GENESIS TUTORIALS ACADEMIC CONFERENCE 2021

PHYSICS JAMB POSSIBLE QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

1.

What is the reading of the vernier scale above?

(a) 1.88cm (b) 1.80cm (c) 1.28cm (d) 1.97mm
2. Which of the following is a fundamental unit?
(a) Newton (b) Watt (c) Joule (d) Second
3.

Two horizontal forces, 10N and 8N and another force F, inclined at 30o to the vertical acting as shown in the diagram above,
keep the body P in equilibrium. The weight of the body is
2 3
(a) N (b) 3 (c) 4 3
N (d) 2 3N
3 3
4. A car moving with a speed of 90kmh-1 was brought uniformly to rest by the application of the brakes in 10s. How far did the
car travel after the brakes were applied?
(a) 125 m (b) 150 m (c) 250 m (d) 15km
5. A particle of mass M which is at rest splits up into two. If the mass and velocity of one of the particles are m and v
respectively, calculate the velocity of the second particle.
(a) mv (b) Mv (c) Mv (d) mv
M M m M m M m
6.

What is the average velocity of the sprinter whose velocity-time graph is shown in the figure above?
(a) 85.0m s-1 (b) 17.0m s-1 (c) 8.5m s-1 (d) 1.7m s-1
7. Which of the following statements are correct about an object in equilibrium under parallel forces?
I The total clockwise moments of the forces about any point equals the total anticlockwise moments about the same point.
II The total forces in one direction equals the total forces in the opposite direction
III The resolved components along the x- axis equals the resolved component along the y-axis.
(a) I and II only (b) I and III only
(c) II and III only (d) I, II and III
8.

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 A force of 5N acts at a point Y on a rod XYZ as shown in the diagram above. If XY is 2m, what is the moment of the force
about point X?
(a) 0Nm (b) 3Nm (c) 7Nm (d) 10Nm.
9. To keep a vehicle moving at a constant speed v, requires power P, from the engine. The force provided by the engine is (a) p
v
(b) 1 (c) Pv (d) p
2v v2
10. A stone of mass m kg is held h meters above the floor for 50s. The work done in joules over the period is
(a) mh (b) mgh (c) mgh (d) 0
50
11. A body of mass 10kg rests on a rough inclined plane whose angle of tilt è is variable. Is gradually increased until the body
starts to slide down the plane at 30o. The coefficient of limiting friction between the body and the plane is
(a) 0.30 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.58 (d) 0.87
12. An inclined plane which makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal has a velocity ratio of
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0.866 (d) 0.50
13. What is the length of the liquid column in a barometer tube that would support an atmospheric pressure of 102000 Nm -2 if
the density of the liquid is 2600kgm-3? [g = 10 ms-2]
(a) 0.75m (b) 0.76m (c) 3.92m (d) 39.23m
14. 40cm3 of liquid is mixed with 60m3 of another liquid Q. If the density of P and Q are 1.00kgm3 and 1.6kgm3 respectively,
what is the density of the mixture?
(a) 0.05 kgm-3 (b) 1.25 kgm-3 (c) 1.30 kgm-3 (d) 1.36 kgm-3
15. The resistances of a platinum wire at the ice and steam points are 0.75Ω and 1.05Ω respectively. Determine the temperature
at which the resistance of the wire is 0.90Ω
(a) 43.0oC (b) 50.0oC (c) 69.9oC (d) 87.0oC
16. A bar of initial length l0 is heated through a temperature change t to a new length l. The linear expansivity, α, of the bar is
(a) l  l0 (b) l  l (c) l0 1  t  (d) l  l0
0
lt l 0 t l 1  t 
17. The pressure of a gas when cooled at constant volume will decrease because the molecules
(a) Collide less frequently with the walls of the container.
(b) Have the same average kinetic energy
(c) Break up into smaller molecules
(d) Decrease in number.
18. 1kg of copper is transferred quickly from boiling water to a block of ice. Calculate the mass of ice melted, neglecting heat
loss. (a) 60g (b) 67g (c) 120g (d) 133g
19. Which of the following conditions will make water boil at a temperature of 100oC when the atmospheric pressure is
750mmHg?
(a) Increase the external pressure
(b) Reduce the external pressure
(c) Heat more rapidly at the same pressure.
(d)Reduce the external pressure by a quarter.
20. Which of the following statements are correct?
I Land and sea breezes are natural convection currents.
II Convection may occur in liquids or gases but not in solids.
III The vacuum in thermos flask prevents heat loss due to convection only.
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
21. A light wave of frequency 5 x 1014Hz moves through water which has a refractive index of 4/3. Calculate the wavelength in
water if the velocity of light in air is
3 x 108ms-1 (a) 4.5 x 10-7m (b) 6.0 x 10-7mn(c) 1.7 x 10-6m
(d) 2.2 x 10-6m

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22. A wave disturbance traveling in air enters a medium in which its velocity is less than that in air. Which of the following
statements is true about the wave in the medium?
(a) Both the frequency of the wave and the wave length are decreased.
(b) The frequency of the wave is decreased while the wavelength is increased.
(c) The frequency of the wave is unaltered while the wavelength is decreased.
(d) The frequency of the wave is decreased while the wavelength is unaltered.
23. Shadows and eclipse result from the
(a) Refraction of light
(b) Rectilinear propagation of light
(c) Diffraction of light
(d) Reflection of light
24. An object which is 3cm high is placed vertically 10cm in front of a concave mirror. If this object produces an image 40cm
from the mirror, the height of the image is
(a) 0.75 cm (b) 4.00 cm (c) 8.00 cm (d) 12.00cm
25. A boy looks at the image of an object in a plane mirror. He observes two images, a main bright one and the other faint. The
observed images result from
(a) Reflection only
(b) Refraction only
(c) Diffraction and interference
(d) Reflection and refraction.
26. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the path of a ray light through a glass prism?

27. What must be the distance between an object and a converging lens of focal length 20cm to produce an erect image two
times the object height?
(a) 20cm (b) 15cm (c) 10cm (d) 5cm
28. Which of the following correctly represents the diagram for locating the image P of an object O in a lens if F is the focal
point of the lens?

(a) I and II only (b) II and III only

(c) III and IV only (d) I and IV only
29. For a short sighted person, light rays from a point on a very distant object is focused
(a) In front of the retina
(b) On the retina by a converging lens
(c) Behind the retina by a diverging lens
(d) In front of the retina a distance 2F from the lens.
30. When light is incident on an object which is magenta in colour, which of the following colours be absorbed?
(a) Red and blue (B) Green only (c) Red and green
(d) Red only.

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31. In a resonance tube experiment, the effective length of the air column for the first resonance is 20cm when set into vibration
by a tuning fork of frequency 480Hz. Neglecting end effect, the velocity of sound in air is
(a) 96ms-1 (b) 255ms-1 (c) 340ms-1 (d) 384ms-1
32. An organ pipe closed at one end is 80cm long. Determine the frequency of the fundamental note assuming that the speed of
sound in air is 340ms-1.
(a) 106Hz (b) 213Hz (c) 318Hz (d) 425Hz
33. A sonometer wire of length 100cm under a tension of 10N, has a frequency of 250Hz. Keeping the length of the wire
constant, the tension is adjusted to produce a new frequency of 350Hz. The new tension is?
(a) 5.1N (b) 7.1N (c) 14.0N (d) 19.6N
34. One of the properties of the earth’s magnetic field is that the
(a) North pole lies in the northern hemisphere
(b) Geographic and magnetic meridians coincide
(c) Earth’s magnetic flux is entirely horizontal at a place where the magnetic vertical dip is zero.
(d) Earth’s magnetic flux is entirely vertical at a place where the magnetic dip is zero.
35. Which of the following statements are true of an insulated charged body carrying a positive charge?
I It contains excess positive charges
II It creates an electric field
III It possesses potential energy
IV It carries electric current.
(a) I and IV only (b) I and II only
(c) I, II and II only (d) I, II, III and IV
36. Which of the following is a vector?
(a) Electric charge(b) Electric field
(c) Electric potential difference
(d) Electric capacitance.
37. Three cells each of e.m.f. 1.5V and an internal resistance of 1.0Ω are connected in parallel across a load resistance at 2.67Ω.
Calculate the current in the load?
(a) 0.26A (b) 0.41A (c) 0.50A (d) 0.79A.
38. When a known standard resistor of 2.0Ω is connected to the 0.0cm end of a meter bridge the balance point is found to be
55.0cm. What is the value of the unknown resistor?
(a) 1.10Ω (b) 1.64Ω (c) 2.44Ω (d) 27.50Ω
39. The total energy required to send a unit positive charge round a complete electrical circuit is the
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential difference
(c) Electromotive force (d) Electrical energy
40. Which of the following graphs of current against voltage illustrates Ohm’s law?

41. Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses?
(a) Low density
(b) High thermal conductivity
(c) Low electrical resistivity
(d) Low melting point.
42. Which of the following is most suitable for protecting the circuit of a 2000W electric iron connected to a 250V mains?
(a) 13A (b) 8A (c) 5A (d) 3A
43. Electrical power is transmitted at a high voltage rather than low voltage because the amount of energy loss is reduced due to
(a) Heat dissipation
(b) Production of eddy currents
(c) Excessive current discharged
(d) Excessive voltage discharged
44. A lamp is rated 240V, 60W. The resistance of the filament is
(a) 960Ω (b) 16Ω (c) 15Ω (d) 4Ω
45. A 0–10mA galvanometer with a coil resistance of 30Ω can be converted to a 0 –10A ammeter by using
(a) 0.03Ω series resistor (b) 0.03Ω shunt resistor

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 (c) 9.99Ω shunt resistor (d) 9.99Ω series resistor
46. The number of neutrons contained in the nucleus of 23892U
is
(a) 92 (b) 146 (c) 238 (d) 330
47. What precaution should a manufacturer take to ensure that energy loss in a transformer is minimized?
(a) The winding of the transformer should be made of high resistance wires.
(b) The core should be made of thin sheets of metal.
(c) No magnetic material should be used to make the core.
(d) The flux linking the primary with the secondary coils should be minimum.
48. A substance has a half-life of 3min. after 6min, the count rate was observed to be 400. What was its count rate at zero time?
(a) 200 (b) 1200 (c) 1600 (d) 2400
49. Which of the following graphs represents a voltage current characteristics curve for a diode?

50. The photocell works on the principle of the

(a) Voltaic cell
(b) Emission of electrons by incident radiation
(c) Emission of protons by incident electrons.
(d) Photographic plate.
51. Which of the following is the most suitable for use as an altimeter?
(a) A mercury barometer
(b) A fortin barometer
(c) A mercury manometer
(d) An aneroid barometer.
52. A body of weight W N rests on a smooth plane inclined at an angle θo to the horizontal. What is the resolved part of the
weight in Newtons along the plane?
(a) W sinθ (b) W cosθ (c) W secθ (d) W tanθ
53. A small metal ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 20ms -1. If the ball took a
total of 6s to reach ground level, determine the height of the tower.
(a) 60m (b) 80m (c) 100m (d) 120m
54. An object moves with uniform speed round a circle. Its acceleration has
(a) Constant magnitude and constant direction.
(b) Constant magnitude and varying direction.
(c) Varying magnitude and constant direction
(d) Varying magnitude and varying direction.
55. A body of mass 100g moving with a velocity of 10.0ms-1 collides with a wall. If after the collision, it moves with a velocity
of 2.0ms-1 in the opposite direction, calculate the change in momentum.
(a) 0.8Ns (b) 1.2Ns (c) 12.0Ns (d) 80.0Ns
56.

Find the tension T1 in the diagram above if the system is in equilibrium.

(a) 200 3N (b) 100 3N (c) 300 3N (d) 100N
[g = 10m s-2]
57. A spring of force constant 1500Nm-1 is acted upon by a constant force of 75N. Calculate the potential energy stored in the
spring.
(a) 1.9J (b) 3.2J (c) 3.8J (d) 5.0J
58. A wheel and axle has radius 80cm and 10cm respectively. If the efficiency of the machine is 0.85, an applied force of 1200N
to the wheel will raise a load of

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 (a) 8.0N (b) 6.8N (c) 8160.0N (d) 9600.0N
59.

A body is under the action of a force F such that the force – displacement graph of the body is semicircular as shown above.
The work done on the body by the force in moving through 24metres is
(a) 36π J (b) 72π J (c) 144π J (d) 288π J
60. A 20kg mass is to be pulled up a slope inclined at 30o to the horizontal. If the efficiency of the plane is 75%, the force
required to pull the load up the plane is
(a) 13.3N (b) 73.5N (c) 133.3N (d) 533.2N
61. The spiral spring of a spring balance is 25.0cm long when 5N hangs on it and 30.0cm long, when the weight is 10N.What is
the length of the spring if the weight is 3N assuming Hooke’s Law is obeyed?
(a) 15.0cm (b) 17.0cm (c) 20.0cm (d) 23.0cm
62. The mass of a stone is 15.0g when completely immersed in water and 10.0g when completely immersed in a liquid of
relative density 2.0. The mass of the stone in air is
(a) 5.0g (b) 12.0g (c) 20.0g (d) 25.0g
63. A pilot records the atmospheric pressure outside his plane as 63cm of Hg while a ground observer records a reading of 75cm
of Hg for the atmospheric pressure on the ground. Assuming that the density of the atmosphere is constant, calculate the
height of the plane above the ground. (Relative density of Hg = 13.0 and that of air = 0.00013)
(a) 12000m (b) 6300m (c) 7500m (d) 13800m
64. In which of the following is surface tension important?
(a) The floating of a ship in water
(b) The floating of a dry needle in water
(c) The floating of a balloon in air
(d) The diffusion of a sugar solution across membrane.
65. A thermometer with an arbitrary scale, S, of equal divisions registers –30oS at the ice point and +90oS at the steam point.
Calculate the Celsius temperature corresponding to 60oS.
(a) 25.0oC (b) 50.0oC (c) 66.7oC (d) 75.0oC
66. A brass rod is 2m long at a certain temperature. What is the length for a temperature rise of 100K, if the expansivity of brass
is 18 x 10-6 K-1?
(a) 2.0036m (b) 2.0018m (b) 2.1800m (d) 2.0360m
67. What is the difference in the amount of heat given out by 4kg of steam and 4kg of water when both are cooled from 100oC
to 80oC? [The specific latent heat of steam is 2,260,000J kg-1, specific heat capacity of water is 4200J kg-1 K-1]
(a) 4,200J (b) 2,260,000J (c) 9,040,000J (d) 9,380,000J
68. The graphs below show the variation of volume (V) against temperature (T) in Kelvin for a given mass of gas at constant
pressure. Which of the graphs depicts the behaviour of an ideal gas?

69. How long does it take a 750W heater to rise the temperature of 1kg to water from 20 oC to 50oC? [Specific heat capacity of
water = 4200J kg-1 K-1]
(a) 84s (b) 112s (c) 168s (d) 280s
70. The saturated vapour pressure of a liquid increases as the
(a) Volume of the liquid increases
(b) Volume of the liquid decreases
(c) Temperature of the liquid decreases
(d) Temperature of the liquid decreases
71. The absolute temperature of a perfect gas is proportional to the average
(a) Potential energy of the molecules

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 (b) Separation between the molecules
(c) Kinetic energy of the molecules
(d) Velocity of the molecules.
72. A room is heated by means of a charcoal fire. An occupant of the room standing away from the fire is warmed mainly by
(a) Convection (b) Radiation (c) Conduction (d) Reflection
73. A boy timed 30 oscillations of a certain pendulum thrice and obtained 1 min. 10s, 1min. 12s and 1 min. 7s respectively. The
mean period of oscillation of the pendulum is
(a) 0.14s (b) 0.43s (c) 2.32s (d) 6.97s
74. Which of the following is TRUE of light and sound waves?
(a) They both transmit energy
(b) They both need a medium for propagation
(c) They are both transverse waves
(d) Their velocities in air are equal.
75. The image in pin-hole camera is
(a) Erect and formed by refraction through a lens
(b) Virtual and formed by dispersion
(c) Erect and gets sharper as the hole becomes larger
(d) Inverted and formed by the light from each point traveling in a straight line
76. When a plane mirror at which a ray is incident is rotated through an angle θ, the reflected ray will be rotated through
(a) ½ θ (b) θ (c) 2θ (d) 3θ
77. A trough 12.0cm deep is filled with water of refractive index 4/3. By how much would a coin at the bottom of the trough
appear to be displaced when viewed vertically from above the water surface?
(a) 3.0cm (b) 6.0cm (c) 9.0cm (d) 16.0cm
78. In a ray diagram for a thin converging lens, a ray that is not parallel to the optic axis but passes through the optic center will
(a) Pass through undeviated
(b) Pass through the center of curvature after refraction
(c) Emerge parallel to the principal axis
(d) Pass through the principal focus after refraction.
79. Which of the following correctly describes the image of an object, 4cm from a diverging lens of focal length –12cm?
(a) The image is virtual, 3cm in front of the lens
(b) The image is real, 6cm behind the lens
(c) The image is virtual, 6cm in front of the lens
(d) The image is real, 3cm in front of the lens.
80. Two tuning forks of frequencies 256Hz and 260Hz are sounded close to each other. What is the frequency of the beats
produced?
(a) 2 Hz (b) 4 Hz (c) 8 Hz (d) 258Hz
81. A man hears his echo from a nearby hill 2s after he shouted. If the frequency of his voice is 260Hz and the wavelength is
1.29m, how far away is the hill?
(a) 330.0m (b) 335.4m (c) 660.0m (d) 670.8m
82. When the bottom tip of a vibrating turning fork held in contact with a wooden box, a louder sound is heard. This
phenomenon is known as
(a) Beats (b) Echoing (c) Resonance (d) Reverberation
83. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the earth’s magnetic field?
(a) The angle of dip is the angle which a free suspended magnet makes with the vertical
(b) The angle of declination is the angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
(c) The angle of declination is the angle which a magnetic compass makes with the magnetic meridian.
(d) The angle of inclination is the difference between the angle of dip and the angle of declination.
84. An insulated rod when rubbed with a material acquires
(a) A negative charge if it is made of glass and rubbed with silk
(b) No charge if it is made of glass and rubbed with fur
(c) No charge if it is made of copper and rubbed with silk
(d) A positive charge if it is made of copper and rubbed with fur.
85.

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 The internal resistance of each of the cells E1 and E2 shown in the figure above is 2Ω. Calculate the total current in the
circuit
(a) 0.80A (b) 0.50A (c) 0.40A (d) 0.004A
86. The function of the system of granulated carbon mixed with manganese (IV) oxide in a Leclanche cell is to
(a) Increase the e.m.f. of the cell to 2.0V
(b) Prevent local action in the cell
(c) Prevent polarization in the cell
(d) Make the cell black and hence a good radiator
87. A moving coil galvanometer of 300Ω resistance gives full scale deflection for 1.0mA. The resistance, R, of the shunt that is
required to convert the galvanometer into a 3.0A ammeter is
(a) 899.70Ω (b) 10.00Ω (c) 0.10Ω (d) 0.01Ω
88. Which of the following obeys Ohm’s Law?
(a) Glass (b) Diode (c) All electrolytes (d) all metals.
89.

The net capacitance in the circuit shown above is

(a) 8.0µF (b) 6.0µF (c) 4.0µF (d) 2.0µF
90.

In the above circuit, the fuse wire melts when

(a) K is opened
(b) K is closed
(c) The 14-Ω resistor is doubled with K closed
(d) The 6-Ω resistor is doubled with K closed.
91. An equipment whose power is 1500W and resistance is 375Ω would draw a current of
(a) 0.10A (b) 2.00A (c) 4.00A (d) 77.5A
92. To convert an alternating current dynamo into a direct current dynamo, the
(a) Number of turns in the coil is increased
(b) Strength of the field magnetic is increased
(c) Slip rings are replaced with a split ring commutator
(d) Coil is wound on a soft iron armature.
93. If a current carrying coil is mounted on a metal frame, the back e.m.f. induced in the coil causes
(a) Inductance (b) Eddy currents
(c) Electromagnetism (d) Dipole moment
94. The electrochemical equivalent of platinum is 5.0x107kgC-1. To plate-out 1.0kg of platinum, a current of 100A must be
passed through an appropriate vessel for

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 (a) 5.6hours (b) 56hours (c) 1.4x104hours (d) 2.0x104 hours.
95. Which of the following statements are TRUE of isotopes?
I Isotopes of an element have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons.
II Isotopes of elements are normally separated using physical properties
III Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons in the nuclei.
(a) I and II only (b) I and III only
(c) II and III only (d) I, II and III.
96. When an atom loses or gains a charge, it becomes
(a) An electron (b) An ion (c) A neutron (d) A proton
97. 4g of a radioactive material of half-life 10 days is spilled on a laboratory floor. How long would it take to disintegrate 3.5g
of the material?
(a) 1¼ days (b) 8¾ days (c) 30 days (d) 80 days.
98. In a nuclear fusion process, four protons each of mass Mp were fused to produce a nucleus X of mass Mx. Which of the
following equations is CORRECT?
(a) 4 Mp > Mx (b) 4 Mp = Mx (c) 4 Mp < Mx (d) Mp = Mx
99. Which of the following are TRUE for á-decay?
I. Mass number decreases by four
II Atomic number decreases by two
III Mass number does not change.
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
100. Which of the following phenomena is called photoelectric effect?
(a) High energy electrons impinge on a metallic anode which then emits photons
(b) A high energy photon emits photons as it is slowed down
(c) A metal absorbs quanta of light and then emits electrons
(d) Two electrons are created from quantum of light.
ANSWERS
1. A
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. No correct option
7. D
8. A
9. A
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. D

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34. C
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. B
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. B
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. B
51. D
52. A
53. A
54. B
55. B
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. B
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. A
64. B
65. D
66. A
67. C
68. A
69. C
70. C
71. C
72. B
73. C
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. A
79. A
80. B
81. B
82. C
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. C
87. C
88. D
89. D
90. B
91. B
92. C
93. B
94. A
95. D
96. B
97. C
98. A
99. A

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 100. C

MEASUREMENT/ UNITS/DIMENSIONS

1. What is the least possible error in using rule graduated in centimetres?

(a) 0.1cm (b) 0.5cm (c) 1.0cm (d) 2.0cm
2. Which of the following represents the correct precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured with a metre rule? (a) 35mm
(b) 35.0mm (c) 35.00mm (d) 35.01mm
3. Which of the following is a fundamental unit?
(a) Newton (b) Watt (c) Joule (d) Second
4. At what respective values of x, y and z would the unit of force, the Newton, be dimensionally equivalent to MxLyTz? (a) -1, 1, 2
(b) 1, 1, -2 (c) 1, -1, 2 (d) -1, 1, -2
5. The external and internal diameters of a tube are measured as (32 ± 2) mm and (21 ± 1) mm respectively. Determine the
percentage error in the thickness of the tube. (a) 27% (b) 14% (c) 9% (d) 3%
6.

What is the reading of the vernier callipers shown above? (a) 1.79cm (b) 1.73cm (c) 1.39cm (d) 1.34cm
7. Which of the following is the dimension of pressure?
(a)ML-1T-2 (b) MLT-2 (c) ML2T-3 (d) ML-3
8. What is the least possible error in using a rule graduated in centimeter? (a) 0.1 (b) 0.5cm (c) 1.0cm (d) 2.0cm
9. Diameter of a small ball bearing
II. Thickness of a piece of paper
III. Diameter of a measuring cylinder
IV. Length of a piece of wire.
Which of the above can be measured using a micrometer screw gauge? (a) I, II and IV only (b) I and II only (c) II
and III only (d) III and IV only
10. Which of the following can be used to measure accurately to three decimal places in centimeters? (a) meter rule (b) rule (c)
vernier caliper (d) micrometer screw gauge (e) none of the above

SPEED, VELOCITY AND ACCELERATION(MOTION)

11. A boy sits in a train moving with uniform speed on a straight track. If from his outstretched palm he gently tosses a coin
vertically upwards, the coin will fall
(a) In front of his palm (b) Behind his palm (c) Beside his palm (d) Into his palm
12. When a ball rolls on a smooth level ground, the motion of its center is (a) translational (b) oscillatory (c) random (d)
rotational
13. If a body move with a constant speed and at the same time undergoes an acceleration, its motion is said to be (a) circular (b)
oscillatory (c) rectilinear (d) rotational
14. A motor vehicle is brought to rest from a speed of 15m/s in 20s. calculate the retardation. (a) 0.75m/s2 (b) 1.33m/s2 (c)
5.00m/s2 (d) 7.50m/s2
15. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration of 6ms-2. What distance does it cover in the third second? (a) 15m
(b) 18m (c) 27m (d) 30m
16. A motor vehicle is brought to rest from a speed of 15 ms-1 in 20 seconds. Calculate the retardation.
(a) 0.75ms-2 (b) 1.33ms-2 (c) 5.00ms-2 (d) 7.50ms-2
17. A boat travels due east at a speed of 40ms-1 across a river flowing due south at 30ms-1. What is the resultant speed of the boat?
(a) 1.3ms-1 (b) 10.0ms-1 (c) 50.0 ms-1 (d) 70.0 ms-1
18. The driver in a motor car, of which the total mass is 800kg and which is travelling at 20ms-1, suddenly observes a stationary dog
in his path 50m ahead. If the car brakes can exert a force of 2000N, what will most likely happen? (a) the car will be able to stop
immediately the driver notices the dog (b) the car will stop 30m after hitting the dog (c) the car will stop 20m in front of the
dog (d) the driver will quickly reverse the car (e) the car will stop 5m beyond the dog
19. The distance x m travelled by a particle in time t seconds is described by the equation
x = 10 + 12t². Find the average speed of the particle between the time interval t =2s and t = 5s.
(a) 60 ms-1 (b) 72 ms-1 (c) 84 ms-1 (d) 108ms-1
20. Two particles X and Y starting from rest cover the same distance. The acceleration of X is twice that of Y. the ratio of the time
taken by X to that taken by Y is (a) ½ (b) 2 (c) 1/ (d) (e) 4

11
 FORCE ACCELERATION/ FRICTION

21.

The acceleration of the system shown above (a) 2ms-2 (b) 4ms-2 (c) 6ms-2 (d) 8ms-2
22. In free fall, a body of mass 1kg drops from a height of 125m from rest in 5s. How long will it take another body of mass 2kg to
fall from rest from the same height? (a) 5s (b) 10s (c) 12s (d) 15s (g = 10ms-2)
23. A 5kg block is released from rest on a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 30o to the horizontal. What is its acceleration down
the plane? (a) 5.0ms-2 (b) 5.8ms-2
(c) 8.7ms-2 (d) 25.0ms-2 [g = 10 ms-2]
24. Which of the following statements are TRUE about frictional force?
I It is always a disadvantage
II It is sometimes a disadvantage
III It always exists where there is a relative motion of two bodies that are in contact.
IV It is sometimes very useful.
(a) I and III only (b) I and IV only (c) II and III only
(d) II and IV only
25. Which of the following statements about friction is NOT correct? (a) The force of kinetic friction is less than the force of static
friction. (b) The force of kinetic friction between two surfaces is independent of the areas in contact provided the normal
reaction is unchanged. (c) The force of rolling friction between two surfaces is less than the force of sliding friction.
(d) The angle of friction is the angle between the normal reaction and the force friction. (e) Friction may be reduced by
lubrication
26. A force, 10N, drags a mass 10kg on a horizontal table with an acceleration of 0.2ms-2. If the acceleration due to gravity is
-2
10ms , the coefficient of friction between the moving mass and the table is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.08 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.80

27.

A mass of 2kg on a surface (µ = ½) is connected to a second mass of 4kg over a frictionless pulley as shown in Fig. 4. If the
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8ms-2 then the masses will (a) accelerate at 4.9ms-2 (b) remain stationary (c)
accelerate at 9.8ms-1 (d) accelerate at 19.6ms-2 (e) acceleration at 39.2ms-2
28. Which of the following statements about friction is not correct? (a) the force of kinetic friction is less than that of static
friction (b) the force of kinetic friction between two surfaces is independent of the areas in contact provided the normal
reaction is unchanged. (c) the force of rolling friction between two surfaces is less than the force of sliding friction. (d) the
angle of friction is the angle between the normal reaction and the force of friction. (e) friction may be reduced by lubrication.
29. A force of 20N, applied parallel to the surface of a horizontal table is just sufficient to make a block of mass 4kg move on the
table. What is the co-efficient of friction between the surfaces of the block and the table? (g = 10ms-2) (a) 0.2 (b) 0.5 (c) 2.0 (d)
5.0 (e) 8.0
30. Calculate the apparent weight loss of a man weighing 70kg in an elevator moving downwards with an acceleration of 1.5ms-2
(g=10ms-2) (a) 595N (b) 581N (c) 105N (d) 686N
SURFACE TENSION

31. Which of the following does NOT cause a reduction of the surface tension of water?(a) soap solution (b) detergent (c) alcohol
(d) camphor (e) greases

12
32. If a beaker is filled with water, it is observed that the surface of the water is not horizontal at the glass-water interface. This
behaviour is due to (a) Friction
(b) Viscosity (c) Surface tension (d) Evaporation
33. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its surface tension (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains constant (d) Increase
then decreases.
34. In which of the following is surface tension important? (a) The floating of a ship in water (b) The floating of a dry needle in water
(c) The floating of a balloon in air (d) The diffusion of a sugar solution across membrane.
35. Mercury forms little balls when it is spilled on a bench because it (a) is very viscous (b) has a high surface tension (c) has a
high density (d) adheres to the bench (e) is a liquid metal
36. A piece of wire gauze can be made to lie on water because
(a) The wire gauze is less dense than water
(b) The water molecules repel the wire gauze upwards.
(c) The water surface has the effect of an elastic thin skin
(d) Of the cohesive forces between the water and the wire gauze molecules.
37. In which of the following is surface tension important?
(a) The floating of a ship in water
(b) The floating of a dry needle in water
(c) The floating of a balloon in air
(d) The diffusion of a sugar solution across membrane.

SCALAR AND VECTOR

38. Which of the following physical quantities is NOT a vector? (a) Velocity (b) work (c) force (d) electric field intensity (e)
magnetic induction
39.

The diagram above shows a uniform wood of weight 200N and length 50m. it is pivoted at one end and suspended by a cord at
the other end at an angle of 30o to the wood. Calculate the tension in the cord if the wood is horizontal. (a) 10N (b) 20N (c)
100N (d) 200N
40.

The value of T in the figure above is

(a) 10.0N (b) 11.8N (c) 20.0N (d) 40.0N

PROJECTILES/PROJECTILE MOTION

41. A stone, Q is thrown with velocity u at an angle of 75o to the horizontal. Another stone R is thrown with the same velocity u but
at an angle of 15o to the horizontal. The ranges covered by the stones will be
(a) Greater for Q (b) Greater for R (c) The same for Q and R (d) Greater for heavier of the stones
42. A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air
resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is (a) 5J (b) 10J (c) 15J
(d) 20J [g = 10ms-2]
43. Two bodies X and Y are projected on the same horizontal plane, with the same initial speed but at angles 30o and 60o
respectively to the horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, the ratio of the range of X to that of Y is (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 3:1 (d) 1:3

EQUILIBRIUM OF FORCES

13
44. The mass of a stone is 15.0g when completely immersed in water and 10.0g when completely immersed in a liquid of relative
density 2.0. The mass of the stone in air is (a) 5.0g (b) 12.0g (c) 20.0g (d) 25.0g
45. A weight of 1000g hangs from a lever 20cm to the right of the fulcrum. At the left is a 500g weight 20cm from the fulcrum. If a
200g weight is Xcm away from the fulcrum, what is the value of X that will make the lever balance? (a) 50cm (b) 20cm (c)
10cm (d) 30cm (d) 70cm
46. Two masses 40g and 60g respectively, are attached firmly to the ends of a light meter rule. The centre of gravity of the system is
(a) at the mid-point of the meter rule (b) 40cm from the lighter mass (c) 40cm from the heavier mass (d) 60cm from the heavier
(e) indeterminate because the meter rule is light
47. An object is acted upon by a system of parallel forces. The condition(s) for static equilibrium of the object is/are that the
I. Algebraic sum of all the moments of the forces about a point of zero
II. Parallel forces must be equal in magnitude & direction
III. Resultant of the parallel forces is zero
(a)I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II (e) II & III
48. A uniform rod PQ of length 1m and mass 2kg is pivoted at the end P. If a load of 14N is placed at the centre of the rod, find the
force that should be applied vertically upwards at Q to maintain the rod in equilibrium horizontally. (a) 68N (b) 28N (c) 17N (d)
7N [g = 10 ms-2]
49. A parachute attains a terminal velocity when (a) Its density is equal to the density of air
(b) The viscous force of the air and the upthrust completely counteract its weight. (c) It expands as a result of reduced external
pressure (d) The viscous force of the is equal to the sum of the weight and upthrust.

CIRCULAR AND SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

50. A simple pendulum, 0.6m long, has a period of 1.5 s. what is the period of a similar pendulum 0.4m long in the same location?
2 3
(a) 1.5 s (b) 1.5 s (c) 2.25 s (d) 1.00 s (e) 2.00 s
3 2
51. A simple pendulum with a period of 2.0s has its length doubled. Its new period is (a) 1.00 s (b) 1.41 s
(a) 0.35 s (d) 2.83 s (e) 4.00 s
52. Which of the following assumptions is made in a simple pendulum experiment? The (a) Suspending string is inextensible (b)
Bob has a finite size (c) Bob has a definite mass (d) Initial angle of oscillation must be large.
53. The relationship between the period T and the length l of a simple pendulum is T = 2π (l/g)1/2. From experimental data of T and
l, one can obtain the following graphs. (i) T vs l (ii) T vs l2 (iii) T2 vs l (iv) T vs (v) log T vs. log l
Which of the graphs are linear (a) all (b) (i) and (ii) only (c) only (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(e) none of them
PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS (ELASTICITY AND CRYSTALLINITY)
54. Amorphous substances have the following properties
I. They are all hydrated
II. They do not have definite shape
III. They are all soluble
Which of the above statements are false? (a) I only (b) I & II only (c) III only (d) II only (e) I, II & III
55. Substances that have the same crystalline shape are said to be (a) amorphous (b) crystalline (c) polymorphous (d) isomorphous
56. A substance that has different crystalline shapes is said to be (a) isomorphous (b) polymorphous (c) prismatic (d) octahedral
57. The spiral spring of a spring balance is 25.0cm long when 5N hangs on it and 30.0cm long, when the weight is 10N.What is the
length of the spring if the weight is 3N assuming Hooke’s Law is obeyed?
(a) 15.0cm (b) 17.0cm (c) 20.0cm (d) 23.0cm
58. A spring of force constant 1500Nm-1 is acted upon by a constant force of 75N. Calculate the potential energy stored in the
spring. (a) 1.9J (b) 3.2J (c) 3.8J (d) 5.0J
59. A force of 15N stretches a spring to a total length of 30cm. An additional force of 10N stretches the spring 5cm further. Find the
natural length of the spring.
(a) 25.0cm (b) 22.5cm (c) 20.0cm (d) 15.0 cm
60. The tendon in a man’s leg is 0.01m long. If a force of 5N stretches the tendon by 2.0 x 10-5m, calculate the strain on the muscle.
(a) 5 x106 (b) 5 x102 (c) 2 x 10-3
(d) 2 x 10-7
LINEAR MOMENTUM

61. A rocket burns fuel at the rate of 10kgs-1 and eject it with a velocity of 5x103ms-1.the thrust exerted by the gas on the rocket is
(a) 2.5 x 107N (b) 5.0 x 104N (c) 5.0 x 102N (d) 2.0 x 10-3N

14
 62. A ball of mass 0.15kg is kicked against a rigid vertical wall with a horizontal velocity of 50ms -1. If it rebounced with a
horizontal velocity of 30ms-1. Calculate the impulse of the ball on the wall.
(a) 3.0Ns (b) 4.5Ns (c) 7.5Ns (d) 12.0Ns
63. An arrow of mass 0.1kg moving with a horizontal velocity of 15ms-1 is shot into a wooden block of mass 0.4kg lying at rest on a
smooth horizontal surface. Their common velocity after impact is
(a) 15.0ms-1 (b) 7.5ms-1 (c) 3.8ms-1 (d) 3.0ms-1
64. A bullet fired at a wooden block of thickness 0.15m manages to penetrate the block. If the mass of the bullet is 0.025kg and the
average resisting force of the wood is 7.5 x 103N, calculate the speed of the bullet just before it hits the wooden block. (a)
450ms-1 (b) 400ms-1
(c) 300ms-1 (d) 250ms-1
65. A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms-1 into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can
move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is (a) 50J (b) 100J (c) 150J (d) 200J

MACHINE

66. A 20kg mass is to be pulled up a slope inclined at 30o to the horizontal. If the efficiency of the plane is 75%, the force required
to pull the load up the plane is (a) 13.3N (b) 73.5N (c) 133.3N (d) 533.2N
67. A wheel and axle has radius 80cm and 10cm respectively. If the efficiency of the machine is 0.85, an applied force of 1200N to
the wheel will raise a load of (a) 8.0N (b) 6.8N (c) 8160.0N (d) 9600.0N
68. In which of the following simple machine is the effort applied between the load and the fulcrum? (a) claw hammer (b) pliers (c)
wheel barrows (d) sugar tong (e) nut crackers
69. Which of the following machines does not apply the lever principle? (a) claw hammer (b) wheel barrow (c) sugar tong (d)
single moving pulley (e) nut cracker
70. Which of the following levers is not in the same class as the others in respect of the locations of the load, the effort and the
fulcrum? (a) pincers (b) see-saw (c) pliers (d) sugar tongs (e) scissors
71. A machine requires 1000J of work to raise a load of 500N through a vertical distance of 1.5m. Calculate the efficiency of the
machine. (a) 80% (b) 75% (c) 50%
(d) 33%

UPTHRUST AND DENSITY

72. A solid of weight 0.600N is totally immersed in oil and water respectively. If the upthrust in oil is 0.210N and the relative
density of oil is 0.875 find the upthrust in water. (a) 0.6000N (b) 0.360N (c) 0.240N
(d) 0.180N.
73. When a ship sails from salt water into fresh water, the fraction of its volume above the water surface will (a) increase (b)
decrease (c) remain the same (d) increase then decrease
74. A ship floating in clear water of density 1050kgm-3 moves to sea water of density 1050kgm-3 where it floats again. The upthrust
on the ship then (a) stay constant (b) decreases (c) increase (d) increases by 0.05 times (e) decrease by 0.05 times
75. A balloon whose volume is 300m3 is filled with hydrogen. If the density of air is 1.3kgm3, find the upthrust on the balloon. (a)
3000N (b) 3800N (c) 3900N (d) 4200N
76. An empty 60 litre petrol tank has a mass of 10kg. Its mass when full of fuel of relative density 0.72 is
(a) 7.2kg (b) 33.2kg (c) 43.2kg (d) 53.2kg

THERMAL EXPANSION

Linear, Area and Cubic Expansivity/

77. A bridge made of steel is 600m long. What is the daily variation in its length if the night-time and day-time temperatures are
10oC and 35oC respectively? The linear expansivity of steel is 0.000012 oC-1.
(a) 0.18cm (b) 1.80cm (c) 18.00cm (d) 1800cm
78. A brass rod is 2m long at a certain temperature. What is the length for a temperature rise of 100K, if the expansivity of brass is
18 x 10-6 K-1? (a) 2.0036m
(b) 2.0018m (b) 2.1800m (d) 2.0360m
79. A brass road is 2m long at a certain temperature. What is the length for a temperature rise of 100K, if the linear expansivity of
brass is 18 x 10-6K-1 (a) 2.0036m (b) 2.0018m (c) 2.1800m (d) 2.0360m

15
 80. A metal rod 800mm is heated from 100C to 950C. if it expands by 1.36mm, the linear expansivity of the metal is (a) 20 x 102K-
1
(b) 2.0 x 10-2K-1 (c) 5.0 x 10-3K-1 (d) 2.0 x 10-5K-1
81. A copper road, 5m long when heated through 10C, expands by 1mm. if a second copper rod, 2.5m long is heated through 5C, by
how much will it expand? (a) 4mm (b) 0.25mm (c) 2mm (d) 0.125mm (e) 0.5mm
82. One of the most important applications of bimetallic strip is found in the construction of?
(a) A thermostat (b) An altimeter (c) A thermocouple
(d) A hygrometer
83. The linear expansivity of brass is 2 x 10-5C-1. If the volume of a piece of brass is 15.00cm3 at 0oC, what is the volume at 100oC?
(a) 16.03cm3 (b) 16.00cm3
(c) 15.09cm3 (d) 15.03cm3

TEMPERATURE MEASUREMENT HEAT ENERGY AND HEAT TRANSFER

Temperature And Measurement

84. Which of the following features does not increase the sensitivity of a liquid in glass thermometer? (a) a large bulb (b) a thick-
walled tube (c) a thin-walled tube (d) a liquid with a high expansivity
85. A temperature of 200C is the same as (a) 360F (b) 680F (c) 11.10F (d) 43.10F
86. The pressure on the gas of a constant volume gas thermometer at the ice point is 325mm of mercury and at the steam point
875mm of mercury. Find the temperature when the pressure of the gas is 490mm of mercury. (a) 30K (b) 243K (c) 300K (d)
303K
87. In what range of temperature is the expansion of water anomalous?
(a) +208oC to +212oC (b) -80oC to -76oC (c) -4oC to 0oC (d) 0oC to +4oC
88. Consider a thick glass tumbler and a thin glass tumbler which are made of the same kind of glass. Some hot liquid is poured into
them. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) the thick tumbler is less likely to crack because it is stronger (b) the thick
tumbler is less likely to crack because it insulates the heat better, glass being a poor conductor of heat (c) both tumblers area
equally likely to crack because they are made of the same kind of glass (d) the thick tumblers is more likely to crack because
uneven expansion persists for a longer time within the thicker glass
89. In the study of physics, temperature and heat are often confused with each other. Which of the following statements correctly
defines these two elements?
(a) temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance (b) heat is a measure of the total
kinetic energy of the molecules in a system (c) different materials require different amounts of heat to cause a given change
in temperature (d) all of the above (e) a and b only

HEAT ENERGY AND HEAT TRANSFER

90. Calculate the temperature change when 500J of heat is supplied to 100g of water (a) 12.10C (b) 2.10C (c) 1.20C (d) 0.10C
91. When 100g of liquid L, at 780C was mixed with Xg of liquid L2 at 500C, the final temperature was 660C. Given that the
specific heat capacity of L2 is half that of L1, find X (a) 50g (b) 100g (c) 150g (d) 200g
92. 200g of water at 900C is mixed with 100g of water at 300C what is the final temperature? (a) 500C (b) 600C (c) 700C (d) 800C
93. A given quantity of heat increases the temperature of 150g of water from 9oC to 15oC and increases the temperature of an equal
volume of oil weighting 100g form 9oC to 25oC. the ratio of the specific heat of oil to that of water is (a)0.36 (b) 0.46 (c)0.56 (d)
0.76 (e) 0.86
94. A thermometer with an arbitrary scale, S, of equal divisions registers –30oS at the ice point and +90oS at the steam point.
Calculate the Celsius temperature corresponding to 60oS. (a) 25.0oC (b) 50.0oC
(c) 66.7oC (d) 75.0oC
95. What is the difference in the amount of heat given out by 4kg of steam and 4kg of water when both are cooled from 100oC to
80oC? [The specific latent heat of steam is 2,260,000J kg-1, specific heat capacity of water is 4200J kg-1 K-1] (a) 4,200J (b)
2,260,000J (c) 9,040,000J (d) 9,380,000J
96. A block of ice floats on water inside a container. If the block of ice gets completely melted, the level of water in the container
will (a) Increase (b)Remain the same (c) Decrease (d) First decrease and then increase.
97. Heat is supplied to a test tube containing 100g of ice at its melting point. The ice melts completely in 1 min. what is the power
rating of the source of heat? (a) 336W (b) 450W (c) 560W (d) 600W (Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336Jg-1)
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

98. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25ms-1 in 20 seconds. The power developed in the energy is
(a) 1.25 x 104W (b) 2.50 x 104 (c) 1.25 x 106W
(d) 2.50 x 106W

16
99. An electric water pump rated 1.5kW, lifts 200kg of water through a vertical height of 6m in 10s. What is the efficiency of the
pump? (a) 90.0% (b) 85.0% (c) 80.0% (d) 65.0% [g = 10ms-2; neglect air resistance]
100. An object is moving with a velocity of 5ms-1. At what height must a similar body be situated to have a potential energy equal
in value with the kinetic energy of the moving body? (g = 10ms-2) (a) 20.0m (b) 1.3m (c) 1.0m (d) 25.0m

17