VVT COACHING CENTRE

CHENNAI - 20 Time: 180 Mins

Date: 13-04-2024
GRAND TEST-4

Course: NEET Total Marks: 720

Total Questions: 200
Section: AD-A,SRC-A,AD-B,SRC-B,AD-C,SRC-C Standard: REPEATERS

CHEMISTRY SECTION-A

1. Riemer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction are respectively

1) Electrophilic addition and nucleophilic addition reactions
2) Both are electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions
3) Free radical addition reaction and electrophilic substitution reactions
4) Both are nucleophilic substitution reactions

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2. The correct order of metallic character is

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1) Si < Be < Mg < Na 2) Si < Mg < Be < Na 3) Na < Mg < Be < Si
4) Na < Be < Mg < Si

3.
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Assertion: The carbon-oxygen bond in phenol is slightly stronger than that in methanol.

C
Reason: In phenol, conjugation of unshared electron pair over oxygen with aromatic ring results in

g
partial double bond character in carbon-oxygen bond.

n
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion

i
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement

h
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

c
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion

4.

oa
Statement I: Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O 2.

C
Statement II: Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
1) Both statements are false 2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true

T
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false 4) Both statements are true

5.
1) NaCl
V V
XeF 2 is iso-structural with
2) SF 4 3) I 3− 4) BCl 3

6. 0.01 M Acetic acid is 12.5% dissociated. Its pH will be (log1.25 = 0.0969)

1) 4.509 2) 3.723 3) 2.903 4) 5.623

7. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is not correct?
1) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) values at the same temperature
2) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
3) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature and K H is function of the nature of the gas

4) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution.

Processing math: 100%

 8. ∘
The momentum of a moving particle which has a de-Broglie wave length of 2A is
(Planck's constant, h = 6.62 × 10 − 34 m 2 kg / sec)
1) 3.31 × 10 24 Kg ms − 1 2) 3.31 × 10 20 Kg ms − 1 3) 6.26 × 10 − 24 Kg ms − 1
4) 3.31 × 10 − 24 Kg ms − 1

9. 20 mL of 0.1 M H 2SO 4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH 4OH solution. The pH of the

[
resultant mixture is pK b of NH 4OH = 4.7 ]
1) 9.3 2) 5 3) 9.0 4) 5.2

10. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows +4 oxidation
state because
(i) it has variable ionisation enthalpy
(ii) it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration
(iii) it has a tendency to attain f 0 configuration

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(iv) it resembles Pb

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1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only 3) i, ii and iv only 4) iv only

11. Consider the following complex ions

[ )6 ] , [Cr(CN)6 ] e n
[CrCl6 ] (
C
3− 3+ 3−
, Cr NH 3

g
I III
II

i n
The correct order of crystal field splitting energy is
1) I > II > III 2) II > III > I 3) III > II > I 4) I > III > II

c h
a
12. Wrong match of the following is

o
1) SO 2 - turns acidified K 2Cr 2O 7 to green 2) Cl 2 - disproportionates in KOH solution

C
3) K 2Cr 2O 7 can disproportionate in acidic medium 4) Sulphuric acid - di basic acid

ion in eV is

VT
13. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of He +

V
1) -54.4 2) -3.4 3) -6.04 4) -27.2

14. How many of the following are amphoteric oxides?

MgO, Cr 2O 3, Mn 2O 7, As 2O 3, Cl 2O 7, Sb 2O 3
1) 3 2) 3) 4)

15. Match the geometry with the complex ion

1) a - I, b - II, c - III 2) a - II, b - I, c - III 3) a - III, b - I, c - II 4) a - I, b - III, c - II

16. Which of the following species are para magnetic in nature?

1) O 2− 2) O 2 3) S 2 4) All of these

Processing math: 100%

 17. At room temperature the eclipsed and the staggered forms of ethane cannot be isolated because
1) Both the conformers are equally stable 2) They interconvent rapidly
3) There is a large energy barrier of rotation about the σ − bond
4) The energy difference between the conformers is large

18. A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10 min. What is the rate constant of the reaction?
1) 0.223 2) 0.0223 3) 0.322 4) 0.0322

19. Which of the following does not follow Huckel rule?

1) Only IV 2) II and IV only 3) II and III only 4) I and IV only

20. The enthalpy of vaporization of a liquid is 30 kJ mol − 1 and entropy of vaporization is 75 J mol − 1.
The boiling point of liquid at 1 atm is :

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1) 250 K 2) 400 K 3) 450 K 4) 600 K

21. The conjugate bases of H PO − and H PO − are respectively

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e
2 4 2 3
1) PO 34 − and HPO 23 − 2) HPO 24 − and HPO 23 − 3) PO 34 − and HPO 3−
4) HPO 24 − and no conjugate base

g C
22. The relationship between the structures shown below is

hi n
ac
1) Enantiomers

C o
2) Identical compounds
4) Conformational isomers
3) Structural isomers

VT
23. During photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of the electron ejected from metal surface depends
on

24.
V
1) The intensity of incident light
3) The frequency of incident light
2) The brightness of the incident light
4) Both 1 and 2

(
The solubility of A 2X 3 in pure water is K sp ( A
2X 3 ) = 1.1 × 10
− 23
)
1) 1.01 × 10 − 25 mol / L 2) 9.9 × 10 − 25 mol / L 3) 1 × 10 − 5 mol / L
4) 1 × 10 − 15 mol / L

25. Consider the following reaction:

X and Y are isomeric compounds. Wrong statement about the above reactions is

1) X is a mixture of o- and p- chlorotoluenes 2) Y is a mixture of o- and p- chloro toluenes

3) X is Benzyl chloride 4) Formation of Y is Electrophilic substitution reaction

Processing math: 100%

 26. Hg 2 + / H 2SO 4
CH 3 − C ≡ CH + HOH → A
The number of sigma and pi bonds that are present in the molecule A
1) 9 sigma and 1 pi 2) 8 sigma and 2 pi 3) 8 sigma and 1 pi 4) 9 sigma and 2 pi

27. The set of reagents for the conversion of Aniline to 2, 4, 6 – tribromo fluorobenzene are
1) (i) Br 2 / H 2O (ii)NaNO 2 / HCl − 0 ∘ C (iii) HBF 4, Δ
2) (i) Br 2 / H 2O (ii)NaNO 2 / HCl − 0 ∘ C (iii) H 3PO 2 (iv) HBF 4 followed by heating
3) (i) NaNO 2 / HCl − 0 ∘ C (ii) HBF 4 / Δ (iii) Br 2 / H 2O
4) (i) NaNO 2 / HCl − 0 ∘ C (ii) H 3PO 2 (iii) Br 2 / H 2O

28. Which of the following compounds gives Iodoform test?

1) Benzaldehyde 2) Acetophenone 3) Benzophenone 4) 3-Pentanone

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29. Which of the following anions has dπ − pπ bonding?

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1) SO 23 − 2) CO 23 − 3) BO 33 − 4) NO 3−

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30. Articles can be electroplated with silver and gold smoothly and evenly from solutions of the

C
complexes containing

[Au(OH)4 ] − and [Ag(OH)2 ] − [Au(CN)2 ] − and [AgCl2 ] −

g
1) 2)

3) [Au (NH 3 ) ] + and [Ag(CN) 2 ] −

2

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4) [Au(CN) 2 ] − and [Ag(CN) 2 ] −

ac
31. Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish Phenol from carboxylic acid?
1) 2RCOOH + 2Na → 2RCOONa + H 2
3) RCOOH + NaHCO 3 → RCOONa + H 2O + CO 2

C o2) RCOOH + NaOH → RCOONa + H 2O

4) All the above

32.

VT
C 6H 5COOH + SOCl 2 → A →
CH 3CH 2NH 2
B

V
Compounds A and B are the main products and which are respectively
1) C 6H 5COCl & CH 3CH 2 − NH − COC 6H 5 2) C 6H 5SO 2Cl & CH 3CH 2 − NH − SO 2C 6H 5
3) C 6H 5COCl & CH 3CH 2 − CO − NH − C 6H 5 4) C 6H 5Cl & CH 3CH 2 − NH − CH 2CH 3

33. What is the major product of the following reaction?

1) 2) 3)

4)

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 34. Which one of the following arrangements not truly represent the property indicated against it
1) Br 2 < Cl 2 < F 2 : Electro negativity 2) Br 2 < F 2 < Cl 2 : Electron affinity
3) Br 2 < Cl 2 < F 2 : Bond energy 4) Br 2 < Cl 2 < F 2 : Oxidising power

35. The standard potentials for the half reactions are given below
Zn 2 + ( aq ) + 2e → Zn ( s ) ; E 0 = − 0.76 V

Fe 2( aq
+
)
+ 2e → Fe ( s ) ; E 0 = − 0.44 V
E 0 for the cell reaction Fe + 2 + Zn → Zn + 2 + Fe is
1) − 0.35 V 2) − 1.17 V 3) + 1.17 V 4) + 0.32 V

CHEMISTRY SECTION-B

36. Statement-I: Fructose is a reducing sugar.

Statement-II: Fructose contains a keto group.
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are wrong
3) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct

te r
n
37. Which of the following group shows + M and − I effects

e
1) − CHO 2) − COOR 3) − NO 2 4) − OH

g C
38. NH 2OH is an important derivative of Ammonia. Which of the following compounds does not react

n
with NH 2OH ?
1) CH 3COCH 3 2) C 2H 5CHO
3)

hi
4) Glucose pentaacetate

ac
of

C o
39. The diazonium ion of Benzenediazonium chloride can be replaced by Cl − , Br − or CN − in presence

T
1) Cu (II) ions 2) Cu (I) ions 3) OH − ions 4) H + ions

1) V
40. In which of the following pairs of compounds 1 st compound is more acidic than 2 nd compound

V 2) CH 3COOH and Cl 3C − COOH

3) HCOOH and C 6H 5COOH
4) NC − CH 2COOH and NO 2 − CH 2COOH

41. 3
For the reaction 2 O 2(g) → O 3(g) at 298 K if K C is 2 × 10 − 29, then ΔG ∘ is approximately

(Given R = 8.314 J K −1
mol − 1 )
1) 163700 KJ mol − 1 2) 16.37 KJ mol − 1 3) 163.7 KJ mol − 1 4) 0.1637 KJ mol − 1

42. Assertion: All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation.

Reason: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient kinetic
energy lead to compound formation.
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
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 43. Given below are two statements
Assertion : In dynamic equilibrium, forward backward reactions continues to take place with equal
rates.
Reason : In dynamic equilibrium, colour & density change with time.
1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False 4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True

44. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 10 23 atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H SO
2 4
present in 100 mL of 0.02 M H 2SO 4 solution is
1) 12.044 × 10 20 molecules 2) 6.022 × 10 23 molecules 3) 1 × 10 23 molecules
4) 12.044 × 10 23 molecules

45. Which of the following metal sulphide has maximum solubility in water?

(
1) CdS K sp = 36 × 10 − 30 ) (
2) FeS K sp = 11 × 10 − 20 ) (
3) HgS K sp = 32 × 10 − 54 )
4) ZnS (K sp = 11 × 10 − 22 )
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46. IUPAC name of the given compound is

e n
g C
hi n
1) 4-methyl-5-chloronitrobenzene

ac
2) 1-chloro-3-nitro-6-methyl benzene

o
3) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene 4) 1-chloro-2-niro-4-nethyl benzene

T C
47. For two ionic solids CaO and KI , identify the wrong statement among the following?
1) Lattice energy of CaO is much higher that that of KI 2) KI is soluble in benzene

V
3) CaO has high M.P 4) KI has high M.P

V
48. Which of the following equilibrium is affected by pressure?
I. N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) ⇌ 2NH 3 ( g )
II. 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ⇌ 2SO 3 ( g )
III. 2HI ( g ) ⇌ H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g )
IV. 2NO 2 ( g ) ⇌ N 2O 4 ( g )
1) II and III only 2) III only 3) I and II only 4) I, II and IV only

49. Which of the following regarding 'Alkenes' is a wrong statement?

1) Peroxide effect is not observed in the addition of HCl to propene
2) All alkenes except Ethene are odourless substances
3) Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form cis-alkene
4) If dipole moment of trans -but-2-ene is zero, cis-but-2-ene might be 0.33 D

Processing math: 100%

 50. In the below sequence of reactions X and Y are respectively

1) NH 2OH and Oximes 2) NH 2 − NH 2 and Hydrazone

3) NH 2 − NH − Ph and Phenylhydrazone 4) R − NH 2 and Schiff's bases

BOTANY SECTION-A

51. Which of the following has abundant reserve food materials in the ovule?
1) Integuments 2) Hilum 3) Nucellus 4) Funicle

52. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

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1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
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4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

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53. Which type of linkage/bond is formed when two nucleotides are linked to form a dinucleotide?

n
1) N-glycoside linkage 2) Peptide bond 3) Phosphodiester linkage 4) Hydrogen bond

hi
c
54. The gene _____has been introduced in Bt-cotton to protect from corn borer

a
1) Cry I Ac 2) Cry II Ab 3) Cry IAc and Cry II Ab 4) Cry I Ab

C o
55. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and choose the correct option.
a. The lac operon consists of two regulatory genes and four structural genes.

T
b. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to β-galactosides.

V
1) a-T, b-T 2) a-T, b-F 3) a-F, b-T 4) a-F, b-F

V
56. Select the incorrect statement.
1) A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and
the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
2) An mRNA has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated
regions (UTR)
3) The UTRs are present only at 5'-end
4) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred as negative regulation

57. A: The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerization only in one direction, that is
5 ′ → 3 ′.
B: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization only in one direction, that is
3 ′ → 5 ′.
Choose the correct option for the given statements
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect

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 58. The stomata in an isobilateral leaf are
1) Present only on the adaxial epidermis 2) Present only on the abaxial epidermis
3) Absent on both the surfaces of epidermis 4) Present on both the surfaces of epidermis

59. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. anatomy of the monocotyledonous stem?
1) The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of monocot stem
2) Phloem parenchyma is generally absent 3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
4) Monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis

60. Gonyaulax is an example of

1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Slime moulds

61. Find out wrong statement regarding bryophytes

1) The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae
2) The sporophyte of bryophyte is haploid 3) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular
4) The male sex organs is called antheridium

te
62. Match the classes of pteridophytes with their example given below and choose the correct option
r
e n
g C
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

i n
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

h
4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

63. The stroma lamellae membrane lacks

ac
o
(a) PS I (b) PS II (c) NADP reductase enzyme
The correct ones are
1) (a) and (b) only

T C
2) (b) and (c) only 3) (a) and (c) only 4) All (a), (b) and (c)

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64. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C 4 plants
1) They are adapted to dry tropical conditions 2) They have a special type of leaf anatomy

V
3) They perform a process called photorespiration 4) They tolerate higher temperatures

65. State true (T) or false (F) w.r.t. the Calvin cycle and choose the correct option.
A: Reduction is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle.
B: Reduction involves utilization of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and two of NADPH for
reduction per CO 2 molecule fixed.
C: The fixation of six molecules of CO 2 and 6 turns of the cycle are required for the formation of
one molecule of glucose.
1) A-T, B-T, C-T 2) A-F, B-F, C-F 3) A-T, B-F, C-T 4) A-F, B-T, C-T

66. Select the mismatched pair about PGRs

1) Cytokinins - Used to prepare weed-free lawns
2) Ethylene - Causes sprouting of potato tubers 3) Abscisic acid - Inhibits seed germination
4) Gibberellins - Promotes bolting in beet

67. During the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA), a molecule of GTP is synthesized during conversion of
1) α-Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA 2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
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3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid 4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
 68. In a pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed
with a green seeded plant, what ratio of green and yellow seeded plants would you except progeny.
1) 3: 1 2) 1: 2 3) 1: 1 4) 9: 1

69. Select the incorrect match

1) Aspergillus niger - Acetic acid 2) Lactobacillus - Lactic acid
3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Ethanol 4) Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid

70. Which of the following is a member of Phaeophyceae?

1) Vovlox 2) Porphyra 3) Laminaria 4) Chara

71. Select the mismatch from the following options

1) Form bloom in polluted water bodies - Cyanobacteria
2) Presence of cell wall - Mycoplasma 3) Help in making curd - Heterotrophic bacteria
4) Heterocysts - Anabaena

72. Which of the following is an example of opposite phyllotaxy?

1) Alstonia 2) Mustard 3) Guava 4) China rose

te r
73. Select the incorrectly matched pair regarding placentation and the examples

e n
C
1) Placentation - Axile; Examples - Chine rose and tomato
2) Placentation - Basal; Examples - Sunflower and marigold

g
3) Placentation - Free central; Examples - Mustard and Argemone

n
4) Placentation - Marginal; Examples - Pea

hi
c
74. Which of the following is correct sequence of different phases of prophase I of meiosis?

a
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Leptotene (d) Diplotene (e) Diakinesis

o
1) a → b → c → e → d 2) b → a → d → c → e 3) c → b → a → d → e
4) c → a → b → d → e

T C
75. All of the following are correct w.r.t. anaphase of mitosis, except
1) Chromatids move to opposite poles 2) Centromeres split 3) Chromatids separate

V
4) Chromosomes move to spindle equator

V
76. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. examples of classes of fungi
1) Phycomycetes – Alternaria, Colletotrichum 2) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago, Puccinia
3) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderm, Alternaria 4) Ascomycetes – Neurospora, Claviceps

77. Read the following assertion and reason and select the correct option
Assertion (A): Golgi bodies are the site of synthesis of glycoproteins and glucolipids
Reason (R): SER is site of synthesis of steroidal hormones in animal cells.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but reason is false 4) If the assertion is false and reason is true

78. Select a polymer of fructose

1) Glycogen 2) Cellulose 3) Starch 4) Inulin

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 79. Identify the following compound and select the correct option

1) Adenine 2) Adenosine 3) Uracil 4) Uridine

80. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

1) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
2) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
3) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
4) Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

81. Read the following Assertion and reason and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein

r
synthesis.

te
Reason (R): Nucleolus are a site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

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2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

e
3) If the assertion is true but reason is false 4) If the assertion is false and reason is true

82. Choose the odd statement w.r.t. enzymes

g C
n
1) Enzymes lower the activation energy and make the transition of substrate to product easy

i
2) Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme is inhibited by a non-competitive inhibitor called malonate

h
3) Isomerases catalyses interconversion of optical, geometric and positional isomers

c
4) The formation of enzyme substrate complex is a transient phenomenon

oa
83. Match the following columns and select the correct option

T C
V V
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

84. In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the gel piece.
This step is called
1) Elution 2) Origin replication 3) Competency 4) Transformation

85. Triticum aestivum is not classifies in the category named as

1) Poaceae 2) Monocotyledonae 3) Polymoniales 4) Angiospermae

BOTANY SECTION-B

86. Which of the following spores are mitospores produced during favourable conditions in fungi?
(a) Sporangiospores (b) Zoospores (c) Conidia
1) Only a 2) All a, b and c 3) Only c 4) Only b

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 87. Due to the apical dominance
1) The lateral buds do not grow 2) Apical buds do not grow
3) Bushy growth of plants take place 4) Lateral buds start developing into branches

88. Which of the following pathogens have ability to transform normal cells into tumor cells in plants
and animals, respectively?
1) Retroviruses and Agrobacterium tumefaciens 2) Meloidogyne incognita and Retroviruses
3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Retroviruses 4) Salmonella typhimurium and Retroviruses

89. Which of the following is not a fermented product of bacteria?

1) Dosa 2) Idli 3) Bread 4) Swiss cheese

90. “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the structure of

1) Sucrose 2) DNA 3) Collagen 4) Cholesterol

91. The starch synthesis regarding the grain size in garden pea show ___A___ for Bb genotype. Here A
is
1) Codominance 2) Dominance 3) Incomplete dominance

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4) Multiple allelism

e n
92. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a

C
genetic cross, is called
1) Pedigree analysis 2) Karyotype 3) Punnett square 4) Chromosome map

i ng
93. The process by which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesized in-vitro

h
requires all, except

c
1) DNA polymerase 2) Primers 3) DNA templates 4) Stirrer

oa
94. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. electron transport system in mitochondria

C
1) NADH dehydrogenase – Complex I 2) Cytochrome bc 1 - Complex II
3) Succinate dehydrogenase – Complex II 4) Cytochrome c oxidase – Complex V

VT
95. Number of Basmati rice varieties grown in India

V
1) 37 2) 27 3) 16 4) 55

96. What is antisense technology?

1) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific
gene
2) RNA polymerase producing DNA
3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens
4) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures

97. Presence of conjunctive tissue is a characteristic feature of

1) Dicot leaf 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot leaf

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 98. CO 2 is not released during
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Link reaction
(c) Kreb’s cycle
(d) ETS
(e) Alcoholic fermentation
(f) Lactic acid fermentation
1) d and f only 2) b, c, e only 3) a, d, f only 4) a, f only

99. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II product if meiocyte is containing 20 pg DNA in G 1
phase?
1) 10 pg 2) 5 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 15 pg

100. All of the following plant hormones are acidic in nature except
1) Gibberellin 2) Auxin 3) ABA 4) Cytokinin

r
ZOOLOGY SECTION-A

101. Which event occur during Forcible expiration?

n te
e
1) Except functional residual capacity the remaining air of the lungs is breathed out
2) Complete air is breathed out of lungs

g C
3) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed out of lungs
4) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed into lungs

i n
102. Most of the CO 2 is transported in the form of ___A___ by ___B___ of blood.

h
c
1) A = Bicarbonates, B = R.B.C 2) A = Carbamino compounds, B = R.B.C

a
3) A = Bicarbonates, B = Plasma 4) A = Carbamino compounds, B = Plasma

C o
103. Assertion: Vertebro Chondral ribs are attached to 7th rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Reason: The Hyaline cartilage between vertebro chondral and 7th ribs is located on the dorsal

T
surface of the body.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A

V V
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A
4) A is false, R is true
3) A is true, R is false

104. During Oogenesis of female human being second polar body is formed along with
1) Secondary oocyte in Ampulla 2) Ootid in the ovary 3) Secondary oocyte in ovary
4) Ootid in the ampulla

105. Assertion: During HIV infection, T H cell count gets progressively decreased in the infected person.
Reason: During HIV infection, HIV after its entry into T H cells, replicate and produce progeny
virus which are released into blood and attack other T H cells.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true

106. During counter current exchange in the kidney, NaCl is transported from
1) The blood of Ascending limb of vasa recta into the descending limb of Henle’s loop
2) Renal filtrate of ascending limb of Henle into the blood of descending limb of vasa recta
3) Renal filtrate of descending limb of Henle into the blood of ascending limb of vasa recta
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4) More than one option
 107. Statement I: During each cardiac cycle lungs receive deoxygenated blood from heart and send
oxygenated blood into heart.
Statement II: During each cardiac cycle, the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into Aorta and
Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into pulmonary trunk. (Pulmonary artery)
1) Only statement I is correct 2) Only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct 4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

108. During muscle contraction, cross bridge is broken due to the

1) Hydrolysis of ATP at Myosin head 2) Hydrolysis of ATP at acto-myosin junction
3) Attachment of ATP to ATP binding site of myosin head
4) Attachment of ATP to myosin head when it is in detached condition

109. Choose the incorrect one

1) Adipocytes of Adults – Nucleus is peripheral in position
2) Cardio-myocytes – Characterized by inter vertebral discs
3) Multipolar neurons – Located in grey matter of brain
4) Antigen sensitive B Lymphocytes – Mature cells in red bone marrow

110. Non overlapping region of sarcomere with respect to Anisotrophic band is

te r
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1) Not overlapped by thin filaments 2) Decreased in its length during muscle contraction

e
3) Overlapped by thick filament 4) More than one option

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111. Statement I: Compound epithelium possess many layers of cells, each layer of cells are arranged on
basement membrane.
Statement II: Compound epithelium exist in skin.
1) Only statement I is correct

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2) Only statement II is correct

c
3) Both statement I and II are correct 4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

112. Excess ADH cause

oa
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1) Diuresis 2) Dehydration 3) Decreased B.P 4) Decreased urine output

T
113. This character exist in Tendon

V
1) Parallel arranged collagen bundles
4) More than one option
2) Rows of collagen fibres 3) Elastic fibres

V
114. SAN generates an action potential while
1) The semilunar valves are in closed conditions
2) The Atrio-ventricular valves are in closed condition
3) The blood is not flowing into ventricles 4) More than one option

115. Cartilage present in the pubic symphysis is

1) Hyaline cartilage 2) Elastic cartilage 3) Fibrous cartilage
4) Having non pliable matrix

116. Match the following.

1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d 2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d 3) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
4) I-c,
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 117. Choose the correct w.r.t. haemophilic daughter
1) The mother should to be at least haemophilic 2) The father should be non haemophilic
3) The mother should be carrier only
4) The father should be hemophilic and at least mother should be carrier

118. Source of energy for the respiration of plants is

1) NPP 2) GPP 3) GSP 4) NSP

119. Statement I: In human beings, insulin is synthesized as pro hormones.

Statement II: Pro insulin possess peptide chains in the order of A-B-C sequence.
1) Only statement I is correct 2) Only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct 4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

120. In Plasmodium, Gametocytes are produced in

1) Human – hepatocytes 2) Mosquito – Lumen of gut 3) Human being – RBC
4) Mosquito – Gut wall

121. Presence of water vascular system is a characteristic feature of

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1) Antedon 2) Chiton 3) Aedes 4) Pinctada

122. Basophil cells do not produce

1) Histamine 2) Heparin 3) Serotonin
C
4) Erythropoietin e
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123. A person having only anti-B antibodies in his plasma, can donate blood to people with blood groups

h
1) A and AB 2) Only B 3) O and B 4) O and A

124. Intercalated discs are present in

ac
1) Cardiac muscle

C o
2) Smooth muscle 3) Skeletal muscle 4) Both 1 and 3

T
125. Which of the following hormones will be detected in a sample of blood taken from hypophyseal
portal vein?

V
1) GnRH, GH, TSH 2) GnRH, somatostatin, TRH (releasing hormone)
3) GnRH, FSH, TRH (releasing hormone) 4) FSH, prolactin, GnRH

V
126. Generation of secondary messengers is associated with the mechanism of action of
1) Estrogen and ACTH 2) Insulin and TSH
4) Progesterone and androgens
3) Cortisol and ACTH

127. Total number of girdle bones are equal to

1) Number of facial bones 2) Number of ear ossicles 3) Number of cranial bones
4) Number of limb bones

128. In a sarcomere, only ________ filaments are present in H zone.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
1) Actin 2) Myosin 3) Troponin 4) Tropomyosin

129. Which of the following is obtained from Cannabis sativa?

1) Opium 2) Charas 3) Morphine 4) Crack

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 130. Among the following terms, how many are related to physiological barrier of innate immunity
Skin, Tears, Interferons, Monocyte, Saliva, Mucus coating
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Three

131. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. disease and vector

1) Dengue - Culex 2) Malaria - Anopheles 3) Chikungunya - Aedes
4) Filariasis - Culex

132. Koala, Banded anteater and Tasmania tiger cat represents example of
1) Analogous organ 2) Convergent evolution 3) Adaptive radiation
4) Adaptive convergence

133. Mammals directly evolved from

1) Thecodonts 2) Therapsids 3) Dinosaurs 4) Sauropsids

134. Complete the analogy w.r.t cranial capacity of hominids.

Homo habilis : 650 cc - 800 cc : : Homo erectus : __________
1) 650 cc 2) 900 cc 3) 1450 cc 4) 160 cc

te r
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135. In the year 1947, India’s population was ____A____ and crosses ____B____ in may 2011.

C
1) A – 350 million, B – 35 billion 2) A – 35 million, B – 1.2 billion
3) A – 350 million, B – 1.2 billion 4) A – 35 million, B – 35 billion

ZOOLOGY SECTION-B

i ng
c h
136. In human embryonic development first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on head are

a
observed by the end of

o
1) First month 2) Second month 3) First trimester 4) Fifth month

1) Primary oocyte C
137. During oogenesis, a glycoprotein layer called zona pellucida is formed by

T 2) Theca cells 3) Secondary oocyte 4) Medullary stroma of ovary

V V
138. All of the following are associated with test tube baby programme except
1) In vitro fertilization 2) ZIFT 3) IUI 4) ET

139. All of the following functions are attributed to ADH except

A. Increase in blood pressure
B: Promoting diuresis
C: Decrease in blood pressure
D: Increase in body fluid volume
1) A and B 2) C and D 3) B and C 4) A and D

140. Protonephridia is an excretory organ of

1) Echinoderms 2) Arthropods 3) Molluscs 4) Cephalochordates

141. Addison’s disease is associated with

1) Hypothyroidism 2) Adrenal cortex 3) Pancrease 4) Pineal gland

142. Triploblastic, metamerically segmented, dioecious and coelomate animals are

1) Apis,
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 143. The partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood of superior vena cava are respectively
1) 104, 40 mm Hg 2) 40, 45 mm Hg 3) 95, 40 mm Hg 4) 45, 40 mm Hg

144. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

1) Bone marrow 2) Spleen 3) Payer’s patches 4) MALT

145. Axial skeletal bones and Appendicular skeletal bones are not connected by
1) Pectoral girdles 2) Pelvic girdle 3) Clavicle 4) Tibia – Fibula

146. Assertion: During the process of muscle contraction the length of H zone gets shortened.
Reason: During muscle contraction process, H-zone gets shortened due to the shortening of length
of thin filament.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false 4) If the assertion is false and reason true

147. Which disease spread through contamination by the eggs of pathogen.

1) Filariasis 2) Amoebiasis 3) Ascariasis 4) Malaria

te r
148. In neuron, when Na-K-ATP pump is failed to function, then

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1) Neuron immediately enters into Rest
2) Proteins present in axoplasm moves in the extracellular fluid present outside the axon

g
3) Positive charge increases in Axoplasm 4) Positive charge increases in extra cellular fluid

149. Colostrum provides the infant with

hi n
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1) Autoimmunity 2) Passive immunity 3) Active immunity 4) Innate immunity

oa
150. Which of these is not an in-situ conservation method

C
1) Sacred Grooves 2) Biosphere reserves 3) Wild life safari parks 4) National parks

VT PHYSICS SECTION-A

V
151. From the top of tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 20 m / s. The
ratio of the distances covered by it in the 4th and 3rd seconds of the motion is: (Take g = 10 m / s 2)
1) 5 : 7 2) 11 : 9 3) 3 : 6 4) 6 : 3

152. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of radius R = √2 m with an angular acceleration
α = π / 4 rad / s 2. The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time it rotates quarter
circle is:
1) 1.5 m / s 2) 2 m / s 3) 1 m / s 4) 1.25 m / s

153. Dimensional formula for surface tension is

1) [M 2
L0 T − 2 ] 2) [ML 0
T −2 ] 3) [M LT ]
0 −1 4) [M 2
L2 T − 1 ]
154. Induced electric field due to time varying magnetic field is
1) Conservative 2) Non-Conservative 3) Both Conservative and Non-Conservative
4) None of these
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 155. A body is dropped from a height h. If it acquires a momentum p, then the mass of the body is:
p p2 2gh

√
2gh
1) 2) 3) p 4)
√2gh 2gh p

156. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 36 km/h has an head on collision with a
stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, the loss in kinetic
energy due to collision is
1) 40 J 2) 60 J 3) 100 J 4) 140 J

157. The centre of mass of a uniform L-shaped lamina (a thin flat plate) with dimensions as shown is (g
mass of lamina is 3 kg )

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) te r
n
6 5 5 5 5 6 7 6
1) , 2) , 3) , 4) ,

e
5 6 6 6 6 5 5 5

g C
158. In a semiconducting material (1/5)th of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining

n
is carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is twice that of holes at this temperature, the

i
ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is:

h
1) 2 2) 3) 4)

ac
159. The efficiency of a carnot heat engine is 1 / 10. It is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the

1) 10 J 2) 30 J 3) 60 J 4) 90 J
o
system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at low temperature is

C
T
160. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the n th power of distance. Then time period of a

) V( )
planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to

V
3) R n
1) R 2 (
n+1
2) R 2
n−1
4) R 2
n−2
( )
161. If atoms are in certain excited state. When these return to ground state, total number of
wavelengths emitted by them is 10. Then atoms were initially in state:
1) n = 2 2) n = 3 3) n = 4 4) n = 5

162. Four molecules have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 4 km s − 1. The value of their root mean square speed is
1 1 3) 2.5 km s − 1 15

√
−1 −1
1) 2 √ 15 km s 2) 2 √ 10 km s 4) 2
km s − 1

163. At 27 ∘ C temperature, the kinetic energy of an ideal gas is E . If the temperature is increased to
1
327 ∘ C, then the kinetic energy will be
E1 2) √2E 1 3) 2E 1 E1
1) 4) 2
√2
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 164. Astep down transformer reduces 220 V to 110 V. The primary draws 5 ampere of current and
secondary supplies 9 ampere. The efficiency of transformer is
1) 20% 2) 44% 3) 90% 4) 100%

165. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV and the stopping
potential for a radiation incident on this surface is 5V. The incident radiation lies in
1) Ultra-violet region 2) Infra-red region 3) Visible region 4) X-ray region

166. A charged particle travels along a straight line with a speed v in a region where both electric field E
and magnetic fields B are present. It follows that
1) | E | = v | B | and the two fields are parallel
2) | E | = v | B | and the two fields are perpendicular
3) | B | = v | E | and the two fields are parallel
4) | B | = v | E | and the two fields are perpendicular

167. If 1 g of substance of relative density 2 and 4 g of substance of relative density 3 are mixed together,

r
the relative density of the mixture is:

te
1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.7 4) 2.8

e n
168. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10 − 3,
then the percentage change in volume is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) Zero

g C
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169. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, the work done is

c h
oa
1) 5 J

T
2) 10 J 3) 1 J
C 4) 30 J

1) 160 MW
V V
170. The voltage of clouds is 4 × 10 6 V with respect to ground. In a light ning strike lasting 100 ms, a
charge of 4 C is delivered to the ground. The power of lightning strike is
2) 80 MW 3) 20 MW 4) 500 Kw

171. A fish looking up through the water see the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
4
refractive index of water is 3
and fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm
36 2) 4√5 36 4) 36√7
1) 3)
√5 √7

172. The de Broglie wavelength λ associated with a proton changes by 0.25% if its momentum is
changed by p 0. The initial momentum was:
1) 100p 0 2) p 0 / 400 3) 400p 0 4) p 0 / 100

173. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its radius of curvature will be
1) 10 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 30 cm 4) 40 cm

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 174. In Young's double slit experiment with sodium light, slits are 0.589 m apart. The angular separation
of third maxima from the central maxima will be (given) λ = 589 nm )

( )
1) sin − 1 0.33 × 10 − 6 (
2) sin − 1 3 × 10 − 6 ) (
3) sin − 1 0.33 × 10 − 8 )
4) sin − 1 (3 × 10 ) −4

175. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other.
The currents flowing in them are I and 2I respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the
center will be:
μ 0I μ 0I √5μ 0I 3μ 0I
1) 2R
2) R 3) 4) 2R
2R

176. → →
An electron is travelling with velocity v = 3î + 5ĵ m / s in a magnetic field B = 6î + 4ĵ tesla. Then
→
what is the magnitude and direction of the force F acting on the electron:

r
1) 18 eN along +ve z-axis 2) 18 eN along -ve z-axis 3) 36 eN along -ve z-axis

te
4) 54 eN along +ve z-axis

177. A river is flowing with speed u west to east. A boat takes t 1 time to move distance S in down's

e n
C
stream and t 2 time to move distance in up stream time taken by boat to travel distance S in still
water:

g
t1 + t2 2) t 1 − t 2 t 1t 2 2t 1t 2

n
1) 2 3) t + t 4) t + t

i
1 2 1 2

178. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atoms is:

c h
1) Much greater than one 2) One

a
3) Between zero and one

o
4) Equal to zero

1) 2 A 2) 1 A 3) 0.5 A C
179. A coil of resistance 200 Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux ϕ (wb) linked with the
coil varies with time t(sec) as ϕ = 50t 2 + 4, the current in the coil at t = 2 sec is:

T 4) 0.1 A

1) 4 2) 5
V V
180. The number of significant zeros in 0.0062030 is
3) 1 4) 2

181. Consider the following two statements

a) The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of mass number for nuclei of middle
mass number (30 < A < 170).
b) Binding energy per nucleon is lower for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A > 170)
The correct statement(s) is/are
1) Only a 2) Only b 3) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b

182. Gravitational potential differernce between a point on surface of planet and another point 10 m
above is 4 J / kg. Considering gravitational field to be uniform, how much work is done in moving a
mass of 2 kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the surface:
1) 4 J 2) 5 J 3) 6 J 4) 7 J

183. A force of 2.56 N acts on a charge of 16 × 10 − 4C. The intensity of electric field at that point is:
1) 1600 NC − 1 2) 150 NC − 1 3) 16 NC − 1 4) 1.5 NC − 1
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 184. 100 g of water at 0 ∘ C is mixed with 100 g of water at 100 ∘ C. What will be the final temperature of
the mixture?
1) 50 ∘ C 2) 20 ∘ C 3) 30 ∘ C 4) 0 ∘ C

185. The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is 2μF and voltage between the plates is changing at
the rate of 3 V / s. The displacement current in the capacitor is
1) 2μA 2) 3μA 3) 5μA 4) 6μA

PHYSICS SECTION-B

186. In a meter bridge, gaps are closed by two resistances P and Q and the balance point is obtained at
40 cm. When Q is shunted by a resistance of 10Ω, the balance point shifts to 50 cm. Find the value
of Q? in Ω

te r
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
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g C
187. If the current through 3 Ω resistor is 0.8 A, then potential drop across 4 Ω resistor is

hi n
ac
1) 1.2 V 2) 2.6 V
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3) 4.8 V 4) 9.6 V

VT
188. A charged particle of mass 0.003 g is held stationary is space by placing it in a downward direction
of electric field of 6 × 10 4 N / C. Then the magnitude of the charge is

V
1) 5 × 10 − 4C 2) 5 × 10 − 10C 3) − 18 × 10 − 6C 4) − 5 × 10 − 9C

189. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and
the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is
5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in n th state
13.6
En = − eV)
n2
1) 5.1 V 2) 12.1 V 3) 17.2 V 4) 7 V

190. Calculate the fall in temperature of helium initially at 15 ∘ C, when it is suddenly expanded to 8
times its volume. Given γ = 5 / 3.
1) 416 ∘ C 2) 316 ∘ C 3) 216 ∘ C 4) 116 ∘ C

191. A soft iron rod is inserted in the solenoid. After this what will be the effect on the brightness of the
bulb?
1) Brightness will decrease 2) Brightness will increase 3) Brightness will be same
4) Brightness
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 192. A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown
in figure. The current through the diode is

1) 20 mA 2) 5 mA 3) 10 mA 4) 15 mA

193. In the circuit given A, B and C are inputs and Y is the output
The output of Y is

r
1) High for all the high inputs 2) High for all the low inputs

te
3) High when A = 1, B = 1, C = 0 4) Low for all low inputs

e n
194. In a progressive wave along X-direction, at a particular location, the particle of the medium are
executing:
1) Oscillatory motion 2) Rectilinear motion

C
3) Rotational motion

g
4) None of these

i n
195. In a circus, the diameter of globe of death is 20 m. From what minimum height must a cyclist start
in order to go round the globe successfully?
1) 25 m 2) 35 m 3) 45 m

c
4) 55 m

h
oa
196. The height y and distance x along the horizontal for a body projected in the xy-plane are given by
y = 8t − 5t 2 and x = 6t. The initial speed of projection is
1) 8 m / s 2) 9 m / s

T C
3) 10 m / s 4) (10 / 3)m / s

V
197. Statement-1: When a girl sitting on a swing stands up, the periodic time of the swing will increase.
Statement-2: In standing position of a girl, the length of the swing will decrease.

V
1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is the correct explanation for Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false 4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

198. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D 1, D 2 and D 3 are ideal then i is

1) E / R 2) E / 2R 3) 2E / 3R 4) Zero

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 199. A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60 ∘ and returns at the same angle. The impact time
was 0.2 sec. The force exerted on the wall

1) 150√3 N 2) 50√3 N 3) 100 N 4) 75√3 N

200. Maximum intensity in YDSE is I 0. The intensity at a point on the sereen where the path difference
λ
between the two interfering waves is 3
will be;
1) I 0 I0 I0 I0
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

te r
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hi n
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VT
V

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