2

1 Which row shows active transport?

particles move from particles move from requires energy

high concentration to low concentration to
low concentration high concentration
A   
B   
C   
D   

2 An experiment is carried out to determine the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction at eight

different temperatures.

rate of reaction

0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
temperature / °C

What conclusion can be drawn from the data?

A The enzyme is not active at 5 °C.

B The enzyme has many effective collisions with the substrate at 25 °C.

C The enzyme has an optimum temperature of 30 °C.

D The enzyme is completely denatured at 40 °C.

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3 Which disease can be caused by a lack of vitamin C?

A AIDS

B coronary heart disease

C rickets

D scurvy

4 The graph shows the water content of leaf cells in a plant.

water
content
of leaf
cells

midnight midday midnight

time of day

Which row describes the most likely conditions that exists at midday?

transpiration temperature humidity

rate
A low low high
B low high low
C high high low
D high low high

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5 The photomicrograph shows a blood sample.

Three components are labelled.

Which row shows the correct name and function for each component?

X Y Z
component function component function component function
A lymphocyte antibody red blood oxygen phagocyte engulfing
production cell transport pathogens
B lymphocyte antibody platelet blood red blood oxygen
production clotting cell transport
C phagocyte engulfing red blood oxygen lymphocyte antibody
pathogens cell transport production
D phagocyte engulfing platelet oxygen red blood blood
pathogens transport cell clotting

6 Which statement is correct?

A Each pathogen has its own antigens, which have specific shapes.

B Immunity against pathogens is provided by antibiotics.

C Memory cells give short-term immunity.

D Vaccines contain antibodies to stimulate an active immune response.

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7 Which processes are used to remove an oxygen debt after exercise?

A
deep fast heart
breathing rate

C B

anaerobic
respiration
of lactic
acid

8 The diagram shows the position of different endocrine glands in the human body.

Which row shows the correct label for each endocrine gland and the hormone that the gland
secretes?

X Y
gland hormone gland hormone
A adrenal adrenaline ovary insulin
B adrenal adrenaline pancreas insulin
C pancreas insulin adrenal adrenaline
D ovary insulin pancreas adrenaline

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9 Why should antibiotics only be used when essential?

A because they encourage the development of resistant viruses

B because they modify the chemical reactions taking place in the body

C to limit the development of human resistance

D to limit the development of resistant bacteria

10 Which row correctly shows the chromosomes present and the type of nucleus in some human
sperm cells?

chromosomes nucleus
A 22 + X haploid
B 22 + Y diploid
C 44 + XX haploid
D 44 + XY diploid

11 What is the definition of a gene?

A all the DNA in a cell that controls metabolic reactions

B a length of DNA that codes for a protein

C the nucleus and its chromosomes

D all the DNA in a cell that determines the inheritance of sex

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12 The diagram shows a food web.

cat sparrowhawk

thrush
robin

sparrow slug caterpillar

plant

Which statement is correct?

A The cat is a primary, secondary and tertiary consumer.

B The cat is a secondary, tertiary and quaternary consumer.

C The sparrowhawk is a primary, secondary and tertiary consumer.

D The sparrowhawk is a secondary, tertiary and quaternary consumer.

13 What is meant by the term biodiversity?

A an increase in the number of different species that live in an area

B how organisms and their environment interact

C the number of different animals that live in an area

D the number of different species that live in an area

14 Which two elements react together to form an ionic compound?

element electronic structure

R 2,4
T 2,8
X 2,8,1
Z 2,8,7

A R and T B T and X C X and Z D Z and R

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15 The equation for the reaction of ammonia, NH3, and hydrogen chloride, HCl, is shown.

NH3(g) + HCl(g) → NH4Cl(s)

When 1.7 g of ammonia is used, 5.35 g of ammonium chloride, NH4Cl, is produced.

What is the mass of hydrogen chloride that reacts with 5.1 g of ammonia?

A 3.65 g

B 10.95 g

C 7.05 g

D 21.15 g

16 The equation for the complete combustion of propane, C3H8, is shown.

C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

4.4 g of propane is burned completely in oxygen.

Assume the molar gas volume to be 24 dm3.

Which row shows the volume of oxygen used and the volume of carbon dioxide produced in the
reaction?

volume of volume of carbon

oxygen / dm3 dioxide / dm3
A   2.4 2.4
B   2.4 7.2
C 12 2.4
D 12 7.2

17 Which statements describe advantages of using hydrogen–oxygen fuel cells in vehicles instead of
using gasoline (petrol) engines?

1 Fewer particulates are produced.

2 More greenhouse gases are formed.

3 More acid rain is formed.

4 Fewer respiratory problems occur.

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 4

C 2 and 3

D 3 and 4

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18 During a reaction, the temperature of the reaction mixture decreases.

Which statement about the reaction is correct?

A It is endothermic and thermal energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

B It is endothermic and thermal energy is transferred to the surroundings.

C It is exothermic and thermal energy is absorbed from the surroundings.

D It is exothermic and thermal energy is transferred to the surroundings.

19 Which row describes and explains what happens to the rate of a reaction when a change in the
reaction conditions is made?

change in the reaction rate of reaction explanation

conditions
A increase temperature increases particles are closer
together
B decrease aqueous decreases particles collide more
reactant concentration frequently
C add a catalyst increases more particles have the
activation energy
D use powdered reactant decreases there is a greater
instead of lumps surface area of the solid

20 Which statement defines reduction?

A It is the gain of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number.

B It is the gain of electrons and an increase in oxidation number.

C It is the loss of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number.

D It is the loss of electrons and an increase in oxidation number.

21 Which statement explains why elements in the same group of the Periodic Table have similar
chemical properties?

A They have different numbers of protons.

B They have the same number of neutrons.

C They have the same number of electron shells.

D They have the same number of outer-shell electrons.

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22 Aqueous chlorine is added to aqueous sodium bromide.

Which statement describes and explains the final colour of the reaction mixture?

A It is pale yellow-green because chlorine is less reactive than bromine.

B It is pale yellow-green because chlorine is more reactive than bromine.

C It is red-brown because chlorine is less reactive than bromine.

D It is red-brown because chlorine is more reactive than bromine.

23 Which statement describes and explains the sacrificial protection of iron?

A Copper is used because it has a lower tendency to lose electrons than iron.

B Copper is used because it has a greater tendency to lose electrons than iron.

C Zinc is used because it has a lower tendency to lose electrons than iron.

D Zinc is used because it has a greater tendency to lose electrons than iron.

24 The structure of a molecule is shown.

H H H
H
H C C C C
H
H H

What is the name of this molecule?

A but-1-ene

B but-2-ene

C prop-1-ene

D prop-2-ene

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25 Which structure represents a polymer?

H O H O

C N C N C N C
H O

26 A mixture contains aqueous sodium chloride and an insoluble salt.

Two processes are used to extract solid sodium chloride from the mixture.
The diagram shows the processes used.

mixture passed solid sodium

through filter paper aqueous sodium chloride extracted
chloride collected
process 1 process 2

Which row describes aqueous sodium chloride in process 1 and the name of process 2?

aqueous sodium process 2

chloride
A residue evaporation
B residue filtration
C filtrate evaporation
D filtrate filtration

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27 Aqueous potassium iodide is acidified with dilute nitric acid.

What is observed when aqueous silver nitrate is added to this mixture?

A white precipitate

B white solution

C yellow precipitate

D yellow solution

28 Which list contains only vector quantities?

A acceleration, energy, time

B force, mass, temperature

C gravitational field strength, velocity, weight

D speed, temperature, time

29 A stone is released from rest and falls. It hits the floor 0.50 s later.

What is the speed of the stone just before it reaches the floor?

A 2.5 m / s

B 4.9 m / s

C 9.8 m / s

D 19.6 m / s

30 A solid block has a mass of 10 g and a volume of 5.0 cm3.

The block is lowered into a liquid of density 1.5 g / cm3.

What is the density of the block and does it float or sink in the liquid?

density of block floats or sinks

g / cm3
A 0.50 floats
B 0.50 sinks
C 2.0 floats
D 2.0 sinks

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31 A uniform metre ruler has a pivot at its centre.

A 45 N load is suspended at the 40 cm mark. A 90 N load is suspended so that the ruler is in

equilibrium.

uniform
metre ruler
0 40 100

45 N pivot

Where is the 90 N load suspended?

A at the 55 cm mark

B at the 60 cm mark

C at the 70 cm mark
D at the 80 cm mark

32 A cylinder contains a gas.

The volume of the cylinder is slowly decreased. The temperature of the gas does not change.

What happens to the pressure of the gas and what happens to the average speed of the gas
particles?

pressure of gas average speed of

gas particles
A increases decreases
B increases no change
C no change decreases
D no change no change

33 A seismic S-wave (secondary) passes through the ground.

What is the nature of this wave and what is the direction of vibration of the ground as the S-wave
passes through it?

nature of S-wave direction of vibration

A longitudinal at right angles to the direction of propagation
B longitudinal parallel to the direction of propagation
C transverse at right angles to the direction of propagation
D transverse parallel to the direction of propagation

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34 White light is dispersed and produces a visible spectrum of seven colours.

Which pair contains two of these colours in order of increasing frequency (lower frequency first)?

A green, red

B green, violet

C violet, yellow

D yellow, red

35 A 2.0 kW heater is connected to a mains power supply.

The cost of electricity is $0.30 per kW h.

What is the total cost of using the heater for 15 minutes?

A $0.04

B $0.15
C $2.40

D $9.00

36 The diagram shows a circuit containing three light-emitting diodes (LEDs), X, Y and Z.

X Y

Which of the LEDs are lit?

A X and Y

B Y and Z

C X only

D Z only

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37 The outer casing of a mains electrical appliance is not earthed.

The appliance is working and is safe to use.

Which statement about the appliance must be correct?

A It does not have a live connection.

B It has two fuses.

C It has two switches.

D It is double-insulated.

38 Fission and fusion are two types of nuclear reaction.

Which row describes each reaction and states which reaction is used in nuclear power stations?

fission fusion reaction in nuclear

power stations
A joining of nuclei splitting of nuclei fission
B joining of nuclei splitting of nuclei fusion
C splitting of nuclei joining of nuclei fission
D splitting of nuclei joining of nuclei fusion

39 A satellite orbits the Earth with an orbital speed of 3.0 km / s and an orbital period of 8.8 × 104 s.

What is the radius of the orbit of the satellite?

A 4.2 × 104 km

B 8.4 × 104 km

C 8.3 × 105 km

D 1.7 × 106 km

40 Which sequence is part of the life cycle of a very large mass star?

A red giant → planetary nebula + neutron star

B red giant → planetary nebula + black hole

C red supergiant → supernova → neutron star

D red supergiant → supernova → black hole

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0654/02 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme For examination
SPECIMEN from 2025

Question Answer Marks

1 C 1
2 B 1
3 D 1
4 C 1
5 C 1
6 A 1
7 A 1
8 B 1
9 D 1
10 A 1
11 B 1
12 B 1
13 D 1
14 C 1
15 B 1
16 D 1
17 B 1
18 A 1
19 C 1
20 A 1
21 D 1
22 D 1
23 D 1
24 A 1
25 C 1
26 C 1
27 C 1
28 C 1
29 B 1
30 D 1
31 A 1
32 B 1
33 C 1
34 B 1
35 B 1
36 D 1

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0654/02 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme For examination
SPECIMEN from 2025

Question Answer Marks

37 D 1
38 C 1
39 A 1
40 D 1

© Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2022 Page 3 of 4