1.

Which among the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α -
particle scattering experiment?
(i) Most of the given space in the atom is empty.
(ii) The atom’s radius is about 10–10 m, while that of the nucleus is 10–15 m.
(iii) Electrons move in the circular path of the fixed energy called orbits.
(iv) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of
attraction.
2. Which options don’t represent an atom’s ground state electronic configuration?
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
3. The probability density plots of the 1s and 2s orbitals. The density of dots in the region
represents the probability density of finding an electron in the region. Based on the above
diagram, which among the following statements is incorrect?
(i) 1s and 2s orbitals are given as spherical.
(ii) The probability of the finding the electron is close to the nucleus.
(iii) Probability of finding the electron at the given distance is equal in all
directions.
(iv) Probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly and
gradually as the distance from the nucleus increases.
4. Which of the following statements will not correct the characteristics of cathode rays?
(i) They start from the cathode and then move towards the anode.
(ii) They travel in a straight line without an external electrical or magnetic field.
(iii) Characteristics of cathode rays don’t depend upon the material of electrodes in
the cathode ray tube.
(iv) Characteristics of cathode rays depend entirely upon the nature of gas present
in the cathode ray tube.
5. Which among the following statements about the electron is incorrect?
(i) It is the negatively charged particle.
(ii) The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the neutron.
(iii) It is the primary constituent of all atoms.
(iv) It is the constituent of cathode rays.
6. Which of the following atom properties could be explained correctly by the Thomson
Model of an atom?
(i) Overall neutrality of the atoms.
(ii) Spectra of the hydrogen atom.
(iii) Position of the atom’s electrons, protons and neutrons.
(iv) Stability of the atoms.
7. Two atoms are said to be isobars only if.
(i) they have the same atomic number but different mass numbers
 (ii) they have the equal number of electrons but different numbers of neutrons.
(iii) they have the equal number of neutrons but different numbers of electrons.
(iv) the addition of the number of protons and neutrons is equal, but the number of
Protons is different.
8. The number of the required radial nodes for 3p orbital is __________.
(i) 3
(ii) 4
(iii) 2
(iv) 1
9. Number of the required angular nodes for 4d orbital is __________.
(i) 4
(ii) 3
(iii) 2
(iv) 1
10. Which among the following is responsible for ruling out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of the electrons?
(i) Pauli’s exclusion principle.
(ii) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
(iii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
(iv) Aufbau principle.
11. Arrange s, p and d sub-shells of the shell in the increasing order of their effective nuclear
charge (Zeff) experienced by the electron present in them.
12. Using the orbital diagram, show the distribution of the electrons in the oxygen atom
(atomic number 8).
13. The electronic configuration of the valence shell for Cu is 3d 10 4s1 and not 3d94s2. How is
this configuration explained?
14. The hydrogen atom possesses only one electron. Hence the mutual repulsion between the
electrons is absent. But, in multielectron atoms, the mutual repulsion between the
electrons is significant. How does this affect the energy of the given electron in the
orbitals of the same principal quantum number in multielectron atoms?
15. Out of electrons and protons, which one will have a higher velocity to produce matter
waves of the same wavelength? Explain it.
16. Calculate the total number of required angular nodes and radial nodes present in the 3p
orbital.
17. A nickel atom can lose two electrons to form a Ni 2+ ion. The atomic number of element
nickel is 28. From which orbital would the nickel lose two electrons.
18. Which among the following orbitals are degenerate?
3dxy, 4dxy, 3dz2, 3dyx , 4dyx, 4dzz
19. An atom that has atomic mass number 13 has seven neutrons. What is the atomic number
of the given atom?
20. According to de Broglie, the matter would exhibit dual behaviour, that is, both particle
and wave-like properties. However, a cricket ball with a mass of 100 g doesn’t move like
a wave when a bowler throws it at the speed of 100 km/h. Calculate the ball’s wavelength
and explain why it does not show wave nature.
21. What experimental evidence supports the idea that an atom’s electronic energies are
quantised?
22. What is the difference between terms orbit and orbital?
23. Which among the following will not show deflection from the path on passing through
the electric field?
Proton, cathode rays, electron, neutron
24. Chlorophyll present in green leaves of the plants absorbs light at 4.620 × 1014 Hz.
Calculate the wavelength of the radiation in nanometers. Which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to?
25. The Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to the transition from n1 = 2
to n2 = 3, 4,………. This series lies in the visible region. Calculate the wave number of
lines associated by the transition in the Balmer series if the electron moves to n = 4 orbit.
(RH= 109677 cm–1)
26. The effect of the uncertainty principle is quite significant only for the motion of
microscopic particles and is negligible for the given macroscopic particles. Explain the
statement with the help of a suitable example.
27. Table-tennis ball has a mass of 10 g and a speed of 90 m/s. If speed could be measured
with the accuracy of 4%, what will be the uncertainty in speed and position?
28. Wavelengths of the following different radiations have given below :
λ(A) = 300 nm
λ(B) = 300 μm
λ(c) = 3 nm
λ (D) 30 A°
29. The arrangement of the orbitals is based upon the energy based on the (n+l ) value. The
lower the value of the (n+l ), the lower energy found. For orbitals with equal values of
(n+l), the orbital with the lower value of n will have the lower energy.
Based upon the above-given information, arrange the following orbitals in the increasing
order of their energy
(i) 1s, 2s, 3s, 2p
(ii) 4s, 3s, 3p, 4d
(iii) 5p, 4d, 5d, 4f, 6s
(iv) 5f, 6d, 7s, 7p
Based upon the above-given information, solve the following questions given below:
 Which among the following orbitals has the lowest energy?
4d, 4f, 5s, 5p
 Which among the following orbitals has the highest energy?
5p, 5d, 5f, 6s, 6p
30. The bromine atom possesses 35 electrons that contain 6 electrons in 2p orbital, 6
electrons in 3p orbital and 5 electrons in 4p orbital. Which of these electrons experiences
the lowest effective nuclear charge?.
31. Which orbital would experience the larger effective nuclear charge among the following
pairs of orbitals?
(i) 2s and 3s,
(ii) 4d and 4f,
(iii) 3d and 3p
32. The unpaired electrons in Al and Si are present in the 3p orbital. Which electrons would
experience a more effective nuclear charge from the nucleus?
33. Indicate the number of unpaired electrons in:
(a)P
(b)Si
(c)Cr
(d)Fe
(e)Kr
34.
(i) How many sub-shells are associated with the n = 4?
(ii) How many electrons would be present in the sub-shells having an m s value of
–1/2 for n = 4?
35. Consider the following isoelectronic species, Na +, Mg 2+, F– and O2 –. The correct order of
increasing the length of their given radii is _________.
(i) F– < O2 – < Mg 2+ < Na +
(ii) Mg2+ < Na+< F–< O 2–
(iii) O 2 –< F– < Na+< Mg2+
(iv) O 2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+
36. Which among the following is not an actinoid?
(i) Curium (Z = 96)
(ii) Californium (Z = 98)
(iii) Uranium (Z = 92)
(iv) Terbium (Z = 65)
37. The order of screening effect of the electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals for the given shell of
an atom on their outer shell electrons will:
(i) s>p>d>f
(ii) f>p>s>d
(iii) p<d<s>f
(iv) f>d>p>s
38. The first ionisation enthalpies of the Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order as follows:
(i) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(ii) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(iii) Na < Mg < Al < Si
 (iv) Na > Mg > Al < Si
39. The electronic configuration of the given gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is
(i) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2
(ii) [Xe] 4f7 5d2 6s1
(iii) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
(iv) [Xe] 4f8 5d6 6s2
40. The statement which is not correct for the following periodic classification of elements is:
(i) The properties of elements are periodic functions of their given atomic
numbers.
(ii) The Non-metallic elements are less in number than the metallic elements.
(iii) For the given transition elements, the 3d-orbitals fill with the electrons after
the 3p-orbitals and before the 4s-orbitals.
(iv) The first ionisation enthalpies of the given elements generally increase with an
increase in the atomic number as we go along the period.
41. Among halogens, correct order of the amount of the energy released in the given electron
gain (electron gain enthalpy) will:
(i) F < Cl < Br < I
(ii) F > Cl > Br > I
(iii) F < Cl > Br > I
(iv) F < Cl < Br < I
42. The period number at the long form of the given periodic table is equal to
(i) the magnetic quantum number of any given element of the period.
(ii) an atomic number of any given element of the period.
(iii) maximum Principal quantum number of any given period element.
(iv) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any given period element.
43. The elements in which the given electrons progressively fill in the 4f-orbitals call
(i) actinoids
(ii) transition elements
(iii) lanthanoids
(iv) halogens
44. Which among the following is the correct order of the size of the given species:
(i) I > I– > I+
(ii) I+> I– > I
(iii) I > I+ > I–
(iv) I– > I > I +
45. The formation of the given oxide ion, O2– (g), from the oxygen atom, requires first an
exothermic and then an endothermic step as stated below:
 (g) + e– → O–(g) ;thus, ∆ HV = – 141 kJ mol–1
 O– (g) + e– → O2– (g) ;thus, ∆ HV = + 780 kJ mol–1
Thus, the formation process of O2– in the given gas phase is unfavourable even though
O2– is isoelectronic with the neon. It is because of this fact that
 (ii) oxygen is more electronegative.
(iii) addition of the electrons in oxygen results in the larger size of the ion.
(iv) electron repulsion outweighs stability gained by achieving the noble gas
configuration.
(v) O– ion is smaller than a given oxygen atom.
46. Electronic configurations of the following four elements, A, B, C and D, have given
below:
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p4
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p5
Which among the following is the correct order of increasing the tendency to gain
theelectrons:
(v) A<C<B<D
(vi) D<A<B<C
(vii) D < B < C < A
(viii) A < B < C < D
47. Which among the following elements can show the covalency greater than the 4?
(i) B
(ii) P
(iii) S
(iv) Be
48. Those elements which impart colour to the flame on heating in it are the atoms that
require low energy for the ionisation (i.e., absorb energy in the visible region of the
spectrum). The elements of which among the following groups will impart colour to the
flame?
(i) 2
(ii) 13
(iii) 1
(iv) 17
49. Which among the following sequences contains atomic numbers of only representative
elements?
(i) 3, 33, 53, 87
(ii) 2, 10, 22, 36
(iii) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
(iv) 9, 35, 51, 88
50. Which among the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison
to the other elements of the given group?
(i) S (g)
(ii) Na (g)
(iii) O (g)
 (iv) Cl (g)
51. Explain why the electron gain enthalpy of the elemental fluorine is less negative than the
elemental chlorine. .
52. All the transition elements are d-block elements, but all the d-block elements are not the
transition elements. Explain.
53. Identify the group and valency of the following element having atomic number 119.
Also, predict the outermost electronic configuration for it and write the general formula
of the oxide.
54. Ionisation enthalpies of a few elements of the second period are given below: Ionisation
enthalpy/ kcal mol–1: 520, 899, 801, 1086, 1402, 1314, 1681, 2080.
Here, match the correct enthalpy by the given elements also, write symbols of the
elements with the given atomic number.
55. Among the given elements B, Al, C and Si,
(i) Which of the following elements has the highest first ionisation enthalpy?
(ii) Which element contains the most metallic character? Explain your answer in
each case.
56. Write the four characteristic properties for the p-block elements.
57. Nitrogen possesses the positive electron gain enthalpy, whereas the oxygen possesses the
negative. But oxygen has lower ionisation enthalpy than nitrogen. Explain.
58. The first member of each group of the representative elements, s and p-block elements,
shows abnormal behaviour. Illustrate with the help of two examples.
59. How will you explain that the first ionisation enthalpy of sodium is quite lower than that
of magnesium; however, its second ionisation enthalpy is quite higher than that of
magnesium?
60. What is the basic theme for the organisation in the modern periodic table?
61. How does the metallic and non-metallic character vary as we move from left to right in
the period?
62. The radius of the Na+ cation is less than that of the Na atom. Give reasons for your
answer.
63. Among alkali metals which element can be least electronegative and why?
64. What do you understand about the term exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction?
Give one example of each type.
65. Arrange the following elements N, P, O and S in the order of-
(i) increasing first ionisation enthalpy.
(ii) increasing non-metallic character.
Give an appropriate reason for the arrangement assigned.
66. Explain the following:
(i) Electronegativity of the given elements increases as we move from left to
right in the periodic table.
(ii) Ionisation enthalpy decreases in a group from top to bottom?
67. Which important properties did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic
table, and did he stick to that?
68. What is the basic difference in the required approach between Mendeleev’s Periodic Law
and the Modern Periodic Law?

Mendeleev’s Periodic law Modern Periodic Law

Mendeleev’s Periodic Law states Modern Periodic Law states that
that elements’ physical and elements’ physical and chemical
chemical properties are periodic properties are periodic functions of
functions of their atomic weights. their atomic numbers.

69. Based on quantum numbers, justify that the sixth period of the periodic table should have
32 elements.
70. Elements of the atomic numbers from Z = 87 to the Z = 114 are present in the seventh
period of the periodic table. Hence, the element with Z = 114 is present in the seventh
period for the periodic table.
71. In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of their increasing atomic
number related to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of the orbitals
that receive the last electron, the periodic table elements are categorised into four blocks,
viz, s, p, d and f. The modern periodic table has 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period
starts with the filling of the new energy shell. By the Aufbau principle, the seven periods
(1 to 7) contain 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements, respectively. The seventh period is
still incomplete. To avoid today’s periodic table being too long, the two series of the f-
block elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids, are placed at the bottom of the main
body of today’s periodic table.
(i) The element having the atomic number 57 belongs to
a) s-block
b) p-block
c) d-block
d) f-block
(ii) The outermost electronic configuration represents the last element of the
existing p-block in the 6th period.
a) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4
b) 5 f 14 6d10 7s2 7p0
c) 4f 14 5d10 6s2 6p6
d) 7s2 7p6
(iii) Which of the following elements whose atomic numbers given below cannot
be accommodated in the present set-up of the long form of the periodic table?
a) 102
b) 118
 c) 126
d) 107
(iv) The electronic configuration of the given element that is just above the
element with the atomic number 43 in the same group will ________.
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 4s2
c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7 4s2
d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s3 4p6
(v) The elements having atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 will all ________.
a) light metals
b) halogens
c) heavy metals
d) noble gases
72. What is the atomic number of elements keeping in mind both the cases given below;
(i) Element is in the 3rd period of the periodic table.
(ii) Element is in the 17th group of the periodic table.
73. Discuss those factors affecting electron gain enthalpy as well as the trend in its variation
in the periodic table.
74. Define the ionisation enthalpy. Discuss the factors affecting ionisation enthalpy of
elements and their trends in the periodic table.
75. Assertion (A): ionisation enthalpy increases from the left to right in a period.
76. Reason (R): When the successive electrons added to the orbital in the same principal
quantum level, the shielding effect of the inner core of electrons does not increase much
to compensate for increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.
(i) The assertion is the correct statement, and the reason is the wrong statement.
(ii) Assertion and reason both were correct statements, and the reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(iii) Assertion and reason both were wrong statements.
(iv) The assertion is the wrong statement, and the reason is the correct statement.
77. Assertion (A): Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
78. Reason (R): The penetration of the 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron;
therefore, the 2p electron is more shielded by the inner core of the electron than 2s
electrons.
(i) Assertion and reason both were correct statements, but the reason is not the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(ii) The assertion was a correct statement, but the reason was the wrong statement.
(iii) Assertion and reason both were correct statements, and the reason is the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(iv) Assertion and reason both were wrong statements.
79. Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
80. Reason (R): The size of the atom increases on going down the group, and the added
electron would be farther from the nucleus.
(i) Assertion and reason both were correct statements, but the reason is not the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(ii) Assertion and reason both were correct statements, and the reason is the
correct explanation for the assertion.
(iii) Assertion and reason both were wrong statements.
(iv) The assertion was the wrong statement, but the reason was the correct
statement.
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