FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – APRIL, 2024

(Held On Saturday 06th April, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

NOON
MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 2. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. Let R be a relation on A
1. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. A new triangle defined by xRy if and only if 4x 5y. Let m be the
is formed by joining the middle points of all sides
of the triangle ABC and the same process is number of elements in R and n be the minimum
repeated infinitely many times. If P is the sum of number of elements from A × A that are required
perimeters and Q is be the sum of areas of all the
to be added to R to make it a symmetric relation.
triangles formed in this process, then:
(1) P2  36 3Q (2) P2  6 3Q Then m + n is equal to:
(1) 24 (2) 23
(3) P  36 3Q 2 (4) P2  72 3Q
Ans. (1) (3) 25 (4) 26
Ans. (3)

Sol. a a/2 a Sol. Given : 4x  5y

then
a R  1,1 ,(1,2),(1,3),(1, 4),(1,5),(2,2),(2,3),(2, 4)
3a 2 (2,5),(3,3),(3, 4),(3,5),(4, 4),(4,5),(5, 4),(5,5)}
Area of first  
4 i.e. 16 elements.
3a 2 a 2 3a 2
Area of second    i.e. m = 16
4 4 16
a 2 Now to make R a symmetric relation add
Area of third  
64 {(2,1)(3,2)(4,3)(3,1)(4,2)(5,3)(4,1)(5,2)(5,1)}
2
3a  1 1  i.e. n = 9
sum of area =  1   .... 
4  4 16 
So m + n = 25
3a 2 1 a 2
Q  3. If three letters can be posted to any one of the 5
4 3 3
4 different addresses, then the probability that the
perimeter of 1st  = 3a three letters are posted to exactly two addresses is:
3a
perimeter of 2nd  = 12 18
2 (1) (2)
25 25
3a
perimeter of 3rd  =
4 4 6
(3) (4)
 1 1  25 25
P  3a  1    ... 
 2 4  Ans. (1)
P = 3a.2 = 6a
Sol. Total method = 53
P
a
6 faverable = 5C2  23 – 2   60
1 P2 60 12
Q  probability = 
3 36 125 25
P2  36 3Q
4. Suppose the solution of the differential equation 6. (12  1)(n  1)  (22  2)(n  2)  .....   (n  1)2  (n  1) ·1
lim
dy (2  )x   y  2 n  (13  23  .....  n 3 )  (12  22  .....  n 2 )
 represents a circle
dx  x  2y  (  4) is equal to:
passing through origin. Then the radius of this 2 1
(1) (2)
circle is : 3 3
1
(1) 17 (2) 3 1
2 (3) (4)
4 2
17
(3) (4) 2 Ans. (2)
2
n –1
Ans. (3)  r2 – r  n – r 
dy  2    x – y  2 Sol. lim r 1
Sol.  n  n n
dx x – y  2     4  r3 – r2
r 1 r 1
xdy – (2  )ydy  4dy   2    xdx – ydx  2dx
n –1
(xdy  ydx) – (2  )ydy  4dy   2    xdx  2dx
  –r 3  r 2  n  1 – nr 
 2    y 2  2    x2 lim r 1
xy –  4y  n  2
 n  n  1  n  n  1 2n  1
2 2   –
   0 for this to be circle  2  6
2
2    n – 1 n    n  1 n – 1 n(2n – 1) n 2 (n – 1)
 2    x  y 2  2x – 4y  0    –
2 lim  2  6 2
n  n(n  1)  n  n  1 2n  1 
coeff. of  – 
2 + a = 2a 2  2 3 
x 2 = y2 n  n – 1  –n  n – 1  n  1 (2n – 1) 
  – n
 2 lim 2  2 3 
2
n  n(n  1) 3n  3n – 4n – 2
i.e. 2x2 + 2y2 + 2x – 8y = 0
2 6
x2 + y2 + x – 4y = 0
1 17  n – 1  –3n 2  3n  2  2n 2  n – 1 – 6 
rd  4  lim
4 2 n   n  1  3n 2 – n – 2 
5. If the locus of the point, whose distances from the
 n – 1  n 2  5n – 8 1
point (2, 1) and (1, 3) are in the ratio 5 : 4, is lim 
n   n  1  3n – n – 2 
2 3
ax2 + by2 + cxy + dx + ey + 170 = 0, then the value
of a2 + 2b + 3c + 4d + e is equal to: 7. Let 0  r  n. If n+1Cr+1 : nCr : n–1Cr–1 = 55 : 35 : 21,
(1) 5 (2) –27 then 2n + 5r is equal to:
(3) 37 (4) 437
(1) 60 (2) 62
Ans. (3)
(3) 50 (4) 55
Sol. let P(x, y)
Ans. (3)
 x – 2 2  (y – 1)2 25
 n 1
Cr 55
 x – 1 2   y – 3  2 16 Ans. 
n
Cr 35
9x2 + 9y2 + 14x – 118y + 170 = 0
a2 + 2b + 3c + 4d + e  n  1! r!  n – r ! 11
! 
= 81 + 18 + 0 + 56 – 118  r  1!(n – r) n! 7
= 155 – 118  n  1 11
= 37 
r 1 7
 7n = 4 + 11r z1 – 2z 2 z1 – 2z2
Sol.  4
n
Cr 35 1 1
 – z1 z2 – z1z 2
n–1 2 2
C r –1 21
2 2
z1 2z1 z2 – 2z1z2  4 z2
n! (r – 1)!(n – r)! 5
  1 zz zz 2
r! n – r ! (n – 1)! 3  4  – 1 2 – 1 2  z1 z 2 
2

4 2 2 
n 5
 z1 z1  2z 2  2z2 – z1 z1 2z 2 2z2 – 1  0
r 3
3n = 5r
By solving r = 6 n = 10  z, z1 –11 – 2z2  2z2   0
2n + 5r = 50 z 1
2
 2
– 1 2z2 – 1  0 
8. A software company sets up m number of 2x
1
computer systems to finish an assignment in 10. If the function f(x)    ; x > 0 attains the
x
17 days. If 4 computer systems crashed on the start
1
of the second day, 4 more computer systems maximum value at x  then :
e
crashed on the start of the third day and so on, then
(1) e   e (2) e 2   (2 )e
it took 8 more days to finish the assignment. The
(3) e   e (4) (2e)  (2e)
value of m is equal to :
Ans. (3)
(1) 125 (2) 150 2x
1
(3) 180 (4) 160 Sol. Let y   
x
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. 17m = m + (m – 4) + (m – 4 × 2)...+...(m – 4 × 24) ny = 2x n  
x
17 m = 25m – 4 (1 + 2 ...24) ny  –2x nx
4  24  25 1 dy
8m   150  –2 1  nx 
2 y dx
9. If z1, z2 are two distinct complex number such that 1 n
for x  f is decreasing
z1  2z 2 e
1  2 , then so, e < 
 z1 z2 2
2 1
2e
1
(1) either z1 lies on a circle of radius 1 or z2 lies on a
 e 
   
 e
1 e > 
circle of radius
2 11. Let a  6iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and b  ˆi  ˆj . If c is a is vector
1 such that c  6, a.c  6 c , c  a  2 2 and the
(2) either z1 lies on a circle of radius or z2 lies on
2
angle between a  b and c is 60°, then  a  b   c
a circle of radius 1.
is equal to:
1
(3) z1 lies on a circle of radius and z2 lies on a 9 3
2 (1)  6  6  (2) 3
2 2
circle of radius 1. 3 9
(4) both z1 and z2 lie on the same circle. (3) 6 (4)  6  6 
2 2
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
 13. Suppose for a differentiable function h, h(0) = 0,
Sol. a  b  c  a  b c 3 h(1) = 1 and h'(0) = h'(1) = 2. If g(x) = h(ex) eh(x),
2
then g'(0) is equal to:
c–a 2 2 (1) 5 (2) 3
2 2 (3) 8 (4) 4
c  a – 2c  a  8
Ans. (4)
Sol. g  x   h  e x   e h(x)
2
z  38 –12 z  8
g'  x   h(e x )  e h(x)  h '(x)  e h(x) h '  e x   e x
2
z –12 z  30  0
12  144 – 120 g'(0)  h(1)eh(0) h '(0)  e h(0) h '(1)
z
2 =2+2=4
12  2 6 14. Let P () be the image of the point Q(3, –3, 1)
 x  0 y  3 z 1
2 in the line   and R be the point
1 1 1
z 6 6 (2, 5, –1). If the area of the triangle PQR is  and
ˆˆj kˆ 2 = 14K, then K is equal to:
(1) 36 (2) 72
a  b  6 1 –1
(3) 18 (4) 81
1 1 0 Ans. (4)
ˆ – ˆj  5kˆ Sol.
Q(3,–3,1)
a  b  27

 a  b   z  27  6  6  3 
2 S
R(2,5,–1)
9
6  6 
2 P(,,)
12. If all the words with or without meaning made
RQ  1  64  4  69
using all the letters of the word "NAGPUR" are
RQ  ˆ – 8jˆ  2kˆ
arranged as in a dictionary, then the word at 315th
RS  ˆ  ˆj – kˆ
position in this arrangement is :
(1) NRAGUP (2) NRAGPU RQ  RS 1–8– 2 9
cos    
(3) NRAPGU (4) NRAPUG RQ RS 69 3 3 23
Ans. (3) 3 RS RS
cos    
Sol. NAGPUR 23 RQ 69
A  5! = 120 RS  3 3
G ® 5! = 120 240 14 QS
sin   
NA ® 4! = 24 264 23 69
NG ® 4! = 24 288 QS  42
NP ® 4! = 24 312 1
area =  2QS  RS  42  3 3
NRAGPU = 1 313 2

NRAGUP 314   9 14

NRAPGU 315 2  81.14  14k

k = 81
15. If P(6, 1) be the orthocentre of the triangle whose 17.   
Let a  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ , b  a   ˆi  ˆj   ˆi  ˆi .
vertices are A(5, –2), B(8, 3) and C(h, k), then the
point C lies on the circle. Then the square of the projection of a on b is :
(1) x2 + y2 – 65 = 0 (2) x2 + y2 – 74 = 0 1
(1) (2) 2
(3) x2 + y2 – 61 = 0 (4) x2 + y2 – 52 = 0 5

Ans. (1) 1 2
(3) (4)
Sol. 3 3
Ans. (2)
A(5,–2)
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Sol. a   ˆi  ˆj   2 1 –1
F E 1 1 0
(6,1)P
 ˆi – ˆj  kˆ

B(8,3) D C(h, k)
 a   ˆi  ˆj   ˆi  kˆ  ˆj
Slope of AD = 3  a   ˆi  ˆj  i   ˆi  ˆj – kˆ
1
Slope of BC  – ab
3 projection of a on b̂ 
b
equation of BC = 3y + x – 17 = 0
slope of BE = 1 11
  2
2
Slope of AC = –1
equation of AC is x + y – 3 = 0 18. If the area of the region

point C is (–4, 7)  a 1 
(x, y) : 2  y  , 1  x  2, 0  a  1 is
 x x 

1 1
16. Let f(x)  be a function defined on R. (loge2) – then the value of 7a – 3 is equal to:
7  sin 5x 7
Then the range of the function f(x) is equal to: (1) 2 (2) 0

(1)  ,  (2)  ,  (3) –1 (4) 1

1 1 1 1
8 5  7 6 Ans. (3)
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
1 1 1 1 Sol.
7 5 8 6 
Ans. (4)
Sol. sin5x  [–1,1]
–sin5x  [–1, 1] a 1 2
7 – sin5x  [6, 8]
1 1 1 
 , 
7 – sin 5x  8 6 
 2
1 a  20. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that
area   – 2  dx
1 
x x det(A) = 3 and
2
 a det(adj(–4 adj(–3 adj(3 adj((2A)–1))))) = 2m3n,
 nx  x 
1
then m +| 2n is equal to:
a 1
n2  – a  loge 2 –
2 7 (1) 3 (2) 2
–a 1 (3) 4 (4) 6
–
2 7
2 Ans. (3)
a
7 Sol. A 3
7a = 2
7a – 3 = –1 adj(–4adj(–3adj (3adj (2A) –1 )))  
1 1
 a2 sin 2 x  b2 cos2 x dx  12 tan
1
19. If (3tan x) +
 
2
–4adj –3adj(3adj  2A 
–1

constant, then the maximum value of

asinx + bcosx, is :
 
2
46 adj –3adj  3adj(2A) –1 
(1) 40 (2) 39
(3) 42 (4) 41 –1 8
212  312 3adj  2A 
Ans. (1)
sec 2 xdx 12 –1 8
2  312  324 adj  2A 
Sol.  a 2 tan 2 x  b2
16
let tanx = t 12
2  336  2A 
–1

sec2dx = dt
dt 12 1
2  336
 a 2 t 2  b2 2A
16

1 dt
a2  b
2 212  336
48
1
16
2
t   2 A
a
1 1 t  1
tan –1  a   c 212  336
a 2 b
b  2  316
48

a
320
1     –36  320
tan –1  tan x   c 236
ab b 
a m = – 36 n = 20
on comparing 3
b m + 2n = 4
ab = 12
a = 6, b = 2
maximum value of
6 sinx + 2cosx is 40
 SECTION-B 9 13
Now e = 1  =
21. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or equal 4 2
to t. Let f: [0, ) R be a function defined by Again product of focal distances
x  m = (x0e + a) (x0e – a)
f(x)    3   x . Let S be the set of all points
2  m + 4e2 = 20e2 – a2
in the interval [0, 8] at which f is not continuous. 13
= 20 × – 4 = 61
4
Then a is equal to ________.
aS (There is a printing mistake in the equation of
Ans. (17) 4
directrix x =  .
x  3
Sol.  2  3  is discontinuous at x = 2,4,6,8
  4
Corrected equation is x =  for directrix, as
x is discontinuous at x = 1,4 13

F(x) is discontinuous at x = 1,2,6,8 eccentricity must be greater than one, so question

must be bonus)
 a  1  2  6  8  17 23. If S(x) = (1 + x) + 2(1 + x)2 + 3(1 + x)3+.....
22. The length of the latus rectum and directrices of a + 60(1 + x)60, x  0, and (60)2 S(60) = a(b)b + b,
4 where a, b N, then (a + b) equal to ______
hyperbola with eccentricity e are 9 and x =  ,
3
Ans. (3660)
respectively. Let the line y – 3x+ 3 = 0 touch Sol.
this hyperbola at (x0, y0). If m is the product of the S(x)=(1+x) + 2(1+x)2 + 3(1+x)3+..+ 60(1 + x)60
focal distances of the point (x0, y0), then 4e2 + m is (1+x)S = (1+x)2 + ……. 59 (1+x)60+ 60(1+x)61

1  x 1  x 
equal to _______. 60
1
 60 1  x 
61
xS 
NTA Ans. (61) x
Ans. (Bonus) Put x = 60

   60 61
2
2b a 4 61  61  1
60
Sol. Given = 9 and   61
a e 3 60S 
60
equation of tangent y – 3x + 3 =0 on solving 3660
by equation of tangent 24. Let [t] denote the largest integer less than or equal
Let slope = S = 3 to t. If
3  2 
Constant = – 3  0  [x
2
]   x   dx  a  b 2  3  5  c 6  7 ,
 2 
By condition of tangency
where a, b, c  z, then a + b + c is equal to ______
 6 = 6a2 – 9a
Ans. (23)
 a = 2, b2 = 9 3 3
 x2 
     2  dx
 
2
Equation of Hyperbola is Sol. x dx 
2 2 0 0
x y
–  1 and for tangent 1 12 3
4 9
  0 dx   1dx   2 dx
Point of contact is (4, 3 3 ) = (x0, y0) 0 1 2
 2 5 6 26. In a triangle ABC, BC = 7, AC = 8, AB =  
  3dx   4 dx   5dx
2 m
3 2 5 and cosA = . If 49cos(3C) + 42 = , where
3 n
7 8 3
  6 dx  gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to _______
 7dx   8dx
6 7 8 Ans. (39)
2 2 26. In a triangle ABC, BC = 7, AC = 8, AB =  
  0 dx   1dx 2 m
0 2 and cosA = . If 49cos(3C) + 42 = , where
3 n
6 8 3
gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to _______
+  2 dx   3dx +  4dx  31  6 2 3 5
Ans. (39)
2 6 8

b2  c 2  a 2
2 6  7 Sol. cos A 
2bc
a = 31 b = –6 c = – 2
2 82  c 2  72
a + b + c = 31 – 6 – 2 = 23 
3 2 8 c
25. From a lot of 12 items containing 3 defectives, a C=9
sample of 5 items is drawn at random. Let the 72  82  92 2
cosC  
random variable X denote the number of defective 2 78 7
items in the sample. Let items in the sample be 49 cos3C + 42
drawn one by one without replacement. If variance 49(4 cos3 C – 3 cosC) + 42

m   2 3  2 
of X is , where gcd(m, n) = 1, then n – m is 49  4    3     42
n  7  7  

equal to _______. 32

Ans. (71) 7
3
C m + n = 32 + 7 = 39
Sol. a  1  12 5 27. If the shortest distance between the lines
C5
x   y  2 z 1 x2 y5 z4
9
C4   and   is
b  3. 12 3 1 1 3 2 4
C5 44
, then the largest possible value of || is equal
9
C 30
c  3. 12 3
C5 to _______.
Ans. (43)
9
C2
d  1. 12 Sol. a1  ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ
C5
a2  2iˆ  5jˆ  4kˆ
u = 0.a + 1.b + 2.c + 3.d = 1.25
2 = 0.a +1.b + 4.c + 9d – u2 p  3iˆ  ˆj  kˆ

105 q   3iˆ  2ˆj  4kˆ

2 
176
   2  ˆi  7ˆj  3kˆ  a1  a2
Ans. 176 – 105 = 71
p  q   6iˆ  15jˆ  3kˆ
 44 6  12  105  9 30. If the solution y(x) of the given differential

equation (ey + 1) cosx dx + ey sin x dy = 0 passes
30  6    15   32
2 2


  y 
44 6  126 through the point  ,0  , then the value of e  6 
 2 
30 3 30
is equal to ______.
132  6  126 Ans. (3)
 = 1,  = –43 Sol. (ey + 1) cosx dx + ey sinx dy = 0
|| = 43
2

 d e y  1 sin x = 0  
28. Let ,  be roots of x  2x – 8  0 .
U  12U 9
e y

 1 sin x  C
If Un  n  n , then 10
2U8  
It passes through  ,0 
2 
is equal to _______.
Ans. (4) c2

Sol.
10  10  2  9  9   Now, x 
6

2 8  8   ey  3

8 2  2  8 2  2   

2 8  8 
88  88
4

2 8  8 
29. If the system of equations
2x + 7y + z = 3
3x + 2y + 5z = 4
x + y + 32z = –1
has infinitely many solutions, then ( – ) is equal
to ________ :
Ans. (38)
Sol. D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
2 7 3
D3 = 3 2 4  0    39
1  1

2 7 
D 3 2 5  0    1
1 39 32
    38
 PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 33. In finding out refractive index of glass slab the
31. The longest wavelength associated with Paschen following observations were made through
series is : (Given RH =1.097 × 107 SI unit) travelling microscope 50 vernier scale division =
(1) 1.094 × 10–6m (2) 2.973 × 10–6m
49 MSD; 20 divisions on main scale in each cm
(3) 3.646 × 10–6m (4) 1.876 × 10–6m
For mark on paper
Ans. (4)
MSR = 8.45 cm, VC = 26
Sol. For longest wavelength in Paschen's series:
For mark on paper seen through slab
1  1 1 
 R 2  2  MSR = 7.12 cm, VC = 41
  n1 n2 
For powder particle on the top surface of the glass
For longest n1 = 3
n2 = 4 slab
MSR = 4.05 cm, VC = 1
1  1 1 
 R 2  2  (MSR = Main Scale Reading, VC = Vernier
  (3) (4) 
Coincidence)
 R   
1 1 1
  9 16  Refractive index of the glass slab is:
16  9  (1) 1.42 (2) 1.52
 R 
1
  16  9  (3) 1.24 (4) 1.35
16  9 16  9 Ans. (1)
  = 
7R 7  1.097  10 7
Sol. 1 MSD = 1cm = 0.05 cm
 = 1.876 × 10–6 m 20
32. A total of 48 J heat is given to one mole of helium
1 VSD = 49 MSD = 49 ×0.05 cm = 0.049 cm
kept in a cylinder. The temperature of helium 50 50
increases by 2°C. The work done by the gas is : LC = 1MSD – 1VSD = 0.001 cm
(Given, R = 8.3 J K–1mol–1.) For mark on paper, L1 = 8.45 cm + 26 × 0.001 cm
(1) 72.9 J (2) 24.9 J = 84.76 mm
(3) 48 J (4) 23.1 J
For mark on paper through slab, L2 = 7.12 cm +
Ans. (4)
41× 0.001 cm = 71.61 mm
Sol. 1st law of thermodynamics
For powder particle on top surface, ZE = 4.05 cm
Q = U + W
+ 1 × 0.001 cm = 40.51 mm
 +48 = nCvT + W
 actual L1 = 84.76 – 40.51 = 44.25 mm
 48 = (1) 
3R 
 (2) + W actual L2 = 71.61 – 40.51 = 31.10 mm
 2 
 W = 48 – 3 × R L1
L2 

 W = 48 – 3 × (8.3)
L1 44.25
 W  23.1 Joule     1.42
L 2 31.10
34. In the given electromagnetic wave
Sol. Energy = hc ;
–1
Ey = 600 sin (t – kx) Vm , intensity of the 
associated light beam is (in W/m2); (Given 0 = E
1240
eV
9×10–12C2N–1m–2) (nm)
(1) 486 (2) 243 1240
6
(3) 729 (4) 972 (nm)
Ans. (1)
1240
  207nm
Sol. Intensity = 1 0 E 20 c 6
2
37. A car of 800 kg is taking turn on a banked road of
= 1 × 9 ×10–12 × (600)2 × 3 × 108 radius 300 m and angle of banking 30°. If
2
coefficient of static friction is 0.2 then the
= 9 × 36 × 3 = 486 w/m2
2 maximum speed with which car can negotiate the
35. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass
turn safely : (g = 10 m/s2, 3 =1.73)
density, a body weighed 300 N on the surface of
(1) 70.4 m/s (2) 51.4 m/s
earth. How much it would weigh at R/4 depth
under surface of earth ? (3) 264 m/s (4) 102.8 m/s
(1) 75 N (2) 375 N Ans. (2)
(3) 300 N (4) 225 N Sol. m = 800 kg
Ans. (4) r = 300 m
Sol. At surface: mg = 300 N  = 30°
300
m= s = 0.2
gs
 tan    
: gd = gs 1  
R d Vmax  Rg 
At Depth
4  R 1   tan  

g d  gs 1 
R  tan 30  0.2 
= 300  g  
 4R  1  0.2  tan 30 
3gs
gd  0.57  0.2 
4 = 300  10  
 0.2  0.57 
1 
weight at depth = m × gd
3gs Vmax = 51.4 m/s
= m
4 38. Two identical conducting spheres P and S with
3 charge Q on each, repel each other with a force
=  300
4 16N. A third identical uncharged conducting
= 225 N
sphere R is successively brought in contact with
36. The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is
the two spheres. The new force of repulsion
6eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can
between P and S is :
create a hole would be : Given hc = 1242 eV nm.
(1) 407 nm (2) 414 nm (1) 4 N (2) 6 N
(3) 207 nm (4) 103.5 nm (3) 1 N (4) 12 N
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
Sol.
 1  lens  1 1 
Q Q 0 Sol.   1   
f  air   R1 R 2 
P S R
1    1 1 
2     1   
FPS  Q 20  1   15 (30) 
FPS = 16 N
 1 = (–1)  3 
Now If P & R are brought in contact then  30 
20  
Q/2 Q Q/2   –1 = 1
2
P S R
1 3
Now If S & R are brought in contact then   1   1 5
2 2

Q/2 3Q/4 3Q/4 41. Energy of 10 non rigid diatomic molecules at

temperature T is :
P S R
New force between P & S is : (1) 7 RT (2) 70 KBT
2
Q 3Q (3) 35 RT (4) 35 KBT
FPS  
2 4
Ans. (4)
3Q 2 3 Sol. Degree of freedom(f) = 5 + 2(3N – 5)
FPS  =  16  6N
8 8
f = 5 + 2(3 × 2 –1) = 7
39. In a coil, the current changes form –2 A to +2A in
0.2 s and induces an emf of 0.1 V. The self- energy of one molecule = f K B T
2
inductance of the coil is :
energy of 10 molecules
(1) 5 mH (2) 1 mH
= 10  K B T  = 10  K B T  = 35 KBT
f 7
(3) 2.5 mH (4) 4 mH
2  2 
Ans. (1)
42. A body of weight 200 N is suspended form a tree
Sol. (Emf)induced = –L di branch thought a chain of mass 10 kg. The branch
dt
In magnitude form, pulls the chain by a force equal to (if g = 10 m/s2):

di (1) 150 N (2) 300 N

Emfind  (–)L
dt (3) 200 N (4) 100 N
(L)[ 2  (2)] Ans. (2)
 0.1 =
0.2 Sol.
0.1  0.2
 L  5mH T
4
40. For the thin convex lens, the radii of curvature are
at 15 cm and 30 cm respectively. The focal length
total weight
the lens is 20 cm. The refractive index of the = 200+10×10
material is : =300N
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.4 10×10
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8 200N
Ans. (3) Chain block system is in equilibrium so
T = 200 + 100 = 300 N.
43. When UV light of wavelength 300 nm is incident 46. Pressure inside a soap bubble is greater than the
on the metal surface having work function 2.13 eV, pressure outside by an amount :
electron emission takes place. The stopping (given : R = Radius of bubble, S = Surface tension
potential is : (Given hc = 1240 eV nm) of bubble)
(1) 4 V (2) 4.1 V (3) 2 V (4) 1.5 V
(1) 4S (2) 4R
Ans. (3) R S
Sol. hc    e.Vs (3) S (4) 2S
 R R
Ans. (1)
 1240 eV – 2.13 eV = eVs
300 Sol. There are two liquid-air surfaces in bubble so
 4.13 eV – 2.13 eV = eVs.
P  2   
2S 4S
 So, Vs  2volt   R
R
47. Match List-I with List-II
44. The number of electrons flowing per second in the
List-I List-II
filament of a 110 W bulb operating at 220 V is :
(Given e = 1.6 × 10–19 C) (Y vs X) (Shape of Graph)
(1) 31.25 × 1017 (2) 6.25 × 1018 (A) Y = magnetic (I) Y
(3) 6.25 × 1017 (4) 1.25 × 1019 susceptibility
Ans. (1) X = magnetising
Sol. Power (P) = V.I field X
 110 = (220) (I) (B) Y = magnetic (II) Y
 I = 0.5 A field
X = distance
Now, I = n  e X
t from centre of a
current carrying
 0.5 =   (1.6 × 10–19)
n
t wire for x < a
0.5 (where a=radius
 n= of wire)
t 1.6  10 19
(C) Y = magnetic (III)
n
  31.25  1017 field Y
t
X = distance
45. When kinetic energy of a body becomes 36 times X
from centre of a
of its original value, the percentage increase in the
current carrying
momentum of the body will be :
(1) 500% (2) 600% wire for x > a
(3) 6% (4) 60% (where a =
Ans. (1) radius of wire)
P2 (D) Y= magnetic (IV) Y
Sol. Kinetic energy (K) = field inside
2m
solenoid
 P  2mK
X = distance X
If Kf = 36 Ki
So, Pf = 6 Pi from center
Pf  Pi Choose the correct answer from the options given
% increase in momentum =  100% below :
Pi
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
6Pi  Pi (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
=  100%
Pi (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
= 500%
Ans. (4)
Sol. (A) Graph between Magnetic susceptibility and 49. Given below are two statements :
magnetising field is : Statement (I) : Dimensions of specific heat is

Y [L2T–2K–1]
Statement (II) : Dimensions of gas constant is
X
[M L2T–1K–1]
(B) magnetic field due to a current carrying wire
for x a : (1) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II) is
 ir correct
B 0 2
2a (2) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
Y incorrect
(3) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is
X incorrect
(C) magnetic field due to a current carrying wire (4) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are correct
for x a :
 i Ans. (3)
B 0
2a Sol. Q = mST
Y Q
s=
mT

X  ML2 T 2 
[s] =  
(D) magnetic field inside solenoid varies as:  MK 
Y
[s] = [L2 T–2 K–1]
Statement-(I) is correct
X PV
48. In a vernier calliper, when both jaws touch each PV = nRT R=
nT
other, zero of the vernier scale shifts towards left
and its 4th division coincides exactly with a certain [ML1T 2 ][L3 ]
[R] =
division on main scale. If 50 vernier scale divisions [mol][K]
equal to 49 main scale divisions and zero error in [R] = [ML2T–2 mol–1K–1]
the instrument is 0.04 mm then how many main
scale divisions are there in 1 cm ? Statement-II is incorrect
(1) 40 (2) 5 50. A body projected vertically upwards with a certain
(3) 20 (4) 10 speed from the top of a tower reaches the ground in
NTA Ans. (3)
t1. If it is projected vertically downwards from the
Sol. 4th division coincides with 3rd division then same point with the same speed, it reaches the
0.004 cm = 4VSD – 3MSD
49MSD = 50 VSD ground in t2. Time required to reach the ground, if
1 it is dropped from the top of the tower, is :
1MSD = cm
N

 
(1) t1 t 2 (2) t1  t 2
49
0.004 = 4 MSD – 3MSD
50
t1
(3) (4) t1  t 2
0.004 =   3   
196 1 t2
 50  N
Ans. (1)
N = 46  1000  46  1000  230
50 4 200
 u  u 2  2gh 53. A particle moves in a straight line so that its
Sol. t1  displacement x at any time t is given by x2=1 +t2.
g
Its acceleration at any time t is x–n where n =
 u  u 2  2gh _____.
t2 
g Ans. (3)
Sol. x2 = 1 + t2
2gh
t 2x
dx
 2t
g dt
(u 2  2gh)  u 2 2gh 2 xv = t
t1 t 2   2 t
g2 g dv dx
x v 1
dt dt
 t  t1 t 2 x.a+v2 =1
SECTION-B 1  v2 1  t 2 / x2
a= 
51. In Franck-Hertz experiment, the first dip in the x x
1
current-voltage graph for hydrogen is observed at a = 3  x 3
x
10.2 V. The wavelength of light emitted by 54. Three balls of masses 2kg, 4kg and 6kg
hydrogen atom when excited to the first excitation respectively are arranged at centre of the edges of
level is ______ nm. an equilateral triangle of side 2 m. The moment of
(Given hc = 1245 eV nm, e = 1.6 × 10–19C). inertia of the system about an axis through the
Ans. (122) centroid and perpendicular to the plane of triangle,
will be ______ kg m2.
Sol. 10.2 eV = hc Ans. (4)

1245 eV  nm
 = 122.06 nm
10.2eV Sol.
52. For a given series LCR circuit it is found that 2kg r 4kg
c r
maximum current is drawn when value of variable
r
capacitance is 2.5 nF. If resistance of 200 and
6kg
100 mH inductor is being used in the given circuit.
Moment of inertia about C and perpendicular to the
The frequency of ac source is _____ × 103 Hz. plane is :
(given 2 = 10) I = r2 [2 + 4 + 6]
1
Ans. (10) =  12
3
Sol. for maximum current, circuit must be in resonance. I = 4 kg-m2
1 55. A coil having 100 turns, area of 5 × 10–3m2,
f0 
2 L  C carrying current of 1 mA is placed in uniform
magnetic field of 0.20 T such a way that plane of
1
f0  coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The
2 100  10 –3  2.5  10 9 work done in turning the coil through 90° is _____
1 J.
=
2 25  10 11 Ans. (100)
Sol. W = U = Uf – Ui
1
=  10 5  10 Hz W = (–.B)f  (–.B)i
2 5
= 0 + (.B)i
100
=  10 3 Hz = (100 × 5 × 10–3 × 1 × 10–3) × 0.2 J
10
= 1 × 10–4 J = 100 J
f0 = 10 × 103 Hz
56. In the given figure an ammeter A consists of a using small angle approximation sin = 
240 coil connected in parallel to a 10  shunt. 1
=
The reading of the ammeter is ______ mA. 100
140.4 10
 T=

T = 1000N
Change in length L = 2 x 2  L2  2L
A
24V  x2 
= 2L 1  2  1
Ans. (160)  2L 
Sol. x2
L =
140.4 Req L
240  10 stress
= 140.4   Modulus of elasticity =
240  10 strain
240 2400
Req = 140.4 + 10 3
250 2 × 1011 =  2L
x2
24 I Req. = 150 A
L
–4 2
 A = 1 × 10 m
24
 Current in ammeter = 58. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of
150
intensities I and 4I are superimposed. The
= 160 mA
57. A wire of cross sectional area A, modulus of difference between maximum and minimum
elasticity 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and length 2 m is stretched possible intensities in the resulting beam is x I. The
between two vertical rigid supports. When a mass value of x is______.
of 2 kg is suspended at the middle it sags lower Ans. (8)
from its original position making angle   1
   9I
2

100 Sol. Imax = I  4I

radian on the points of support. The value of A is
= I  I
2
_____ × 10–4 m2 (consider x<<L). Imin 4I 
(given : g=10 m/s2)  Imax – Imin = 8I
2L 59. Two open organ pipes of length 60 cm and 90 cm
 resonate at 6th and 5th harmonics respectively. The
x
difference of frequencies for the given modes is
_____ Hz.
(Velocity of sound in air = 333 m/s)
2kg
Ans. (740)
Ans. (1) Sol. The difference in frequency in open organ pipe =
Sol.
nv
2L f
2L

x 6v 5v
T f  
T 2  0.6 2  0.9
v = 333 m/s
20 f = 740 Hz
In vertical derection
2T sin = 20
60. A capacitor of 10 F capacitance whose plates are
separated by 10 mm through air and each plate has
area 4 cm2 is now filled equally with two dielectric
media of K1 = 2, K2 = 3 respectively as shown in
figure. If new force between the plates is 8 N. The
supply voltage is _____ V.

d K1=2 K2=3

NTA Ans. (80)

Sol.

V C1 C2

Ceq = C1 + C2
2 0 A
C1   10F
2d
3 0 A
C2   15F
2d
Ceq = 25 F
Now the charge on C1 = 10V c
C2 = 1.5 V C.
 Q2 
Now force between the plates  F 
 2A 0 

100V2  10 12 225V2  10 12

 8
2  2  10 4 0 2  2  10 4 0
325 V2 = 8 × 4 × 10–4 × 8.85
32  8.85  10 4
V2 =
325
283.2  10 4
 V
325

V  0.93 102
 CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol. Direct NCERT Based
CH3 OCH3 CF3 Cl
61. CH3
64. + NaOH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

The correct arrangement for decreasing order of Consider the above chemical reaction. Product "A" is:
(1) CH3 (2) CH3
electrophilic substitution for above compounds
(1) (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III) OH
OH
(2) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV) OH
(3) (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I) CH3
(3) CH3 (4)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
Ans. (2)
Sol. OH
OMe(+M) CH3(+H/+I) CF3(–I)
Ans. (2)
> > > Sol.

Cl
+ CH3
62. Molality (m) of 3 M aqueous solution of NaCl is: CH3

NaOH/H 2O

(Given : Density of solution = 1.25 g mL–1, Molar S 1
N H
mass in g mol–1 : Na-23, Cl-35.5)
(1) 2.90 m (2) 2.79 m 1,2–(H–shift)
(3) 1.90 m (4) 3.85 m
 CH3
Ans. (2)
Sol. 3 moles are present in 1 litre solution
3  1000
molality = = 2.79 m CH3
1.25  1000  [3  58.5]
OH
63. The incorrect statements regarding enzymes are:
(A) Enzymes are biocatalysts. (Major Product )
(B) Enzymes are non-specific and can catalyse
different kinds of reactions.
(C) Most Enzymes are globular proteins. 65. During the detection of acidic radical present in a
(D) Enzyme - oxidase catalyses the hydrolysis of salt, a student gets a pale yellow precipitate soluble
maltose into glucose. with difficulty in NH4OH solution when sodium
Choose the correct answer from the option given carbonate extract was first acidified with dil. HNO3
and then AgNO3 solution was added. This
below:
indicates presence of:
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D) 2
(1) Br– (2) CO3
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) I– (4) Cl–
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
Sol. Ag+ + I–  AgI Yellow ppt. 69. The major products formed:
+ –
Ag + Cl  AgCl White ppt OCH3
+ –
Ag + Br  AgBr Pale yellow ppt
66. How can an electrochemical cell be converted into 
HNO3 ,H2SO4
 'A' 
Br2 (excess)
Fe
 'B'
an electrolytic cell ?
(1) Applying an external opposite potential greater
0
than E cell A and B respectively are:
(2) Reversing the flow of ions in salt bridge. OCH3 OCH3
NO2 Br NO2
(3) Applying an external opposite potential lower
0 (1) and
than E .
cell

(4) Exchanging the electrodes at anode and

cathode. Br
Ans. (1)
Sol. Applied external potential should be greater than OCH3 OCH3
E 0cell in opposite direction. Br Br
and
67. Arrange the following elements in the increasing (2)
order of number of unpaired electrons in it.
(A) Sc (B) Cr
NO2 NO2
(C) V (D) Ti
(E) Mn
Choose the correct answer from the options given OCH3 OCH3
below: NO2 NO2
(1) (C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D) (3) and
(2) (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
(3) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(4) (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B) Br
Ans. (4)
Sol. Unpaired electron OCH3 OCH3
Sc[Ar] 4s2 3d1 1
Br
Cr[Ar] 4s1 3d5 6 and
V[Ar] 4s2 3d3 3 (4)
Ti : [Ar] 4s2 3d2 2
Mn : [Ar] 4s2 3d5 5 NO2 NO2
68. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
Alkali Metal Emission Wavelength Ans. (2)
in nm OMe OMe
(A) Li (I) 589.2 Sol.
(B) Na (II) 455.5 HNO3–H2SO4
(C) Rb (III) 670.8
(D) Cs (IV) 780.0 NO2 (A)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: OMe OMe
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) Br Br
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) Br2 (Excess)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) Fe
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) NO2 NO2 (B)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Fact Based
70. The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical 73. Identify the product A in the following reaction.
isomers of 2-butene is: NH2
(1) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not A
interconvertible at room temperature.
(2) cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than
trans-2-butene. NH2
OH
(3) trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
(4) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers. (1) (2)
Ans. (2)
OH
Sol. CH3 CH3 H CH3
C=C C=C
H H
NH2 Cl
CH3 H
Cis–but–2–ene Trans–but–2–ene
(Polar) (Non Polar) (3) (4)

Cis–but–2–ene has higher Dipole moment than Cl OH

trans–but–2–ene.
71. Given below are two statements: Ans. (2)
Statement I: PF5 and BrF5 both exhibit sp3d NH2
+ –
N2Cl
hybridisation. Sol. NaNO2+HCl Cu2Cl2
Statement II: Both SF6 and [Co(NH3)6]3+ exhibit
sp3d2 hybridisation.
NO2
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: Cl OH
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
NaOH, 623K, 300 atm
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
H+
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(A)
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans. (3) 74. The correct statements among the following, for a
Sol. "chromatography" purification method is:
Hybridisation Hybridisation
3
(1) Organic compounds run faster than solvent in
PF5 sp d SF6 sp3d2
the thin layer chromatographic plate.
BrF5 sp3d2 [Co(NH3)6]+3 d2sp3
Both Statement (1) and (2) are false. (2) Non-polar compounds are retained at top and
72. The number of ions from the following that are polar compounds come down in column
expected to behave as oxidising agent is: chromatography.
Sn4+, Sn2+, Pb2+, Tl3+, Pb4+, Tl+ (3) Rf of a polar compound is smaller than that of a
(1) 3 (2) 4
non-polar compound.
(3) 1 (4) 2
(4) Rf is an integral value.
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Due to inert pair effect; T+3 and Pb+4 can behave
Sol. Non polar compounds are having higher value of
as oxidising agents.
Rf than polar compound.
75. Evaluate the following statements related to group 77. Consider the given reaction, identify the major
14 elements for their correctness. product P.
(A) Covalent radius decreases down the group
4 (i) LiAlH (ii) PCC (iii) HCN/OH
from C to Pb in a regular manner. CH 3  COOH  "P"
(iv) H2O/OH,
(B) Electronegativity decreases from C to Pb down
the group gradually. (1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(C) Maximum covalence of C is 4 whereas other O
elements can expand their covalence due to
presence of d orbitals. (2) CH3 — CH2 — C — NH2
(D) Heavier elements do not form p-p bonds.
(E) Carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states. O
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) CH3 — C — CH2CH3
below:
(1) (C), (D) and (E) Only (2) (A) and (B) Only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) Only (4) (C) and (D) Only OH
Ans. (1)
(4) CH3 — CH —COOH
Sol. (A) Down the group; radius increases
(B) EN does not decrease gradually from C to Pb.
(C) Correct. Ans. (4)
(D) Correct. Sol. CH3 COOH
LiAlH4
CH3–CH2–OH
(E) Range of oxidation state of carbon ; –4 to +4
PCC
76. Match List-I with the List-II O
List-I List-II
CH3–C–H
Reaction Type of redox reaction
HCN/OH
(A) N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) (I) Decomposition
(B) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) (II) Displacement OH
 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) CH3—C—CN
(C) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) (III) Disproportionation H
 2NaOH(aq.) + H2(g)
H2O/OH , 
(D) 2NO2(g) + 2–OH(aq.) (IV) Combination
 
 NO2(aq.)  NO3(aq.)  H 2O(l) CH3—CH—COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given OH
below:
78. The correct IUPAC name of [PtBr2(PMe3)2] is:
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(1) bis(trimethylphosphine)dibromoplatinum(II)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) bis[bromo(trimethylphosphine)]platinum(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(4) dibromodi(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. A  (IV)
Sol. Dibromo bis(trimethylphosphine) platinum (II)
B  (I)
C  (II)
D  (III)
79. Match List-I with List-II SECTION-B
List-I List-II 81. An amine (X) is prepared by ammonolysis of
Tetrahedral Complex Electronic configuration
2 0 benzyl chloride. On adding p-toluenesulphonyl
(A) TiCl4 (I) e , t 2
4 3 chloride to it the solution remains clear. Molar
(B) [FeO4]2– (II) e , t 2
0 0 mass of the amine (X) formed is______ g mol–1.
(C) [FeCl4] –
(III) e , t 2
2 3 (Given molar mass in gmol–1 C : 12, H : 1, O : 16, N : 14)
(D) [CoCl4]2– (IV) e , t 2
Choose the correct answer from the option given Ans. (287)
below: Sol. CH2Cl
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) NH3
PhCH2 –N–CH2Ph
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (excess) CH2Ph
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (X) (3° amine)
Ans. (4) Molar Mass of (X) is 287 g mol–1
0
TiC4  t 20 82. Consider the following reactions
e0 NiS + HNO3 + HCl  A + NO + S + H2O
VI
FeO42–  A + NH4OH + H3C – C = N – OH
t 20 B + NH4Cl + H2O
H3C – C = N – OH
e2
III The number of protons that do not involve in
FeC41–  t23
hydrogen bonding in the product B is______.
2
e Ans. (12)
II H
CoC42–  t 23 O O

e4 H3C N N CH3
Sol.
C C
KP Sol. B  Ni
80. The ratio for the reaction: C
KC N N=C
1 H3C CH3
CO(g)  O 2(g) CO 2(g) is: O O
2
1/2 H
(1) (RT) (2) RT
1 3NiS + 2HNO3 + 6HCl
(3) 1 (4)
RT  3NiCl2 + 2NO + 3S + 4H2O
Ans. (4) H3C – C = N – OH
1 NiCl2 + 2NH4OH +
Sol. CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g)
2 H3C – C = N – OH
 1 1
ng = 1 –  1   =   NH4Cl + H2O + (B)
 2 2
KP n 1
 (RT) g 
KC RT
83. When 'x' × 10–2 mL methanol (molar mass = 32 g; 85. Number of carbocation from the following that are
density = 0.792 g/cm3) is added to 100 mL
not stabilized by hyperconjugation is……….. .
water (density = 1 g/cm3), the following diagram is
obtained.  +
+ CH3
, (tert.-Butyl) (tert.-Butyl)'
Vapour pressure

+
+
, CH2 – OCH3 ,
+
+
N – CH2

270.65 273.15
Temperature/K  Ans. (5)
x =………………(nearest integer)
[Given: Molal freezing point depression constant Sol. +
C
of water at 273.15 K is 1.86 K kg mol–1]
+ + +
Ans. (543) CH3 CH2–O–CH3
Sol. Tf = 273.15 – 270.65 = 2.5 K
n
Tf = Kf m  2.5 = 1.86 ×
0.1 +
N–CH2
 n = 0.1344 moles
 w = 0.1344 × 32 = 4.3 g
4.3 86. For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B  C. H
Volume = = 5.43 ml = 543 × 10–2 ml
0.792
OC2H5
= 400 kJ mol–1 and S = 0.2 kJ mol–1 K–1. The

reaction will become spontaneous above______ K.

84. 
HNO3 ,H 2SO 4
 P 
2Br2 ,Fe
Q
major
product
major Ans. (2000)
product

Sol. G = 0
The ratio of number of oxygen atoms to bromine
atoms in the product Q is_____ × 10–1. H 400
Ans. (15) T=  = 2000 K
S 0.2
OC2H5 OC2H5
Sol.
87. Total number of species from the following with
HNO3+H2SO4

central atom utilising 2p2 hybrid orbitals for

NO2
bonding is…………. .
2Br2–Fe
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, C2H2, C2H4, BCl3, HCHO,

OC2H5 C6H6, BF3, C2H4Cl2

Br Br
Ans. (6)

NO2
Sol. Central atom utilising sp2 hybrid orbitals

SO2, C2H4, BCl3, HCHO, C6H6, BF3

88. Consider the two different first order reactions 89. For hydrogen atom, energy of an electron in first
given below
excited state is – 3.4 eV, K.E. of the same electron
A + B  C (Reaction 1)
P  Q (Reaction 2) of hydrogen atom is x eV. Value of x is______
The ratio of the half life of Reaction 1 : Reaction 2
is 5 : 2. If t1 and t2 represent the time taken to × 10–1 eV. (Nearest integer)
rd th
complete 2 and 4 of Reaction 1 and Ans. (34)
3 5
  2
Reaction 2, respectively, then the value of the ratio 90. Among VO2 , MnO 4 and Cr2O7 , the spin-only
t1 : t2 is________× 10–1 (nearest integer).
[Given: log10(3) = 0.477 and log10(5) = 0.699] magnetic moment value of the species with least
Ans. (17) oxidising ability is……………….BM (Nearest
(t1/2 ) I K 2 5
Sol.   integer).
(t1/2 ) II K1 2
1 (Given atomic member V = 23, Mn = 25, Cr = 24)
 K1t1 = n = n3
2 Ans. (0)
1
3
1 Sol. For 3d transition series;
K2t2 = n = n5
4 Oxidising power : V+5 < Cr+6 < Mn+7
1
5 V+5 : [Ar] 4s0 3d0
K1 t1 0.477
   Number of unpaired electron = 0
K 2 t 2 0.699
t1 0.477 5 0
   = 1.7 = 17 × 10–1
t 2 0.699 2