SỞ GD & ĐT ĐĂKLĂK ĐỀ THI KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT

NĂM HỌC 2022 – 2023 ĐĂKLĂK

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC 11 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
TEENAGE TEACHERS
People may think teenagers are too young to be in charge of a class when they’re still students themselves, but
that’s not true. Sixteen- year- olds are (1) _______ teaching lessons to primary school children in a new
government scheme which allows school leavers to work as teaching assistants in primary schools.
They recently introduced new rules (2) _______ have allowed all primary school teachers to have more time
during the school day for preparing lessons, but this sometimes means that teachers have less time for teaching.
Now teenagers fill the gap. They take (3) _______two- year course, starting when they’re 14. When they enter the
lesson as teachers rather than students, they (4) _______ to quickly put into practice the skills they learned while
they were studying.
The government believes that about 18,000 teenagers could get jobs in this way. However, many people believe
that young teenagers will not make suitable teachers.
Question 1: A. currently B. newly C. recently D. previously
Question 2: A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
Question 3: A. an B. a C. the D. many
Question 4: A. may B. can C. have D. will
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. prepare B. practice C. prevent D. provide
Question 6. A. favorite B. beautiful C. popular D. effective
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that has the same meaning
as the sentence printed before it.
Question 7. The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.
A. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.
B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.
C. The student next to me kept chewing gum which bothered me a lot.
D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.
Question 8. My dad has a wide range of practical life skills. He can solve most problems by himself.
A. If my dad had a wide range of practical life skills, he could solve most problems by himself.
B. Were my dad to have a wide range of practical life skills, he couldn’t solve most problems by himself.
C. Because of having a wide range of practical life skills, my dad cannot solve most problems by himself.
D. Without a wide range of practical life skills, my dad couldn’t solve most problems by himself.

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in the following question.
Question 9. She should pat herself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the final examination.
A. check up her back B. praise herself C. wear a backpack D. criticize herself
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in the following question.
Question 10. “Green” tourists or eco- tourists are upset by the effects of mass tourism.
A. troubled B. tense C. nervous D. relaxed
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11. In the future we could rely on Google to ______ many decisions for us.
A. offer B. take C. do D. make
Question 12. The Vietnamese Women’s Football team ______ defended the SEA Games title.
A. successfully B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 13. Would you like ______ and visit me next summer.
A. come B. came C. coming D. to come
Question 14. Many young people want to work for a humanitarian organization, ______?
A. does it B. do they C. doesn’t it D. don’t they
Question 15. He told his parents that he ______ his best to do the test.
A. are trying B. will try C. try D. would try
Question 16. He tried a lot. ____, he didn’t win the first prize in the school’s English speaking contest.
A. Therefore B. But C. So D. However
Question 17. In many big cities, people have to ______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.
A. face B. put C. catch D. keep
Question 18. Australia has its own ______identity, which is very different from that of Britain.
A. global B. casual C. cultural D. virtual
Question 19. Most children enjoy ______ with their parents and siblings.
A. to play B. played C. playing D. play
Question 20. Sport fans across Southeast Asia ______ with the images of two runners of Vietnam celebrating
victory with Felisberto De Deus at SEA Games 31.
A. impressed B. has been impressed C. were impressed D. would impress
Question 21. We wish we ______a large house but we can’t afford it now.
A. had B. have C. can have D. will have
Question 22. Since the 1900s the Internet ______ the world probably more than any other factor.
A. is changing B. has changed C. changes D. changed
Question 23. His doctor suggested that he ______ a short trip abroad.
A. take B. will take C. took D. would take
Q24. They make sure that the rooms in that resort on Phu Quoc Island are ______, even the big ones.
A. reliable B. reasonable C. affordable D. responsible
Question 25. Nowadays, Vietnamese women usually wear ao dai, specially ______special occasions.
A. on B. by C. at D. in
Question 26. Social ______ is an effective way to slow down the spread of COVID- 19.
A. distancing B. space C. position D. expanse
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 27. Stronger measures will have to be made to reduce the environmental pollution in Ho Chi Minh
City.
A. environmental B. Stronger C. made D. be
Question 28. Khanh had so interesting and creative plans that everyone wanted to work on his team.
A. wanted B. so interesting C. to work D. plans
Question 29. Most students seems to be happy with their new learning conditions.
A. seems B. conditions C. with D. new
VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 30. This is the most delicious cake I’ve ever tasted.
 A. I’ve ever tasted such a delicious cake as this one.
B. I’ve never tasted a more delicious cake than this one.
C. This cake is not more delicious than I’ve ever tasted.
D. This cake is not as delicious as I’ve ever tasted.
Q 31. Although the teacher explained the theory clearly, the students found it hard to understand it.
A. In spite of explaining the theory clearly, the students themselves found it hard to understand it.
B. Despite the teacher’s clear explanation of the theory, the students had difficulty understanding it.
C. Though explained clearly, the theory of teaching was difficult to the students.
D. Although the teaching theory was clear, it was a real challenge to the students.
IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
PLASTIC AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Plastic is a material we use every day. The first plastics were made more than 100 years ago from parts of
plants. Plastics are now made from oil, coal and natural gas. We are using up these things so fast that the Earth’s
supplies may run out. Because of this, scientists are investigating new ideas for making plastics from plants such
as sweet potato, bamboo and flax.
Things made from plastic can be useful for people but bad for the planet. Some plastics can last for a long time
without wearing out, and can be difficult to get rid of when they are not needed. They can remain in rubbish
dumps called landfill sites for hundreds of years. Landfills can be smelly, ugly, and harmful to our planet.
Recycling is a good way to get rid of unwanted plastics. Recycled waste material can be used again to make
new products. This can be difficult as different types of plastic need to be recycled in different ways. Some kinds
of plastics can be melted down and used to make new things such as bags and bottles. Others can be made into
fibres (strands of material) for clothing.
Another way to protect the environment is to use canvas bags for shopping rather than plastic ones. A lot of
plastic objects can also be reused. Plastic bottles can be refilled many times, rather than throwing them away once
they are empty. Unwanted plastic goods such as CDs and toys can be sold or given away to charity shops.
Question 32. According to the passage, things made from plastic are bad for our environment because ______.
A. plastics can exist for a long time without decomposing.
B. people reuse plastic objects before recycling them.
C. they are very convenient for people to use in different purposes.
D. they are a danger to marine life such as whales, turtles and so on.
Question 33. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The ways to reduce the harm of plastics on the environment
B. The history of plastic and its usefulness
C. Materials that plastic is made of
D. Plastic: effects and solutions to the problem
Question 34. The phrase "get rid of” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. keep B. remove C. create D. make
Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Plastics and plastic objects can be thrown away to tidy the room.
B. Plastics and plastic objects can be recycled or reused.
C. Plastic objects are useful for people without negative impacts.
D. Some kinds of plastics can be melted down, then released into the river.
Question 36. The word "They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. things B. plastics C. people D. rubbish dumps
X. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 37. A. approached B. supported C. noticed D. finished
Question 38. A. study B. style C. cry D. fly
XI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct response in the following
exchange.
Question 39. Sue: "You have read that article on the website, haven’t you?"
Peter: “______”
A. Not at all! Go ahead. B. Sure, that.
C. Yes, of course, I will D. Not yet. Why?
Question 40. John: "How about giving me a hand?"
Tom: “______”
A. Never mind. Go ahead. B. You’re welcome!
C. I promise. D. Sure, I’d be glad to help.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT
ĐẮK NÔNG NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC 12 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. distinguished B. admitted C. overloaded D. talented
Question 2: A. decoration B. celebration C. candle D. cake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 3: Jack: “How do you usually go to school?” ~ Jane: “________.”
A. Fifteen minutes B. Every day C. One kilometer D. On foot
Question 4: Mary: “I’m going to have an exam tomorrow.” ~ Ann: “________.”
A. Good luck B. See you C. Thank you D. Bye bye
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: People will travel in solar-powered cars in the future, ________?
A. will they B. won't they C. do they D. don't they
Question 6: Hoa Lan: “My grades are terrible.” ~ Mrs Quyen: “If you want to get good grades, you ________
study hard.”
A. will be B. must C. has to D. ought
Question 7: Although there are many ________ throughout the year, Tet or the Lunar New Year holiday is the
most important one for Vietnamese people.
A. celebrate B. to celebrate C. celebrating D celebrations
Q 8: Jeans have never been out of fashion, and today the young generation is still ________ of wearing them.
A. fond B. keen C. amazed D. interested
Question 9: I think I've lost my new pen. I've __________it everywhere but I can't find it.
A. looked at B. looked up C. looked for D. looked after
Question 10: He is not a very intelligent boy; __________he always gets good marks at school.
A. as B. and C. but D. or
Question 11: Maryam paid a visit to Hanoi last month. She was really __________ by the beauty of the city.
A. impress B. impression C. impressed D. impressively
Question 12: I only have some old books. I wish I __________a lot of interesting new books.
A. have B. had had C. has D. had
Question 13: Communicating with foreigners is the best way to __________ your speaking skill in any language.
A. put B. raise C. increase D. improve
Question 14: Mrs Nguyet: Congratulations! ~ Thien Thao: Thanks. I'm amazed __________I have just won the
first prize in the English speaking contest.
A. where B. Why C. which D. that
Question 15: Huyun Bin and Son Ye-jin from the hit Korean drama "Crash landing on You" got
married __________ March 31st 2022.
A. about B. on C. at D. in
Question 16: Most of the children in my village enjoy __________ football after school.
A. to play B. play C. playing D. played
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
part.
Question 17: It was a difficult time, but we never gave up hope.
A. stopped B. continued C. had D. offered
Question 18: If women have to do too much housework, they cannot concentrate or work effectively.
A. distract B. learn C. ignore D. focus
Question 19: In some Asian countries like Vietnam or China, money is given to the newly-married couple as a
wedding present.
A. souvenir B. gift C. contribution D. donation
Question 20: Oliver's parents are very wealthy. They have lots of money and property.
A. average B. abundant C. poor D. rich
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 21: I admire Tom because he is a handsome and friend student in his school.
A. friend B. is C. student D. because
Question 22: More and more students took part in the entrance examination to Nguyen Chi Thanh gifted high
school every year.
A. in B. examination C. took D. students
Q 23: I suggest that you should spending more time practising your speaking skill to improve your English.
A. improve B. spending C. practising D. speaking skill
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer for each of the following
blanks.
Ha Long Bay, (24) _________ in Quang Ninh Province, Viet Nam, was recognised as a World Heritage Site
by UNESCO in 1994. It is famous (25) _________ its beautiful scenery. With its thousands of rocks and caves
emerging out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won (26) _________ recognition. As visitors (27) _________ this
magnificent place, there are always new surprises for them.
Cruise tours are very popular in Ha Long Bay. There are different cruise tours (28) _________ tourists can
visit (29) _________ different caves, and experience the local culture and life on the water. Therefore, a tour may
(30) _________ from several hours to (31) _________ day, which gives the visitors a great experience.
Ha Long Bay cuisine presents another attraction for (32) _________. It is well-known for its fresh seafood
(33) _________crabs, prawns, and sea clams. A trip to Ha Long Bay is not complete without tasting the authentic
local food served in many restaurants in the area.
Question 24: A. belonged B. located C. placed D. stayed
Question 25: A. for B. to C. about D. with
Question 26: A. nationality B. international C. nationally D. nation
Question 27: A. exploring B. to explore C. explore D. explored
Question 28: A. so B. although C. but D. unless
Question 29: A. a little B. many C. much D. little
Question 30: A. dance B. sing C. last D. visit
Question 31: A. the B. a C. some D. an
Question 32: A. tourists B. students C. freshmen D. villagers
Question 33: A. such as B. in addition C. moreover D. example
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best answer for each of the following question.
British engineers and scientists have published plans for a new hypersonic plane called the A2. It will be very
fast. At the moment, a flight from London in the UK to Sydney in Australia takes about twenty-one hours but with
the A2 the same flight will take about four hours. The flight will fly at 4,500 kilometers per hour and will fly at an
altitude of over 10,000 meters. It will carry 300 passengers but it won't have any windows because scientists
haven't found glass that is strong enough. It will be better for the environment than other planes because the engines
won't produce gases that cause pollution.
In the future, will people travel from London to Australia for the weekend? It's possible! But how much will a
ticket cost? The planners say that it won't be very expensive - about £2,000. The A2 will be ready for its first flight
in 2030.
Question 34: How long will it take the A2 plane to fly from London to Sydney?
A. about twenty-one hours B. about one hour
C. about four hours D. about six hours
Question 35: What will the speed of the A2 plane be?
A. At 4,500 kilometers per hour B. At 10,000 kilometers per hour
C. At 300 kilometers per hour D. At 2000 kilometers per hour
Question 36: According to the text, which statement is TRUE about the A2 plane?
A. It will be environmentally unfriendly. B. It will be ready for its first flight in 2300.
C. It can fly at an altitude of 10,000 kilometers. D. We won't find any windows in the plane.
Question 37: How many passengers can a new hypersonic plane carry?
A. 4,500 B. 2,000 C. 300 D. 2030
Question 38: How much will a ticket for the A2 flight from London to Sydney cost?
A. about £2,000 B. very expensive C. very cheap D. about £3,000
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer for each of the
questions.
Today, in many parts of the world, it is customary for people to shake hands upon meeting as a gesture of
goodwill. Originally, however, the practice of shaking hands had more practical purposes.
Shaking hands originated in medieval times. In those days, when a man came on a stranger, he would often
automatically reach for his sword with his right hand, in case he had to use the weapon to defend himself.
Sometimes, both parties found themselves circling around each other, weapons in hand, until it was mutually
agreed that the weapons could be laid aside. Then the two parties extended their right hands to show they had no
weapons, and clasped them. This was the beginning of the handshake.
The custom of shaking hands is not a universal one. In the orient, people have for centuries, clasped their own
in front of them upon meeting to show they held no weapons. In France, a custom developed in which people who
met would kiss each other on both cheeks. The natives of some South Seas islands greet by rubbing noses.
Note: clasp (v): nắm chặt, siết chặt.
Question 39: The word "came on" in the second paragraph can be best replaced by
A. visited B. met C. attacked D. waited
Question 40: In medieval times, the purpose of shaking hands was_________
A. to show that both parties were ready for fight. B. to show that there were no weapons in hands.
C. to show a gesture of goodwill. D. to show a good relationship with each other.
Question 41: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to_________
A. strangers B. weapons C. hands D. parties
Question 42: According to the passage, the practice of shaking hands_________.
A. used to be popular, but now it is out of date B. was used to extend greetings
C. is considered not to be polite D. is replaced by other customs in some countries
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the handshake?
A. It is one of the social customs. B. It is a gesture of goodwill.
C. It is very popular in all countries in the world. D. It happened for the first time very long time ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 44: The new hospital is bigger than the old one.
A. The old hospital is more smaller than the new one.
B. The new hospital is not as big as the old one.
C. The new hospital is not as small as the old one.
D. The old hospital is smaller than the new one.
Question 45: She was so busy that she couldn't answer the phone.
A. Because she was very busy, she could answer the phone.
B. Although she was very busy, she could answer the phone.
C. Because she was very busy, she couldn't answer the phone.
D. Although she was very busy, she couldn't answer the phone.
Question 46: "I'm going back to work next week," said Harry.
A. Harry said that he was going back to work the following week.
B. Harry said that he was going back to work next week.
C. Harry said that I am going back to work the following week.
D. Harry said that I was going back to work the following week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best sentence built from the words given.
Question 47: How/ hours/week/ you spend/ watch television?
A. How many hours a week you spend watching television?
B. How many hours a week do you spend watching television?
C. How many hours week do you spend watching television?
D. How much hours a week do you spend watching television?
Question 48: When/ I/ come/she/ learn Math/ this time/ last Friday.
A. When I come, she was learnt Math at this time last Friday.
B. When I came, she were learning Math at this time last Friday.
C. When I came, she was learning Math at this time last Friday.
D. When I come, she was learning Math at this time last Friday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each of the following pairs of
sentences.
Question 49: Peter is very good at drawing. He is an excellent student.
A. Peter, who is an excellent student, is very good at drawing.
B. Peter, that an excellent student, is very good at drawing.
C. That's Peter who he's an excellent student, is very good at drawing.
D. Peter, whom is an excellent student, is very good at drawing.
Question 50: I can't understand him because he speaks so quickly.
A. If he speaks slowly, I can't understand him.
B. He speaks unclearly so I don't understand him.
C. If he didn't speak so quickly, I can understand him.
D. If he didn't speak so quickly, I would be able to understand him.
 UBND TỈNH THÁI NGUYÊN THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH
(Dành cho tất cả các thí sinh)
ĐỀ CHÍNH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
THỨC

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 1: My father is trying to mend the broken door of the house after the storm.
A. lend B. repair C. pull D. make
Question 2: When did you start learning English?
A. finish B. begin C. stop D. complete
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 3: I can't buy this bike because I don't have money enough.
A B C D
Question 4: You should done morning exercise to have good health.
A B C D
Question 5: If we continued to pollute the water, we will have no fresh water to use.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: They ______ to pop music for 2 hours.
A. have listened B. listened C. listen D. are listening
Question 7: We watched ______ interesting movie last Saturday.
A. the B. an C. a D. Ø (no article) Question
8: I suggest ______ some money for poor children.
A. raising B. to raise C. raise D. to raising
Question 9: My brother works in a factory. He is a dedicated ______.
A. teacher B. doctor C. singer D. worker
Question 10: My sister ______ her project last week.
A. would finish B. finished C. finishes D. has finished
Question 11: Many people have objected to the use of animals in ______ experiments.
A. science B. scientifically C. scientist D. scientific
Question 12: John often reads books ______ the school library.
A. of B. for C. in D. between
Question 13: You go to work every day by car, ______?
A. don't you B. haven't you C. have you D. do you
Question 14: The road ______ leads to my school is very nice.
A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
Question 15: If I lived in the city, I ______ to the concert more often.
A. go B. will go C. would go D. went
Question 16: Some students ______ trees in the school garden now.
A. will plant B. are planting C. have planted D. plant
Question 17: Nam ______ a cartoon at 9 o'clock yesterday morning.
A. was watching B. has watched C. watched D. is watching
Question 18: He usually______ to see his parents at the weekend.
 A is coming B. come C. came D. comes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19: A. worked B. provided C. wanted D. visited
Question 20: A. pagoda B. apartment C. natural D. company
Question 21: A. stamps B. parents C. books D. regions
Question 22: A. weather B. mother C. there D. think
Question 23: A. unit B. museum C. study D. nuclear
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE meaning to the
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Mary felt nervous the moment the plane took off.
A. flew B. ran C. turned off D. landed
Question 25: David is a good driver. He always drives carefully.
A. slowly B. quickly C. carelessly D. badly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 26: Tom is talking to a waiter in a restaurant.
- Tom: "Can I have the menu, please?"
- Waiter: “_______”
A. No, thanks B. Enjoy your meal C. Here you are, sir D. But I don't like it
Question 27: Tuan is asking Binh about the weather in Ha Noi.
- Tuan: “What's the weather like in Ha Noi today?" –
- Binh: “_______”
A. It's cool and windy B. It was nice C. It's very interesting D. I like this weather
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 32.
Environment, housing, employment and nutrition are all factors that affect our quality of life. Health is,
however, possibly (28) ____ most important element. With good health, people can function to their fullest
capacity and provide for those who are (29) ___ of providing for themselves – the elderly, the sick and children.
Health is not just absence of disease, though freedom from diseases is of major importance. Health is the
state of total physical, mental and social well-being. To be healthy, people need a reasonable dose of physical
labour, a decent environment, (30) _______ includes sanitation and clean water, a balanced, dear diet and adequate
rest. In developing countries, diseases are not the only problem of high mortality rates. Unhealthy or exhausting
work, crowded living (31) _______, too little food and a poor diet are also prime causes of the numbers of deaths.
Providing basic health care and preventing and treating disease are primary goals today. Hygiene and
immunization programs must be available to all. Health care (32) _______ everybody cannot be just a noble aim.
It must be a basic human right.
Question 28: A. an B. some C. the D. a
Question 29: A. incapable B. fond C. capable D. aware
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. who
Question 31: A. standards B. conditions C. qualities D. charges
Question 32: A. in B. at C. of D. for
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 33 to 37.
Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both popularity
and production with more than 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although much of this tea is
consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share. According to estimates
by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the U.S. population on any given
day. Black tea or green tea - iced, spiced, or instant - tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar business with major
tea producers in Africa and South America and throughout Asia.
Tea is made from the leaves of an evergreen plant, Camellia sinensis, which grows tall and lush in tropical
regions. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new buds called flush
appear, they are plucked off by hand. Even in today’s world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting
continues to be the preferred method. Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth
produces the highest quality tea.
Question 33: Which area is NOT mentioned as an example of tea consumers?
A. Africa B. Asia C. The South Pole D. Europe
Question 34: What percentage of the U.S. population drink tea?
A. approximately 40% B. approximately 60% C. approximately 50% D. approximately 30%
Question 35: Where is tea produced most in the world?
A. Africa, South America and Asia B. Africa and South America
C. South America and Asia D. Asia and Africa
Question 36: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. tropical regions B. new buds C. tea pickers D. two leaves
Question 37: What is implied about tea harvesting?
A. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time.
B. It is totally done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery.
C. It is no longer done in China.
D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plants.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answers sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 38: Nam speaks English more fluently than his brother.
A. Nam's brother speaks English more fluently than Nam.
B. Nam's brother doesn't speak English as fluently as Nam.
C. Nam speaks English less fluently than his brother.
D. Nam speaks English as fluently as his brother.
Question 39: "Does she walk to school every morning?'' said Peter.
A. Peter told me if she walked to school every morning.
B. Peter asked me if she walks to school yesterday morning.
C. Peter advised me if she walked to school every morning.
D. Peter asked me if she walked to school every morning.
Question 40: Someone translated the article into Vietnamese.
A. The article is translated into Vietnamese.
B. The article has been translated into Vietnamese.
C. The article had been translated into Vietnamese.
D. The article was translated into Vietnamese.

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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10
TỈNH TIỀN GIANG TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)

A. PHẦN CHUNG
(Bắt buộc cho cả 2 chương trình từ câu 1 đến câu 24 - 6 điểm)
Question 1 - 12: Pick out ONE best option to complete each of the following sentences. (3.0 point)
Question 1: I know you can __________ English.
A. sing B. singing C. sang D. song
Question 2: The ao dai and the conical hat are __________ things of Vietnamese culture.
A. tradition B. traditional C. traditions D. traditionally
Question 3: __________ is important in very nation.
A. Educate B. Education C. Educational D. Educated
Question 4: Let’s __________.
A. go B. goes C. going D. to go
Question 5: It __________ last night.
A. rain B. rains C. rained D. raining
Question 6: The car __________ he buys is Tesla Motors one.
A. who B. whom C. which D. how
Question 7: They drink coffee __________ the morning.
A. at B. in C. on D. to
Question 8: If Ba __________ rich, he would travel around the world.
A. am B. is C. are D. were
Question 9: “Do you sleep at least 8 hours a day?” the doctor said to him.
= The doctor __________.
A. wonder how many hours a day he slept at least.
B. asked him if he slept at least 8 hours a day.
C. said to him if he sleeps at least 8 hours a day.
D. told him how many hours a day he sleeps at least.
Question 10: Man: How much is it?
Girl: __________.
A. Thank you B. Two dollars C. Every day D. I’m 15 years old
Question 11: Girl: __________.
Man: I’m a farmer.
A. How are you? B. How old are you? C. Where will you go? D. What’s your job?
Question 12: The book is very __________.
A. interest B. interests C. interesting D. interestingly

Question 13 - 14: Pick put the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
(0.5 point)
Question 13: A. ended B. needed C. saved D. waited
Question 14: A. cow B. how C. now D. slow

Question 15 - 16: Pick out the word that has the primary stress that differs from the other three. (0.5
point)
Question 15: A. color B. idea C. lesson D. morning
Question 16: A. agree B. listen C. travel D. study

Question 17 - 18: Pick out the word that is of the different topic (or part of speech) from the others. (0.5
point)
Question 17: A. bus B. blackboard C. chalk D. pencil
Question 18: A. baby B. happy C. party D. story

Question 19 - 20: Read the passage below then pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D). (1.5 points)
In my view, there is usually one necessary subject missing from most school timetables. Very few students
are taught how to organize their learning, and how to make the best use of their time. Let’s take some simple
examples. Do you know how to look up English words in a dictionary? And do you understand all the information
the dictionary contains? Can you take notes quickly, and can you understand them afterwards?
For some reason, many schools give learners no helps with these matters. Teachers ask students to memorize
pages from books, or tell them to write ten pages, or have them discuss in group, but don’t explain how to do it.
Learning by heart can be useful for many students, but it is important to have a real understanding of a subject.
You can waste a lot of time memorizing books, without catching on to anything about the subject.
(English Reading comprehension MCQs, Giao duc Publishing House)
Question 19: The first sentence mentions “subject”. What subject is it?
A. History B. The one not much taught at schools
C. English D. Maths Giaoandethitienganh.info

Question 20: According to the passage, teacher so all of these, EXCEPT __________.
A. Asking students to learn by heart pages from books
B. Explaining how to do it.
C. Having students discuss in group
D. Telling students to write many pages
Question 21: From the second paragraph, understanding a subject really is __________.
A. useful B. simple C. important D. wasteful
Question 22: In the sentence “Teacher ask students to memorize pages from books” what is closest in meaning
to “memorize”?
A. remember B. read C. find D. write
Question 23: What is the best tittle for the passage?
A. School timetables B. Learning English
C. Learning how to learn D. About all subjects taught at school
Question 24: How do readers feel the passage?
A. Funny B. Informative C. Hopeful D. Impolite

I. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 7 NĂM (Thí sinh chọn hệ 7 năm làm tiếp từ câu 25 đến câu 40.)
Question 25 - 28: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
need correction in each of the following questions. (1.0 point)
Question 25: I am sure this boy didn’t pass the examination because his not working hard.
A B C D
Question 26: Yesterday we visit the village and helped many old people.
A B C D
Question 27: Jeans have never been out fashion, and today young people are still fond of them.
A B C D
Question 28: I am sure this boy didn’t pass the examination because his not working hard.
Question 29 - 30: Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
Question 29: People speak English in the USA.
A. English speaks in the USA. B. English speak in the USA.
C. English is speaking in the USA. D. English is spoken in the USA.
Question 30: I’m excited that I can go to Da Lat.
A. I’m so excited going to Da Lat. B. I’m excited about going to Da Lat.
C. That I go to Da Lat I’m excited. D. I can go to Da Lat where I’m excited.

Question 31 - 32: Mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
complete each of the following questions (0.5 point)
Question 31: You __________Vietnamese food yet, have you?
A. can eat B. must be eaten C. have eaten D. haven’t eaten
Question 32: I have no computer. I wish I __________.
A. had a computer B. will have many computers
C. were a computer D. didn’t have a computer

Question 33 - 40: Pick out ONE best option (A, B, C or D) to fill in each numbered blank, complete the
meaning of the passage. (2.0 points)
Van, a student from Ho Chi Minh City, is a(n) (33) __________ student in the USA. He is now living with the
Parker family on a farm 100 kilometers outside Columbus, Ohio. He will stay (34) __________ till the beginning
of October.
Mr. Parker (35) __________ maize on his farm, while Mrs. Parker works part-time at a grocery store in a
nearby town. They have two children. Peter is the same age (36) __________ Van, and Sam is still in primary
school.
(37) __________ Van arrived, he has been learning a lot about life on a farm. In the afternoon, as soon as he
completes his homework, he feeds the chickens and (38) __________ their eggs. On weekends, if Mr. Parker (39)
__________ busy, the three boys help him on the farm.
On Saturday afternoons. Peter plays baseball. The Parker family and Van eat hamburgers or
hot dogs (40) __________ they watch Peter play. The Parkers are nice so Van feels like a member of their family.

Question 33: A. exchange B. changing C. change D. exchanging

Question 34: A. it B. them C. there D. him
Question 35: A. develops B. puts C. lifts C. grows
Question 36: A. to B. like C. as D. with
Question 37: A. From B. Since C. For D. When
Question 38: A. lays B. kills C. collects D. walks
Question 39: A. be B. am C. are D. is
Question 40: A. while B. during C. in spite of D. because of

II. CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỆ 10 NĂM (Thí sinh chọn hệ 10 năm làm tiếp từ câu 41 đến câu 56.)
Question 41 - 44: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions. (1.0 point)
Question 41: In spite of she loves maths, she has decided to become an English teacher.
A B C D
Question 42: Yesterday they go to the supermarket and bought a lot of food.
 A B C D
Question 43: Natural attractions such as the Royal Botanical Garden, Sydney Opera House and
A B
the Harbour Bridge are also well known to visitors.
C D
Question 44: I think he doesn’t mind to work hard to earn money.
A B C D

Question 45 - 46: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
Question 45: Gagarin flew into space. Then Armstrong walked on the moon.
A. Gagarin and Armstrong together will fly into space and walk on the moon.
B. Armstrong walks on the moon and then Gagarin flew into space.
C. Gagarin had flown into space before Armstrong walked on the moon.
D. Gagarin didn’t fly into space and Armstrong didn’t walk on the moon.
Question 46: People say that she is a great teacher.
A. People say that she is thought a great teacher.
B. People think that she is said a great teacher.
C. It is said that she is a great teacher.
D. It is thought she is said a great teacher.
Question 47 - 48: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
complete each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
Question 47: My father suggests __________.
A. to go by air B. going by air C. we will go by air D. we went by air
Question 48: If she eats less fast food, __________.
A. she may lose weight
B. she had been able to lose weight
C. she was losing weight
D. she would have lost weight

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