party's loss. (true)
9. While negotiating, you should let the other party make the first offer. (true)
10.Power can be ethical and unethical. (true)
11.You, as an employee and not a manager in your organization, can only have
____ power.
A. position
B. personal
C. organizational
D. earned
12.Most day-to-day manager-employee interactions are based on ____ power.
A.legitimate
b. reward
c. coercive
d. referent
13.To increase your reward power:
A. exercise your authority regularly.
B. develop your people skills.
C. let people know you control rewards.
D. use rewards for personal benefit.
14. Experts commonly use:
A. inspirational appeals.
B. rational persuasion.
C. referent power.
D. ingratiation.
15.____ is the process of getting a person whose support you need to join your
coalition rather than compete.
A. Reciprocity
B. Coalition building
C. Networking
 D. Co-optation
16. The first step of the networking process is to:
A. develop your network.
B. perform a self-assessment and set goals.
C. create your one-minute self-sell.
D. conduct networking interviews.
17.Your one-minute self-sell should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. identify your career field and key results you've achieved.
B. give the listener a sense of your background.
C. provide the direction of your next job.
D. identify your specific salary requirements.
18.____ is a process in which two or more parties are in conflict and attempt to
come to an agreement.
A. Problem solving
B. Decision making
C. Negotiating
D. Influencing
19.The most appropriate time for developing options and trade-offs in the
negotiation process is during:
A. negotiations.
B. the planning stage.
C. postponement.
D. project closeout.
20.In negotiation, when the other party postpones a decision, this......
A. tends to diminish trust.
B. is used as a way to play mind games with the other party.
C. may be followed by your attempt to create urgency.
D. Is a signal for you to use the hard sell.
Chapter 6:
1. Communication is the process of conveying information and meaning. (true)
2. The message-receiving process includes:
A. listening, analyzing, and checking understanding
B. listening, paraphrasing, and analyzing.
C. listening, analyzing, and following up.
D. listening, analyzing, and giving feedback.
3. The purpose of 360-degree feedback is to:
A. network with as many stakeholders or coworkers as possible.
B. take the informal methods of improving communication and formalize them
C. receive performance evaluations from many people.
D. close the feedback loop and continue the next stage of the process
4. The richest communication channel is a written memo because it allows you to
go into much more detail. (false)
5. In written communication, one important tip is set an objective for your
communication before you begin writing. (true)
6. Analyzing is the process of thinking about, decoding, and evaluating the
message. (true)
7. Paraphrasing is the process of verifying messages and determining if objectives
are being met. (false)
8. Coaching is the process of giving motivational feedback to maintain and
improve performance.(true)
9. Feedback should be given two weeks after an incident to allow reflection.
(false)
10.Criticism is the process of pointing out mistakes, which places blame and is
embarrassing. (true)
11.The performance formula explains performance as a function of ability,
motivation, and skills. (false)
12.The one best conflict management style for all situations is collaborating, a
win-win approach.(false)
13.Which of the following is NOT a step in the oral message-sending process?
A. Develop rapport.
B. State your communication objective.
C. Transmit your message.
D. Analyze the feedback.
14.The value of stating the objectives of communication is to:
A. establish rapport.
B. get buy-in from the recipient.
C. elicit feedback before continuing the communication.
D. help the receiver put the details into context.
15.Having employees assess their own performance is a part of ____.
 A. mentoring
B. analyzing
C. conflict resolution
D. coaching
16.The three factors that make up the performance formula are:
A. ability, motivation, and goals.
B. ability, goals, and resources.
C. ability, motivation, and resources.
D. goals, motivation, and resources.
17.The _______ is the unwritten implicit expectations of each party in a
relationship.
a. oral message-sending process
b. performance formula
c. attribution theory
d. psychological contract
18. ____ exists when disagreement and opposition support the achievement of
organizational objectives.
a. Functional conflict
b. Dysfunctional conflict
c. Friction
d. A dilemma
19. Which of the following conflict management styles involves passive behavior?
a. Negotiating.
b. Accommodating.
c. Forcing.
d. Collaborating.
20. A(n) ____ is a neutral third party whom makes a binding decision to resolve a
conflict.
a. mediator
b. consultant
c. arbitrator
d. negotiator
Chapter 7:
1. Dyadic refers to the individualized relationship between a leader and each
follower in a work unit. (true)
2. The leader-member exchange (LMX) is the quality of the exchange
relationship between a leader and a follower. (true)
3. A strength of LMX Theory is the inherent bias in favor of in-group members.
(false)
4. The basis of LMX theory is that leaders or superiors interact with all followers
equally. (false)
5. Leaders mostly use reward, legitimate, and coercive power to influence out-
group members. (false)
6. _______ is the effort to appear competent and dependable.
a. Impressions management
b. Ingratiation
c. Self-promotion
d. Followership
7. The ____ follower is someone who is high on involvement but low on critical
thinking.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. passive
d. pragmatic
8. The ____ follower is someone who is neither high on critical thinking nor
involvement.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. passive
d. pragmatic
9. Leaders who have difficulty meeting deadlines and who take work home from the
job are showing signs of:
a. having optimal stress levels.
b. participative management.
c. delegating too little.
d. directive leadership.
10. A person’s beliefs in his or her capabilities to produce at a certain level of
performance is known as:
a. dyadic theory.
b. organizational citizenship behavior.
c. locus of control.
d. self-efficacy.
Chapter 8:
1. Current estimates are that over 80 percent of all organizations use some form
of teams. (false)
2. It is more likely the case that in a group, the typical group member mentality is
"what's in it for me." (true)
3. Shirking of individual responsibility, also known as social loafing, is a possible
limitation of teams. (true)
4. Team norms are standards of behavior dictated by the organization. (false)
5. Self-managed team members' skills are typically highly specialized. (true)
6. ____ is an understanding and commitment to common goals on the part of all
team members.
a. Goal congruenceb.
b. Teamwork
c. Team cohesiond.
d. Social loafing
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of team effectiveness?
a.Knowledge management.
b.Individual satisfaction.
c.Group process.
d. Task performance.
8. Which of the following statements regarding team norms is NOT true?
a.Norms determine what behavior is acceptable and unacceptable.
b.Norms are typically developed after a team has been together for awhile
c.Norms influence how a team makes decisions.
d.Norms provide the underpinnings for team cohesion.
9. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a cross-functional team?
a.Improved coordination.
b.Members learn new skills.
c.Creative potential exceeds a single functional team.
d. Their singular perspective keeps them focused
10. The three parts of conducting effective meetings include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a.identify objectives.
b.cover agenda items.
c. summarize and review assignments.
d.read the minutes.
Chapter 9:
1. Researchers consistently emphasize the role of ______ in charismatic and
transformational leadership.
a.coercion
b.vision
c.influence
d.rewards
2. Max Weber used the term "charisma" to explain the influence based on traditional
or legal−rational authority systems (false)
3. Followers of charismatic leaders assume greater risk than they would under other
types of leaders. (true)
4. Followers' acceptance of charismatic leaders is conditional on receiving some
external reward such as money. (false)
5. People are born with charisma, it is impossible to acquire or enhance your
charismatic qualities (false)
6. Transformational leaders are more a function of follower attributions than the
leader’s vision or accomplishments. (false)
7. Transformational leaders are brought into an organization to keep the status quo.
(false)
8. Transactional leaders are more effective at engendering follower innovative
behavior than transformational leaders. (false)
9. A main difference between a charismatic & transformational leader is that the
former articulates a visions of the future (false)
10. Charismatic leaders most often use position power to motivate followers. (false)
11. Stewardship, more than Servant Leadership, calls for the highest level of
selflessness. (false)
12. Which of the following statements about charisma is NOT true?
a.It has been called "a fire that ignites followers".
b.It is relational in nature.
c. It is found solely in the leader as a psychological phenomenon.
d.It is a social relationship between the leader and the follower.
13. The Greek word charismameans:
a."extraordinary quality."
b."divinely inspired gift."
c."exceptional ability."
d."attribute of wisdom."
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the behavior attributes that distinguish
charismatic from noncharismatic leaders?
a.Ability to inspire and build confidence.
b.Oratorical ability.
c.Ability to visualize a course of action.
d.Ability to motivate followers through rewards and incentives.
15. A major behavior pattern of charismatic leaders is their combination of:
a.enthusiasm, aggressiveness, discretion, and narcissism.
b.vision, enthusiasm, optimism, and high energy level.
c.vision, coerciveness, reliability, and high energy level.
d.pessimism, resourcefulness, analytical mind, and work ethic.
16. In the four stage model of the transformation process, which of the following is
the first stage?
a.Institutionalize change.
b.Challenge the status quo and make a convincing case for change.
c.Inspire a shared vision of the future.
d.Provide effective leadership during the change.
Chapter 10
1. A weak culture is likely to exhibit which of the following?
a. A high degree of fit between strategy and culture.
b.It is a results-oriented culture.
c. The internal environment is highly politicized.
d.High performance.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a high-performance culture?
a.Insular thinking.
b.Highly politicized environment.
c.Results oriented.
d.Low expectations.
3. All of the following are symbolic leadership actions for shaping culture EXCEPT:
a.creating a strategy-culture fit.
b.celebrating achievements.
c.being visible.
d.leaders serving as role models.
4. The strongest sign that management is truly committed to creating a new culture is
by:
a. celebrating achievements.
b. replacing employees unwilling to change with a "new breed" of employees.
c. interacting face-to-face with rank-and-file.
d. recruiting as many diverse employees as possible.
5. __ cultures are known for their flexibility and innovativeness often showing greater
tolerance for failure.
a.Competitive
b.Bureaucratic
c.Adaptive
d.Cooperative
6. ____ culture represents a leadership belief in strong, mutually reinforcing linkages
between employees and departments.
a.Cooperative
b.Adaptive
c.Competitive
d.Bureaucratic
7. __ are the standards of right and wrong that influence behavior, the guidelines for
judging conduct & decision making
a.Culture
b.Ethics
c.Diversity
d.Collectivism
8. ____ people are comfortable with and accepting of the unknown, and tolerate risk
and unpredictability.
a.High-uncertainty-avoidance
b.High-power-distance
c.Low-uncertainty-avoidance
d.Low-power-distance
9. A _________ derives from values that express a concern for maintaining personal
happiness and living in the present.
a.long-term orientation
b. low-uncertainty-avoidance culture
c. high-uncertainty-avoidance culture
d.short-term orientation
10. ____ is the inclusion of all groups at all levels in an organization.
a.Ethnocentrism
b.The glass ceiling
c.Diversity
d.Group dynamics
11. __ is a values-based concept & describes those with the highest integrity,
committed to building enduring organizations
a.An ethics ombudsperson
b.Whistle-blowing
c.Authentic leadership
d.A cooperative culture
12. All organizations have a culture. (true)
13. Organizational culture gives identity to an organization. (true)
14. Organizational Culture creates external unity and helps the organization adapt to
the internal environment. (false)
15. In a strong culture, many issues or problems get resolved along the lines of
power.(false)
16. A cooperative culture is the best organizational culture a company can have.
(false)
17. The role of leadership in creating an ethical work environment applies primarily
to larger corporations. (false)
18. The United States and Japan are said to have individualistic cultures. (false)
19. Authentic leadership theory is grounded in moral and ethical foundations of
leadership. (true)
20. Authentic leadership theory is grounded in moral and ethical foundations of
leadership. (true)
Chapter 11
1. Ultimately, strategic leadership is the responsibility of the CEO and top
management. (true)
2. Strategy evaluation has been described as the most important and most difficult
part of the strategic management process. (false)
3. An example of an incremental change is a strategic redirection of an
organization's vision and mission. (false)
4. The strategic management process consists of five key decision areas laid out
in five steps; the first step is:
a. strategy execution.
b. strategy formulation.
c. crafting a strategic vision and mission statement.
d. setting objectives.
5. SWOT analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a.senses.
b.weaknesses.
c.opportunities.
d.threats.
6. External factors in a firm's strategic environment which have a potential negative
impact are called ____.
a.hindrances
b.weaknesses
c.alarms
d.threats
7. The link between leadership and strategy is a new concept but quickly becoming
accepted.(false)
8. A _______ is an enduring statement of purpose that distinguishes one organization
from other similar enterprises.
a.values statement
b.mission statement
c.code of ethics
d.strategic vision
9. According to goal-setting theory, good goals must be all of the following
EXCEPT:
a.measurable.
b.achievable.
c.relevant.
d.standard.
10. A _______ is an organization’s chosen plan of action for outperforming its
competitors and achieving superior outcomes.
a.strategic vision
b.mission statement
c.strategy
d.core competence
11. The first step in the strategic management process is strategy formulation. (false)
12. The combined analysis of the external environment and internal environment is
commonly referred to as SWOT analysis. (true)
13. Environmental scanning is the first step in the strategic management process.
(false)
14. To streamline the process, vision creation is done by top management and handed
down to employees. (false)
15. Two components that are often featured in a mission statement are the core values
and the core purpose. (true)
16. Strategy evaluation involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. reviewing internal & external factors
b. measuring performance against stated objectives.
c.taking corrective action.
d.rewriting objectives if necessary.
17. All of the following are events that may trigger the need for change EXCEPT:
a.new technologies
b.new regulations.
c. major changes in consumer buying behavior.
d. new menu in company cafeteria.
18. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in Lewin’s classic theory of
planned change?
a.Evaluating the new state.
b.Unfreezing an existing state.
c.Moving to a desirable state.
d.Refreezing a new state.
19. ____________ can only occur when the desired changes in behavior become
habitual.
a.Unfreezing
b.Complete transformation
c.Core competence
d.Organizational identity
20. All of the following are major reasons why people resist change EXCEPT:
a.distrust of leadership.
b. lack of conviction that change is necessary.
c.threat to existing cultural values.
d.threat to personal safety.
Chapter 12:
1. The best way to mitigate the negative consequences of any crisis is by:
a.top management support.
b.a pre-crisis plan.
c. a capable and supportive staff of employees.
d. having updated communication capabilities.
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the crisis risk assessment
model?
a. Risk reduction.
b. Risk identification.
c.Crisis management.
d.Risk analysis.
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the three key principles of crisis leadership?
a. Work with your crisis management team.
b. Play to win and develop a bunker mentality.
c. Stay engaged and lead from the front.
d. Focus on the big picture and communicate the vision.
4. A ____ is a printed statement that describes how an organization is responding to a
crisis and who is in charge.
a.press release
b.benchmark
c.press kit
d.bulletin release
5. In his book, The Fifth Discipline, Peter Senge makes a compelling case that an
organization's survival is linked to its:
a.top management
b.employees' dedication.
c.ability to learn and adapt.
d.financial resources.
6. Which of the following is an internal source of organizational learning?
a.Customers.
b.Competitors.
c.Academic publications.
d.Employees.
7. Explicit or formal knowledge is:
a.highly personal.
b.strongly rooted in action.
c. the instinct and intuition that an experienced practitioner possesses.
d.expressed in a system of rules.
8. Tacit knowledge is acquired from
a. manuals regarding an organization's culture.
b. databases acquired from other sources.
c.intuition based on experience.
d.genetics.
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of a learning organization?
a. Strategy is formulated from the top and passed down.
b. Top-down communication model.
c.Stable environment.
d.Changing environment.
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines for enhancing
organizational learning?
a. Narrow employees' scope of reference.
b.Encourage systems thinking.
c. Create a shared vision for learning.
d. Create a climate in where risk taking and failure are tolerated.
11. ________ is a low-probability but high-impact event that threatens the viability of
an organization
a.Discontinuous change
b.A crisis
c.Benchmarking
d.Organizational knowledge
12. Effective crisis leadership is about having the foresight and proper pre-crisis
planning for managing a crisis. (true)
13. A pre-crisis plan is the best way to lessen the negative consequences of any crisis.
(true)
14. Crises are part of the regular work experience; therefore, leaders know what to
expect and plan accordingly.(false)
15. Developing a bunker mentality is a recommended strategy for senior leaders to
use when dealing with a crisis. (false)
16. A learning organization is more appropriate for a stable environment where
change is slow and incremental. (false)
17. Explicit knowledge is the instinct and intuition that an experienced practitioner
possesses. (false)
18. Creative thinking can occur at the individual, group, and organizational level.
(true)
19. Encouraging systems thinking is a guideline for enhancing organizational
learning. (true)
20. Discontinuous change occurs when anticipated or expected changes bear no
resemblance to the present or the past.(true)