GRAND TEST-10

Duration: 3.20 Hrs Max. Marks: 720 M

Note: Important Instructions
 The test is of 3.20 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total
scores. The maximum marks are 720.
 In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions.
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15 questions. In
case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions
will be considered for marking
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the
appropriate bubble with the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct
answer(s) of the question attempted
PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. A body possesses kinetic energy x, moving on a rough horizontal surface, is
stopped in a distancey. The friction force exerted on the body is:
x x x y
1) 2) 3) 4)
y y y x
2. A step – down transformer is used on a 1000V line to deliver 20A at 120V at
the secondary coil. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current
drawn from the line is:
1) 3A 2) 30A 3) 0.3A 4) 2.4A
3. Three masses 700g, 500g and 400g are suspended at the end of a spring as
shown and are in equilibrium. When the 700g mass is removed, the system
oscillates with a period of 3 seconds; when then 500g mass is also removed,
it will oscillate with a period of:

12
1) 1sec 2) 2sec 3) 3sec 4) sec
5
4. Find the maximum velocity for not skidding for a car moved on a circular
track of radius 100m. The coefficient of friction between the road and tyre is
0.2:
1) 0.14m/s 2) 140m/s 3) 1.4m/s 4) 14.1 m/s
Pg. 1
5. What is the condition for interferenceof two waves?
1) They must have the same frequency and wavelength
2) They must have the same amplitude and phase
3) They must have a constant phase difference
4) They must have the same speed and direction
6. Two waves having equations x1  a sin t  1  , x2  a sin  t  2  . If in the resultant
wave the frequency and amplitude remain equal to those of superimposing
waves. Then phase difference between them is:
1)  / 6 2) 2 / 3 3)  / 4 4)  / 3
  
7. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity of V  a i  b j . If the range of the
projectile is double of the maximum height reached by it, then:
1) a=2b 2) b=a 3) b= 2a 4) b=4a
8. A car is moving with a speed of 30m/s on a circular path of radius 500m. If
its speed is increasing at a rate of 5 m/s2, then the resultant acceleration at
that instant is:
1) 6.83 m/s2 2) 8 m/s2 3) 5.31 m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
9. The kinetic energy of a body varies directly as square of time elapsed. The
force acting varies directly as:
1
1) t 2) t 3) 4) t 0
t
10. The total energy of the body executing S. H. M. is E. Then the kinetic energy
when the displacement is half of the amplitude:
E E 3E 3
1) 2) 3) 4) E
2 4 4 4
11. With how much velocity a block of mass 2kg should move on a frictionless
horizontal surface so as to compress a spring with force constant 2N/m by
4m:
1) 4 m/s 2) 16 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) None of these
12. For a particle executing S. H. M the kinetic energy K is given by K  K 0 cos 2  t .
The maximum value of potential energy is:
K K
1) K0 2) zero 3) 0 4) 0
2 4
13. A body falls on the surface of the earth from a height of 20cm. If after
colliding with the earth, its mechanical energy is lost by 75% then determine
height up to the body would reach:
1) 5cm 2) 10cm 3) 20 cm 4) 15 cm
14. In Young‘s experiment for interference of light the slits are 0.2 cm. apart are
 
illuminated by yellow light   6000A0 . What would be the fringe width on a
screen placed 1 meter from the plane of slits. When the whole experiment is
immersed in water    4 / 3 :
1) 2.21 mm 2) 0.221mm 3) 0.40 mm 4) 0.04 mm
15. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes ‘A’ and ‘2A’ interfering at a
point, have a phase difference of 600. The intensity at the point will be
proportional to:
1) 7A 2) 5A2/3 3) 7A2 4) 7A4

Pg. 2
16. In the context of nuclear fusion, what is meant by the “thermonuclear
reaction”
1) A reaction at low temperature
2) A reaction at extends high temperature
3) A reaction involving heavy elements
4) A reaction with no hear production
17. The force between two charges 0.06m apart is 5N. If each charge is moved
towards the other by 0.01m, then the force between them will become:
1) 7.20 N 2) 11.25 N 3) 22.50N 4) 45.00N
18. Two similar spheres having +q and –q charge are kept at a certain distance. F
force acts between the two. If the middle of two spheres, another similar
sphere having +q/2 charge is kept, then it experience a force in magnitude
and direction as:
1) zero having no direction 2) 8F towards +q charge
3) 8F towards –q charge 4) 4F towards –q charge
19. For the arrangement shown in figure, the tension in the string to prevent it
from sliding down, is  g  10m / s 2  all the surfaces are frictionless:

1) 12 N 2) 21.6 N 3) 0 N 4) 2.4 N
20. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere about a tangent is given by:
2 2 5 7
1)   R 2)   R 3)   R 4)   R
3 5  3 5
21. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends
of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m and weights 100 kg. The 55 kg man
walks up to the 65 kg man and sits with him. If the boats is in still water the
centre of mass of the system shifts by:
1) 0.75 m 2) 3.0 m 3) 2.3 m 4) zero
22. The wavelength of the least energetic photon in the Balmer spectrum of
hydrogen atom is:
1) 365 nm 2) 656 nm 3) 912 nm 4) None of these
23. An aeroplane with wing span 50m is flying horizontally with the speed
360Km/ hr in presence of vertical magnetic field 2  10 4 tesla then potential
difference between the tips of wings would be:
1) zero 2) 0.1 V 3) 1 V 4) 0.01 V
24. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined as shown in figure. The
potential of point A is V1 and that of B is V2. The potential of point D will be:

1 C2V1  C1V2 C1V1  C2V2 C2V1  C1V2

1) V1  V2  2) 3) 4)
2 C1  C2 C1  C2 C1  C2

Pg. 3
25. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the
figure their mutual inductances are Ma, Mb, and Mc respectively then:

1) Ma> Mb> Mc 2) Ma> Mb< Mc 3) Ma> Mc> Mb 4) Ma< Mc < Mb

26. In a meter bridge experiment, the null point is obtained at 20cm from one
end of the wire when resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If
X<Y, then where will the new position of the null point be from the same
end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4 X against Y?
1) 40cm 2) 50cm 3) 70cm 4) 80cm
27. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of:
1) Charge 2) Mass 3) Momentum 4) Energy
28. The formula for induced e.m.f. in a coil due to change in magnetic flux

through the coil is (here A  area of the coil B  magnetic field)
d  
1) = − ⃗ 2) = − ⃗ 3) = − ⃗. ⃗ 
4) e  
dt

A B

29. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic moment M and pole strength
m units is broken into two pieces at the middle perpendicular to its length.
The magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece will be:
M m m M
1) , 2) M , 3) ,m 4) M , m
2 2 2 2
30. If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire of fundamental frequency n
are doubled and density is halved then its fundamental frequency will
become:
n n
1) 2) 2n 3) n 4)
4 2
31. The relation between the gas pressure P and average kinetic energy per unit
volume E is :
1 3 2
1) P  E 2) P  E 3) P  E 4) P  E
2 2 3
32. At 0 K which of the following properties of a gas will be zero
1) Kinetic energy 2) Potential energy 3) Mass 4) Density
33. In the electric filed of a point charge q, a certain charge is carried from A to
C, A to D and to E. A, B, C, D, E are on the circle with centre at point +q.
Then the work done:

1) Is least along the path AB

2) Is least along the path AD
3) Is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD and AE
4) Is least along AE
Pg. 4
34. The combination of the gates shown in the figure below produces:

1) NOR gate 2) OR gate 3) AND gate 4) XOR gate

35. Which state of triply ionised Beryllium (Be3+) has the same orbital radius as
that of the ground state of hydrogen:
1) n=4 2) n=3 3) n=2 4) n=1
SECTION-B
36. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the
current flowing in the cell:

1) 1.71 A 2) 2.00A 3) 2.31A 4) 1.33A

37. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length l by applying a force F. The
energy stored in the wire is:
F Fl
1) 2) Fl 3) 2Fl 4)
2l 2
38. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density =19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a
viscous liquid (density =1.5kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of
silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid. :
1) 0.4 m/s 2) 0.133 m/s 3) 0.1 m/s 4) 0.2 m/s
39. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3cm to 5
cm is nearly (Surface tension of soap solution =0.03 Nm-1) :
1) 2 mJ 2) 0.4 mJ 3) 4 mJ 4) 0.2 mJ
40. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are 1  4000A and
2  5000A , then ratio of their respective frequencies to 1 and 2 is :
1) 16:25 2) 9:1 3) 4:5 4) 5:4
41. A flute which we treat as a pipe open at both ends is 34cm long. The
fundamental frequency of the flute when all its holes situated at curved
surface are covered is: [ Take velocity of sound in air =340m/s]
1) 100Hz 2) 250Hz 3) 500Hz 4) 280 Hz
42. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R are released in
free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they
attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered
by smaller body before collisions is:
1) 2.5 R 2) 4.5R 3) 7.5R 4) 1.5R
43. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 watt. The value
of R is:

1) 10  2) 15  3) 20  4) 30 
Pg. 5
44. Radius of current carrying coil is ‘R’. Then ratio of magnetic fields at the
centre of the coil to the axial point, which is R 3 distance away from the
centre of the coil:
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 3) 1:4 4) 8:1
45. Which of the following will experience a force due to uniform magnetic field:
1) an iron rod
2) current carrying coil
3) static charge
4) a conductor carrying current
46. A vessel is quarter filled with a liquid of refractive index  . The remaining
3
part of the vessel is filled with an immiscible liquid of refractive index
.
2
The apparent depth of the vessel is 50% of the actual depth. The value of 
is:
1) 1 2) 3/2 3) 2/3 4) 4/3
47. How much heat energy is gained when 5 kg of water at 200C is brought to its
boiling point?
(Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1C-1) :
1) 1680 kJ 2) 1700 kJ 3) 1720 kJ 4) 1740 kJ
48. Match the column –I and column – II :
Column – I Column – II
a. Isothermal i. Constant pressure
b. Isochoric ii. Constant temperature
c. Adiabatic iii.Constant volume
d. Isobaric iv. No transfer of heat.
1) a-i, b- iii, c- ii, d- iv 2) a- iii, b- ii, c- i, d- iv
3) a- ii, b-iv, c- iii, d- i 4) a- ii, b- iii, c- iv, d- i
49. Assertion:Magnetic fieldcannot accelerate aβ particle.
Reason: Mass of the electron is very small compare to β- particle.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion
3) if assertion is true but reason is false
4) If the assertion and reason both are false
50. Statement 1: - In a motion,a body cannot have a constant rate of change in
velocity and simultaneously variable rate of change in speed.
Statement 2: -In a motion,a body cannot have a constant rate of change in
speed and simultaneously variable rate of change in velocity.
1) Statement 1 and statement 2 both are correct
2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
4) Both statements are incorrect

Pg. 6
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION–A
51. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: NH3 is strong field ligand than PH3.
Statement II: PH3 is more basic than NH3. In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
52. In which of the following statements
The sequence is not strictly according to the property written against it?
1) CO2  SiO2  SnO2  PbO2 ; increasing oxidising power
2) HF  HCl  HBr  HI ; increasing acid strength
3) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3  SbH 3 ; increasing basic strength
4) B  C  O  N ; increasing first ionisation enthalpy
0 0
53. Consider the cell potentials EMg 2
/ mg
 2.37V and EFe3
/ Fe
 0.04V . The best
reducing agent would be:
1) Mg2+ 2) Fe3+ 3) Mg 4) Fe
54. How many unpaired electrons are present in Cr  cation(atomic no=24)
1) 0 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
55. Which of the following liberates CO2 on reaction with NaHCO3:
1) Na OH 2) Phenol 3) HCN 4) HCl

56.
Product of given reaction is:

57. What will be reactivity order for isocyanide test for following amines:

P. Q. R. S.
1) P> R> Q> S 2) P> S> Q> R 3) P> Q> R>S 4) Q> R> S> P
58. The reagent used for the separation of acetaldehyde from acetophenone
1) NaHSO3 2) C6 H 5 NHNH 2 3) NH 2OH 4) NaOH  I 2
59. Non– aromatic compound amongst the following:

1) 2) 3) 4)

Pg. 7
60. Which of the following is correct order of C- N bond length in given
compounds:

1) x=y 2) x<y 3) x>y 4) None of these

61. In the reaction 2CuSO4  4 KI  Cu 2 I 2  I 2  2 K 2 SO4 the equivalent weight of Cu will
be:
1) 31.75 2) 63.5 3) 127 4) 15.88
62. For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same:
1) C6 H 5COOH 2) C6 H 4  COOH  2 3) HOOCCOOH 4) CH 3COOH
63. For the reaction,
 C2 H 5 X , The order of reactivity is.
C2 H 5OH  HX 
1) HI  HCl  HBr 2) HI  HBr  HCl 3) HCl  HBr  HI 4) HBr  HI  HCl
64. IP is influenced by:
1) size of atom 2) effective nuclear charge
3) electrons present in inner shell 4) All
65. The maximum number of S atoms that are coplanar in S8 molecule are:
1) 8 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6
66. Choose the correct relation that can be possible for an elementary reaction
 P  Q  Product 
1 3 1
1) Rate = K  P  Q  2) Rate= K  P  Q 
4) Rate = K  PQ
1/ 2
3) Rate = K  P Q 
2
67.  Ni  CO  4  and  Ni  NH3  4  do not differ in
1) Magnetic moment 2) Oxidation Number
3) Geometry 4) EAN
68. Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent :
1) KMnO4 2) H 2 SO4 3) HNO3 4) All of these
69. What will be the approximate strength of 10 volume solution of hydrogen
peroxide
1) 3g/L 2) 30g/L 3) 6g/L 4) 30g/mL
70. Ambidentate ligand among the following is / are:
1) CN  2) NO2 3) en 4) Both 1 and 2
71. Which is the strongest base:
1) Pyrole 2) Aniline 3) Pyridine 4) Piperidine
72. For the reaction,

6Cl2

AlCl3  excess 
A

2 
Cl excess

h 500 K
B
1) A is not aromatic 2) B is aromatic 3) A is aromatic 4) B is hexachlorobenzene

Pg. 8
73. The hybridisation of P in phosphate in is the same as in:...
1) I in I Cl4  2) S in SO3 3) N in NO3  4) S in SO3 
74. Compound in which carbons use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation
is

1) 2)
3) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2 4) CH 3  CH  C  CH 2
75. The oxidation sate of As in H 2 AsO4 ion is :
1) +2 2) +3 3) +5 4) +7

76. Which hybridisation is involved in the metal ion of  Ni  H 2O 6  complex:
1) d2sp3 2) sp3 3) dsp2 4) sp3d2
77. The P- O- P linkages in P4O10 and P4 O6 are
1) 5,5 2) 5,6 3) 6,5 4) 6,6
O
||
NaOH
CH 3  CH 2  C  NH 2 
Br2
A
78. , Aqueous solution of A
1) Turns blue litmus to red 2) Turns red litmus to blue
3) Does not affect the litmus 4) Decolourises the litmus
79. A  g   2 B  g   2C  g  ; H  ve The conditions that will favour forward reaction
are:
1) High temperature, High pressure 2) Low temperature, High pressure
3) High temperature, Low pressure 4) Low temperature, Low pressure
80. A molecule in which central atom has 2 lone pairs of electrons and 2  
bonds will have what type of hybridisation:
1) sp 2) sp2 3) sp3 4) sp3d
81. In reverse osmosis the solvent molecules move across the SPM :
1) from solution to solvent side
2) from solvent to solution side
3) in both directions but in unequal flow rates
4) solvent does not moves solute moves
82. The correct configuration is:

1) 2R, 3R 2) 2R, 3S 3) 2S, 3S 4) 2S, 3R

2
83. The solvent the favours SN mechanism:
1) Water 2) Alcohol 3) Acid 4) DMF
84. Which of the following is increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization:
1) NH 3  PH 3  AsH 3 2) AsH 3  PH 3  NH 3
3) NH 3  AsH 3  PH 3 4) PH 3  AsH 3  NH 3
85. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of
the diatomic molecule B2 is
1) 1 and diamagnetic 2) 0 and paramagnetic
3) 0 and diamagnetic 4) 1 and paramagnetic

Pg. 9
 SECTION-B
86. The best method of conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by
treating the alcohol with:
1) PCl5 2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
3) PCl3 4) Dry HCl in presence of anhyd. ZnCl2
87.  n    rule is violated in:
1) Na 2) Pd 3) Cr 4) None of the above
88. 3.0 mole of N2 and 6.0 mole of H2 are mixed in a container of volume 1 dm3

and reacts as N2 g   2H 2 g   N2 H4 g 
If at equilibrium 64g of N2H4 is obtained, the equilibrium constant for the
given reaction will be:
1) 0.20 2) 0.25 3) 0.50 4) 0.75
89. Which of the following acids is a vitamin:
1) saccharic acid 2) adipic acid 3) aspartic acid 4) ascorbic acid
90. How much water must be added to 300ml of 0.2M solution of
CH 3COOH  K a  1.8  10 5  for the D.O.I   of the acid to double?
1) 600 ml 2) 900 ml 3) 1200 ml 4) 1500ml
91. What are q, W and E if a gas absorbs 200J of heat and expands from 10 to 20
L at 270C against a pressure of 1 atm:
1) -200, J- 1013 J, -813 J 2) -200 J, 1013 J, -1213 J
3) +200J, -1013 J, -813 J 4) +200 J, 1013 J, 1213 J
92. The geometry of BrF3 is:
1) BENT- T- SHAPE 2) TrigonalBipyramidal
3) T- Shape 4) Pyramidal
93. The bond angles and the bond lengths of all conformations are
1)Same 2) Different
3) depends on energy of conforms 4) can not predict
94. Write IUPAC names of following compounds.

1) 2,8- Dimethyl -3,6–decadiene 2) 3,9-Dimethyl – 4,7-decadiene

3) 9- Ethyl -2- methyl -3,6-nonadiene 4) 2- Methyl -9- ethyl -3,6-nonadiene
95. Which of the following ‘d’ orbitals participate in the hybridisation for Xe in
the cationic part of XeF6 s 

(A) d xy (B) d x2  y 2 (c) d z2 (D) dyz

1) A, B 2) B, C 3) C, D 4) A, C
96. The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rate constant of the reaction
1) Increases with increase of temperature
2) Decreases with decrease of temperature
3) Decreases with increase of temperature
4) Independent of temperature
97. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will show lowest boiling point?
1) 0.015 M urea 2) 0.01 M KNO3 3) 0.01 M BaCl2 4) 0.01 M sucrose
Pg. 10
 98. A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cell potential and rG are
respectively:
1) positive and negative 2) negative and positive
3) zero, zero 4) positive , zero
99. If a chemical reaction is catalysed by negative catalyst then there will be a/
an
1) reduce the enthalpy of reaction
2) decrease rate constant of the reaction
3) increases in the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
4) decrease in the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
100. A  2 B  C , the rate equation for this reaction is given as Rate = K[A][B]. If the
concentration of A is kept the same but that of B is doubled what will happen
to the rate itself?
1) halved 2) the same 3) doubled 4) quadrupled

BOTANY
SECTION –A
101. Choose the correct match.
List-I List-II
A) Archegoniate phanerogams I. First true land plants
B) Embryophyticatracheophytes II. Plants with enclosed seeds
C) Vascular cryptogams III. Naked seeded plants
D) Non-archegoniate phanerogams IV. Amphibians of plant kingdom
A B C D A B C D
1) III IV I II 2) IV III II I
3) III IV II I 4) III II I IV
102. Assertion (A): More than one stigma per gynoecium is observed in Lotus
Reason (R): In Lotus, gynoecium is apocarpous
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
103. Filamentous algae with Chl.a and Chl.c is/are
1) Spirogyra 2) Ulothrix
3) Ectocarpus 4) More than one option correct
104. Choose the incorrect match.
1) Agaricus–Mushroom 2) Puccinia–Rust fungi
3) Fucus–Diplontic life cycle 4) Alternaria–Sexual exogenous spores
105. Choose the incorrect match.
1) DNA–Genetic material in all cellular organisms
2) RNA–Genetic material in viruses only
3) Nucleotides–Monomers of nucleic acids
4) RNA–Structural and catalytic role in eukaryotes only
106. Makoi and Potato would be classified in
1) The same division but different classes
2) The same class, but different families
3) The same class, but different species
4) A different class and different order
Pg. 11
107. How many of the following features are unique to Angiosperms only?
I) Syngamy II) Double fertilization
III) Fertilization involving pollen tube IV) Pollination
V) Triple fusion
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) Five
108. Similarity between moss protonema and fern prothallus is
1) Non-green in colour 2) Haploid nature
3) Have vasculature 4) Possess true roots
109. Which of the following combination of characters is true for slime moulds?
1) Saprophytic, plasmodium with walls, spores dispersed by water
2) Parasitic, plasmodium with walls, spores dispersed by air currents
3) Parasitic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water
4) Saprophytic, plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) Prophase II is simpler than Prophase I
2) Nuclear membrane reappears in telophase I
3) Anaphase II is not characterised by the splitting of chromatids
4) Prophase I is longer and complex than Prophase of mitosis
111. Match the Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II
A) Spindle fibre attachment to kinetochores I) Heart cells in adult animals
B) Quiescent stage II) G1 phase
C) Male honeybees III) Metaphase
D) Cell organelles duplication IV) Mitosis
A B C D A B C D
1) III I IV II 2) II III IV I
3) I II IV III 4) I IV III I
112. A plant cell has 8 bivalents at Prophase I of meiosis. How many chromosomes
and chromatids respectively are present in each gamete of the plant?
1) 8 chromosomes, 16 chromatids 2) 8 chromosomes, 8 chromatids
3) 16 chromosomes, 32 chromatids 4) 8 chromosomes, 4 chromatids
113. Assertion (A):Pinus seeds can not germinate and established without the presence
of mycorrhizae
Reason (R): Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of a fungus with shoot system of
vascular plants
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
114. Which of the following structure is similar to bacteria and animal cell?
1) Cell wall 2) Centrosome 3) Nucleus 4) Cell membrane
115. Statement-I (S-I): All nucleic acids and proteins are heteropolymers
Statement-II (S-II): Nucleic acids are polymers of necleotides and proteins are
polymer of aminoacids
1) Both S-I and S-II are false 2) S-I is true and S-II is false
3) S-I is false but S-II is true 4) Both S-I and S-II are true

Pg. 12
116. Study the given flow chart of cyclic photophosphorylation and select the
correct answer for A, B and C

A B C
1) PS I e– acceptor P680
2) PS I e– acceptor P700
3) PS II Cytochrome P700
4) PS II Cytochrome P680
117. Identify the incorrect statement.
1) In aerobic respiration oxygen acts as ultimate electron acceptor
2) In aerobic respiration oxygen gets reduced to water
3) In fermentation NADH is oxidized during the formation of ethyl alcohol
4) Oxygen increases the rate of anaerobic respiration.
118. In the options given below A, B, C and D represent various functions
regulated by phytohormones. Choose the option that shows all the functions
regulated by same hormone:
A B C D
1) Production of Overcomes apical Promotes Apical hook formation
new leaves dominance nutrient
mobilization
2) Delaying of Speeds up Early seed Promotes bolting
senescence malting process production in
conifers
3) Breaks seed and Promotion of Stress hormone Rapid internode
bud dormancy flowering in elongation in deep
pineapple water rice plants
4) Initiates rooting Promotes apical Promote nutrient Promotion of seed
in stem cutting dominance mobilization maturation and
dormancy
119. Statement-I (S-I): Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.
Statement-II (S-II): Mostly Dinoflagellates are marine and photosynthetic.
1) Both S-I and S-II are true
2) S-I is true and S-II is false
3) Both S-I and S-II are false
4) S-I is false and S-II is true
120. The percentage of gametes which contain ‘R’ gene produced by ‘RrYy’ parent
will be
1) 25 2) 75 3) 50 4) 40
Pg. 13
121. Match the following.
List I List II
A)Complete dominance I) Snapdragon
B) Incomplete dominance II) Pea plant
C) Co-dominance III)Drosophila
D) Linkage IV) ABO blood group
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) II I IV III
3) II I III IV 4) II III I IV
122. In Drosophila, the genes for white eye and yellow body shows …….a…….
recombination and genes for white eye and miniature wing shows ………b………
linkage in F2
1) a→98.7%, b→37.2% 2) a→98.7%, b→62.8%
3) a→1.3%, b→37.2% 4) a→1.3%, b→62.8%
123. Match the nomenclature of enzyme EcoRI given in the columns.
Column I Column II
A) Genus name i) CO
B) Species name ii) E
C) Name of strain iii) I
D) Order of isolation iv) R
A B C D A B C D
1) I II III IV 2) IV II III I
3) III I II IV 4) II I IV III
124. Match the columns:-
Column-I Column-II
A) Aleuroplast i) Carotenoids
B) Amyloplast ii) Carbohydrates
C) Elaioplast iii) Fats & Oils
D) Chromoplast iv) Proteins
1) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i 2) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
3) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii 4) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
125. Select a biochemical which acts as clot buster-
1) Cyclosporin-A 2) Streptokinase 3) Statins 4) Citric acids
126. Which among the following chemical is NOT produced by fungi?
1) Citric acid 2) Statins 3) Lactic acid 4) Cyclosporin-A
127. Conjoint, collateral vascular bundles are present in
1) Stems only 2) Roots and stems only
3) Stems and leaves only 4) Roots, stems and leaves
128. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the
options given.
Column I Column II
a) Fruit I) Integument
b)Ovule II) Maize grain
c) Seed coat III) Megasporangium
d) Nucellus IV) Perisperm
A B C D A B C D
1) II III I IV 2) III II IV I
3) III II I III 4) IV II III I

Pg. 14
129. Statement-I (S-I): Apomixis mimics sexual reproduction
Statement-II (S-II): In apomixix, diploid egg cell is formed without reduction
division and develops into the embryo without fertilization
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) Both S-I and S-II are correct
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct
130. Correct set of plants showing endospermic seeds
1) Pea, Bean, Groundnut 2) Wheat, Maize, Coconut
3) Wheat, Maize, Peanut 4) Rice, Pea, Bean
131. Assertion (A):- Mitochondria and chloroplast both contain double-stranded circular
DNA molecules, ribosomes and chlorophyll pigments.
Reason (R):- Ribosomes of chloroplast and mitochondria are smaller than
prokaryotic ribosomes.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct & (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
132. Read all the following statements carefully:-
(A) Usually the lower surface of isobilateral leaf has greater number of stomata
(B) Cellulose microfibrils in guard cells are oriented longitudinally rather than
radially
(C) Transpiration maintains the shape and structure of plants by keeping cells
turgid
(D) The inner wall of each guard cell towards the pore is thin and elastic
How many of above statements are incorrect?
1) A, B, C 2) A, B, D 3) B, C, D 4) A, C, D
133. Match column I and column II
Column-I Column-II
A) Lysosome i) Cell plate
B) Vacuole ii) Nuclear envelop
C) ER iii) Hydrolases
D) Golgi complex iv) Tonoplast
1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv 2) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
3) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i 4) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

134. RQ of lactic acid(C3H6O3) in aerobic condition is-

1) One 2) Less than 1 3) More than one 4) 4
135. Triticumaestivum, Mangiferaindica, Solanumtuberosum, Solanumnigrum,
Homo sapiens, Muscadomestica, Colchicum autumnale and
Solanummelongena.
These are some scientific names of organisms. How many species and genera
are included respectively in these names?
1) 6, 8 2) 8, 7 3) 8, 8 4) 8, 6

Pg. 15
 SECTION-B
136. Read the following statements and state true (T) or False (F) and select the
correct option.
A) The sporophyte of Marchantia is dioecious as antheridia and archegonia are
present on different thalli
B) In heterosporous pteridophytes, the prothalli are dioecious
C) Thalloid body is not a feature of bryophytes.
D)Cycas plant is dioecious, micro and megasporophylls are present in the same
plant
A B C D A B C D
1) T F T F 2) T T F F
3) F F T T 4) F T T F
137. The genetic material of viroids could be
1) DNA 2) RNA
3) Both DNA and RNA 4) Either DNA or RNA
138. Which amino acid can be coded by one codon only?
1) Lysine 2) Phenylalanine 3) Arginine 4) Methionine
139. Assertion (A): Enzymes cannot be proteins only.
Reason (R):A few enzymes can be polyribonucleotides.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
140. If 18 ATP are utilized in regeneration phase of Calvin cycle then,
A) Number of CO2 reduced _______ B) Total NADPH2 utilized _______
C) Glucose molecules formed ______ D) Net PGAL produced ________
A B C D A B C D
1) 18 18 3 6 2) 18 36 6 18
3) 18 36 3 6 4) 18 18 3 3
141. Match the following based on the number of ATP yield during aerobic
respiration
List-I List-II
A) One molecule of Pyruvic acid I. 9
B) One molecule of G3P II. 15
C) One molecule of Acetyl CoA III. 17
D) One molecule of 1, 3 BPGA IV. 12
V. 20
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
1) II V IV III 2) III II V IV
3) I IV III II 4) IV III II I
142. Statement-I (S-I): Law of dominance explains about expression of only one trait in
F1 generation
Statement-II (S-II): In heterozygous condition one factor dominates the other.
1) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect 2) Both S-I and S-II are correct
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect but S-II is correct

Pg. 16
143. Identify an incorrect statement with respect to ethical issues in biotechnology
1) Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented
varieties of basmati are grown in India
2) In 1997, an American company got patent rights on basmati rice through the US
Patent and Trademark office
3) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bioresources by multinational
companies without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned
without compensatory payment
4) The current interest in the manipulation of microbes, plants and animals has
raised no ethical questions
144. Find the odd tissue w.r.t the origin-
1) Cortex 2) Pith 3) Vascular tissues 4) Pericycle
145. Biogas is the mixture of gases produced by the microbial activity. The type of
gas produced depends upon
1) Type of microbes 2) Type of organic substrate (or) waste
3) Size of digester 4) More than one option correct
146. Identify the label A and B in given figure.

1) A-Archegonium, B-Antheridium 2) A-Oospore, B-Oogonium

3) A-Oosphere, B-Archegonium 4) A-Ooginium, B-Antheridium
147. The information which is not provided by floral diagram is:-
1) Aestivation of petals
2) Adhesion of stamens
3) Numbers of locules in ovary and type of placentation
4) Position of ovary
148. Which is common in diatoms and dinoflagellates?
1) Eukaryotic nature 2) Unicellular 3) Holophytic nutrition 4) All of them
149. Protein → Amino acid
Above given reaction is catalysed by which enzymes?
1) Isomerase 2) Lyases 3) Hydrolases 4Transferase
150. Which of the following helps in maintenance of exposed surface of the medium
in a bioreactor-
1) Foam breaker 2) Steam for sterilization
3) Sterile air 4) Maintain pH
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. Which among the following is/are not the effects of Glucocorticoids?
(a) Stimulation of gluconeogenesis.
(b) Increases the immune response.
(c) Stimulates RBCs production.
(d) Promotes the cellular uptake of amino acids.
(e) Stimulates synthesis of proteins
1) a, b, c 2) b, c, d 3) b, d, e 4) a, b, e
Pg. 17
152. The regions of cerebral cortex which are responsible for complex functions
like memory and communication are
1) Sensory areas 2) Motor areas 3) Corpus callosum 4) Association areas
153. Select the incorrect match from the following
1) Ball and socket joint – humerus and pectoral girdle
2) Pivot joint – carpal and metacarpal of thumb
3) Cartilaginous joint – between adjacent vertebrae
4) Hinge joint – Knee joint
154. An increase in GFR and blood pressure causes release of ‘X’ which decreases
the blood pressure. Select the correct option that represents ‘X’.
1) Renin 2) Aldosterone 3) ANF 4) ADH
155. Observe the following diagram and select the statement which doesn’t
correctly represent ‘T’.

1) During this phase the ventricles get filled by blood.

2) It is the return of ventricles from excited state to normal state.
3) End of T wave marks the end of ventricular systole.
4) During this phase blood is pumped out into the respective arteries.
156. Which among the following factors is primarily responsible for dissociation of
oxyhaemoglobin in tissues.
1) Increase pO2 in arterial blood.
2) Decrease concentration of H+ ions in tissues
3) Decrease in the temperature
4) Increase pCO2 in tissues
157. In frog blood from major veins drain into right atrium through a triangular
structure called
1) Conusarteriosus 2) Sinus venosus
3) Lymph nodes 4) Pericardium
158. Internal fertilization with oviparous nature and poikilothermy is seen in
1) Exocoetus 2) Hyla 3) Calotes 4) Aptenodytes
159. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Excretion occurs through proboscis glands in Balanoglossus.
Statement II: The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water
canal system.
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
160. Which among the following is responsible for origin of signals for parturition?
1) Fully developed foetus 2) Maternal pituitary
3) Placenta 4) Both 1 & 3
161. Select the hormonal IUD from the following
1) Progestasert 2) Lippes loop 3) Multiload 375 4) Cu7
Pg. 18
162. X – linked recessive disorders are more common in males than in females
because
1) Affected males receive the disease-causing gene from male parent.
2) Presence even a single copy of disease-causing gene may lead to disorder in
males.
3) Females get affected only in heterozygous condition.
4) If female is affected all her offspring’s will be affected.
163. Satellite DNA is classified into microsatellites and mini satellites depending
on all factors except.
1) Length of segment 2) Base composition
3) No of SNPs 4) No of repetitive units
164. Which among the following statements is incorrect w.r.t origin and evolution
of man
1) Neanderthal man used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
2) The first human-like being the hominid was Homo erectus.
3) Modern Homo sapiens arose during ice age between 75000 – 10000 years ago.
4) Australopithecus hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
165. _____ is a very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients
who have undergone surgery.
1) Cocaine 2) Marijuana 3) Benzodiazepine 4) Morphine
166. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The first clinical gene therapy for ADA deficiency was not a
permanent cure.
Reason (R): The lymphocytes with functional ADA gene that were transfused were
not immortal and required periodic transfusion.
1) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is not a correct explanation
of Assertion.
4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
167. A type of population interaction where none of the interacting species are
benefitted is
1) Commensalism 2) Competition 3) Amensalism 4) Mutualism
168. Which among the following is not true w.r.t pyramid of energy?
1) It is always upright.
2) Amount of energy at lower trophic level is highest.
3) With successive trophic levels some energy is lost.
4) Highest amount of energy is present in the higher trophic level.
169. In which of the following mode of conservation methods the threatened
species are protected in their natural habitat.
1) Sacred grooves 2) Botanical gardens
3) Zoological parks 4) Wildlife safari parks
170. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.
1) Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in blood and reduces the
concentration of haem-bound oxygen.
2) Addiction is psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria.
3) CT uses X rays to obtain a three – dimensional image of the internal organs.
4) In HIV infection the number of macrophages drastically decreases in number.
Pg. 19
171. Which among the following is not the function of circulatory system in
cockroach
1) Transport of nutrients 2) Transport of gasses
3) Transport of waste 4) Both 1 & 2
172. At which phase of the cardiac cycle in adult humans maximum filling of
ventricles takes place under normal physiological conditions?
1) Ventricular systole 2) Atrial systole
3) Joint diastole 4) Atrial diastole
173. At resting state of skeletal muscle fibres, a subunit of which of the following
masks the active binding sites for myosin on actin filaments?
1) Myosin 2) Meromyosin 3) F – actin 4) Troponin
174. The part of brain involved in regulation of sexual behavior as well as hunger
and thirst is
1) Pons 2) Medulla 3) Hypothalamus 4) Cerebellum
175. Which among the following hormones is produced only in a pregnant female
1) hCG 2) Estrogen 3) Progesterone 4) Thyroxine
176. Which one of the following options gives one correct example, each of
convergent evolution and divergent evolution
Convergent Evolution Divergent evolution
Thorns of Bougainvillea
1) Wings of butterfly and of birds
and tendrils of Cucurbita
2) Vertebrate hearts or brain Forelimbs of whale and cheetah
Flippers of Thorns of Bougainvillea
3)
penguin and dolphin and tendrils of Cucurbita
4) Sweet potato and potato Eye of the octopus and of mammals
177. Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: ELISA is a diagnostic method based on the principle of antigen
antibody interaction.
Statement II: In autoradiography the image of the mutated gene doesn’t appear
on the photographic film.
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
178. The structure present in phylum Mollusca that helps in respiration and
excretion is
1) Nephridia 2) Flame cell 3) Radula 4) Ctenidia
179. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
1) The value of pO2 in systemic veins is equal to value of pCO2 in alveolar air.
2) The value of pO2 in systemic arteries is more than that of pO2 in alveolar air.
3) The value of pO2 in pulmonary artery is equal to value of pCO2 in systemic
arteries.
4) The value of pO2 in deoxygenated blood is equal to value of pCO2 in oxygenated
blood.

Pg. 20
180. In a case where the female partner suffers from anovulation which among the
following methods of Assisted reproductive technologies is recommended?
1) Artificial insemination 2) Intra uterine insemination
3) Gametes intra fallopian transfer 4) Both 1 & 2
181. The set of hormones that are involved in maintenance of calcium levels in
body
1) Calcitonin – Parathyroid hormone 2) Somatostatin – Somatotrophin
3) Adrenaline – Non adrenaline 4) Melatonin – FSH
182. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one
1) Macrophages and NK cells are part of cellular barrier.
2) Anti venom and anti-tetanus serum are examples of artificially acquired passive
immunity.
3) Symptoms raised due to allergy can be treated by administration of adrenaline,
steroids, and Antihistamine.
4) Lymph nodes and spleen are primary lymphoid organs that are involved in
maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes.
183. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column - I Column -II
a. XX -XO type i. Butterflies
b. XX – XY type ii. Grasshopper
c. ZW – ZZ type iii. Drosophila
d. ZO – ZZ type iv. Birds
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
184. Which among the following statements is not true w.r.t Human genome
project
1) Dystrophin is the largest known human gene with 2.4 million bases.
2) Less than 2 percent of the human genome codes for proteins.
3) Single nucleotide polymorphism occurs at 1.4 billion locations in human
genome.
4) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of human genome.
185. _____ is the most species rich taxonomic group among invertebrates.
1) Insects 2) Molluscs 3) Crustaceans 4) Fishes
SECTION-B
186. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Maximum amount of nutrients and 70-80 percent of electrolytes
and water is absorbed from PCT.
Reason (R): PCT is lined by simple brush bordered cuboidal epithelium with
abundant mitochondria.
1) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
2) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A.
3) Both A and R are correct, and R is not a correct explanation of A.
4) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
187. Choose the number of diseases from the given below set for which transgenic
models do not exist.
Cancer, Alzheimer’s, cystic fibrosis, Myasthenia gravis, Rheumatoid arthritis,
Graves’ disease
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One
Pg. 21
188. All of the following are examples of autosomal linked diseases except
1) Thalassemia 2) Sickle cell anaemia
3) Phenylketonuria 4) Haemophilia
189. The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called
1) Primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity
3) Gross primary productivity 4) Net primary productivity
190. In a human population of 1000 individuals 90 are affected by thalassemia. In
this population the frequency of carrier individuals is
1) 0.4 2) 0.2 3) 0.42 4) 0.8
191. Which among the following organisms shows triploblastic nature with
bilateral symmetry and open type of circulation?
1) Pheritima 2) Limulus 3) Petromyzon 4) Exocoetus
192. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t disorders associated with
endocrine glands.
1) Addison’s disease – Underproduction of hormones by adrenal medulla
2) Cretinism – Hypothyroidism
3) Acromegaly – Excessive secretion of GH in adults
4) Grave’s disease – Hyperthyroidism
193. Which among the following is/are excretory structures in cockroach
1) Fat bodies 2) Malpighian tubules
3) Uricose glands 4) All of these
194. Neuroglia makes up _____ of the volume of neural tissue in our body.
1) One third 2) Less than half
3) More than half 4) Around 25%
195. Which among the following hormones has the least concentration in blood
between 10th to 14th day of menstrual cycle?
1) LH 2) Estrogen 3) Progesterone 4) FSH
196. Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because
1) It is very expensive
2) It can lead to pre-natal sex determination of child and consequently female
foeticide
3) It is an invasive procedure and carries high risk of abortions
4) It can help to know chromosomal aberrations.
197. Sustained high fever, constipation, loss of appetite and intestinal perforation
in severe cases are symptoms of which of the following disease?
1) Typhoid 2) Pneumonia 3) Malaria 4) Plague
198. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cardiac output increases with increase in heartrate or stroke
volume.
Reason (R): Increase in heart rate reduces the duration of cardiac cycle.
1) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
2) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A.
3) Both A and R are correct, and R is not a correct explanation of A.
4) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
199. The correct equation w.r.t respiratory capacities is
1) FRC = TV+ERV 2) VC=ERV+IC
3) TLC=VC+TV 4) IC=TV+RV
200. Glycosuria and ketonuria are mostly indicative of
1) Diabetes insipidus 2) Glomerulonephritis
3) Renal calculi 4) Diabetes mellitus

Pg. 22