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Competishun
52/6, Opposite Metro Mas Hospital, Shipra Path, Mansarovar

Date: 08/05/2024
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 390

BITSAT-FST-2 (2023-24)

Physics
Single Choice Question

Q1 The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown.
We can then assert that

a) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group
and a fifth group impurity respectively
b) Sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth
group impurity.
c) Sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities
while samples Y and Z are undoped
d) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a pentavalent
and a trivalent impurity respectively.

Q2 The charge of a parallel plate capacitor is varying as q = g0 sin (2π ft). The plates are
very large and close together (area= A, separation = d). Neglecting the edge effects,
the displacement current through the capacitor is
a) b) c) 2πrfq 0 cos 2π ft d)

Q3 A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m s–1. The
work done by the force of gravity during the time, the particle goes up is
a) –0.5 J b) –1.25 J c) 1.25 J d) 0.5 J

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Q4 In the figure shown in a Young's double slit experiment, a parallel beam of light is
incident on the slits from a medium of refractive index n1. The wavelength of light in
this medium is λ1. A transparent slab of thickness t and refractive index n3 is put in
front of one slit. The medium between the screen and the plane of the slits is n2. The
phase difference between the light waves reaching point O (symmetrical relative to
the slits) is,

a) b) c) d)

Q5 A body covers first part of its journey with a velocity of 2 m s–1, next part with a
velocity of 3 ms–1 and the rest of the journey with a velocity 6 ms–1. The average
velocity of the body will be

a) 3 ms–1 b)
ms–1 c)
ms–1 d)
ms–1

Q6 The angular separation between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock at 12 :
20 pm is
a) 120° b) 90° c) 110° d) 100°

Q7 A hollow sphere is filled with water through a small hole in it. It is then hung by a
long thread and made to oscillate. As the water slowly flows out of the hole at the
bottom, the period of oscillation will
a) Continuously decrease
b) Continuously increase
c) First decrease and then increase to original value
d) First increase and decrease to original value

Q8 Two wires, one made of copper and other of steel are joined end to end (as shown in
figure). The area of cross section of copper wire is twice that of steel wire. They are
placed under compressive force of magnitudes F. Find the ratio of their lengths such
that change in lengths of both wires are same
(YS = 2 × 1011 N/m2 and YC = 1.1 × 1011 N/m2)

a) 2.1 b) 1.1 c) 1.3 d) 2

Q9 An electric bulb, a capacitor, a battery and a switch are all in series in a circuit. How
does the intensity of light vary when the switch is turn on?
a) Continues to increase gradually
b) Gradually increases for sometime and then becomes steady
c) Sharply rises initially and then gradually decreases
d) Gradually increases for sometime and then gradually decreases

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Q10 Two charges and are placed apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge
is moved along the arc of a circle of radius from to . The change in the
potential energy of the system is , where is

a) b) c) d)

Q11 A block of mass 2 kg, slides on an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 ° with
the horizontal. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is .
What force along the plane, should be applied to the block so that it moves down with
constant velocity?

a) 11.21 b) 4.5 c) 6.7 d) 30.14

Q12 Rate of change of weight near the earth's surface varies with height (h) as
a) h b) h 0 c) h –1 d) h 1/2

Q13 The increase in the width of the depletion region in a junction diode is due to

a) forward bias only b) reverse bias only

c) both forward bias and reverse bias d) increase in forward current

Q14 Infinite springs with force constants, k, 2k, 4k, 8k... are connected in series. The
effective force constant of the springs combination will be,
a) 2k b) k c) d)

Q15 Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having refractive index μ. If c be
the velocity of light in vacuum, time taken by the light to travel through this thickness
of glass is
a) b) c) d) μ tC

Q16 Two pendulums of length 1.69 m and 1.44 m start swinging together. After how many
vibrations will they again start swinging together?
a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

Q17 Which of the following is not a plastic body?

a) Rubber b) Clay c) Plasticine d) Putty

Q18 The binding energy per nucleon for deuterons and helium are 1.1 MeV and
7.0 MeV respectively. The energy released when two deuterons fuse to form a helium
nucleus is:

a) 28 MeV b) 2.2 MeV c) 23.6 MeV d) 18.6 MeV

Q19 The number of turns in a coil of wire of fixed radius is 600 and its self inductance is
108 mH. The self inductance of a coil of 500 turns will be,
a) 74 mH b) 75 mH c) 76 mH d) 77 mH

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Q20 A solid cube of wood of side 2a and mass M is resting on a horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. The cube is free to rotate about a fixed axis AB. A bullet of mass
m(<< M) and speed υ is shot horizontally at the face opposite to ABCD at a height of
from the surface to impart the cube an angular speed ω. It strikes the face and
embeds in the cube. Then ω is close to (note: the moment of inertia of the cube about
an axis perpendicular to the face and passing through the center of mass is .)

a) b) c) d)

Q21 A conductor has been given a charge –3 × 10–7 C by transferring electrons. Mass
increase (in kg) of the conductor and the number of electrons added to the conductor
are, respectively
a) 2 × 10 –16 and 2 × 10 31 b) 5 × 10 –31 and 5 × 10 19
c) 3 × 10 –19 and 9 × 10 16 d) 2 × 10 –18 and 1.8 × 10 12

Q22 Calculate the magnetic moment of a closely wound coil of 200 turns having a radius
15 cm and carrying a current of 4 A.
a) 36.5 A m 2 b) 56.5 A m 2 c) 66.5 A m 2 d) 108 A m 2

Q23 A hollow metallic bob is filled with a liquid. A small hole is drilled just below the
centre of gravity of the bob so that the liquid slowly drops out of it. Water drops out
continuously and the bob gets empty of liquid. In this entire process centre of gravity
a) remains at the centre of the bob throughout.
b) first shifts downwards from the centre of the bob, then upwards and A returns back
to centre when the bob gets completely empty.
c) first shifts upwards from the centre of the bob, then downwards and returns back
to centre when the bob gets completely empty.
d) keeps moving upward and downward periodically.

Q24 The ratio of the weights of a body on Earth's surface to that on the surface of a planet
is 9 : 4 The mass of the planet is th of that of the Earth. If R is the radius of the
Earth, what is the radius of the planet? (Take the planets to have the same mass
density)

a) b) c) d)

Q25 Two identical thin bar magnets each of length 1 and pole strength m are placed at
right angles to each other with north–pole of one touching south-pole of the other,
then the magnetic moment of the system is
a) ml b) 2 ml c) d)

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Q26 In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero deflection. If the batteries A and B have
negligible internal resistance, the value of the resistor R will be

a) 200 Ω b) 100 Ω c) 500 Ω d) 1000 Ω

Q27 In the series LCR circuit shown the impedance is

a) 200 Ω b) 100 Ω c) 300 Ω d) 500 Ω

Q28 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant
angular velocity ω. Two objects, each of mass m, are attached gently to the opposite
ends of a diameter of the ring. The wheel now rotates with an angular velocity
a) ω M/(M + m) b) ω (M – 2m)/(M + 2m)
c) ω M/(M + 2m) d) ω (M + 2m)/M

Q29 A machine, which is 75 % efficient, uses 12 J of energy in lifting up a 1 kg mass

through a certain distance. The mass is then allowed to fall through that distance. The
velocity at the end of its fall is (in ms–1)
a) b) c) d)

Q30 What is the radius of iodine atom? (Atomic no. 53, mass no. 126)
a) 2.5 × 10 –11 m b) 2.5 × 10 –9 m c) 7 × 10 –9 m d) 7 × 10 –6 m

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Chemistry
Single Choice Question

Q31 Activated charcoal has ammonia gas adsorbed on its surface area. The volume (in L )
of 1.415 × 1022 molecules of NH3 gas obtained due to desorption from charcoal
surface at STP is:
a) 0.526 b) 0.426 c) 0.326 d) 0.226

Q32 The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are
a) One sigma (σ) and one pi (π) bond
b) One sigma (σ) and one and half pi (π) bond
c) One sigma (σ) bond
d) One sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bond

Q33 Which of the following statements is incorrect for pair of elements Zr-Hf ?
a) Both possess same number of Valence electrons
b) Both have identical atomic sizes
c) Both have almost identical ionic radii
d) Both of these belong to same period of periodic table

Q34 The decreasing order of the stability of the ions:

a) | > || > ||| b) ||| > || > | c) || > ||| > | d) || > | > |||

Q35 What is Z in the following sequence of reactions?

Zn CH3CI / Dust , KMnO4.
Phenol X Y Z
a) Benzene b) Toluene c) Benzaldehyde d) Benzoic acid

Q36 Among the following compounds, which can give black shiny surface and little bit
smell of ammonia when treated with silver diammine complex in basic ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

a) Only A b) Only B and C

c) A, B, C and D d) Only B, C and D

Q37 Which of the following is tridentate ligand?

a) dien b) trien c) en d) dmg

Q38 Glucose gives positive test with :

a) 2, 4DNP b) Tollen's reagent c) NaHSO3 d) Schif test

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Q39 How many total spheres of constituent particles are present in a BCC type of unit
cell?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 3

Q40 Which of the following is the most stable species?

a) b)

c) d)

Q41 Which of the following is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper
strata of the atmosphere?
a) Chlorine b) Ferrocenes c) Fullerenes d) Freons

Q42 The reduction potentials of Znf Cu, Fe and Ag are in the order:
a) Zn, Cu, Fe, Ag b) Cu, Ag, Fe, Zn c) Ag, Cu, Fe, Zn d) Fe, Zn, Cu, Ag

Q43 Which of the following will have a larger dipole moment?

a) b) c) d)

Q44 Dobereiner's law of triads is not applicable to

a) Li, Na, K b) B, Al, Ga c) Be, Mg, Ca d) Cl, Br, I

Q45 Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reaction with

a) HCHO b) (CH 2 OH) 2 c) CH 3 CHO d) CH3COCH3

Q46 Which of the following is an antihistamine drug?

a) Ciprofloxacin b) Chloroquine
c) Chloramphenicol d) Chlorpheniramine maleate

Q47 The pair acids in which phosphorous atom has a formal oxidation state of +3 is
a) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
b) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids
c) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids
d) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids

Q48 A Racemic mixture is made up of two:

a) Isomeric compounds b) Chiral compounds
c) Meso compounds d) Optical isomers.

Q49 Mass % of carbon in ethanol is

a) 52 b) 13 c) 34 d) 90

Q50 Which of the following has a strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding?

a) CH 4 b) C 2 H 2 c) H 2 O d) C 2 H 6

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Q51 Thermal stability of BaCO3, CaCO3 and MgCO3 is

a) BaCO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO 3 b) BaCO 3 > MgCO 3 > CaCO 3
c) CaCO 3 > MgCO 3 > BaCO 3 d) MgCO 3 > CaCO 3 > BaCO 3

Q52 Which is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen?

a) Protium b) Deuterium c) Tritium d) Hydronium

Q53 The value of n In the reaction,

will be
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 7

Q54 Find out which of the following is always true for a spontaneous change at all
temperature?
a) ΔH > 0; ΔS < 0 b) ΔH < 0; ΔS < 0 c) ΔH < 0; ΔS > 0 d) ΔH > 0 ; ΔS > 0

Q55 What will be the nature of change in internal energy in case of processes shown
below?

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

a) +ve in all cases. b) –ve in all cases.

c) –ve in I and III, and +ve in II and IV. d) Zero in all cases.

Q56 What is the correct order of bond strength for NO, NO+ and NO– ?
a) NO > NO – > NO – b) NO + > NO > NO –
c) NO – > NO > NO + d) NO + > NO – > NO

Q57 Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to the reaction:

Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
If 0.30 mole of Zn is added to hydrochloric acid containing 0. 52 mole of HCl, how
many moles of H2 are produced?
a) 0.26 b) 1.04 c) 0.52 d) 0.13

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Q58

The product is:

a) b)

c) d)

Q59 What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the following
quantum numbers n = 4, m1 = +1 ?
a) 4 b) 15 c) 3 d) 6

Q60 Which of these molecules do not obey the octet rule in any of the important lewis
structures needed, to describe the bonding in the molecule?
(I) NO2 (II) AsCI3 (III) SF4 (IV) CIO3–
(V) C2H4
a) Only III and IV b) Only II and V c) Only IV d) I, III, IV

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English
Single Choice Question

Q61 Read the following passage carefully to answer the given question. Some
words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering the
question.
In this work of incessant and feverish activity, men have little time to think, much less
to consider ideals and objectives. Yet how are we to act, even in the present, unless we
know which way we are going and what our objectives are? It is only problems can be
adequately considered. It is only when the young men and women, who are in the
university that these basic problems can be adequately considered. It is only when the
young men and women, who are in the university today and on whom the burden of
life's problems will fall tomorrow, learn to have clear objectives and standards of
values that there is hope for the next generation. The past generation produced some
great men but as a generation it led the world repeatedly to disaster. Two world wars
are the price that has been paid for the lack of wisdom on man's part in this
generation.
I think that there is always a close and intimate relationship between the end we aim
at and the means adopted to attain it. Even if the end is right but the means are wrong,
it will vitiate the end or divert us in a wrong direction. Means and ends are thus
intimately and inextricably connected and cannot be separated. That, indeed, has been
the lesson of old taught us by many great men in the past, but unfortunately it seldom
remembered.
The two world wars are the price that man paid due to
a) the absence of wisdom and sagacity
b) his not caring to consider the life's problems
c) his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life
d) his excessive involvement in feverish activities

Q62 The following text is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.
Dementia is in the public and political spotlight like never before, as society wakes up
to the fact that it poses one of the greatest threats to the health and wealth of our
country. The numbers are stark: 8,50,000 people in the UK are currently living with
dementia, at an estimated cost of more than £26bn a year. By 2021, 1 million people
will have the condition. In response, there have been many commitments from the UK
government and charities, which include making significantly more funding available
for research.
a) The UK is set to fund the research on Dementia in the country.
b) The UK government has finally realised the extent of damage caused by Dementia
in the country and is ready to wipe it off completely.
c) The UK is gathering more funds in order to deal with Dementia-biggest threat to
the country.
d) The UK government and charities are keen on arranging more funds to conduct
research on Dementia one of the biggest diseases, in terms of cost and number,
faced by the country.
Q63 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical sentence. In
case of more than one blank, the different words given in the options shall fill in the
corresponding order.
William Shakespeare was ____ greatest playwright of his time.
a) a b) an c) the d) three

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Q64 Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option.

I. It helps to rinse one's mouth early morning with a ____ of salt and water.
II. You can always refer to this reference material to find the ____ to these problems.
a) mixture b) answers c) liquid d) solution

Q65 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer-
Sheet.
LIGHT–HEADED
a) Cumbersome b) Expensive c) Profligate d) Serious

Q66 Choose the word or phrase that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word
Jettison (to leave)
a) Abandon b) Strengthen c) Accept d) Modify

Q67 Directions: In the following question, a word is given. Choose the option that is the
most similar or nearest in the meaning to the given word.
Rave
a) Talk wildly b) Influence c) Talk mildly d) Encourage

Q68 Find out the SYNONYM of the word:

GESTICULATION
a) Dynamics b) Notion c) Respite d) Jumble

Q69 Directions: In the question below, a sentence has been given in active/passive voice.
Out of the alternatives suggested, select the one that best expresses the same sentence
in passive/active voice and select that as your answer.
Sahil Sharma makes tea.
a) Tea is made by Sahil Sharma. b) Tea is made by the Sharma.
c) Tea was made by Sharma. d) Tea has made by Sharma.

Q70 Given below is a sentence that may or may not contain an error. The sentence is
divided into four parts– A, B, C and D. In case of an error, mark the option that
contains the error. If there is no error, mark D.
During heavy exercise, (A)/ one get cramps in the legs (B)/ due to the accumulation of
lactic acid (C)/. No error (D)
a) (A) b) (B) c) (C) d) (D)

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Logical Reasoning
Single Choice Question

Q71 In the following question, two words are given. These words are related to each other
in some way. Find out the pair of item with an identical relationship.
Story: Novel
a) Sea : Ocean b) School : University
c) Book : Dictionary d) Poetry : Drama

Q72 Three of the following four are alike and hence form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to the group?
a) Dogs b) Cats c) Goats d) Giraffes

Q73 In each question given below which one number can be placed at the sign of
interrogation?

a) 5 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1

Q74 Which of the following cannot be a number of the series ....

64, 125, 216, 343, 512.....?
a) 8 b) 729 c) 27 d) 999

Q75 Choose the option which is least like the others in the group.
a) Lion: Roar b) Snake: Hiss c) Frog: Bleat d) Bees : Hum

Q76 Identify the odd one out.

a) Carpenter b) Potter c) Mason d) Farmer

Q77 Pointing to a photograph, Sura] said, “His daughter, Shobha, is a granddaughter of my

mother.' Whose photograph was it?
a) Suraj's brother b) Suraj's son
c) Suraj's uncle d) Cannot be determined

Q78 Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says, 'She is the only daughter of the only
daughter of my brother-in-law's father'. How is the woman related to the man?
a) Wife b) Mother c) Daughter d) Niece

Q79 Two positions of the dice has been shown here. Which digit will be at top when 3, is
at bottom ?

a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4

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Q80 Given below are three different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the
face opposite the face bearing 3 dots.

a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) Cannot be determined

Q81 A child runs 25 Feet towards the north, then he turns towards the right and walks 40
Feet. Again he turns right and walks. 45 Feet. Then he turns left and walks. 20 Feet.
Finally, he turns right and walks 20 Feet. The child is in which direction from his
starting point?
a) North b) South c) South-West d) South-East

Q82 I am facing east. Now turn to the right and going 20 m, then turn to the left and going
20 m, then turn to the right and going 20 m, again turn to the right and going 40 m and
finally, I am going 40 m to the right. Now in which direction am I from my original
position?
a) North b) West c) South d) East

Q83 Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q84 In each of the following questions, select the answer figure that will fit in the blank
space in the question figure, maintaining the pattern in the proper sequence.

a) b) c) d)

Q85 In a certain code FIVE is written as GHWD. How is HURT written in that code?
a) IITS b) ITST c) GTSS d) ITQU

Q86 In a certain code, MISCHIEF is written as NKVGMOLN, then how is RELIEVED

written in the code?
a) SGOMJVED b) SFMJFWFE c) SGOMJBLL d) SEOIJVLD

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Q87 Find the value in the place of question mark in the following letter series.
In the given question, which of the letters or group of letters will continue the series?
APZ, CQY, ERX, GSW, ITV, ____
a) KVU b) JVK c) JUV d) KUU

Q88 In the series, you will be looking at a letter pattern. Fill in the blank in the middle of
the series or end of the series.
SCD, TEF, UGH, _____ WKL
(A) CMN (B) UJI (C) VIJ (D) IJI
a) B b) D c) A d) C

Q89 In the following series of images, three of the given images are alike in a certain way.
Choose the one that is different from the others.

a) a b) b c) c d) d

Q90 Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure
matrix.
Question figures

Answer figure:

a) A b) B c) C d) D

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Mathematics
Single Choice Question

Q91 If f(x) is continuous and increasing function such that the domain of
be R and then the domain of

is-
a) R b) {0, 1} c) R – {0, 1} d) R+ – {1}

Q92
The value of is equal to

a) a+b b) a–b c) eab d) 1

Q93 'The function f(x) = [x] cos π, [⋅] denotes the greatest integer function, is
discontinuous at'
a) all x b) all integer points
c) no x d) x which is not an integer

Q94 If the tangent to the curve , x ∈ R, , at a point (α, β) ≠ (0. 0) on it is

parallel to the line 2x + 6y – 11 = 0, then:
a) |2α + 6β| = 19 b) |2α + 6β| = 11 c) |6α + 2β| = 19 d) |6α + 2β| = 9

Q95 The system of equations 2x + 6y + 11 = 0, 6x + 20y – 6z + 3 = 0 and 6y – 18z + 1 = 0

will have:
a) Consistent with unique solution.
b) Consistent with infinitely many solution.
c) Inconsistent.
d) Data insufficient to give the answer.

Q96
Let matrix where x, y ∈ N. If = 332 ⋅ 516, then number of

such matrix A is equal to

a) 46 b) 47 c) 48 d) none of these

Q97 Find the value of α for which Rolle's theorem can be applied in [0, 1], if f(x) = xα log
x and f(0) = 0.
a) –2 b) –1 c) 0 d)

Q98 If sin–1 x + sin–1 y = and cos–1 x – cos–1 y = . Then, (x, y) is equal to

a) (0, 1) b) c) d)

Q99 Find the equation of the curve passing through the point (0, 0) whose differential
equation is y' = ex sin x.
a) 2y = e x (sin x – cos x) + 1 b) 2y = e x (sin x + cos x) – 1
c) 5y = e x (sin x + cos x) – 1 d) None of these

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Q100 The 4th term of a HP is 3/5 and 8th term is 1/3, then its 6th term is
a) b) c) d)

Q101 If α, β are the roots of x2 – x + 1 = 0 then the quadratic equation whose roots area
α2015, β2015 is
a) x 2 – x + 1 = 0 b) x2 + x + 1 = 0 c) x2 + x – 1 = 0 d) x2– x – 1 = 0

Q102 The general solution of the differential equation

= (x3 – 2x tan–1 y) (1 + y2) is–
a) 2tan–1 x = y2 – 1 + 2C b) 2tan–1 y = x2 – 1 + 2C
c) 2tan–1 y = y2 – 1 + 2C d) 2tan–1 x = x2 – 1 + 2C

Q103 A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angle 45° and 120° with the positive x-
axis and the positive y-axis respectively. lf AB makes an acute angle θ with the
positive z-axis, then θ equals
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 75°

Q104 A vector a has components 3p and 1 with respect to a rectangular cartesian system.
This system is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the counter
clockwise sense. If, with respect to new system, a has components p + 1 and , then
a value of p is equal to:
a) 1 b) c) d) -1

Q105 Foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P(2, 3, 4) to the straight line

a) (2 > 6, 18) b) c) d)

Q106 Orthocentre of a triangle whose vertices are (0, 0), (3, 4) and (4, 0) is
a) b) c) (5, –2) d)

Q107 The equation of the directrix of the parabola y2 + 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is

a) x = –1 b) x = 1 c) d)

Q108
The number of solution(s) of the equation z2 = 4z + |z|2 + (z is a complex
number) is/are:
(where z = x + iy, x, y ∈ R, i2 = –1 and x ≠ 2)
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Q109 Find the number of words that can be made by using all the letters of the word
GENIUS if each word neither begins with G nor ends with S, is
a) 24 b) 240 c) 480 d) 504

Q110
The value of , (where [x] represents greatest integral function less
than or equal to x) is 99 λ. Then the value of λ is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

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Q111 f : R → R defined by is:

a) one-one and onto b) one-one and into
c) many-one and onto d) many-one and into

Q112 If the capital letters denotes the cofactors of the corresponding small letters in the
determinant

and then ΔΔ′ equals-

a) 0 b) 2Δ c) Δ3 d) Δ

Q113
If 5f(x) + 3f = x + 2 and y = xf(x) then is equal to-
a) b) c) 1 d) None of these

Q114
Let , then {λ} is equal to
[Note: {⋅} denotes the fractional part of function.]
a) b) c) d)

Q115 Let z 1 and z2 be two roots of the equation z2 + az + b = 0, z being complex. Further,
assume that the origin, z1 and z2 form an equilateral triangle. Then,
a) a 2 = b b) a 2 = 2b c) a 2 = 3b d) a 2 = 4b

Q116 If some three consecutive coefficients in the binomial expansion of (x + 1)n in powers
of x are in the ratio 2 : 15 : 70, then the average of these three coefficients is:
a) 227 b) 964 c) 625 d) 232

Q117 Let A and B are two events such that , and , where A
represents the complement of event . Then, events A and B are
a) mutually exclusive and independent. b) independent but not equally likely.
c) equally likely but not independent. d) equally likely and mutually exclusive.

Q118 The mean of the three numbers is 15. The range of this data is 8 while the difference
between the two smallest numbers is 1. The greatest of the three numbers is:
a) 22 b) 20 c) 18 d) 24

Q119 Which of the following is a contradiction?

a) (p q) ~(p q) b) p (~p q)
c) (p ⇒ q) ⇒ p d) None of these

Q120 If the circles x2 + y2 = 4 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 12 = 0 touch each other, then the equation
of their common tangent at the point, where they touch, is given by
a) y = 2 b) x = 2 c) y = –2 d) None of these

Q121 If y = tan–1 x + cot–1 x + sin–1 x + cos–1 x, then is equal to

a) b) π c) 0 d) 1

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Q122 A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top
of a tree on the opposite bank of the river is 60° and when he retires 40 meters away
from the tree the angle of elevation becomes 30°. The breadth of the river is
a) 40 m b) 30 m c) 20 m d) 60 m

Q123 If

,
then the value of F(1) + F(2) + F(3) is equal to
a) b) c) d)

Q124
lf and g(x) = logex, then the value of the integral is

a) loge e b) loge 2 c) loge 1 d) loge3

Q125
For each positive integer n, let . If , then the
value of [L] (where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x) is _____
a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2

Q126 If the tangents are drawn to the ellipse x2 + 2y2 = 2, then the locus of the mid point of
the intercept made by the tangents between the coordinate axes is
a) b) c) d)

Q127 In how many of the distinct permutations of the letters in MISSISSIPPI do the four I's
not come together?
a) 33810 b) 33180 c) 31830 d) 33018

Q128 Find the maximum value of the function f(x) = 3x3 – 18x2 + 27x – 40 in the set
S = {x ∈ R : x2 + 30 – 11x ≤ 0}
a) 122 b) 222 c) –122 d) –222

Q129 The value of C 0 + 3C1 + 5C2 + 7C3 + … + (2n + 1)Cn is equal to

a) 2 n + n2 n–1 b) 2 n (n + 1) c) 2 –1 d) None of these

Q130 The area of the region (in square units) above the x-axis bounded by the curve y = tan
x, 0 ≤ x ≤ and the tangent to the curve at x = is
a) b) c) d)

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Answer Key
Rankers Academy JEE Best Educational ERP/LMS Solution

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. D C B A A C D B C C

Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. A B B C C C A C B D

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. D B B B C B D C C A

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. A D D D D C A B A A

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. D C B A D D D A C

Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. A C C C D B A D D D

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. A D C D D C A A A B

Que. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. A D B D C D A C D C

Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans. D B D C A C D D D D

Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. C B C C C A D B A B

Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

Ans. A B C D C D D A D B

Que. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

Ans. A C B B D D B B A B

Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

Ans. C C D C C A A A B A

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