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Subject: General Biology 2 (Biology 104)

Instructor: Plaridel D. Tison, Jr., RN, LPT
BIOLOGY 1 CONTENT REVIEW

Name of Student: _______________________ Class/Section: ______________

I. INVITATION TO BIOLOGY 5. Which of the following organization levels is the least

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of inclusive?
the most appropriate option to complete or answer the A. population D. atom
question for each item. B. community E. molecule
C. cell
1. What name is given to the scientific study of life?
A. geography D. geology 6. An ecosystem is made up of ____.
B. statistics E. biology A. only plants, animals, and fungi
C. ecology B. organisms and nonliving things
C. only rocks and minerals
2. The current rate of extinction is about ____ times D. only plants, protozoa, and fungi
faster than normal. E. the biosphere of the region
A. 10 D. 100,000
B. 100 E. 1,000,000 7. Lipids, proteins, DNA, RNA, and complex
C. 1000 carbohydrates are all ____.
A. minerals D. molecules
3. The species extinctions taking place today are being B. atoms E. elements
caused by ____ activities. C. cells
A. human D. extraterrestrial
B. volcanic E. geothermal 8. The emergent property of “life” appears at the level
C. plate tectonic of the ____, when many molecules become organized.
A. population
4. Which of the following represents the most correct B. atom
order of the organization of life from the smallest unit C. organism
to the largest? D. cell
A. atoms → molecules → cells → organisms E. community
→ populations → communities → ecosystems →
biosphere 9. A population is composed of individuals of ____.
B. atoms → molecules → cells → organisms → A. the same species
communities → populations → ecosystems → B. interacting species of different kinds
biosphere C. interacting species and nonliving things
C. atoms → molecules → cells → organisms → D. a single species interacting with nonliving
populations → ecosystems → communities → things
biosphere E. all species found in a given area
D. communities → biosphere → organisms →
ecosystems → populations → cells → molecules
→ atoms
E. biosphere → organisms → communities →
ecosystems → populations → molecules → cells
→ atoms
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10. Living organisms are members of all of the levels 16. All organisms fit into one of the two following
listed below. However, soil is a component of ___. categories. What two categories are these?
A. the community A. consumers and decomposers
B. the population B. producers and decomposers
C. the ecosystem C. producers and consumers
D. both the population and ecosystem D. scavengers and detritivores
E. both the community and the biosphere E. consumers and scavengers

11. Which of the following is a basic component of all 17. The dynamics of an ecosystem depends on two
of the others? main processes, which are ____.
A. cells D. organism A. the cycling of energy and the unidirectional
B. organs E. organ systems flow of nutrients
C. tissues B. the unidirectional flow of energy and the
cycling of nutrients
12. Which of the following represents an activity within C. the multidirectional flow of both energy and
a population? nutrients
A. a fox consuming a rabbit D. the unidirectional flow of both energy and
B. the absorption of nitrogen by bacteria and nutrients
converting it to a form useful to plants E. the cycling of both energy and nutrients
C. a peacock spreading and shaking his feathers
to attract a female 18. On a very hot summer day and a few months later
D. moss growing on the north side of a large on a very cold winter day, you go outside and take your
pine tree temperature. Each time your body temperature is 37
E. a virus causing rabies in a dog degrees Celsius. This example illustrates ____.
A. adaptation D. homeostasis
13. The level of organization that encompasses all B. cellular reproduction E. digestion
regions of Earth’s crust, waters, and atmosphere in C. respiration
which organisms live is known as ____.
A. the biosphere D. a population 19. The DNA molecule is most similar functionally to a
B. a community E. an organism’s habitat ____.
C. an ecosystem A. pair of scissors D. ballpoint pen
B. flash light battery E. craft kit of ceramic tiles
14. Which of the following characteristics are shared by C. cookbook
all living organisms?
I. hereditary information is passed to offspring 20. The process by which the first cell of a new
II. adaptation to environmental change individual becomes a multicelled adult is called ____.
III. requirement for nutrients A. homeostasis
IV. DNA housed in a nucleus B. inheritance
A. I and II C. reproduction
B. I and III D. growth
C. II and III E. development
D. I, II, and III
E. I, II, III, and IV 21. Energy flow is one-way because ____.
A. all of the energy in an ecosystem stays
15. A substance that an organism needs for growth and constant
survival but cannot make for itself is referred to as a(n) B. the amount of energy a producer harvests is
____. equal to the amount of energy consumers
A. chemical D. DNA molecule consume
B. nutrient E. carbohydrate C. with each energy transfer, some energy
C. atom escapes as heat
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D. energy cannot be created but it can be D. Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

destroyed E. Bacteria, Archaea, and Protista
E. there is only one form of energy
29. Members of which group(s) can be single-celled
22. Homeostasis is ____. producers?
A. the ability to sense and respond to change A. plants
B. maintaining the external environment to B. protists
favor survival C. bacteria
C. essential for nonliving things D. bacteria and protists
D. unique to consumers E. bacteria and plants
E. unique to producers
30. What are the simplest types of eukaryotes?
23. The transmission of DNA to offspring is referred to A. plants
as ____. B. protists
A. homeostasis D. reproduction C. fungi
B. development E. inheritance D. bacteria
C. growth E. archaea

24. What is the process by which a producer uses light 31. Collectively, which group of organisms are the most
energy to make sugars from carbon dioxide and water? diverse representatives of life?
A. respiration D. development A. plants and animals
B. photosynthesis E. reproduction B. protists and fungi
C. homeostasis C. bacteria and archaea
D. bacteria and protists
25. The category of organisms that get their energy and E. archaea and plants
nutrients by feeding on the tissues, wastes, or remains
of other organisms are generally called ____. 32. What organism is defined as a multicelled organism
A. producers D. archaea that develops through a series of stages and moves
B. prokaryotes E. plants about during part or all of its life?
C. consumers A. archaea
B. bacteria
26. The scope of variation among living organisms is C. fungi
referred to as ____. D. animals
A. heritability D. taxonomy E. plants
B. the biosphere E. the ecosystem
C. biodiversity 33. What is a characteristic of eukaryotes?
A. All are multicelled organisms
27. Which organisms are single-celled and lack a B. Their cells are typically smaller than bacteria.
nucleus? C. They are more like bacteria than archaea.
A. bacteria and archaea D. Their cells are less complex than bacteria or
B. fungi and bacteria archaea.
C. archaea and protists E. Their DNA is contained in a nucleus.
D. fungi and archaea
E. bacteria and protists 34. Which of the following organisms is a multi-celled
producer?
28. All known species belong to one of three domains. A. an oak tree
What are these domains? B. Candida, a pathogenic fungus
A. Prokarya, Bacteria, and Eukarya C. E. coli, a common intestinal bacterium
B. Prokarya, Archaea, and Eukarya D. a Siberian tiger
C. Plantae, Bacteria, and Animalia E. an archaeon on the seafloor
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35. Which of the following is a characteristic of all 41. Ernst Mayr was responsible for ____.
fungi? A. discovering new species atop New Guinea’s
A. They are prokaryotic consumers. Foja Mountains
B. They break down food externally. B. standardizing a two-part naming system
C. They actively move during part of their lives. C. explaining the theory of natural selection
D. They make their own food. D. describing the biological species concept
E. They are multicelled. E. identifying that all organisms contain DNA

36. In which of the following groups does seaweed 42. Which level of taxonomy encompasses all of the
belong? others?
A. protists D. archaea A. family D. species
B. plants E. bacteria B. class E. genus
C. fungi C. order

37. In the scientific name, Pan paniscus, Pan represents 43. Which of the following words describes a tentative
the name of the ____ while paniscus represents the explanation of a given question?
name of the ____. A. law D. fact
A. family; species D. species; genus B. theory E. principle
B. family; genus E. genus; family C. hypothesis
C. genus; species
44. In order to verify a hypothesis, scientists, ____.
38. Who developed the two-part naming system A. perform experiments and/or make
scientists use today to classify newly found organisms? observations
A. Charles Darwin B. consider facts
B. Carolus Linnaeus C. establish law
C. Aristotle D. develop theories
D. Alexander von Humboldt E. make predictions
E. Ernst Mayer
45. What is the right sequence of events applied in the
39. Which of the following is the correct order of taxa scientific method?
from most inclusive to least inclusive? A. hypothesis; initial observation; data analysis; test;
A. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, conclusion
family, genus, species B. initial observation; data analysis; hypothesis; test;
B. domain, kingdom, phylum, order, class, conclusion
family, genus, species C. initial observation; hypothesis; data analysis; test;
C. domain, kingdom, phylum, family, order, conclusion
class, genus, species D. initial observation; hypothesis; test; data analysis;
D. domain, phylum, kingdom, class, order, conclusion
family, genus, species E. hypothesis; data analysis; initial observation; test;
E. domain, kingdom, order, class, phylum, conclusion
family, genus, species 46. An experimenter wanted to test the effects of
cigarette smoking on rats. She infused the cages of 50
40. Taxonomists today tend to group organisms into rats with cigarette smoke and the cages of another 50
the same category based on similar ____. rats with pure, clean air. The rats that received the
A. morphology clean air were the ____.
B. behavior A. experimental group
C. geographic distributions B. control group
D. biochemical traits C. model group
E. eating habits D. predictive group
E. independent group
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47. In the Olestra experiment conducted by 52. A control group ____.

researchers at the Johns Hopkins University School of A. receives the same treatment as the
Medicine, the people who ate the Olestra potato chips experimental group
were the ____. B. is an untreated group of individuals or
A. experimental group subjects
B. control group C. is sometimes exposed to harsh conditions
C. research group D. is often an unnecessary waste of material
D. hypothetical group E. is not subjected to experimental error
E. independent group
53. The control in an experiment ____.
48. In the Olestra potato chip experiment, the report A. contains excess test subjects in case some die
published in the Journal of the American Medical B. is an additional replicate for statistical
Association in January 1998 indicated that ____. purposes
A. Olestra potato chips cause cramping C. reduces the experimental errors
B. potato chips without Olestra cause cramping D. minimizes experimental inaccuracy
C. there was no evidence that Olestra caused E. allows for comparisons with the
cramping experimental group
D. watching movies cause cramping
E. people should not eat potato chips 54. In the experiment with peacock butterflies the
working hypothesis is that ____.
49. In the 2005 peacock butterfly experiment, what A. mimicry confuses both predator and prey
was the conclusion? B. mimicry protects butterflies from being
A. Predatory birds are not deterred from eating eaten by predatory birds
peacock butterflies with spots. C. birds are capable of learning
B. Predatory birds are deterred by peacock butterfly- D. birds are agents of evolution
clicking sounds. E. unpalatable species display distinctive wings
C. Peacock butterflies with spots mated more often
than those without spots. 55. The variable(s) in the 2005 peacock butterfly
D. Predatory birds are deterred by the dark color of experiment is(are) the ____.
the peacock butterfly. A. butterfly wings pattern color
E. Peacock butterflies that made clicking sounds B. butterfly species
attracted more predatory birds. C. butterfly wings pattern color and sounds
emitted
50. The final step in the scientific method for a scientist D. rainforest region used
is ____. E. percentage of survivors
A. devising an experiment
B. collecting data 56. How did the experimental group differ from the
C. making observations control group in the 2005 peacock butterfly
D. report his or her results experiment?
E. researching the literature for similar A. They were different species.
investigations B. Their native habitat of the forest differed.
C. They were spotless and soundless.
51. Scientists perform ____ in order to ____ a given D. They tasted worse.
____. E. They preferred different flower species.
A. experiments; test; hypothesis
B. tests; experiment; law 57. A scientific theory ____.
C. tests; experiment; variable A. is widely accepted and supported by several
D. facts; test; variable pieces of evidence
E. hypotheses; try; experiment B. is widely accepted but not necessarily
supported by several pieces of evidence
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C. is sometimes accepted and supported by 63. In science, if a result is deemed statistically

several pieces of evidence significant, that means ____.
D. is sometimes accepted and not necessarily A. it is a very important result
supported by several pieces of evidence B. it has a high probability of being incorrect.
E. is always a "truth" C. it has a low probability of being skewed by
sampling error
58. Evolution has been tested in various ways. Genetic, D. there is very little variation in the data
fossil, anatomical, physiological and behavioral studies E. there is no doubt of the result is true
all confirm that evolution is the mechanism of the
origin of species. Thus, in science evolution is 64. Error bars on a graph indicate ____.
considered a scientific ____. A. places where the data is likely wrong
A. fact C. law B. places where the researcher is unsure of her
B. hypothesis D. theory E. guess results
C. variation in results that cannot be accounted
59. In science, a theory is defined as ____. for.
A. a speculative guess D. variation in a set of data around the average
B. a hypothesis E. poor experimental technique on the part of
C. an explanation that is well documented and the researcher
consistent with the evidence
D. a description of a phenomenon for which 65. What practice helps scientists avoid bias in their
there is no explanation findings?
E. a personal conviction A. designing experiments that other
researchers will find difficult to replicate
60. A result is statistically significant if ____. B. performing experiments testing all
A. it is unlikely to have occurred by chance circumstances
B. it is likely to have occurred by chance C. reaching conclusions based on personal
C. it is likely to have occurred in 50% of the cases conviction
D. it is consistent with predictions D. avoiding questions that may be at odds with
E. it is widely accepted society’s moral standards
E. publicly publishing their results
61. In science, all results ____.
A. are accepted as fact 66. Why do scientists typically design experiments that
B. are only hypotheses will yield quantitative results?
C. have a probability of being incorrect A. Scientists are unable to perform qualitative
D. must be consistent with previous knowledge studies.
E. are uncritically accepted by other scientists B. Quantitative results minimize the potential
for bias.
62. Sampling error can be minimized by which one of C. To prevent other scientists from repeating
the following? their experiments.
A. using a large sample size D. Scientists cannot always observe all
B. conducting the experiment or observation individuals of a group.
only once E. Quantitative results increase desirable bias.
C. throwing out data that does not fit the
conclusion 67. The difference between results obtained from a
D. using a small subset of a larger population subset and results obtained from the whole is known as
E. carefully selecting samples to match the the ____.
prediction A. sampling error D. sample size
B. probability E. controlled variable
C. statistically significant
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68. After rigorous statistical analyses have shown a very 73. In 1610, which scientist was imprisoned for
low likelihood (usually 5% or less) of a result having publishing evidence that the Earth orbits the sun?
occurred by chance alone, the result is said to be ____. A. Aristotle D. Darwin
A. quantitatively probable B. Copernicus E. Newton
B. probably random C. Galileo
C. statistically significant
D. due to sampling error MATCHING
E. statistically probable Based on the Olestra potato chip experiment
conducted by researchers at the Johns Hopkins
69. Evolution is a central, unifying theme in biology University School of Medicine, match the following
because ___________. letters to the number with which they best correspond.
A. It is not a falsifiable hypothesis A. Observation
B. Humans have evolved from ancestors we share B. Hypothesis
with present-day monkeys C. Prediction
C. The enormously diverse forms of life on earth D. Experiment
have all been shaped by it. E. Control group
D. It has occurred in the past, even though it no F. Experimental group
longer operates today. G. The variable
H. Results
70. If a hypothesis stands after years of repeated I. Conclusion
testing, is consistent with all data gathered, and helps
make successful predictions about other phenomena, 74. People who eat potato chips with Olestra will be
it is considered to be a ____. more likely to get intestinal cramps than those who eat
A. speculative idea D. law of nature potato chips made without Olestra.
B. proven theory E. scientific theory
C. proven hypothesis 75. Olestra.

71. Why are the laws of thermodynamics considered 76. Percentages are about equal. Therefore, Olestra is
laws of nature and not scientific theories? not the cause of intestinal cramps observed in some
A. We do not understand how or why energy people who have ingested Olestra-containing food.
behaves the way it does.
B. We understand why energy behaves the way it 77. Olestra causes intestinal cramps.
does, but not exactly how it behaves.
C. We understand how energy behaves, but not 78. A set of people got regular potato chips.
exactly why it behaves the way it does.
D. We cannot be absolutely sure that energy will 79. 1,100 people between the ages of thirteen and
behave the same under all conditions. thirty-eight were asked to watch a movie and eat
E. We have a complete scientific explanation of potato chips.
energy behavior.
80. Some people complained of intestinal problems
72. The idea that Earth orbits the sun is referred to as after eating chips containing Olestra.
____ of the solar system, because of the scientist who
first proposed it. 81. A subset of people got Olestra-containing chips.
A. the Galilean theory D. the Copernican model
B. Newton’s model E. Darwin’s theory 82. In the control group, 17.6% of people reported
C. Einstein’s theory having cramps later, while in the experimental group,
15.8% of people had cramps later.
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Match the term with its definition. 95. Yeasts belong to this group.
A. atom
B. organism 96. Members of this domain have a nucleus and
C. biosphere numerous membrane-bound organelles.
D. molecule
E. population 97. These prokaryotes are able to colonize extreme
F. ecosystem environments such as hydrothermal vents on the
G. cell seafloor.
H. community
98. Besides feeding themselves, these multi-celled
83. All populations of all species in a given area organisms, serve as food for most other organisms.

84. Fundamental building block of all matter 99. These multi-celled consumers include herbivores
and carnivores.
85. Smallest unit of life
100. This single-celled or multicelled eukaryotic
86. All regions of Earth where organisms live consumer breaks down material outside itself, then
absorbs nutrients released from the breakdown.
87. Two or more atoms bonded together
II. MOLECULES OF LIFE
88. A community interacting with its environment 1. Hydrogenation is a _____.
A. manufacturing process that adds hydrogen
89. Individual that consists of one or more cells atoms to carbohydrates
B. natural process that adds hydrogen atoms to
90. Group of interbreeding individuals of the same
species that live in a given area carbohydrates
C. manufacturing process that adds hydrogen
CLASSIFY. Answer the following questions in reference atoms to oils
to life's diversity. Choose only the most correct answer. D. natural process that removes hydrogen
A. archaea atoms from fats
B. bacteria
E. manufacturing process that removes
C. eukarya
hydrogen atoms from fats
D. plantae
E. fungi
F. animals 2. The human body requires about ____ of fat each
G. protists day to stay healthy.
A. 1 teaspoon D. 4 tablespoons
91. Often found in extreme environments while having B. 4 teaspoons E. 1 cup
no nucleus, these organisms are closer genetically to
C. 1 tablespoon
eukaryotes.

92. In this eukaryotic group, members range from 3. Fats are major components of the cell’s ____.
single-celled consumers to giant, multi-celled A. membranes D. ribosomes
producers. B. cytoplasm E. DNA
C. Proteins
93. Multicelled consumers that actively move about
during at least part of their lives.
4. A typical fat molecule has ____ fatty acid tails.
94. They have no nucleus and are the most numerous A. one B. two C. three D. four E. five
organisms on Earth.
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5. Which invention led to trans fats being marketed E. extremely unstable because they have
as solid cooking fat? vacancies in their inner shells
A. the electric light D. the microwave oven
B. the telephone E. the refrigerator 11. The nucleus of an atom contains ____.
C. the automobile A. protons only D. protons and neutrons
B. electrons only E. protons and electrons
6. The atomic number is determined by the number of C. neutrons only
____.
A. protons 12. The negative subatomic particle is the ____.
B. neutrons A. neutron D. quark
C. electrons B. proton E. Higg's boson
D. protons plus neutrons C. electron
E. protons plus electrons
13. The positive subatomic particle is the ____.
7. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. Carbon-14 has A. neutron D. positron
_____. B. proton E. quark
A. 6 neutrons and 6 protons C. electron
B. 6 neutrons and 8 protons
C. 8 neutrons and 6 protons 14. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. This means
D. 14 neutrons and 6 protons that oxygen has ____.
E. 14 protons and 6 neutrons A. 8 electrons in its outer most shell
B. 8 neutrons in its nucleus
8. Tracers are used in what form of a medical test? C. 4 protons and 4 neutrons in its nucleus
A. PET scans D. x-rays D. 8 protons in its nucleus
B. CT scans E. MRI E. 8 protons and 8 neutrons in its nucleus
C. Sonograms
15. The neutral subatomic particle is the ____.
9. We can accurately determine the age of a rock or A. neutron D. quark
fossil by measuring its ____. B. proton E. Higg's boson
A. proton concentration C. electron
B. electron concentration
C. neutron concentration 16. Carbon 14 radioisotopes decay into stable ____.
D. isotope concentration A. carbon 13 isotopes
E. ion concentration B. nitrogen atoms
C. carbon atoms
10. Helium, neon, and argon are _____. D. nitrogen 15 isotopes
A. extremely stable because they have E. sodium atoms
vacancies in their outer shells
B. extremely stable because they don't have 17. An atom that carries a charge is called a(n) ____.
any vacancies in their outer shells A. ion D. element
C. extremely unstable because they have B. molecule E. microelement
vacancies in their outer shells C. compound
D. extremely unstable because they don't have
any vacancies in their outer shells
 10

18. A(n) ____ is a type of chemical bond in which a 25. Which substance is hydrophobic?
strong mutual attraction forms between ions of A. canola oil D. water
opposite charge. B. sodium chloride E. the potassium ion
A. hydrogen bond D. covalent bond C. sugar
B. nonpolar bond E. ionic bond
C. polar bond 26. Fats will dissolve in ethanol. Ethanol is an example
of a ____.
19. The bond in table salt (NaCl) is ____. A. solute D. salt
A. polar D. double B. solution E. ion
B. ionic E. nonpolar C. solvent
C. covalent
27. Which bond is weakest?
20. In ____ bonds, atoms share electrons equally. A. ionic D. nonpolar covalent
A. double D. nonpolar covalent B. double covalent E. hydrogen
B. ionic E. hydrogen C. polar covalent
C. polar covalent
28. Water molecules are attracted to one another
21. Which type of chemical bonds are found within a because the ____.
water molecule? A. slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom
A. hydrogen D. nonpolar covalent from one molecule of water attracts the slightly
B. ionic E. triple negative charge of the oxygen atom from
C. polar covalent another molecule
B. slightly negative charge of the hydrogen atom
22. The positively charged ion, potassium, and the from one molecule of water attracts the slightly
negatively charged ion, fluoride, will form what kind of negative charge of the oxygen atom from
bond? another molecule
A. ionic D. hydrogen C. slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom
B. polar covalent E. isotonic attracts the oxygen within the same molecule of
C. nonpolar covalent water, which leads to an increase in its polarity
D. water molecules participate in non-polar covalent
23. What molecule would be considered a covalent bonds, which increase the attraction of the
compound? molecules to each other
A. oxygen (O2) D. a diamond (C) E. water molecules bind to each other through their
B. sodium chloride (NaCl) E. ozone (O3) mutual attraction to ionic compounds
C. water (H2O)
29. A solution is a uniform mixture in which a ____ is
24. The structural formula for molecular oxygen is dissolved completely in a ____.
depicted as O=O. What kind of bond holds molecular A. salt; solute D. solvent; salt
oxygen together? B. solute; salt E. solvent; solute
A. ionic D. double covalent C. solute; solvent
B. polar covalent E. triple covalent 30. Surface tension is an example of ____.
C. single covalent A. Hydrophobicity D. cohesion
B. Concentration E. polarity
C. Evaporation
 11

31. Sweating to keep cool in the summer is the result 37. Glucose dissolves in water because it ____.
of ____. A. ionizes
A. hydrogen bonds breaking to release energy B. is a polysaccharide
B. hydrogen bonds forming, which requires energy C. is a polar and forms many hydrogen bonds
C. evaporation of water giving off energy with water molecules
D. cohesion of water molecules giving off energy D. has a very reactive primary structure
E. cohesion of water molecules requiring energy E. is an isotope

32. Hydrogen bonding ____ the movement of 38. A solution at a pH of 10 contains how many times
molecules, therefore, substances that form a lot of more hydrogen ions than a solution at a pH of 7?
hydrogen bonds, like water, will require ____ energy A. 2 B. 3 C. 10 D. 100 E. 1,000
to increase their temperature by one degree Celsius.
A. decreases; less 39. A pH value of ____ has the highest concentration
B. decreases; more of hydrogen ions.
C. doesn't affect; no additional A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
D. increases; less
E. increases; more 40. Nearly all of life’s chemistry occurs near a pH of
____.
33. When water molecules form into ice, ____. A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
A. the water molecules jiggle more
B. their structure becomes less rigid 41. A uniform mixture is called a ____.
C. the water molecules pack less densely A. concentration D. solution
D. hydrogen bonds between water molecules B. salt E. solvent
readily break C. solute
E. evaporation of water molecules happens more
readily 42. What category of compounds helps our body fluids
to stay within a consistent pH range?
34. Hydrophobic molecules are ____ water. A. solvents D. acids
A. attracted by D. mixed with B. buffers E. bases
B. absorbed by E. polarized by C. solutes
C. repelled by
35. ____ is the tendency of water molecules to stay 43. ____ is one of the substances that maintain our
attached to one another. blood pH between 7.35 and 7.45.
A. Adhesion D. Interaction A. Water D. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Cohesion E. Junction B. Carbonic acid E. Sodium hydroxide
C. Fusion C. Hydrochloric acid
44. Which two atoms are found in all organic
36. Which property of water molecules is responsible compounds?
for the movement of water from roots to leaves in a A. carbon and hydrogen
plant? B. carbon and oxygen
A. hydrophobicity D. solvent polarity C. oxygen and hydrogen
B. temperature stability E. cohesion D. carbon and phosphorous
C. fusion E. oxygen and sulfur
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45. Which is an organic molecule? 52. Sucrose is composed of ____.

A. carbon dioxide (CO2) D. hydrochloric acid (HCl) A. two molecules of fructose
B. water (H2O) E. oxygen (O2) B. two molecules of glucose
C. methane (CH4) C. a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose
D. a molecule of fructose and a molecule of
46. Large polymers are formed from smaller subunits galactose
by which type of reaction? E. two molecules of galactose
A. oxidation D. hydrolysis
B. reduction E. decarboxylation 53. Plants store their excess carbohydrates in the form
C. condensation of ____.
A. cellulose D. sucrose
47. The breakdown of large molecules by enzymes B. starch E. galactose
and the addition of water is known as a ____ reaction. C. glycogen
A. oxidation D. hydrolysis
B. reduction E. decarboxylation 54. Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy
C. condensation storage by ____.
A. plants D. bacteria
48. The chemical reactions that cells use to acquire B. animals E. archaea
and use energy to live, grow and reproduce are called C. protists
____.
A. hydrolysis D. metabolism 55. Which type of bonding allows the long, straight
B. condensation E. oxidation chains of cellulose to lock together tightly?
C. phosphorylation A. hydrogen D. nonpolar covalent
B. polar covalent E. metallic
49. How many carbons are present in this figure? C. ionic

56. Cellulose is ____.

A. the most complex of the organic compounds
B. a polymer of glucose and fructose
A. 0 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7
C. a polymer of glucose and galactose
D. a component of plasma membranes
50. Which organic molecule is a carbohydrate
E. a material found in plant cell walls
monomer?
A. triglyceride D. amino acid
57. ____ is a monosaccharide.
B. fatty acids E. monosaccharide
A. Cellulose D. Starch
C. nucleotide
B. Fructose E. Sucrose
C. Glycogen
51. Glucose monomers linked into a highly branched
chain make up ____.
58. Humans do not contain the enzymes to break
A. glycogen D. starch
down ____.
B. cellulose E. sucrose
A. cellulose D. starch
C. fructose
B. fructose E. sucrose
C. glycogen
 13

59. A triglyceride molecule is made up of ____.

A. one glycerol and two fatty acids
B. two fatty acids and two glycerols
C. one fatty acid and three glycerols
D. one glycerol and three fatty acids
E. one glycerol and two fatty acids

60. In a cell membrane, the phospholipid heads are

____.
A. hydrophobic
B. nonpolar
C. dissolved in the cell’s watery interior
D. sandwiched between the phospholipid tails
E. formed by fatty acids

61. Unsaturated fats ____.

A. are solid at room temperature 65. In the figure above, which fatty acids are most
B. have at least one double bond in their fatty likely to be solid at room temperature?
acid tail A. I D. I and IV
C. are saturated with hydrogen atoms B. II, III and IV E. I and V
D. mainly come from animals C. II, III, IV and V
E. consist of straight chain fatty acids
66. A(n) ____ is a protein monomer.
62. All steroids have ____. A. nucleotide D. amino acid
A. the same number of double bonds B. monosaccharide E. ribose
B. double bonds in the same positions C. simple sugar
C. four carbon rings
D. the same functional groups 67. Primary protein structure is dependent upon
E. the same number and positions of double ____.
bonds A. hydrophobic interactions
B. hydrogen bonds between two amino acids
63. Which food product would likely contain the C. covalent linkages between carbons and nitrogens
largest amount of unsaturated fat? of adjacent amino acids
A. butter D. olives D. covalent linkages between carbons and oxygens
B. lard E. cheese of adjacent amino acids
C. Salami E. covalent linkages between the polypeptide and
64. Fats that contain ____ double bonds are liquids at sugars or lipids
room temperature, whereas fats that contain ____
double bonds are solids at room temperature. 68. Which type of bond exists between two amino
A. trans; cis acids in a protein?
B. cis; trans A. peptide D. amino
C. hydrogenated; partially hydrogenated B. ionic E. sulfhydryl
D. partially hydrogenated; hydrogenated C. hydrogen
E. unsaturated; saturated
 14

69. Two amino acids are bonded together to form a 75. In a polymer of nucleotides, how does one
dipeptide by which type of reaction? nucleotide attach to another?
A. condensation D. decomposition A. The base of one nucleotide is attached to the
B. oxidation reduction E. acid-base base of the next.
C. hydrolysis B. The base of one nucleotide it attached to the
sugar of the next.
70. Protein misfolding causes ____. C. The sugar of one nucleotide is attached to the
A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D. schizophrenia sugar of the next.
B. arthritis E. tuberculosis D. The phosphate group of one nucleotide is
C. immunodepression attached to the base of the next.
E. The phosphate group of one nucleotide is
71. When a protein denatures, which type of bonding attached to the sugar of the next.
is affected?
A. covalent D. hydrogen 76. Which type of bonds hold the two chains of DNA
B. peptide E. metallic together in a DNA molecule?
C. ionic A. hydrogen D. ionic
B. polar covalent E. peptide
72. A protein that is linked to a carbohydrate is known C. nonpolar covalent
as a ____.
A. glycoprotein D. denatured proteins MATCHING
B. lipoprotein E. prions Match the following terms to the correct description.
C. fibrous proteins A. mass number
B. atomic number
73. Nucleotides are monomers of ____. C. radioisotope
A. complex lipids D. nucleic acids D. isotopes
B. proteins E. cellulose E. ions
C. polysaccharides
77. forms of an element that differ in the number of
74. A nucleotide consists of ____. neutrons their atoms carry
A. a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a
phosphate group 78. number of protons in the atomic nucleus
B. a six-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a
phosphate group 79. isotope with an unstable nucleus
C. a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a
phosphate group 80. total number of protons and neutrons in the
D. a six-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a nucleus of an atom
phosphate group
E. a four-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous acid, and a 81. atoms with more or less electrons than protons
phosphate group
 15

Match the following terms to the correct description.

A. acid
B. base
C. neutral
D. buffer
E. pH

82. solution that contains the same concentration of

H+ ions as OH ions

83. measure of the relative concentration of hydrogen

ions in a solution

84. substance that releases hydrogen ions in solution

85. substance that accepts hydrogen ions in solution

86. substance that can maintain the pH of a solution at

a relatively constant level

The following are types of chemical bonds. Match

these to the correct description.
A. hydrogen
B. ionic
C. covalent

87. the bond between the atoms in an NaCl molecule

88. the bond between the hydrogen atoms of

molecular hydrogen

89. the bond that breaks when salts dissolve in water

90. the bond in which electrons are shared

91. the bond that holds organic molecules together

92. the bond between the two strands of DNA in a

double helix

93. the bond that is easiest to break

 16

Match the structures below with the appropriate label

in the figure above.

94. fatty acid

95. phospholipid

96. steroid

97. amino acid

98. cellulose

99. starch

100. nucleotide
 17

III. CELL STRUCTURE & FUNCTION 5. Four of the five answers listed below are
organelles in the cytoplasm. Select the exception.
Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of A. Nucleolus D. Golgi apparatus
the most appropriate option to complete or answer the B. Mitochondrion E. Chloroplast
question for each item. C. ribosome

1. What happens when a round cell expands in 6. Four of the five organelles listed below are part of
diameter? the endomembrane system. Select the exception.
A. Its surface area and diameter increase with A. smooth ER D. Vesicles
the cube of its diameter. B. peroxisomes E. Mitochondria
B. Its surface area and diameter increase with C. Golgi bodies
the square of its diameter.
C. Its volume increases faster than its surface 7. Four of the five animals listed below can harbor E.
area does. coli 0157:H7 without becoming ill. Select the
D. Its surface area increases faster than its exception.
volume does. A. goats
E. Its volume and surface area expands by the B. cattle
same proportion. C. deer
D. sheep
2. One portion of the cell theory states that ____. E. humans
A. all cells have a nucleus
B. all cells divide by meiosis 8. All cells have _______.
C. all living organisms are made up of one or A. a nucleus, but not necessarily DNA
more cells B. a plasma membrane, but not necessarily DNA
D. cells arise through spontaneous generation C. cytoplasm, but not necessarily a plasma
E. growth is solely the result of cell division membrane
D. cytoplasm and a plasma membrane, but not
3. Four of the five answers listed below are necessarily DNA
generalizations of the cell theory. Select the E. cytoplasm, a plasma membrane, and DNA
exception.
A. Cells are the structural and functional 9. To see objects smaller than those that can be
components of living things. resolved by a light microscope, we usually use
B. Cells arise from preexisting cells. microscopes that employ a beam of ______
C. All organisms are composed of cells. A. Electrons D. neutrons
D. Cells are the basic living unit or organization B. Photons E. X-rays
of living things. C. protons
E. All cells have a nucleus.
10. Which structure is large enough to be seen under
4. Four of the five answers listed below are a light microscope?
characteristics of a plasma membrane. Select the A. small molecule D. chloroplast
exception. B. protein E. complex carbohydrate
A. Phospholipid D. hydrophilic tails C. virus
B. fluid mosaic E. membrane proteins
C. lipid bilayer
 18

11. The most detailed image of the surface of a cell 16. Which membrane proteins move specific
would be found on a ____. substances across a membrane, typically by
A. light micrograph from a phase contrast forming a channel?
microscope A. Transport D. adhesion
B. transmission electron micrograph B. Receptor E. enzymes
C. scanning electron micrograph C. Recognition
D. light micrograph from a light microscope
E. transmission electron micrograph 17. Hydrophobic reactions of phospholipids may
produce clusters of their fatty acid tails, which
12. The phospholipid molecules of most membranes form
have a ____. A. a lipid bilayer.
A. hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail B. hydrolysis of the fatty acids.
B. hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail C. a protein membrane.
C. hydrophobic head and two hydrophobic tails D. a cytoskeleton.
D. hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails E. a nonpolar membrane.
E. hydrophilic head and tail
18. Which membrane protein is responsible for
13. If free phospholipids were swirled into the water, binding hormones that can trigger changes in the
they would ____. cell’s activity?
A. form pairs A. recognition proteins
B. form spheres with the phosphate-containing B. receptor proteins
heads at the center C. transport proteins
C. dissolve D. adhesion proteins
D. form a lipid bilayer sheet, with the E. channel proteins
hydrophobic tails in the center
E. form a lipid bilayer sheet, with the phosphate-
containing heads in the center

14. Archaea use molecules with reactive side chains in

their plasma membrane, so the tails of archaeal
phospholipids form covalent bonds with one
another. As a result, the plasma membrane is
____.
A. more fluid
B. less rigid
C. less fluid
D. able to contain more membrane proteins Figure 1. Generalized body plan of a prokaryote. For
E. easily disturbed items 19-21, please refer to the figure above.

15. Different cell membranes can have different

functions depending on which ____ are associated
with them.
A. cholesterol molecules D. proteins
B. fatty acid lengths E. phospholipid heads
C. fatty acid saturations
 19

19. Which letter identifies this cell’s nucleus? 26. Which structure consists of two lipid bilayers
A. A B. B C. C D. D folded together as a single membrane?
E. There is no nucleus A. cell wall
B. cell membrane
20. Which letter identifies this cell’s flagellum? C. nuclear envelope
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E D. ribosome
E. Golgi body
21. Which structure helps these cells move across or
cling to surfaces? 27. A dense, irregularly shaped region within the
A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E nucleus in which subunits of ribosomes are
synthesized is called the ______
22. Which structure do prokaryotic cells lack? A. Plastid D. nucleolus
A. nucleoid regions B. Vacuole E. basal body
B. membrane-bound nuclei C. microvillus
C. cytoplasm
D. a plasma membrane 28. Which structures are the primary cellular sites for
E. DNA the production of polypeptide chains?
A. Golgi bodies
23. Most archaeal cell walls consist of ____; most B. ribosomes
bacterial cell walls consist of a polymer of C. mitochondria
peptides and polysaccharides. D. lysosomes
A. lipids E. smooth endoplasmic reticula
B. proteins
C. phospholipids 29. Where are lipids that are destined for cell
D. glycoproteins membranes synthesized?
E. glycolipids A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
24. Many species of bacteria live bound together by a C. mitochondria
gluelike substance that, among other things, D. lysosomes
makes up the plaque on human teeth. This is an E. smooth endoplasmic reticula
example of a ____.
A. pilus 30. What are the primary structures for modifying
B. mass and packaging of cellular secretions for export
C. vesicle from the cell?
D. colony A. Golgi bodies D. lysosomes
E. biofilm B. ribosomes E. chloroplasts
C. Mitochondria
25. What are organized clusters of membrane
proteins that selectively allow substances to cross 31. Fluid-filled sacs that may store amino acids,
into and out of the nucleus? sugars, toxins, and ions in plant cells are called
A. nuclear pore ____.
B. passive transport protein A. plastids
C. receptor B. central vacuoles
D. nuclear envelope C. peroxisomes
E. ribosome D. vesicles
E. Golgi bodies
 20

32. Polypeptide chains take on their tertiary structure 38. Nearly all eukaryotic cells have mitochondria, but
and assemble with other polypeptide chains in the number varies by the type of cell and by the
which organelle? organism. In general, cells that have the highest
A. ribosomes demand for energy tend to have _______.
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum A. the least mitochondria
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. the most mitochondria
D. Golgi body C. slow dividing mitochondria
E. vesicles D. larger mitochondria in lower numbers
E. no mitochondria
33. Which organelles are sometimes referred to as
rough or smooth, depending on their appearance 39. What are the primary cellular sites for the
in electron micrographs? production of ATP?
A. Golgi bodies D. Lysosomes A. endoplasmic reticulum
B. Ribosomes E. endoplasmic reticulum B. ribosomes
C. Mitochondria C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts and mitochondria
34. Which cellular component’s main function is to E. ribosomes and Golgi bodies
make lipids, enzymes, and proteins for secretion
to the external environment? 40. What is the general term for double-membrane
A. nucleus organelles that function in photosynthesis,
B. mitochondria storage, or pigmentation in plant and algal cells?
C. endomembrane system A. chloroplasts
D. cytoskeleton B. chromoplasts
E. cell membrane C. amyloplasts
D. plastids
35. Characteristics of mitochondria include that they E. chlorophylls
____.
A. have two membranes, with the outer 41. Which organelles make and store pigments other
membrane being highly folded than chlorophylls?
B. are least abundant in metabolically active A. plastids
cells B. chloroplasts
C. does not require oxygen for its functioning C. chromoplasts
D. function in photosynthesis D. central vacuoles
E. have their own DNA and ribosomes and divide E. vesicles
independently of the cell
42. Short hairlike structures on the cell surface that
36. Which organelles produce ATP by aerobic stir fluid around stationary cells are called:
respiration? A. cilia
A. Golgi bodies D. lysosomes B. flagella
B. Ribosomes E. endoplasmic reticula C. intermediate filaments
C. Mitochondria D. microfilaments
37. Mitochondria convert the energy stored in _____ E. pili
to usable energy for the cell.
A. Water D. ATP
B. organic compounds E. carbon dioxide
C. NAD
 21

43. Structural features that contain the protein actin 48. Which type of junctions involves closable channels
and help to strengthen and change the shapes of that connect the cytoplasm of adjoining animal
eukaryotic cells are known as ____. cells?
A. plastids A. gap junctions
B. vacuoles B. plasmodesmata
C. microvilli C. tight junctions
D. nucleoli D. adhering junctions
E. microfilaments E. blocking proteins

44. Before a eukaryotic cell divides, ____ assemble, MATCHING. Match each membrane protein with the
separate the cell’s duplicated DNA molecules, and best description.
then disassemble. A. recognition protein
A. cilia B. active transport protein
B. flagella C. receptor
C. microtubules D. adhesion proteins
D. microfilaments E. enzyme
E. intermediate filaments
49. ______ Initiates change in a cell activity by
45. Microtubules grow from a barrel-shaped organelle responding to an outside signal
called the ____, which remains below the finished
array as a ____. 50. ______ Identifies a cell as belonging to self
A. cilium; motor protein
B. cell cortex; centriole 51. ______ Helps cells stick to one another
C. microfilament; basal body
D. centriole; intermediate filament 52. ______ Speeds up a specific reaction
E. centriole; basal body
53. ______Pumps ions or molecules through
46. Plasmodesmata are ____. membranes
A. used in energy transformations within the cell
B. typical of animal cells more than plant cells
C. arrays of adhesion proteins that join epithelial
cells and collectively prevent fluids from
leaking between them
D. open channels that extend across plant cell
walls to connect the cytoplasm of adjacent
cells
E. complex mixture of extracellular cell
secretions

47. Which type of junctions prevent fluid leakage

between cells?
A. gap junctions
B. plasmodesmata
C. tight junctions
D. adhering junctions
E. blocking proteins
 22

The following items are organelles found in animal 64. ______ Any small, membrane enclosed sac
cells. Answer the question(s) with reference to these
organelles. 65. ______ Forms by the fusion of multiple
A. ribosomes vesicles
B. mitochondria
C. lysosomes
D. Golgi bodies
E. endoplasmic reticulum

54. ______ The packaging of secretory proteins

usually occurs in association with this
structure.

55. ______ This organelle is involved in lipid

production and protein transport.

56. ______ DNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus.

Its breakdown can occur in this organelle.

57. ______ These are the structures upon which

proteins are assembled.

58. ______ The cellular digestion and disposal of

biological molecules occurs inside this Figure 2. Typical plant cell components.
organelle. 66. ____ the cell wall.

59. ______ Ribosomes are often found on the 67. ____ a major storage organelle of the cell.
surface of this organelle.
68. ____ the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
60. ______ Aerobic respiration occurs in this
organelle. 69. ____ the organelle that converts light energy
to ATP energy.
61. ______ Sugar metabolism occurs in
association with this organelle. 70. ____ the mitochondrion.

Match the endomembrane system components with

the best description.
A. vesicles
B. lysosomes
C. peroxisomes
D. vacuoles

62. ______ Take part in intracellular digestion

63. ______ Break down fatty acids, amino acids,

and poisons such as alcohol
 23

80. What measures can the average citizen take to

reduce the likelihood of infection with E. coli or other
foodborne organisms?

IV. ENERGY & METABOLISM

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of
the most appropriate option to complete or answer the
question for each item.

1. Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics says

that ________.
A. one form of energy cannot be converted into
another
B. entropy is increasing in the universe
C. energy can be neither created nor destroyed
D. energy cannot be converted into matter or
matter into energy
Figure 3. Typical animal cell components.
E. energy is the capacity to do work
71. ____ organelle that converts food energy to
2. The second law of thermodynamics holds that
ATP energy
__________.
A. matter can neither be created nor destroyed
72. ____ organelle on which the ribosomes serve
B. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
as sites for protein (polypeptide) assembly
C. whenever energy is transformed to another
form, some is dispersed
73. ____ organelle where proteins and lipids are
D. entropy decreases with time
modified and packaged for export
E. energy is the capacity to do work
74. ____ area where RNA is synthesized
3. The second law of thermodynamics states that
___________.
75. ____ selectively controls the entry and exit of
A. energy can be transformed into matter and,
materials from the cell
because of this, we can get something for
nothing
SHORT ANSWER. Answers must be reflected in your
B. energy can only be destroyed during nuclear
answer sheet.
reactions, such as those that occur inside the
77. What are the three cell coverings present in this
sun
generalized body plan of a prokaryote? Provide a brief
C. if energy is gained by one region of the
description of each.
universe, another place in the universe also
75. What limits cell size?
must gain energy in order to maintain the
76. How do plants form primary cell walls?
balance of nature
77. What term describes the characteristic of a plasma
D. energy tends to become increasingly more
membrane that allows only certain materials to cross?
disorganized
78. Explain how the term “fluid mosaic” describes the
E. energy is the capacity to do work
plasma membrane.
79. Nuclear pores function as gateways for molecules
to enter and exit a nucleus. Protein synthesis offers an
example of why this movement is important. Explain.
 24

4. Four of the five answers listed below apply to 10. Endergonic reactions convert molecules with ____
conditions where energy is released. Select the free energy to molecules with ____ free energy,
exception. so they require a net energy input in order to
A. endergonic reaction proceed.
B. respiration A. higher; lower
C. entropy B. lower; higher
D. second law of thermodynamics C. zero; some
E. exergonic reaction D. some; zero
E. chemical bond; no chemical bond
5. Four of the five answers listed below affect the
rate of enzymatic reactions. Select the exception. 11. The products of exergonic pathways are usually:
A. pH A. lower in energy
B. temperature B. higher in energy
C. concentrations C. larger and higher in energy
D. hormones D. smaller and higher in energy
E. buildup of product E. smaller and lower in energy

6. Four of the five statements about enzymes are 12. Which reaction is endergonic?
correct. Select the exception. A. protein synthesis
A. Enzymes control the speed of a reaction. B. digestion
B. Enzymes change shapes to facilitate certain C. fire
reactions. D. respiration
C. Enzymes may place physical stress on the E. movement
bonds of the substrate.
D. Enzymes may require cofactors.
E. Enzymes are not limited by environmental
factors.

7. Four of the five answers listed below are

metabolic processes. Select the exception.
A. protein synthesis D. phosphorylation
B. cell division E. oxidation/reduction
C. digestion

8. Four of the five answers listed below are found in

a common energy-carrying molecule. Select the
exception.
A. Phosphate D. hydrogen
B. Adenine E. ribose
C. deoxyribose

9. Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require

an input of ____ to begin.
A. organic molecules D. water
B. initiation energy E. oxygen
C. activation energy
 25

Each enzyme functions best within a characteristic 18. Although it is too simple an explanation, the
range of conditions. For items 13 and 14, please refer concept of a key fitting into a lock is descriptive of
to the figure above. the:
A. inhibition of enzymes by small molecules
13. Refer to the accompanying figure above. Which B. fit of coenzymes to enzymes
statement best describes the functioning of E. coli C. matching of enzyme with substrate
polymerase and T. aquaticus polymerase? D. regeneration of ATP from ADP
A. E. coli polymerase functions at higher E. stepwise cascade of electrons in the
temperatures than T. aquaticus polymerase. oxidation-reduction reactions
B. E. coli polymerase activity is highest at normal
body temperature (37 degrees). 19. What is the process in which an enzyme makes a
C. T. aquaticus polymerase denatures at reaction run much faster than it would on its
temperatures above 60 degrees. own?
D. T. aquaticus polymerase activity is highest at A. redox reaction
lower than normal body temperature (37 B. allosteric regulation
degrees). C. induced fit
E. Both E. coli polymerase is best suited to work D. catalysis
in environments such as hot springs (70 E. phosphorylation
degrees).
20. Adding heat boosts free energy. The greater the
14. Refer to the accompanying figure above. In which free energy of reactants, the closer they are to
condition does trypsin function best? ____.
A. high pH, such as in the intestine A. feedback inhibition
B. low pH, such as in the intestine B. an endergonic reaction
C. high pH, such as in the stomach C. an induced fit with an enzyme
D. low pH, such as in the stomach D. activation energy
E. neutral pH, such as in most interstitial fluid. E. cofactor interaction

15. Which of these may show enzymatic activity? 21. Activation energy is the energy required to bring
A. lipids reactant bonds to:
B. proteins A. an enzyme
C. DNA B. their strongest conformation
D. lipids and proteins C. a reducing agent
E. proteins and carbohydrates D. their breaking point
E. a high energy state
16. During enzyme-catalyzed reactions, substrate is a
synonym for: 22. How does a high pH affect an enzyme’s activity?
A. end product D. reactant A. It deceases it.
B. Byproduct E. cofactor B. It increases it.
C. enzyme C. It changes the shape of all enzymes.
D. It does not affect the enzyme but it lowers the
17. Enzymes increase the rate of a given reaction by availability of substrate.
lowering what kind of energy? E. It varies with different enzymes; some work
A. combination D. electrical well at a high pH, others do not.
B. activation E. solar
C. thermal
 26

23. In metabolic pathways that are regulated by 28. A(n) _____ is an organized series of reaction steps
feedback inhibition, the _____ inhibits the activity in which membrane-bound arrays of enzymes and
of the _____. other molecules give up and accept electrons in
A. product; first enzyme turn.
B. first enzyme; product A. cyclic metabolic pathway
C. second enzyme; first enzyme B. endergonic reaction
D. last enzyme; first enzyme C. electron transfer chain
E. reactant; product D. concentration gradient
E. passive transport
24. Allosteric inhibition is generally a result of:
A. excess substrates 29. In a cyclic metabolic pathway, the ____.
B. binding regulatory molecules at a site other A. product inhibits the first enzyme
than the active site B. last step regenerates an enzyme for the first
C. a change in the temperature of the system step
D. binding of the regulatory molecule at the C. product inhibits the last enzyme
active site D. last step may regenerate a reactant for the
E. pH inhibition first step
E. regulatory molecules bind to regions other
25. An allosteric enzyme: than the active site
A. has an active site where substrate molecules
bind and another site that binds with 30. A regulatory substance binds an enzyme outside
regulatory molecules of the active site and changes its shape so that it
B. is an important energy-carrying nucleotide enhances the enzyme’s activity. What does this
C. carries out either oxidation reactions or illustrate?
reduction reactions, but not both A. allosteric regulation
D. raises the activation energy of the chemical B. feedback inhibition
reaction it catalyzes C. redox reaction
E. only participates in feedback inhibition D. enhancing activation energy
pathways E. an active site, bound by substrate

26. A molecule that gives up an electron becomes: 31. Which substance would be unlikely to function as
A. ionized only a coenzyme?
B. oxidized only A. a water-soluble vitamin
C. reduced only B. an iron ion
D. both ionized and oxidized C. glucose
E. both ionized and reduced D. NAD+
E. a magnesium ion
27. The removal of electrons from a compound is
known as: 32. When ATP releases its energy, it forms:
A. dehydration A. AMP only
B. oxidation B. ADP only
C. reduction C. Pi only
D. phosphorylation D. both AMP and Pi
E. a nonreversible chemical reaction E. both ADP and Pi
 27

33. When NAD+ combines with hydrogen and an 39. Which combination of conditions would increase
electron, the NAD+ becomes: the rate of diffusion through a semipermeable
A. reduced membrane the most?
B. oxidized I. steeper concentration gradients
C. phosphorylated II. higher temperatures
D. denatured III. larger molecules
E. inactivated A. I only
B. II only
34. ATP acts as what type of agent in almost all C. I and II
metabolic pathways? D. II and III
A. transfer E. I, II, and III
B. feedback
C. catalytic 40. Diffusion of nonpolar molecules would not be
D. allosteric affected by:
E. enzymatic A. molecule size
B. steepness of the concentration gradient
35. ATP contains: C. temperature
A. Adenine D. thymine D. charge
B. Cytosine E. guanine E. steepness of the pressure gradient
C. uracil
41. Which statement is true?
36. The rate of diffusion through a semipermeable A. A cell placed in an isotonic solution will swell.
membrane will be lowest when ____. B. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell.
A. molecules are small C. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will
B. there is a concentration gradient shrink.
C. there is a difference in charge D. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will
D. there is high pressure remain the same size.
E. temperatures are low E. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will
swell.
37. Pressure that a fluid exerts against a structure
that contains it is called: 42. Wilting of a plant occurs:
A. hypertonic A. if the plant cell walls weaken
B. pressure gradient B. when osomotic pressure is reached
C. osmosis C. if there is turgor
D. turgor D. when soil water becomes hypotonic
E. Isotonic E. when soil water becomes hypertonic

38. A single-celled freshwater organism, such as a

protistan, is transferred to salt water. What is
likely to happen?
A. The cell will bursts.
B. Salt will be pumped out of the cell.
C. The cell will shrink.
D. Enzymes will flow out of the cell.
E. Water will move into the cell.
 28

47. What prevents a glucose molecule from moving

back through a glucose transporter and leaving
the cell?
A. phosphorylation
B. charge
C. closed transporters
D. gated transporters
E. concentration gradient

Exhibit 1. Pictures red blood cells immersed in fluids of 48. A glucose transporter changes shape when it
different tonicity. Refer to this exhibit to answer the binds to a molecule of glucose. The shape change
following questions (items 43-44). moves glucose down its concentration gradient to
the opposite side of the membrane, where it
43. The red blood cells in micrograph A are immersed detaches from the transport protein. What does
in a(n) _____ solution. this illustrate?
A. hypotonic A. facilitated diffusion
B. isotonic B. passive diffusion
C. hypertonic C. active transport
D. osmotic D. energy fueled pump
E. turgor E. open channel transport

44. The red blood cells in micrograph B are immersed 49. What is occurring when a transport protein uses
in a(n) _____ solution. energy to pump a solute against its gradient
A. Hypotonic D. osmotic across a cell membrane?
B. Isotonic E. turgor A. osmosis
C. Hypertonic B. passive diffusion
C. facilitated diffusion
45. Which movement is a passive process? D. turgor
A. sodium-potassium pump E. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. exocytosis 50. Movement of a molecule against a concentration
D. diffusion gradient occurs in:
E. transport proteins and ATP A. simple diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
46. Which molecule(s) need a transport protein to C. osmosis
cross the cell membrane? D. active transport
A. water E. passive transport
B. carbon dioxide
C. glucose 51. What is a passive process that requires a protein
D. oxygen for movement of a solute across a membrane?
E. carbon dioxide and water A. active transport
B. endocytosis
C. bulk flow
D. facilitated diffusion
E. osmosis
 29

52. White blood cells use ____ to get rid of foreign 55. An alcohol-induced disease characterized by
particles in the blood. inflammation and destruction of liver tissue is
A. simple diffusion called ___________________.
B. bulk flow
C. osmosis 56. Long-term, heavy drinking can lead to
D. phagocytosis ___________________, or scarring of the liver.
E. facilitated diffusion
MATCHING
Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.
A. reactants have greater free energy than products
B. a phosphate group is attached by a high-energy
bond
C. an excess of end-product molecules alters the
shape of the first enzyme in the pathway and
shuts off that metabolic pathway
D. the part of an enzyme that binds to the substrate
E. binding of a regulatory molecule changes the
shape of the enzyme
F. lowers the activation energy of a reaction
G. universal energy currency
H. a permanent loss of protein structure

57. ________ active site

58. ________ allosteric enzyme
59. ________ adenosine triphosphate
60. ________ catalyst
61. ________ denaturation
62. ________ exergonic
63. ________ feedback inhibition
64. ________ phosphorylation

The question(s) ask about membrane permeability.

Answer them in reference to the four processes
53. Which processes in the accompanying figure below:
above involve receptor mediated transport? A. simple diffusion
A. A only B. facilitated diffusion
B. B only C. osmotic pressure
C. C only D. active transport
D. A and B E. turgor
E. B and C F. osmosis

COMPLETION. Answers must be reflected in the 65. Pressure that a fluid exerts against a structure
answer sheet. that contains it
54. The energy in chemical bonds is a type of 66. Phenomenon that explains the movement of
___________________ energy. any kind of molecule from areas of higher
concentration to ones of lower concentration
 30

67. The process whereby a protein assists in D: What is the input for exergonic reactions?
passive transport
68. The process that explains the movement of
molecules against a concentration gradient E: Provide examples of organic compounds that are
69. The process in which water stops diffusing made by endergonic reactions.
into the cytoplasm of a plant cell when
enough pressure builds up inside it
70. The process that specifically moves water F: Complete the sentence: Cells run exergonic
molecules across a differentially permeable reactions to _____________
membrane

LABELLING/FIGURE ANALYSIS 72.

71.

Figure 5.8 Cells store and retrieve energy in the

chemical bonds of organic molecules. Which letter in the accompanying figure corresponds
to each of the following?
Answer the following question(s) related to the 1. ____ activation energy without enzyme
accompanying figure.
2. ____ activation energy with enzyme
A: What is the input for endergonic reactions?
3. ____ substrate

B: Provide examples of organic compounds that are 4. ____ product

made by endergonic reactions.

C: Complete the sentence: Cells run endergonic

reactions to __________
 31

73.

Answer the following question(s) related to the

accompanying figure above.

A. What type of regulatory control is occurring? In the diagram above, side A has a 3 percent sucrose
solution and side B has a 10 percent sucrose solution.
B. Describe how the regulatory control works. The membrane separating the sides is permeable to
water but impermeable to sucrose.
C. Would the metabolic reaction speed up or slow
down if more product was present? 75. Side A is ____ to side B.
A. hypertonic
74. B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. either isotonic or hypertonic
E. either isotonic or hypotonic

76. Which statement best describes the movement of

water in this system?
A. Water moves in both directions, but net
movement is from A to B.
B. Water only moves from A to B.
C. Water moves in both directions, but net
movement is from B to A.
D. Water only moves from B to A.
Figure. Metabolic pathways. E. There is no net movement of water.
Answer the following question(s) related to the
accompanying figure. 77. Which statement best describes the movement of
a. Which two types of metabolic pathways are sucrose in this system?
illustrated? A. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net
movement is from A to B.
b. In the metabolic pathway on the right, there B. Sucrose only moves from A to B.
are two possible outcomes, what are they? C. Sucrose moves in both directions, but net
movement is from B to A.
c. What will happen in the metabolic pathway D. Sucrose only moves from B to A.
on the right if a high concentration of E. There is no net movement of sucrose.
products are present? Explain.
 32

82. Explain the active transport involved in

sodium-potassium pumps.

83. How does a vesicle form from the cell

membrane?

84. As long as a cell is alive, it replaces patches of

its plasma membrane and add new
membrane proteins. How does this occur?

V. HOW CELLS REPRODUCE

Write in your answer sheet the letter (in uppercase) of

the most appropriate option to complete or answer the
question for each item.

1. The HeLa cell line was isolated from a _____.

A. Chimpanzee
B. Rat
C. Human
D. Guinea pig
E. Dog

2. Immortal cell lineages _____.

78. Label the three vesicle movements in Figure A. are derived from normal body cells
above. B. are unable to grow outside the body
A: __________________________ C. have limited research applications
B: __________________________ D. are derived from cancerous cells
C: __________________________ E. are used in cell replacement therapies

SHORT ANSWER. Answers must be reflected in the 3. HeLa cells were critical in _____.
answer sheet. A. developing the polio vaccine
79. Cells remain organized for long periods of B. developing a cure for malaria
time and new, organized cells form. Why does C. understanding fertilization
this not go against the Second Law of D. developing a cervical cancer vaccine
Thermodynamics? E. understanding cloning

80. How does temperature affect rate of an 4. Which organisms replicate cells by mitosis?
enzymatic reaction? Why are severe fevers A. animals and bacteria
dangerous? B. animals and plants
C. bacteria and plants
81. How does an electron transport chain work in D. archaea and bacteria
cells as a controlled energy release? E. archaea and plants
 33

5. Chromosomes are unduplicated during which 10. Meiosis is the basis for _____.
phase of cell cycle? A. cellular division
A. S B. sexual reproduction
B. Prophase C. asexual reproduction
C. G1 D. sexual and asexual reproduction
D. G2 E. distribution of cytoplasm
E. Metaphase
11. Meiosis produces _____.
6. After meiosis, resulting daughter cells will contain A. sperm cells
_____. B. egg cells
A. the same number of chromosomes as the C. body cells
parent cell D. sperm and egg cells
B. half the number of chromosomes than the E. sperm, egg, and body cells
parent cell carries
C. twice the number of chromosomes than the 12. In mitosis, _____.
parent cell carries A. the chromosome number is halved
D. three times the number of chromosomes than B. the chromosome number is doubled
the parent cell carries C. the chromosome number stays the same
E. four times the number of chromosomes than D. the chromosome number may double or be
the parent cell carries halved depending on the species
E. gametes are formed
7. Which list correctly describes the sequence of
events that occurs during cell division, beginning 13. Pairs of duplicated chromosomes produced during
at interphase? S phase are called ______.
A. nuclear division, DNA replication, cytoplasmic A. homologous chromosomes
division B. sister chromosomes
B. DNA replication, cytoplasmic division, nuclear C. sister chromatids
division D. heterologous chromosomes
C. cytoplasmic division, nuclear division, DNA E. homogeneous chromosomes
replication
D. nuclear division, cytoplasmic division, DNA 14. Which event occurs during interphase?
replication A. The cytoplasm divides.
E. DNA replication, nuclear division, cytoplasmic B. The cell doubles its cytoplasmic contents.
division C. The nuclear envelope disassembles.
D. The nucleus divides.
8. _____ is the stage of the cell cycle during which a E. Protein synthesis is halted.
cell is performing its normal metabolic processes.
A. G1 D. Prophase 15. During S phase, _____.
B. S E. Telophase A. chromosomes condense
C. G2 B. the cell produces proteins in preparation for
mitosis
9. When viewing a cell culture under a microscope, C. the cytoplasm begins to divide
most cells would be in which phase of cell cycle? D. DNA is replicated
A. Telophase C. cytokinesis E. sister chromatids separate from each other
B. Interphase D. prophase
C. metaphase
 34

16. Which phases comprise interphase? 22. Which of the following occurs in prophase?
A. G1 and G2 A. sister chromatids attach
B. S and G2 B. DNA replicates
C. G1 and S C. chromosomes align in the middle of the cell
D. G1, S, and G2 D. the nuclear envelope breaks down
E. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and E. sister chromatids separate
telophase
23. Chromosomes are aligned at the middle of the cell
17. Which cells are least likely to proceed into G1? during _____.
A. most skin cells A. Anaphase
B. most liver cells B. Metaphase
C. most intestinal cells C. Interphase
D. most red blood cells D. Prophase
E. most nerve cells E. Telophase

18. A parent cell with 12 chromosomes will produce 24. In a human cell, there are _____after DNA
daughter cells with _____ chromosomes by replicates during S phase.
mitosis. A. 92 chromosomes and 46 pairs of sister
A. 48 chromatids
B. 24 B. 46 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
C. 12 chromatids
D. 6 C. 23 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
E. 3 chromatids
D. 92 chromosomes and 23 pairs of sister
19. Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are chromatids
_____. E. 40 chromosomes and 20 pairs of sister
A. aneuploidy chromatids
B. diploid
C. triploid 25. Sister chromatids detach from one another and
D. haploid become visibly separate chromosomes during
E. tetraploid _____.
A. Anaphase D. prophase
20. The spindle apparatus is made of _____. B. Metaphase E. telophase
A. centromeres C. Interphase
B. microfilaments
C. microtubules 26. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes arrive
D. chromatids at opposite sides of the cell?
E. nucleotides A. Anaphase D. telophase
B. Prophase E. interphase
21. The spindle apparatus appears during _____. C. Metaphase
A. anaphase
B. metaphase 27. Nuclear envelopes reform during _____.
C. interphase A. Prophase D. anaphase
D. prophase B. Telophase E. metaphase
E. telophase C. interphase
 35

28. Which of the following is the proper sequence for

mitosis? A. II, I, IV, III
I. metaphase B. I, II, III, IV
II. telophase C. III, I, IV, II
III. prophase D. IV, III, II, I
IV. anaphase E. I, IV, II, III

Examine the micrographs below to answer the following question. (ITEMS 29-32)

29. The cell in micrograph "II" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. Prophase D. anaphase
B. Telophase E. metaphase
C. interphase

30. The cell in micrograph "I" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. prophase
B. telophase
C. interphase
D. anaphase
E. metaphase

31. The cell in micrograph "III" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. Prophase D. anaphase
B. Telophase E. metaphase
C. interphase

32. The cell in micrograph "IV" is at which stage of the

cell cycle?
A. prophase
B. telophase
C. interphase
D. anaphase
E. metaphase
 36

33. In what phase of the cell cycle does a typical cell 38. The cells of which individual do not have 23 pairs
spend most of its life? of homologous chromosomes?
A. interphase A. a male
B. prophase B. a female
C. metaphase C. an individual with a recessive disease, such as
D. anaphase hemophilia
E. telophase D. an individual with measles
E. an individual with polio
34. In what phase of the cell cycle does an actively
dividing cell produce the proteins necessary for 39. A chicken has 78 chromosomes. A chicken cell will
mitosis? contain _____ chromosomes at the beginning of
A. G1 prophase and _____ chromosomes after mitotic
B. S division is complete.
C. G2 A. 78; 39
D. Prophase B. 78; 78
E. G1 and G2 C. 39; 78
D. 156; 78
35. The phase of the cell cycle during which E. 78; 156
cytoplasmic division occurs is _____.
A. G1 40. Which energy source fuels cell division in animal
B. S cells?
C. G2 A. GTP
D. Mitosis B. ATP
E. cytokinesis C. kinetic energy of Golgi body movement
D. glycerol
36. The cell plate in dividing plant cells is composed of E. fat deposits
_____.
A. microfilaments 41. Which of the following is/are essential for
B. the cytoplasmic membrane formation of the cleavage furrow during
C. vesicles with wall-building materials cytoplasmic division in animal cells?
D. Golgi bodies A. a contractile ring
E. microtubules B. Golgi body vesicles
C. ATP molecules
37. Division of the cytoplasm in animal cells begins D. a contractile ring and Golgi body vesicles
_____. E. a contractile ring and ATP molecules
A. as microtubules assemble at each pole of the
nucleus 42. Accumulations of cells that divide uncontrollably
B. as Golgi body vesicles are guided by are called ______.
microtubules to the center of the cell A. Oncogenes
C. during S phase B. proto-oncogenes
D. as rigid phospholipid bilayer is synthesized in C. Neoplasms
between the dividing cells D. Checkpoints
E. as a cleavage furrow is created by E. descendant tumors
microfilaments in the cell's midsection
 37

43. Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat 48. Asexual reproduction _____.
to surrounding tissues is termed _____. A. results from fertilization
A. Malignant D. carcinogenic B. produces genetic clones
B. Benign E. repressed C. is more similar to meiosis than mitosis
C. metastatic D. leads to increased genetic variation in
offspring
44. The spread of cancer cells from one site to others E. involves crossing over
in the body is known as _____.
A. Cleavage D. neoplastic movement 49. Sexual reproduction _____.
B. Metastasis E. mutational slippage A. leads to uniform characteristics in a
C. benign transfer population
B. results in new combinations of genetic traits
45. An oncogene is a _____. C. requires less tissue differentiation than
A. normal gene that promotes mitosis asexual reproduction
B. gene that codes for a growth factor that D. produces genetic clones
stimulates cell division E. produces genetic clones and requires less
C. gene that codes for tumor suppressing tissue differentiation than asexual
proteins reproduction
D. mutated gene that results in tumor growth
E. mutated gene that results in cell cycle arrest 50. Alternative or different forms of the same gene
are called _____.
46. Tumor suppressor genes _____. A. homozygous
A. will turn into cancer genes B. chromatids
B. encode proteins that inhibit mitosis C. alleles
C. encode proteins that promote mitosis D. homologous
D. are cancer genes that back mutate into E. karyotypes
normal genes
E. encode proteins that promote DNA 51. A cell cycle checkpoint for S phase would likely
replication inhibit progression through the cell cycle if _____.
A. there are not enough proteins for division to
47. Which is a characteristic of malignant cells? continue
A. abnormal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; B. ATP supply in the cell is low
abnormal cell division C. there is DNA damage
B. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; D. the temperature of the cell is too low
abnormal cell division E. surrounding cells are dividing
C. abnormal plasma membrane, normal
cytoplasm; normal cell division 52. A cell cycle checkpoint at which phase would
D. normal plasma membrane, abnormal ensure sufficient nutrients for cell division were
cytoplasm; abnormal cell division available?
E. normal plasma membrane and cytoplasm; A. S D. G1 or G2
normal cell division B. Prophase E. G1 or S
C. Metaphase
 38

53. Which is an example of the Red Queen D. prophase II

hypothesis? E. more than one of these
A. As spiders evolve resistance to a viral disease,
the virus becomes more virulent. 59. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at
B. Dogs evolve characteristics that are selected the center of the cell during _____ of meiosis.
by humans. A. metaphase I
C. Dinosaurs lack the adaptations to survive B. telophase I
predation of their eggs by small mammals. C. prophase II
D. Horses evolve from a five toed animal to one D. metaphase II
toe. E. anaphase II
E. Cats and cows separately, but for similar
purposes, evolve scratchy tongues. 60. Crossing over is one of the most important events
in meiosis because it _____.
54. An important advantage of sexual reproduction is A. produces new combinations of alleles on
related to _____. chromosomes
A. increasing production of offspring B. causes separation of homologous
B. avoiding predators chromosomes
C. avoiding harmful mutations C. causes separation of sister chromatids
D. producing offspring identical to the parents D. results in the production of haploid gametes
E. having two sexes E. aligns homologous chromosomes so that they
can be separated in anaphase II
55. Meiosis in a diploid organism typically produces
_____. 61. At the beginning of prophase I, there are _____
A. two diploid cells chromosomes in the germ cell that will develop
B. four diploid cells into a human sperm cell.
C. four haploid cells A. 23
D. two haploid cells B. 92
E. one triploid cell C. 46
D. half as many (as compared to somatic cell)
56. A chicken somatic cell carries 78 chromosomes. A E. twice as many (as compared to mature
chicken sperm cell will contain how many sperm)
chromosomes?
A. 19 B. 39 C. 78 D. 156 E. 312 62. The fusion of egg and sperm cells results a(n)
_____.
57. During which phase of meiosis will the A. Zygote D. germ cell
chromosomes appear as a unit of four B. Embryo E. sporophyte
chromatids? C. gamete
A. metaphase I D. prophase I
B. telophase II E. prophase II 63. Sister chromatids separate during _____ of
C. anaphase II mitosis and _____ of meiosis.
A. anaphase; anaphase I
58. The pairing of chromosomes and crossing over B. anaphase; anaphase II
occur during _____ of meiosis. C. anaphase II; anaphase II
A. metaphase I D. metaphase; metaphase I
B. anaphase II E. metaphase; metaphase II
C. prophase I
 39

64. Which statement describes the function of 68. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis because _____.
telomeres? A. both result in the production of diploid
A. Telomeres are DNA segments that encode cell daughter cells
cycle checkpoint proteins. B. both result in the production of haploid
B. Telomeres are where DNA polymerase binds daughter cells
to initiate DNA replication. C. DNA replication immediately precedes both
C. Telomeres serve as attachment points where meiosis II and mitosis
microtubules bind to separate chromosomes D. homologous chromosomes are separated in
during anaphase. meiosis II and mitosis
D. Telomeres are added to chromosomes with E. sister chromatids are separated in meiosis II
each round of replication to increase DNA and mitosis
stability.
E. Telomeres protect the coding regions of 69. How do microtubules separate chromosomes
chromosomes because chromosomes are during anaphase?
shortened with each round of replication. A. Microtubules pull chromosomes to opposite
poles of the cell.
65. Mutations in genes that control _____ are likely to B. Microtubules push chromosomes to opposite
cause cancer. poles of the cell.
A. phenotype expression C. Microtubules push and pull chromosomes to
B. metabolism separate poles of the cell.
C. ribosomal proteins D. Microtubules attach to telomeres and pull
D. cell cycle checkpoints chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
E. telomere shortening E. Microtubules attach to telomeres and push
chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
66. New alleles arise by _____.
A. crossing over 70. Meiosis may pause at which point in the cycle?
B. mutation A. after DNA is replicated in S phase but before
C. independent assortment meiosis I begins
D. sexual reproduction B. after meiosis I is complete
E. asexual reproduction C. after prophase II
D. before telophase II
67. In meiosis, _____ are separated during anaphase E. after prophase I
I, and _____ are separated during anaphase II.
A. heterologous chromosomes; homologous MATCHING
chromosomes Match the cellular process to the correct phase of the
B. homologous chromosomes; homologous eukaryotic cell cycle. Each question has only one BEST
chromosomes answer, but answer choices may be used more than
C. homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids once.
D. sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes A. G2
E. sister chromosomes; homologous B. Mitosis
chromosomes C. S
D. G1

71. ______ when DNA is replicated

72. ______ this is the last stage of interphase

 40

73. ______ the beginning of interphase 88. ______ in plants, gametes result from this
process
74. ______ phase during which the cell prepares for
DNA replication Match the correct number of chromosomes to the
stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each
75. ______ phase that follows DNA replication answer choice may be used more than once or not at
all.
76. ______ nuclear division A. 23
B. 46
77. ______ phase in which chromatids are not C. 69
connected by centromeres D. 92
E. 108
78. ______ phase that precedes cytoplasmic division
89. ______ G1
79. ______ period in which metaphase occurs
90. ______ Metaphase
80. ______ period prior to mitosis
91. ______ S
Match the following terms to the correct statements.
A. mitosis 92. ______ Prophase
B. meiosis
C. both mitosis and meiosis 93. ______ G2
D. neither mitosis or meiosis
94. ______ after telophase in mitosis is complete
81. ______ results in identical daughter cells
Match the correct number of chromosomes to the
82. ______ sister chromatids are separated stage of mitosis or meiosis for a human cell. Each
during an anaphase event answer choice may be used more than once or not at
all.
83. ______ RNA polymerase is employed A. 23
B. 46
84. ______ sister chromatids are attached at C. 69
centromeres D. 92
E. 108
Match the following terms to the correct statements.
A. mitosis 95. ______ prophase II
B. meiosis
C. both mitosis and meiosis 96. ______ telophase II
D. neither mitosis or meiosis
97. ______ anaphase I
85. ______ involves two nuclear divisions
98. ______ metaphase II
86. ______ crossing over occurs
99. ______ after telophase II in meiosis is
87. ______ homologous chromosomes are complete
separated during an anaphase event 100. ______ prophase I