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25 Years Pyqs

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25 Years Pyqs

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Chapter - 1

Matter in our surrounding

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
(a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases
Soln:
Answer is c) Evaporation, diffusion and expansion of gases
Explanation:
Particles of matter are continuously moving as they possess kinetic energy. When temperature us raised
particles of matter intermix with each other which is called diffusion.
Evaporation means conversion of liquid state into vapour state. When we increase temperature molecules move
and vibrate so quickly that they escape into the atmosphere in the form of vapours.
Increase in temperature causes the molecules move faster this results in expansion of gases.
2. Seema visited a Natural Gas Compressing Unit and found that the gas can be liquefied under specific
conditions of temperature and pressure. While sharing her experience with friends she got confused. Help her
to identify the correct set of conditions
(a) Low temperature, low pressure
(b) High temperature, low pressure
(c) Low temperature, high pressure
(d) High temperature, high pressure
Soln:
Answer is c) Low temperature, high pressure
Explanation:
To compress gas into liquid, low temperature and high pressure is required. Between the particles of gas there is
lot of space. On applying pressure particles get closer and they start attracting each other to form a liquid. Lot of
heat is generated when gas is compresses hence it is necessary to cool it. Cooling lowers the temperature of
compressed gas and helps in liquefying it.
3. The property to flow
is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids
(b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(d) Only liquids are fluids
Soln:
Answer is c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
Explanation:
In gases and liquids intermolecular force of attraction between the particles is less and they facilitate flow of
these states of matter.
4. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
(a) diffusion
(b) transpiration
(c) osmosis
(d) evaporation
Soln:
Answer is d) evaporation
Explanation:
Evaporation of water through pores of earthen pot reduces temperature of immediate surroundings. This makes
the water cool after some time.
Movement of water through plants and evaporation through its aerial parts is called tyranspiration.
Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to area of lower concentration
If molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated
solution into a more concentrated one it is called osmosis.
5. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of ‘forces of attraction’ between their particles.
Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?
(a) Water, air, wind
(b) Air, sugar, oil
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar
(d) Salt, juice, air
Soln:
Answer is c) Oxygen, water, sugar
Explanation:
Intermolecular force of attraction is less in gases than liquid and solid. Solids have higher intermolecular
attraction compared to liquid. In the answer Oxygen is a gas which has lesser intermolecular attraction than
water-a liquid and sugar- a crystalline solid.
6. On converting 25°C, 38°C and 66°C to kelvin scale, the correct sequence of temperature will be
(a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
(b) 298 K, 300 K and 338 K
(c) 273 K, 278 K and 543 K
(d) 298 K, 310 K and 338 K
Soln:
Answer is a) 298 K, 311 K and 339 K
Explanation:
Add 273 to respective temperature to get temperature in kelvin. 25°-298K, 38°-311K, 66°-339K
7. Choose the correct statement of the following
(a) Conversion of solid into vapours without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.
(b) Conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called vaporisation.
(c) Conversion of vapours into solid without passing through the liquid state is called freezing.
(d) Conversion of solid into liquid is called sublimation.
Soln:
Answer is a) Conversion of solid into vapours without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.
Explanation:
 Sublimations is a process in which a solid is converted into vapours without passing through liquid state.
 Vaporisation is a phase transition from liquid to vapours.
 Conversion of liquid to solid at substance’s freezing temperature is called as freezing.
8. The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C, 56°C and 118°C respectively.
Which one of the following correctly represents their boiling points in kelvin scale?
(a) 306 K, 329 K, 391 K
(b) 308 K, 329 K, 392 K
(c) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K
(d) 329 K, 392 K, 308 K
Soln:
Answer is c) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K
Explanation:
Temperature in Celsius can be converted into temperature in kelvin by adding 273 to the Celsius value. Boiling
points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 308 K, 329 K, and 391 K respectively.
9. Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of water
(b) Decrease in temperature of water
(c) Less exposed surface area of water
(d) Adding common salt to water
Soln:
Answer is a) Increase in temperature of water
Explanation:
Increase in temperature of water increase the kinetic energy of the water which will make more particles to
attain enough energy to convert into vapour state. This is how increase in temperature favours evaporation.
On the other hand exposed surface is also responsible for the evaporation. Higher the exposed surface are
higher will be the evaporation.
When common salt is added to water then surface is occupied by the solvent as well as non-volatile solute
particles.
This make the escaping tendency of solvent particles decrease and thus the evaporation of water decreases.
Hence options (b), (c) and (d) will decrease the evaporation of water.
10. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas
(iv)Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Soln:
Answer is c) ii and iii
Explanation
 To increase the intermolecular interaction either volume of Hydrogen gas should be reduced or
container volume should be increase.
 By increasing the pressure or by adding Hydrogen without increasing container volume inter-molecular
interaction would decrease.
 Water under study was found to boil at 102°C at normal temperature and pressure.

Short Answer Questions

11. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102°C at normal temperature and pressure. Is the
water pure? Will this water freeze at 0°C? Comment.
Soln:
Boiling point of pure water is 100 °C and melting point is 0°C at 1 atmospheric pressure. Here the water boils at
102 °C hence it is not a pure water and freezes at temperature below 0°C.
12. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the
beaker as a function of time. Which of the following (Fig. 1.1) would correctly represent the result? Justify
your choice.
Soln:
Answer is d) because at the start of the experiment temperature of the mixture would be zero as water and ice
will be in equilibrium. When students start heating initially latent heat will be utilised to melt the ice. Hence the
temperature did not increase for certain amount of time. When students heat the mixture further the
temperature of the water increases gradually.
13. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Evaporation of a liquid at room temperature leads to a——— effect.
(b) At room temperature the forces of attraction between the particles of solid substances are———than
those which exist in the gaseous state.
(c) The arrangement of particles is less ordered in the ——— state. However, there is no order in the ———
state.
(d) ——— is the change of solid state directly to vapour state without going through the ———state.
(e) The phenomenon of change of a liquid into the gaseous state at any temperature below its boiling point is
called———.
Soln:
a. Cooling
b. Stronger
c. Liquid, gaseous
d. Sublimation, liquid
e. Evaporation
14. Match the physical quantities given in column A to their S I units given in column B:
(A) (B)
(a) Pressure (i) cubic metre
(b) Temperature (ii) kilogram
(c) Density (iii) pascal
(d) Mass (iv) kelvin
(e) Volume (v) kilogram per cubic metre
Soln:
(a) — (iii) The SI unit of pressure is pastor (denoted by P).
(b) — (iv) The SI unit of temperature is -kelvin" (denoted by K).
(c) — (v) The SI unit of density is kilogram per cubic metre (kg/m3).
(d) — (if) The SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg).
(e) — (i) The SI unit of volume is m3.
15. The non S I and S I units of some physical quantities are given in column A and column B respectively.
Match the units belonging to the same physical quantity:
(A) (B)
(a) Degree Celsius (i) kilogram
(b) Centimetre (ii) Pascal
(c) Gram per centimetre cube (iii) metre
(d) Bar (IV) kelvin
(e) Milligram (v) kilogram per metre cube
Soln:
(a) — (iv) Degree Celsius and kelvin are the units of temperature.
(b) — (iii) Centimetre and metre are the units of length.
(c)—(v) Gram per centimetre cube and kilogram per metre cube are the units of density.
(d) — (li) Bar and pascal are the units of pressure.
(e) - (i) Milligram and kilogram are the units of mass.

16. ‘Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion’. Comment.

Soln:
Diffusion in liquids and gases is the movement of particles from low concentration to high
concentration. Osmosis is the movement of particles from the low concentration to high concentration
through the semi permeable membrane. This movement happens due to diffusion. Hence Osmosis is a
special kind of diffusion.
17. Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion
(a) Swelling up of a raisin on keeping in water.
(b) Spreading of virus on sneezing.
(c) Earthworm dying on coming in contact with common salt.
(d) Shrinking of grapes kept in thick sugar syrup.
(e) Preserving pickles in salt.
(f) Spreading of smell of cake being baked throughout the house.
(g) Aquatic animals using oxygen dissolved in water during respiration
Soln:
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d) Osmosis
e) Osmosis
f) Diffusion
g) Diffusion
Explanation:
a) Concentration of water will be more than water concentration in raisin. Hence there is a movement of water
from higher concentration to lower concentration which will make the raisin swell up.

b) Microscopic virus get diffused in air.

c) Because of vary in concentration of water and solute. Water comes out of earthworm body making its cell to
burst causing its death.
d) Thick sugar syrup has more solutes in it than grapes. Hence water moves out of the grapes from higher
concentration to lower concentration hence grapes swell.
e) Salt helps to remove water from the cells and helps to preserve pickles. Pickling is intended to keep out
oxygen. Pickling prevents oxidation of fruits and vegetables through the use of salt. Dry salt forms pickling brine
and absorbs excess moisture from fruits and vegetables through the process of osmosis.
f) Particles containing smell diffuse into air to spread it throughout the house
g) When Aquatic animals breathe dissolved oxygen, oxygen diffuses directly into their blood without any
membrane.
18. Water as ice has a cooling effect, whereas water as steam may cause severe burns. Explain these
observations.
Soln:
Water as ice has less energy and water molecules absorb energy from our body to give cooling effect whereas
steam has high energy and transfers high energy into our body which transforms as heat to cause burns.
19. Alka was making tea in a kettle. Suddenly she felt intense heat from the puff of steam gushing out of the
spout of the kettle. She wondered whether the temperature of the steam was higher than that of the water
boiling in the kettle. Comment.
Steam and the water temperature boiling in the kettle is the same. But the particles of steam have more
energy in the form of latent heat of vaporisation than the particles of water. This energy is released when the
steam condenses to water. Therefore, steam is hotter than the boiling water.
20. A glass tumbler containing hot water is kept in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator (temperature <
0°C). If you could measure the temperature of the content of the tumbler, which of the following graphs
(Fig.1.2) would correctly represent the change in its temperature as a function of time.

Soln:
Graph (a) is the right answer because water will cool initially till its temperature reaches 0 °C. After reaching
freezing point (0 °C) temperature will remain constant till the water becomes ice. After that point temperature
would decrease again.

21. Look at Fig. 1.3 and suggest in which of the vessels A,B, C or D the rate of evaporation will be the highest?
Explain.

Soln:
Answer is C because evaporation increases with increase in the surface area. With increase in wind speed
particles of water vapour will move away hence the rate of evaporation will be the highest.
22.
(a) Conversion of solid to vapour is called sublimation. Name the term used to denote the conversion of
vapour to solid.
(b) Conversion of solid state to liquid state is called fusion; what is meant by latent heat of fusion?
used to denote the conversion of vapour to solid.
Soln:
a) Sublimation is the term used to denote the conversion of vapour to solid.
b) The amount of heat energy released or absorbed when a solid changing to liquid at atmospheric
pressure at its melting point is known as the latent heat of fusion.

Long Answer Questions

23. You are provided with a mixture of naphthalene and ammonium chloride by your teacher. Suggest an
activity to separate them with well labelled diagram.
Soln:
Naphthalene is a non-polar compound which will not dissolve in water. Similarly ammonium chloride is a polar
compound which is soluble in water. Naphthalene is volatile in room temperature whereas ammonium chloride
is volatile in high temperature.
The mixture of Naphthalene and ammonium chloride can be separated by decantation of aqueous mixture.
Naphthalene remains undissolved in water and can be taken out in a funnel. The filtrate of ammonium chloride
can be evaporated to obtain dry ammonium chloride.
24. It is a hot summer day, Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively. Who do you
think would be more comfortable and why?
Soln:
Hot summer leads to lot of sweating. Cotton absorbs lot of moisture whereas Nylon will not absorb the moisture
as efficient as cotton. Hence cotton absorbs the sweat faster that Nylon does. Evaporation of moisture from the
cotton cloth will give a cool feeling, especially when wind flows. Hence It can be concluded that Priyanshi will be
more comfortable in summer days.
25. You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a wash. What
steps would you take to dry it faster?

Soln:
Drying of clothes is due to process of evaporation hence following steps should be taken to dry the shirt faster.
1. Dry the shirt under fan with high speed. With increase in speed of fan water vapour move away with
wind. This decreases water vapour in the surroundings which will increase the evaporation and the shirt
gets dried faster.
2. Spread the shirt on a hanger which will increase surface area. Increase in surface area makes the shirt
dry quickly.
3. Dry the shirt in sunlight. Because of high temperature more water vapour gets kinetic energy to get
converted to vapour. This will fasten the process of evaporation and the shirt gets dried easily.
4. Iron the shirt. Heat increases the speed of vaporization and evaporation. This will make the shirt gets
dried faster.

26. Comment on the following statements:

(a) Evaporation produces cooling.
(b) Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase in humidity.
(c) Sponge though compressible is a solid.
Soln:
a) When liquid evaporates it takes latent heat from the object it touches. This will make the object gets cool.
Hence evaporation causes cooling.
b) When there is increase in the humidity water vapours in the atmosphere will be more. Hence atmosphere will
not take water vapours easily which decreases the process of evaporation.
c) Sponge is a solid because it has definite shape and volume which does not change until you press it. It has
minute pores in which air is filled. When you press air passes out through pores this makes it a compressible
solid.
27. Why does the temperature of a substance remain constant during its melting point or boiling point?
The temperature of a substance remains constant during melting and boiling points till the completion of
melting and boiling because of latent heat of fusion used by the substances. Latent heat of fusion helps to
overcome the force of attraction between particles of solid to change into liquid when they melt. Hence
temperature remains constant.
I the same way during formation of vapours latent heat helps solid substance to convert into gaseous state.
Hence temperature of a substance remain constant at boiling point.
Chapter - 2
Is Matter around Us pure

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following statements are true for pure substances?

(i) Pure substances contain only one kind of particles
(ii) Pure substances may be compounds or mixtures
(iii) Pure substances have the same composition throughout
(iv) Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Soln

Answer is b) (i) and (iii)

2. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called

(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change
(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
d) dissolution and it is a chemical change

Soln:

Answer is c corrosion and it is a chemical change.

Explanation :

Rusting of iron is corrosion and it’s a chemical change because rust is a chemical compound called hydrate iron
oxide Fe2O3. nH2O, iron(III) which is different from elemental iron.
Physical changes are those changes in which substance identity is not changed and it can get back to
its original form ex: water freezing to ice can be melted back to water. Whereas chemical changes are
those in which original substance identity is changed and they cannot be restored to their original form.

On adding solid solute is to the solvent, some solute dissolves and its concentration increases in solution. This
process is known as dissolution.

Crystallization is a process in which Solute particles in solution collide with the solid solute particles to get
separated out of solution.

3. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is

(a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect

(b) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(c) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
Soln:

A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is a heterogeneous colloid and shows Tyndall effect. In a colloidal
solution, the particles are big enough to scatter light. The scattering of light by colloidal particles is known as
Tyndall effect. Colloids are actually heterogeneous in nature though they appear to be homogeneous.
Answer is a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect.

Explanation:

A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect because in a colloidal
solution the particles are big enough to scatter light.

(i) Decaying of wood

(ii) Burning of wood
(iii) Sawing of wood
(iv) Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Soln:

Answer is (a) (i) and (ii)

Explanation

Decaying of wood and burning of wood because there will be change of chemical composition and wood cannot
be restored to its original form.
Sawing of wood and hammering of nail into a piece of wood are physical process where compounds chemical
composition is not changed.
8. Two substances, A and B were made to react to form a third substance, A2B according to the following
reaction 2 A + B → A2 B which of the following statements concerning this reaction are incorrect?

(i) The product A2B shows the properties of substances A and B

(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a compound
(iv) The product so formed is an element

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii),

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Soln:

Answer is (c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:

A2B is a compound made up of two elements A and B in a fixed ratio. The properties of a compound (e.g., A2B)
are entirely different from those of its constituent elements (ie.g A and B). The composition of a compound is
fixed.

9. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P which contains both X and Y X + Y
→ P X and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical reactions. Which of the
following concerning the species X, Y and P are correct?

(i) P is a compound
(ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X and Y
(iv) P has a fixed composition

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii),

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Soln:

Here X and Y cannot be further broken down into simpler substance. Hence X and Y are elements and P can be
broken down to its elements hence P is a compound.

Short Answer Questions

10. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following mixtures.
(a) Mercury and water
(b) Potassium chloride and ammonium chloride
(c) Common salt, water and sand
(d) Kerosene oil, water and salt

Soln:

Answers are a) decantation b) Sublimation c) Filtration and evaporation d) decantation

Explanation

a) Decantation method is used to separate the mixture of Mercury and water. Here Mercury is heavier than
water hence it forms a separate layer which can be easily separated in separating funnel.

a) Potassium chloride and ammonium chloride are separated by sublimation method because ammonium
chloride being a sublimate, sublimes leaving behind the potassium chloride.
b) Common salt, water and sand are separated by filtration and evaporation processes. Common salt, water
and sand are filtrated to separate the sand from salt solution. Then salt solution is heated to evaporate the
water leaving behind salt.
11. Which of the tubes in Fig. 2.1
(a) and (b) will be more effective as a condenser in the distillation apparatus?

Soln:
Answer is tube a

Explanation
Marbles in tube A increases the surface area that comes in contact with vapours. This gives more time for
condensation of vapours hence tube A is an effective condenser than tube B.
12. Salt can be recovered from its solution by evaporation. Suggest some other technique for the same?

Soln:

Answer is crystallization

Explanation:

Salt can be recovered from its solution by crystallization. Crystallization is a more efficient process as it removes
soluble impurities which cannot be done by evaporation.

13. The ‘sea-water’ can be classified as a homogeneous as well as heterogeneous mixture. Comment.
Soln

If we consider the sea water on the surface it comprises water and salts hence it is homogenous mixture. If we
consider the sea water from deep sea it consists of salts, water, mud, decayed plants etc which will be
heterogeneous mixture.

14. While diluting a solution of salt in water, a student by mistake added acetone (boiling point 56°C).
What technique can be employed to get back the acetone? Justify your choice.

Soln:
Distillation can be used to separate acetone from the mixture of salt and water.

Explanation

There is considerable differences in the boiling points of acetone (56°C) and water (100°C). When the solution is
heated acetone evaporates first which can be collected to obtain acetone.

15. What would you observe when

(a) a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60°C is allowed to cool to room temperature.
(b) an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness.
(c) a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly.

Soln:
a) Sodium potassium chloride will separate out from the saturated solution when the temperature of the
solution reduced from 60°C to room temperature. Solubility of the solid state is affected by the changed
temperature.
b) When aqueous sugar solution is heated forst water gets evaporated upto some extent then sugar gets
charred.
c) Iron combines with sulphur and forms iron sulphide (FES).
16. Explain why particles of a colloidal solution do not settle down when left undisturbed, while in the case
of a suspension they do.

Soln:

Size of the particles in suspension is relatively larger than size of the particles in a solution. Moreover in
suspension molecular interaction is weaker to keep the molecules in suspended form. Hence the particles settle
down. Similarly in colloidal solution molecular interaction is strong hence they remain in suspended form.

17. Smoke and fog both are aerosols. In what way are they different?

Soln:

Both smoke and fog have gas as the dispersion medium (continuous phase). But the difference lies in dispersed
phase .Dispersed phase in fog is liquid whereas in smoke it is solid (particulate matter).

18. Classify the following as physical or chemical properties

(a) The composition of a sample of steel is: 98% iron, 1.5% carbon and 0.5% other elements.
(b) Zinc dissolves in hydrochloric acid with the evolution of hydrogen gas.
(c) Metallic sodium is soft enough to be cut with a knife.
(d) Most metal oxides form alkalis on interacting with water.

Soln:

Ans: Physical properties are a) and c). Chemical properties are b) and d)

Explanation
a) Composition of a sample of steel is: 98% iron, 1.5% carbon and 0.5% other elements. It is a chemical
property because no new compound is formed as the steel is an alloy and alloy and is a homogeneous
mixture of two or more metals or of metallic elements with non-metallic elements.
b) It is chemical property because zinc reacts with HCL to give out zinc chloride and Hydrogen gas.
c) Cutting knife will not involve any chemicals reaction and did not form new compound hence it is a
physical property.
d) It is chemical property as new compound is form by the interaction of metal oxides with alkalis.

19. The teacher instructed three students ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ respectively to prepare a 50% (mass by volume)
solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH). ‘A’ dissolved 50g of NaOH in 100 mL of water, ‘B’ dissolved 50g of
NaOH in 100g of water while ‘C’ dissolved 50g of NaOH in water to make 100 mL of solution. Which one
of them has made the desired solution and why?

Soln:

Answer is student C because both B and A has made the solution of 150ml whereas student C prepared required
quantity.
Explanation
Student A and B prepare 150 ml solution, so student c make desire solution because he add water to make 100 ml
solution. and from calculation,

%w/v = 100 × weight of sub (solute)

volume of solution

∴ %50 = 100 × weight of sub

100 ml

weight of sub = 50 ×100 ml

100

∴ weight of sub = 50 g

Here the 50g NaOH requred for 50% w/v 100ml solution of NaOH

20. Name the process associated with the following

(a) Dry ice is kept at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure.
(b) A drop of ink placed on the surface of water contained in a glass spreads throughout the water.
(c) A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the beaker with stirring.
(d) A acetone bottle is left open and the bottle becomes empty.
(e) Milk is churned to separate cream from it.
(f) Settling of sand when a mixture of sand and water is left undisturbed for some time.
(g) Fine beam of light entering through a small hole in a dark room, illuminates the particles in its paths

Soln:

Answers a) sublimation
b) Diffusion
c) Dissolution/ diffusion
d) Evaporation
e) Centrifugation
f) Sedimentation
g) Tyndall effect (Scattering of light)

21. You are given two samples of water labelled as ‘A’ and ‘B’. Sample ‘A’ boils at 100°C and sample ‘B’
boils at 102°C. Which sample of water will not freeze at 0°C? Comment.

Soln:

Answer is sample B
Explanation

Sample B may consists of impurities. At 1 atm boiling point of water is 100°C and freezing point is 0°C. Hence
sample B which will not boil at 102°C will not freeze at 0°C.
22. What are the favourable qualities given to gold when it is alloyed with copper or silver for the purpose
of making ornaments?

Soln:

Pure gold (24) karat) is soft and does not have strength. In order to give strength to gold silver and copper is
alloyed to gold. An alloy that has 20 parts of gold and 4 parts of silver is known as 24 karat gold.

23. An element is sonorous and highly ductile. Under which category would you classify this element? What
other characteristics do you expect the element to possess?

Soln:

An element which is sonorous and highly ductile can be classified as metal. Other characterised than can be
expected are lustre, malleability, heat and electrical conductivity.

24. Give an example each for the mixture having the following characteristics. Suggest a suitable method to
separate the components of these mixtures
(a) A volatile and a non-volatile component.
(b) Two volatile components with appreciable difference in boiling points.
(c) Two immiscible liquids.
(d) One of the components changes directly from solid to gaseous state.
(e) Two or more coloured constituents soluble in some solvent.

Soln:

It will be a pure substance because chemical structure of the sugar remains same despite of change in source of
their extraction.

35. Iron filings and sulphur were mixed together and divided into two parts, ‘A’ and ‘B’. Part ‘A’ was
heated strongly while Part ‘B’ was not heated. Dilute hydrochloric acid was added to both the Parts and
evolution of gas was seen in both the cases. How will you identify the gases evolved?

Soln:

When iron fillings and sulphur is heated it will give following reaction
Fe(s)+S(s) FeS
When HCl is added to this mixture ferric chloride is produces and Hydrogen Sulphide gas is produced. Foul rotten
egg smell of Hydrogen sulphide is the indicator of H2S production.
When dilute HCL is added to setup B Hydrogen gas is evolved and sulphur does not take part in the reaction.
When a burning match stick is brought near the evolved gas, matchstick burns with a pop. This is the indication of
production of Hydrogen gas.

36. A child wanted to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of ink. He marked a line by the ink
on the filter paper and placed the filter paper in a glass containing water as shown in Fig.2.3. The filter
paper was removed when the water moved near the top of the filter paper.
(i) What would you expect to see, if the ink contains three different coloured components?
(ii) Name the technique used by the child.
(iii) Suggest one more application of this technique.

Soln:
(i) If the ink contains three different coloured components then you can observe three different bands on the
paper
(ii) Child uses the
technique of paper
chromatography
(iii) Paper chromatography is used to separate different pigments present in the chlorophyll.

37. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed a
source of light (a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other
side to view the light. They placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as shown in the
Fig.2.4. They were amazed to see that milk taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried the same
activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply passed through it?

(a) Explain why the milk sample was illuminated. Name the phenomenon involved.
(b) Same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.
(c) Can you suggest two more solutions which would show the same effect as shown by the milk solution?

Soln:
(a) Milk is a colloidal substance. Particulate matter present in the milk make the light scatter which results in
Tyndall effect. Because of Tyndall effect the milk got illuminated.
(b) Salt is a homogenous solution. Small particles present in salt solution do not scatter light rays hence there
will be no Tyndall effect. Since salt solution did not exhibit Tyndall effect light is not illuminated.
(c) Detergent solution and sulphur solution exhibit Tyndall effect.
38. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.
(a) Drying of a shirt in the sun.
(b) Rising of hot air over a radiator.
(c) Burning of kerosene in a lantern.
(d) Change in the colour of black tea on adding lemon juice to it.
(e) Churning of milk cream to get butter.

Soln:
a) Drying of shirt in the sun is a physical phenomenon because there are no chemical reaction or any
chemical changed involved in this process.
b) Rising of hot air over radiator is a physical change. Water in a radiator converts to vapours. Hot air
becomes lighter and rises.
c) Burning of kerosene in a lantern is a chemical change because kerosene burns by using atmospheric
oxygen and produces carbon dioxide.
d) Change in the
colour of black
tea on adding lemon juice to it is a chemical change. Lemon juice is a source of citric acid, ascorbic acid
and malic acid. This acid reacts Flavin antioxidants present in black tea to change colour of the tea.

e) Churning of milk cream to get butter is a physical change as there is no involvement of chemical reaction.
Here the principal is of centrifugation which turn the milk cream to butter.

39. During an experiment the students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of sugar in
water. Ramesh dissolved 10g of sugar in 100g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving 10g of sugar
in water to make 100g of the solution. (a) Are the two solutions of the same concentration (b) Compare the
mass % of the two solutions.

Soln:

Mass % = Mass of solute Mass of solute + Mass of solvent ×100

Solution made by Ramesh

Mass % = 10/ 100 +10 x 100 = 10 /110 x100 = 9.09%

Solution made by Sarika Mass % = 10 /100 ×100 = 10%

The solution prepared by Sarika has a higher mass % than that prepared by Ramesh.

40. You are provided with a mixture containing sand, iron filings, ammonium chloride and sodium
chloride. Describe the procedures you would use to separate these constituents from the mixture?

Soln:
a) Using Magnet: Move magnet over the mixture which will result in the sticking of iron fillings to magnet.
Like this iron fillings get separated from mixture.
b) Sublimation: Remaining mixture is heated in a china dish. Ammonium chloride is a sublimating
substance and it will evaporate without passing through liquid phase. Ammonium chloride can be
collecting an inverted funnel over china-dish.
c) Sedimentation, decantation, filtration: Remaining mixture is dissolved in water and allowed to settle
down. Sand will settle at the bottom. Liquid should be decanted to another beaker. Then it is filtered to
remove traces of sand.
d) Filtered solution is heated to evaporate the water. Once all the water gets evaporated salt remains in the
beaker.
41. Arun has prepared 0.01% (by mass) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following
correctly represents the composition of the solutions?
(a) 1.00 g of NaCl + 100g of water
(b) 0.11g of NaCl + 100g of water
(c) 0.0l g of NaCl + 99.99g of water
(d) 0.10 g of NaCl + 99.90g of water

Soln:

Here,

which is equal to the percentage of sodium chloride in water prepared by Arun. So, option (c) is correct.

In option (a), mass% =

42. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20% (mass percent) solution in 100g of
water?
Soln:

In option (b), mass% =

In option (d), mass% =

Hence, other three representations are incorrect.

Chapter - 3
Atoms and Molecules

Multiple Choice Questions

1.Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water?

(i) 2 moles of H20
(ii) 20 moles of water
(iii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of water
(iv) 1.2044×1025 molecules of water

(a) (i)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Soln:
Answer is (d) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Number of moles = Mass of water
Molar mass of water

Number of moles = 360g

12g/mol

Number of moles = 20

Number of molecules = 20 x 6.022 x 1023 = 1.2044 x 1025 molecules of water

Thus, option (d) is correct.

Note: NA = 6.023×1023
Explanation:

1 g of H2 = ½ x NA = 0.5 NA = 0.5 × 6.022 × 1023 = 3.011 × 1023

8. Mass of one atom of oxygen is

(a) 23 16 g 6.023 10 ×
(b) 23 32 g 6.023 10 ×
(c) 23 1 g 6.023 10 ×
(d) 8u

Soln:

Answer is (a) 23 16 g 6.023 10 ×

Explanation:

Mass of one atom of oxygen = Atomic mass/NA = 16/6.023 × 1023 g

Note: NA = 6.023×1023
9. 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18g of water in a beaker. The number of oxygen atoms in the solution
are
(a) 6.68 × 1023 (b) 6.09 × 1022 (c) 6.022 × 1023 (d) 6.022 × 1021

Soln:

Answer is (a) 6.68 × 1023

Explanation:

1 mol of sucrose ( C12H22O11) contains = 11× NA atoms of oxygen, where NA = 6.023×1023

0.01 mol of sucrose (C12 H22 O11) contains = 0.01 × 11 × NA atoms of oxygen
= 0.11× NA atoms of oxygen
= 18 g/(1x2+ 16)gmol-1
=18 g /18 gmol-1
= 1mol
1mol of water (H2O) contains 1×NA atom of oxygen
Total number of oxygen atoms =
Number of oxygen atoms from sucrose + Number of oxygen atoms from water
= 0.11 NA + 1.0 NA = 1.11NA
Number of oxygen atoms in solution = 1.11 × Avogadro’s number
= 1.11 × 6.022 ×10”23 = 6.68 × 1023

10. A change in the physical state can be brought about

(a) only when energy is given to the system
(b) only when energy is taken out from the system
(c) when energy is either given to, or taken out from the system
(d) without any energy change

Soln:

Answer is (c) when energy is either given to, or taken out from the system

Short Answer Questions

11. Which of the following represents a correct chemical formula? Name it.
(a) CaCl
(b) BiPO4
(c) NaSO4
(d) NaS
Soln:

Answer is (b) BiPO4, Its name is Bismuth Phosphate

Explanation:

Bismuth phosphate is right because Both ions are trivalent Bismuth phosphate(Bi3+- Trivalent anion. anion is an
ion that is negatively charged).

12. Write the molecular formulae for the following compounds

(a) Copper (II) bromide

(b) Aluminium (III) nitrate
(c) Calcium (II) phosphate
(d) Iron (III) sulphide
(e) Mercury (II) chloride
(f) Magnesium (II) acetate

Soln:

Answers are
(a) Copper (II) bromide- CuBr2
(b) Aluminium (III) nitrate = Al(NO3)3
(c) Calcium (II) phosphate - Ca3(PO4)2
(d) Iron (III) sulphide - Fe2S3
(e) Mercury (II) chloride - HgCl2
(f) Magnesium (II) acetate- Mg(CH3COO)2

13. Write the molecular formulae of all the compounds that can be formed by the combination of
following ions Cu2+, Na+, Fe3+, C1–SO4 -2 , PO4 -3

Soln:
Answers are
CuCl2/ CuSO4/ Cu3 (PO4) 2
NaCl/ Na2SO4/ Na3 PO4
FeCl3/ Fe2(SO4) 3 / FePO4

14. Write the cations and anions present (if any) in the following compounds
(a) CH3COONa
b) NaCl
(c) H2
(d) NH4NO3
Soln:
a) In CH3COONa-CH3COO is anion and Na is cation.
b) In NaCl-Cl anion Na is cation
c) In H2 both the ions are cations as they share electrovalent bond between them
d) In NH4NO3- NO3 is anion NH4 is cation
15. Give the formulae of the compounds formed from the following sets of elements
(a) Calcium and fluorine
(b) Hydrogen and sulphur
(c) Nitrogen and hydrogen
(d) Carbon and chlorine
(e) Sodium and oxygen
(f) Carbon and oxygen

Soln:

(b) Hydrogen and sulphur- H2S- Hydrogen Sulphide

(c) Nitrogen and hydrogen- NH3- Ammonia
(d) Carbon and chlorine – CCl4- Carbon Tetra chloride
(e) Sodium and oxygen – Na2O-Sodium Oxide
(f) Carbon and oxygen- CO2 ; CO- Carbon-di-oxide; Carbon Monoxide

16. Which of the following symbols of elements are incorrect? Give their correct symbols
(a) Cobalt CO
(b) Carbon c
(c) Aluminium AL
(d) Helium He
(e) Sodium So
Soln:
Cobalt CO is wrong, correct symbol is Co
Carbon c is wrong, correct symbol is C
Alluminium AL is wrong, correct symbol is Al
Helium He is the right symbol
Sodium So is wrong, correct symbol is Na
17. Give the chemical formulae for the following compounds and compute the ratio by mass of the
combining elements in each one of them. (You may use appendix-III).
(a) Ammonia
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Hydrogen chloride
(d) Aluminium fluoride
(e) Magnesium sulphide

Soln:
Sl. No. Compounds Chemical formula Ratio by mass of the
combining elements
(a) Ammonia NH3 N:H=14:3
(b) Carbon monoxide CO C:O= 12:16=3:4
(c) Aluminium fluoride HCl H:Cl= 1:35.5
(d) Aluminium fluoride AlF3 Al:F=27:57=9:19
(e) Magnesium sulphide MgS Mg:S= 24:32=3:4

18. State the number of atoms present in each of the following chemical species
(a) CO3-2
(b) PO4-3
(c) P2 O5
(d) CO

Soln:
(a) CO3-2- 1+3=4
(b) PO4-3 -1+4=5
(c) P2 O5 – 2+5=7
(d) CO – 1+1=2

19. What is the fraction of the mass of water due to neutrons?

Soln:
Mass of 1 mole of a substance is equal to its relative atomic or molecular mass in grams.
Mass of one mole (Avogadro Number) of neutrons =1g
Mass of one neutron = 1/ Avogadro number(NA) g
Mass of one molecule of water = Molar mass / NA = 18/ NA g
The molar mass of water is
18.015 g/mol. This was
calculated by multiplying the atomic weight of hydrogen (1.008) by two and adding the result to the weight
for one oxygen (15.999)
Mass of one molecule of water = Molar mass / NA = 18/ NA g
Avogadro number(NA) =6.022 x 1023mol¯1
There are 8 neutrons in one atom of oxygen
Number of neutrons in oxygen= number of oxygen - Atomic number of oxygen
Oxygen's atomic weight= 15.9994
increases with an increase in temperature.
Therefore the mass is 16
Therefore number of neutrons= 16 - 8 = 8
Mass of one neutron = 1/ Avogadro number(NA) g
Mass of 8 neutrons = 8/ Avogadro number(NA) g
Fraction of mass of water due to neutrons = 8/18 g

20. Does the solubility of a substance change with temperature? Explain with the help of an
example.

Soln:
Solubility is the ability of a solute to get dissolved in 100g solvent. Solubility of a given solute to
dissolve in specific solvent depends on the temperature. With Increase in temperature solubility of
liquids and solids increase. In the same way solubility of gases decreases with increase in temperature.

Ex: Sugar dissolves faster in hot water than in cold water.

21. Classify each of the following on the basis of their atomicity.

(a) F2
(b) NO2
(c) N2O
(d) C2H6
(e) P4
(f) H2O2
(g) P4O10
(H) O3
(i) HCl
(j) CH4
(k) He
(l) Ag
Soln:

a) Monoatomic are inert gases that do not combine and exist as monoatomic gases
b) Diatomic- (a) 2- diatomic- NO2 = 1+ 2 = 3., HCl = 1+ 1 = 2
c) Triatomic-N2O = 2 + 1 = 3., NO2 = 1+ 2 = 3, O3 = 3
d) Tetraatomic- H2O2 = 2 + 2 = 4, P4O10 = 4 + 10 = 14, P4 = 4, CH4 = 1+ 4= 5
e) Octa atomic- C2H6 = 2 + 6 = 8
f) Polyatomic.

22. You are provided with a fine white coloured powder which is either sugar or salt. How would
you identify it without tasting?
To examine if the fine white coloured powder is sugar pr salt we can conduct two experiments.

Soln:
1. Heating: Upon heating sugar melts to liquid form because sucrose has a decomposition point and
melting point at temperatures between 190 to 192 degrees Celsius. This will turn sugar to light brown colour.
Upon heat further sugar gets charred to black colour.

Salt has a melting point of 841 degrees Celsius and 1545.8 degrees Fahrenheit. If we don’t heat it to that
point nothing change is observed.
2. Electric conductivity:
If we dissolve the given substance in water we can check for electric conductivity to check whether the
substance is sugar or salt. If it is salt it conducts electricity. Because salt (NaCl) has positive sodium ions
and negative chloride ions hence salt conducts electricity. But sugar don’t conduct electricity as sugar has
only positive ions.

23. Calculate the number of moles of magnesium present in a magnesium ribbon weighing 12 g.
Molar atomic mass of magnesium is 24g mol–1.
Soln:
Number of moles = weight
atomic weight
= 12 = 0.5 moles
24
Long Answer Questions
24. Verify by calculating that (a) 5 moles of CO2 and 5 moles of H2O do not have the same mass. (b) 240 g
of calcium and 240 g magnesium elements have a mole ratio of 3:5.

Soln:
(a) Molar mass of CO2 =12 + 2 x 16= 12 + 32 = 44 g mol-1
5 moles of CO2 have mass = 44 x 5 = 220 g

Similarly, molar mass of H2O = 2x 1 + 16 = 18 g mol -1

5 moles of H2O have mass =18
x 5 = 90 g

It is verified that 5 moles of CO2 and 5 moles of H2O are not same.
(b) Number of moles = w/ atomic weight
Atomic weight of Ca= 40 amu
Number of moles in 240g Ca metal 240/ 40 = 6
Number of moles in 240g of Mg metal 240/ 24 = 10
Atomic weight of Mg = 24amu
Ratio 6:10

25. Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in the following compounds. (You may use
Appendix-III) (a) CaCO3 (d) C2H5OH (b) MgCl2 (e) NH3 (c) H2SO4 (f) Ca(OH)2

Soln:

a) CaCO3
Ca: C : O × 3
40 : 12 : 16 × 3
40: 12 : 48
10 : 3 : 12

(b) MgCl2
Mg : Cl × 2
24: 35.5 × 2
24: 71

(d) C2H5OH
C×2:H×6:O
12 × 2 : 1 × 6 : 16
24 : 6 : 16
12 : 3 : 8
(e) NH3
N:H×3
14 : 1 × 3
14: 3

(f) Ca(OH)2
Ca : O × 2 : H × 2
40 : 16 × 2 : 1 × 2
40 : 32 : 2
20 : 16 : 1

26. Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates into its ions according to the following
equation. CaCl2 (aq) → Ca2+ (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) Calculate the number of ions obtained from CaCl2
when 222 g of it is dissolved in water.
Soln:
1 mole of calcium chloride = 111g
Therefore 222g of CaCl2 is equivalent to 2 moles of CaCl2
Since 1 formula unit CaCl2 gives 3 ions,
therefore, 1 mol of CaCl2 will give 3 moles of ions 2 moles of CaCl2 would give 3×2=6 moles of ions.
No. of ions = No. of moles of ions × Avogadro number
= 6 × 6.022 ×1023
= 36.132×1023
=3.6132 × 1024 ions

27. The difference in the mass of 100 moles each of sodium atoms and sodium ions is 5.48002 g. Compute
the mass of an electron.

Soln:
Sodium atom and ion differ by one electron. For 100 moles each of sodium atoms and ions there would be a
difference of 100 moles of electrons.
Mass of 100 moles of electrons= 5.48002 g
Mass of 1 mole of electron = 5.48002 / 100 g
Mass of one electron = 5.48002 /100 × 6.022 ×1023
= 9.1 ×1028 g
= 9.1×10-31 kg
28. Cinnabar (HgS) is a prominent ore of mercury. How many grams of mercury are present in 225 g of
pure HgS? Molar mass of Hg and S are 200.6 g mol–1 and 32 g mol–1 respectively.

Soln:
Molar mass of HgS = The molar mass of Hg + the molar mass of S
= 200.6 + 32 = 232.6 g mol–1
1molecule of HgS contains 1 atom of Hg
232.6 g of HgS contains 200.6 g of Hg
Therefore, Mass of Hg in 225 g of HgS = 200.6 X 225 = 194.04g
232.6

29. The mass of one steel screw is 4.11g. Find the mass of one mole of these steel screws. Compare this value
with the mass of the Earth (5.98 × 1024kg). Which one of the two is heavier and by how many times?

Soln:
One mole of screws weigh = 2.475 ×1024g
= 2.475×1021 kg

Mass of the Earth / Mass of 1 mole of screws = 5.98 ×1024 kg

2.475×1021

= 2.4 ×10
Mass of earth is 2.4×103 times the mass of screws
The earth is 2400 times heavier than one mole of screws

30. A sample of Vitamin C is known to contain 2.58 ×1024 oxygen atoms. How many moles of oxygen atoms
are present in the sample?

Soln:

We know,
1 mole = 6.022 x 1023
The number of moles= Given number of particles
Avogadro Number

n= 2.58x1024
6.022x1023

n= 4.28 mol

31. Raunak took 5 moles of carbon atoms in a container and Krish also took 5 moles of sodium atoms in
another container of same weight.
(a) Whose container is heavier?
(b) Whose container has more number of atoms?
Soln:

a) Mass of sodium atoms carried by Krish = (5 ×23) g = 115 g

Atomic weight of Na = 23
While mass of carbon atom carried by Raunak = (5 ×12) g = 60g

b) Thus, Krish’s container has more number of atoms

32. Fill in the missing data in the Table 3.1

Species H2O CO2 Na atom MgCl2
property

No of Moles 2 - - 0.5

No of particles - 3.011x1023 - 0

Mass 36g - 115g 0

Soln:

Species property H2O CO2 Na atom MgCl2

No of Moles 2 0.5 5 0.5

No of particles 12.044x1024 3.011x1023 3.011x1023 3.011x1023

Mass 36g 22g 115g 47.5g

33. The visible universe is estimated to contain 1022 stars. How many moles of stars are present in the
visible universe?

Soln:
Number of moles of stars = 1022
6.023 ×1023
= 0.0166 moles

34. What is the SI prefix for each of the following multiples and submultiples of a unit?
(a) 103
(b) 10–1
(c) 10–2
(d) 10–6
(e) 10–9
(f) 10–12
Soln:
a) 103 = 1000= kilo
(b) 10–1 =1/10= 0.1= deci
(c) 10–2 =1/100 = 0.01= centi
(d) 10–6 = 0.000 001= micro
(e) 10–9 =0.000 000 001 = nano
(f) 10–12=0.000 000 000 001 = pico

35. Express each of the following in kilograms

(a) 5.84×10-3 mg
(b) 58.34 g
(c) 0.584g
(d) 5.873×10-21g

Soln:
(a) 5.84 × 10–3 mg = 5.84 ×10–9 kg
(b) 58.34 g =5.834 ×10–2 kg
(c) 0.584g =5.84 ×10–4 kg
(d) 5.873×10-21g=5.873 ×10–24 kg

36. Compute the difference in masses of 103 moles each of magnesium atoms and magnesium ions.
(Mass of an electron = 9.1×10–31 kg)

100
Number of moles of gold=mass of gold
atomic mass of gold
= 0.9
197
= 0.0046

One mole of gold contains NA atoms = 6.022×103

Therefore, 0.0046 mole of gold will contain= 0.0046 × 6.022

=2.77×1021

40. What are ionic and molecular compounds? Give examples.

Soln:

While forming some compounds, atoms gain or lose electrons, and form electrically charged particles called ions.
Compounds that are formed by the attraction of cations and anions are called as ionic compounds.
Ex : 2Na + Cl2 → 2Na+ Cl- → 2NaCl (sodium chloride- common salt.)
Sodium is a group 1 metal, thus forms a +1 charged cation. Chlorine is a non-metal, and has the ability to form a -
1 charged anion.

Compounds formed due to bonding of uncharged ions are called as molecular compounds and the bonding
between them is called covalent bonding. Molecular compounds are formed by sharing of electrons between the
two atoms and the elements are held together by covalent bonds.
Ex: 2C + O2 → 2CO ( Carbon monoxide)

41. Compute the difference in masses of one mole each of aluminium atoms and one mole of its ions. (Mass
of an electron is 9.1×10–28 g). Which one is heavier?

Soln:

Mass of one mole of Aluminium atom = {13 × mass of each electron + 13 × mass of each proton + 14 × mass of
each neutron} × Avogadro's constant.
We know, if atoms convert into ions, only transfer of electrons takes place, in Al+3 ion, Aluminium atom loss
three electrons,
So,
Mass of Al+3 ={10× mass of each electron +13 × mass of each proton + 14 × mass of each neutron} Avogadro's
constant
Now,
You see mass of aluminium atom is greater than aluminium ion by 3 electrons
Difference in mass =Mass of Aluminium atom -mass of aluminium ion
= 3 × mass of each electron x Avogadro's constant .
= 3 × 9.1 × 10-28x 6.023 x 1023
=27.3 x 10-28 x 6.023 x 1023 g
=164.4 x 10-5 g
= 1.644 x 10-3 g
= 0.0016 g

42. A silver ornament of mass ‘m’ gram is polished with gold equivalent to 1% of the mass of silver.
Compute the ratio of the number of atoms of gold and silver in the ornament.

Soln:
Mass of silver = m g
Mass of gold = m /100g
Number of atoms of silver = Mass/ Atomic mass X NA
= m /108NA Number of atoms of gold
= m/ 100 X197
Ratio of number of atoms of gold to silver = Au : Ag
= m/ 100 X 197 X NA : m/ 108 NA
= 108 : 100×197
= 108 : 19700 =
1 : 182.41

43. A sample of ethane (C2H6) gas has the same mass as 1.5 ×1020 molecules of methane (CH4). How many
C2H6 molecules does the sample of gas contain?

Soln:

6.02 x 1023 molecules of methane = 1 mole

Hence 1.5 x 1020 molecules of methane = (1.5 x 1020 x 1) ÷ (6.02 x 1023) moles
= 2.49 x 10 -4 moles
Molar mass of Methane (CH4) = 12 + 1x4 = 16 g
Mass of methane = molar mass x no. of moles = 16 x 2.49 x 10 -4 = 3.984 x 10-3 g (This is the same mass as
Ethane)
Ethane (C2H6) = 12x2 + 1x6 = 30
If 30 g of Ethane has 6.02 x 1023 molecules
So 3.984 x 10 -3 g = (3.984 x 10-3 x 6.02 x 1023) ÷ 30
= 8 x 1019 molecules of Ethane

44. Fill in the blanks

(a) In a chemical reaction, the sum of the masses of the reactants and products remains unchanged. This is
called ————.
(b) A group of atoms carrying a fixed charge on them is called ————.
(c) The formula unit mass of Ca3 (PO4) 2 is ————.
(d) Formula of sodium carbonate is ———— and that of ammonium sulphate is ————.

Soln:

Answers
a) Law of conservation of mass
b) Ions
c) 310

Explanation
3 × atomic mass of Ca+ 2 × atomic mass of phosphorus + 8 × atomic mass of oxygen) = 310

3 × 40 + 2 × 31 + 8 × 16 = 120 + 62 + 128 = 310

d) Na2 CO3 and (NH4) 2 SO4
45. Complete the following crossword puzzle (Fig. 3.1) by using the name of the chemical elements. Use the
data given in Table 3.2.
Across Down
The element used by Rutherford during his A white lustrous metal used for making
α–scattering experiment ornaments and which tends to get tarnished
black in the presence of moist air
An element which forms rust on exposure to Both brass and bronze are alloys of the
moist air element
A very reactive non–metal stored under The metal which exists in the liquid state at
water room temperature
Zinc metal when treated with dilute An element with symbol Pb
hydrochloric acid produces a gas of this
element which when tested with burning
splinter produces a pop sound.
Soln:
46. (a) In this crossword puzzle (Fig 3.2), names of 11 elements are hidden. Symbols of these are given
below. Complete the puzzle. 1. Cl 7. He 2. H 8. F 3. Ar 9. Kr 4. O 10. Rn 5. Xe 11. Ne 6. N

Soln:

b) Six : Helium (He); Neon ( Ne); Argon (Ar); Krypton (Kr); Xenon (Xe); Radon (Rn).
47. Write the formulae for the following and calculate the molecular mass for each one of them.
(a) Caustic potash
(b) Baking powder
(c) Lime stone
(d) Caustic soda
(e) Ethanol
(f) Common salt

Soln:

The formulae for the following and calculate the molecular mass for each one of them.

Sl No Compound Formula Molecular mass

A Caustic Potash KOH 39+16+1=56u
B Baking powder NaHCO3 23+1+12+3x16+84u
C Lime stone CaCO3 40+12+3x16+100u
D Caustic soda NaOH 23+16+1+40u
E Ethanol C2H5OH 2x2+5x1+16+1+46u
F Common Salt NaCl 23+35.5=58.5

48. In photosynthesis, 6 molecules of carbon dioxide combine with an equal number of water
molecules through a complex series of reactions to give a molecule of glucose having a molecular
formula C6 H12 O6 . How many grams of water would be required to produce 18 g of glucose?
Compute the volume of water so consumed assuming the density of water to be 1 g cm-3.

Soln:

6CO2 + 6 H2 O Chlorophyll /Sunlight → C6 H12 O6 + 6O2

1 mole of glucose needs 6 moles of water 180 g of glucose needs (6×18) g of water 1 g of glucose will need 108/
180 g of water.
18 g of glucose would need (108 /180) × 18 g of water = 10.8 g
Volume of water used = Mass
Density
= 10.8 g/ 1g cm-3
=10.8 cm3
Chapter - 4
Structure of the atom

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following correctly represent the electronic distribution in the Mg atom?
(a) 3, 8, 1
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) 1, 8, 3
(d) 8, 2, 2

Soln:

Answer is 2, 8, 2

Explanation :

Atomic number of Mg is 12 hence electronic distribution will be 1s22s22p63s2.

2. Rutherford’s ‘alpha (α) particles scattering experiment’ resulted in to discovery of

(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Nucleus in the atom
(d) Atomic mass

Soln:
Answer is (c) Nucleus in the atom

Explanation:
Rutherford’s ‘alpha (α) particles scattering experiment’ experiment concludes that alpha particles returned to their
original path. This showed the presence of nucleus in the centre.

3. The number of electrons in an element X is 15 and the number of neutrons is 16. Which of the following
is the correct representation of the element?
(a) 31 15 X
(b) 31 16 X
(c) 16 15 X
(d) 15 16 X

Soln:
Answer is (a) 31 15 X

Explanation:
Number of protons in an element depicts atomic number. Number of protons and electrons are equal in an
element. Hence atomic number is written in subscript whereas mass number is written in the subscript before the
symbol of the element.
4. Dalton’s atomic theory successfully explained
(i) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) Law of constant composition
(iii) Law of radioactivity
(iv) Law of multiple proportion
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Soln:
Answer is (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Dalton’s theory explains Law of conservation of mass, Law of constant composition, Law of multiple proportion.
But it never give any details of Law of radioactivity .

5. Which of the following statements about Rutherford’s model of atom are correct?
(i) considered the nucleus as positively charged
(ii) established that the α–particles are four times as heavy as a hydrogen atom
(iii) can be compared to solar system
(iv) was in agreement with Thomson’s model
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) only (i)

Soln:
Answer is (a) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Positively charged alpha particles were deflected by nucleus. This shows nucleus is positively charged.
Rutherford also postulated that electrons are arranged in an atom around the nucleus like planets arranged around
sun.

6. Which of the following are true for an element?

(i) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(iii) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Solution:
Answer is (d) (ii) and (iv)
Explanation:
Atomic number Z is the number of proton present in an electron which is also equal to number pf electron in an
atom. Since the mass of neutron is negligible. Number of protons and electron are added to obtain mass number of
an element.

7. In the Thomson’s model of atom, which of the following statments are correct?
(i) the mass of the atom is assumed to be uniformaly distributed over the atom
(ii) the positive charge is assumed to be uniformaly distributed over the atom
(iii) the electrons are uniformaly distributed in the positively charged sphere
(iv) the electrons attract each other to stabilise the atom

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Soln:
Answer is(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Thomson proposed that negatively charged electron are stabilised by positively charged protons in the nucleus.
Hence option II) the positive charge is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom is wrong statement and
other statements are part of Thomson’s model of atom.

8. Rutherford’s α–particle scattering experiment showed that

(i) electrons have negative charge
(ii) the mass and positive charge of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus
(iii) neutron exists in the nucleus
(iv) most of the space in atom is empty Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv

Soln:
Answer is (b) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation:
An atom consists of a positively charged, dense and very small nucleus which have all the protons and neutrons.
Positive charge is due to protons, as neutrons have no charge. Here the space is empty because alpha particles
pass straight through the gold foil without any deflection.

Thomson explained that electron s have negative charge. Existence of neutron was discovered by Chadwick.
9. The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons
is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?
(a) 13
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 16

Soln:
Answer is (b) 10
Explanation:
Mass number (A) of the atom = 27
Number of neutron in the atom =14
Number of Electrons=Mass number-Number of neutrons=27-14
Number of electrons= 13
Since ions of the element has 3 positive charges number of electron in the ion is 13-3 which equal 10.
Hence the answer is 10

10. Identify the Mg2+ ion from the Fig.4.1 where, n and p represent the number of neutrons and protons
respectively.

Soln:
Answer is d)

Explanation:
Number of protons in Mg atom = 2+ 8 + 2 = 12
Number of neutrons in Mg atom = 24 -12 = 12
[as mass number of Mg atom = 24 and number of neutrons = mass number – number of protons]
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer
11. In a sample of ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5) the two oxygen atoms have the same number of
electrons but different number of neutrons. Which of the following is the correct reason for it?
(a) One of the oxygen atoms has gained electrons
(b) One of the oxygen atoms has gained two neutrons
(c) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes
(d) The two oxygen atoms are isobars.

Soln:
Answer is(c) The two oxygen atoms are isotopes

Explanation:
Two Oxygen atoms in CH3COOC2H5 can have different number of neutrons only if the two O-atoms are isotopes.
Isotopes of an element have same number of protons (and electrons) but different number of neutrons.

12. Elements with valency 1 are

(a) always metals
(b) always metalloids
(c) either metals or non-metals
(d) always non-metals

Soln:
Answer is (c) either metals or non-metals.
Explanation:
If element shows positive valency it is a metal and if the element shows negative valency it will be a non-metal.

13. The first model of an atom was given by

(a) N. Bohr
(b) E. Goldstein
(c) Rutherford
(d) J.J. Thomson
Soln:
Answer is (d) J.J. Thomson

14. An atom with 3 protons and 4 neutrons will have a valency of

(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 4

Soln:
Answer is (c) 1

15. The electron distribution in an aluminium atom is

(a) 2, 8, 3
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) 8, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 8
Soln:
Answer is (a) 2, 8, 3
Explanation:
Atomic number of Aluminium is 13, First shell can have maximum of 2 electron and second shell holds a
mximum of 8 electrons. Hence option a is right answer.

16. Which of the following in Fig. 4.2 do not represent Bohr’s model of an atom correctly?

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Soln:
Answer is ii and iv

Explanation :

First shell can have maximum of 2 electron and second shell can have maximum of 8 electron hence ii and iv do
not represent Bohr’s model of an atom correctly.

17. Which of the following statement is always correct?

(a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.
(b) An atom has equal number of electrons and neutrons.
(c) An atom has equal number of protons and neutrons.
(d) An atom has equal number of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Soln:
Answer is (a) An atom has equal number of electrons and protons.

Eplanation:
An atom is electrically neutral because the number of protons are always equal to number of electrons. Hence
option a) is right.

18. Atomic models have been improved over the years. Arrange the following atomic models in the order of
their chronological order
(i) Rutherford’s atomic model
(ii) Thomson’s atomic model
(iii) Bohr’s atomic model
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (i)
(c) (ii), (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii), (ii) and (i)

Soln:
Answer is (c) (ii), (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Thomson’s atomic model was proposed in the year 1904
Rutherford’s atomic model was proposed in the year 1911
Bohr’s atomic model was proposed in the year 1913

Short Answer Questions

19. Is it possible for the atom of an element to have one electron, one proton and no neutron. If so, name the
element.

Soln:

Yes, Hydrogen is the element which is having only 1 proton and 1 electron and no neutron hence there is no
repulsive force in the nucleus hence it is stable.

20. Write any two observations which support the fact that atoms are divisible

 Ionic compounds are formed because of formation of ions that involves transfer of electrons.
 Difference in the number of make isotopes. This shows that atom is formed by different particles such as
electrons, protons and neutrons and element is divisible.

21. Will 35Cl and 37Cl have different valencies? Justify your answer.

Soln:

35Cl and 37Cl cannot have different valencies because they are the isotopes of same element.

22. Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his α–ray scattering experiment?

Soln:

Rutherford used gold for his scattering experiment because gold is the most malleable metal and he wanted the
thinnest layer as possible.
Therefore, Rutherford selected a Gold foil in his alpha scatttering experiment.
23. Find out the valency of the atoms represented by the Fig. 4.3 (a) and (b).

Soln:

Soln:
Rutherford’s model could not explain the stability of the atom.

Revolving electrons would lose energy as they are the charged particles and due to acceleration, charged particles
would radiate energy.

Orbit of the revolving electron will reduce in size, following a spiral path as shown in figure and ultimately the
electron should fall into the nucleus. In other words, the atom should collapse.

41. What are the postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom?

Soln:

Postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom are

(i) Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons, are allowed inside the atom.

(ii) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy. These orbits or shells
are called energy levels. These orbits or shells are represented by the letters K,L,M,N,… or
the numbers, n=1,2,3,4,….
42. Show diagramatically the electron distributions in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also
give their atomic number.

Soln:
Atomic number of sodium (Z) =11 Mass number of sodium (A) = 23
Number of protons in the nucleus = 11 Number of neutrons in the nucleus =23-11 = 12
Number of electrons = 11
Electronic configuration of Na-atom = 2, 8, 1(K,L,M)
Na+ ion is formed from s,odium atom by loss of an electron (present in the outermost shell). Hence, its
electronic configuration is 2, 8(K,L). However, number of protons and neutrons remains the same.

43. In the Gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, that paved the way for Rutherford’s model of an
atom, ~ 1.00% of the α-particles were found to deflect at angles > 50º. If one mole of α-particles were
bombarded on the gold foil, compute the number of α-particles that would deflect at angles less than 500.

Soln:
Total number of α particles used for bombardment = 1 mole
1 mole=6.022x1023 particles
number of α particles deflected at angles greater than 50°(>50°)= 1%
Number of α particles deflected at angles greater than 50° =100-1= 99%
99
Actual number of α particles deflected at angles less than 50°= × 6.022 × 1023
100
=5.96× 1023
Chapter - 5
The Fundamental Unit of Life

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following can be made into crystal?
(a) A Bacterium
(b) An Amoeba
(c) A Virus
(d) A Sperm

Soln
Answer is (c) A Virus

Explanation:
Viruses are considered as the intermediates between living and non- living as they cannot metabolize or reproduce
on their own For all its processes virus requires a host. Viruses can be stored as crystal like chemicals. Virus
crystals are collection of millions of virus cells.

2. A cell will swell up if

(a) The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of water molecules in
surrounding medium
(b) The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules
concentration in the cell
(c) The concentration of water molecules is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium
(d) Concentration of water molecules does not matter

Soln:
Answer is (b) The concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules
concentration in the cell.

Explanation:
When the concentration of water molecules in surrounding medium is higher than water molecules concentration
in the cell water from the surrounding enter the cell through osmosis and the cell swells up.

3. Chromosomes are made up of

(a) DNA
(b) protein
(c) DNA and protein
(d) RNA

Soln:
Answer is (c) DNA and protein
4. Which of these options are not a function of Ribosomes?
(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones
(iv) It helps in manufacture of starch molecules
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (i)

Soln:
Answer is (c) (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:
Proteins are produces in ribosomes hence they are called as protein factories. Enzymes are proteins. Hormones
and starch are not produced in ribosome hence option iii) and iv) are wrong statements.

5. Which of these is not related to endoplasmic reticulum?

(a) It behaves as transport channel for proteins between nucleus and cytoplasm
(b) It transports materials between various regions in cytoplasm
(c) It can be the site of energy generation
(d) It can be the site for some biochemical activities of the cell

Soln:
Answer is (c) It can be the site of energy generation

Explanation:
Energy is produced in the Mitochondria hence option c is not related to Endoplasmic reticulum.

6. Following are a few definitions of osmosis Read carefully and select the correct definition
(a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
through a semipermeable membrane
(b) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration
(c) Movement of solvent molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration of solution through a
permeable membrane
(d) Movement of solute molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration of solution through a
semipermeable membrane

Soln:
Answer is (a) Movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration through a semipermeable membrane

Explanation:
Osmosis is a special type of diffusion in which water molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a
region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
Option b) Movement of solvent molecules from its higher concentration to lower concentration is called as
diffusion.
7. Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as
(a) break down (lysis ) of plasma membrane in hypotonic medium
(b) shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium
(c) shrinkage of nucleoplasm
(d) none of them

Soln:
Answer is (b) shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium

Explanation:
Living plant cell loses water through osmosis resulting in shrinkage or contraction of the contents of the cell away
from the cell wall. This phenomenon is known as plasmolysis.
When plant cell has more water content than in the surrounding plant cell tend to transfer water to its
surroundings which results in shrinkage of the cell through plasmolysis.

8. Which of the following are covered by a single membrane?

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuole
(c) Lysosome
(d) Plastid

Soln:
Answer is (c) Lysosome

Explanation:
Mitochondria, Vacuole and plastids are covered by double layered membranes hence Lysosome is the answer.

9. Find out the false sentences

(a) Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes
(b) Nucleus, mitochondria and plastid have DNA; hence they are able to make their own structural
proteins
(c) Mitochondria is said to be the power house of the cell as ATP is generated in them.
(d) Cytoplasm is called as protoplasm

Soln:
Answer is (a) Golgi apparatus is involved with the formation of lysosomes

Explanation:
Golgi apparatus has role in storage and synthesis of certain biomolecules .They do not have any role in the
synthesis of Lysosome hence option a) is the right answer.

10. Find out the correct sentence

(a) Enzymes packed in Lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum)
(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum produce lipid and protein
respectively
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum is related with the destruction of plasma membrane
(d) Nucleoid is present inside the nucleoplasm of eukaryotic nucleus
Soln:

Answer is (a) Enzymes packed in Lysosomes are made through RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum).

Explanation:
RER has ribosomes present on its surface which are responsible for the synthesis of proteins and enzymes are the
proteins. Hence option a) is correct.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum has no role in the production of lipid. Similarly Endoplasmic reticulum has no role
in the destruction of plasma membrane.
Nucleoid is undefined nuclear region in prokaryotes.

11. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in a cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(b) Lysosomes
(c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Vacuoles

Soln:
Answer is (c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation:
SER plays an important role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs in the liver cells of vertebrates.

12. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by
(a) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) plasma membrane
(d) mitochondria

Soln:
Answer is (a) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Explanation:
Endoplasmic reticulum plays important role in the production of both lipids and proteins. SER produces Lipids.
and RER produces Proteins.

13. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes are also known as

(a) nucleus
(b) nucleolus
(c) nucleic acid
(d) nucleoid

Soln:
Answer is (d) nucleoid
14. The cell organelle involved in forming complex sugars from simple sugars are
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) ribosomes
(c) plastids
(d) golgi apparatus

Soln:
Answer is (d) golgi apparatus

Explanation:
Golgi apparatus is involved in the packaging and transport of many biomolecules such as proteins, lipids and
carbohydrates.

15. Which out of the following is not a function of vacuole?

(a) Storage
(b) Providing turgidity and rigidity to the cell
(c) Waste excretion
(d) Locomotion

Soln:
Answer is (d) Locomotion

Explanation:
Vacuoles are responsible for storage, turgidity and rigidity of the cell and waste excretion. Locomotion is carried
out by specialised organelles present outside cytoplasm. Vacuoles are present inside the cytoplasm hence option
d) is a wrong statement.

16. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed

(a) exocytosis
(b) endocytosis
(c) plasmolysis
(d) exocytosis and endocytosis both

Soln:
Answer is (b) endocytosis

Explanation:
Endocytosis is taking in of matter by a living cell by invagination of its membrane to form a vacuole. In
endocytosis, substances that are external to a cell are brought into the cell.

Membrane-bound vesicles containing cellular molecules are transported to the cell membrane in exocytosis.
Process of contraction of the protoplast of a plant cell as a resulting in the loss of water from the cell is called as
plasmolysis.
17. Cell wall of which one of these is not made up of cellulose?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Mango tree
(d) Cactus

Soln:
Answer is (a) Bacteria

Explanation:
Hydrilla, Mango tree and cactus are plants hence their cell wall is made up of cellulose. Cell wall of Bacteria is
made of polysaccharide called as Peptidoglycan.

18. Silver nitrate solution is used to study

(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Soln:
Answer is (b) golgi apparatus

19. Organelle other than nucleus, containing DNA is

(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) mitochondria
(d) lysosome

Soln:
Answer is (c) mitochondria

Explanation:
Mitochndria and Chloroplast are the organelles that have separate nuclear called as mitochondrial DNA and
chloroplast DNA.

20. Kitchen of the cell is

(a) mitochondria
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) chloroplast
(d) golgi apparatus

Soln:
Answer is (c) chloroplast

Explanation:
Food in plants is produced inside Chloroplast hence Chloroplast is known as kitchen of the cell.
21. Lipid molecules in the cell are sythesized by
(a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(b) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(c) golgi apparatus (d) plastids

Soln:

Lipid molecules in the cell are sythesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum

22. Cell arises from pre-existing cell was stated by

(a) Haeckel
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Schleiden

Soln:
Answer is (b) Virchow

23. Cell theory was given by

(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Virchow
(c) Hooke
(d) Haeckel

Soln:
Answer is (a) Schleiden and Schwann

Explanation:
Schleiden and Schwann were the first to propose the cell theory which stated that all plants and animals are made
up of cell and cell is the basic unit if life.

24. The only cell organelle seen in prokaryotic cell is

(a) mitochondria
(b) ribosomes
(c) plastids
(d) lysosomes

Soln:

Answer is (b) ribosomes

25 . Organelle without a cell membrane is

(a) ribosome
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) chloroplast
(d) nucleus
Soln:

Answer is (a) ribosome

Explanation:
Golgi bodies, Chloroplast and nucleus are membrane bound organelles and ribosomes are organelles without
membrane.

26. 1 µm is
(a) 10–6 m
(b) 10–9 m
(c) 10–10 m
(d) 10–3 m

Soln:
Answer is (a) 10–6 m

Explanation:
10–3 m- millimetre
10–6 m – Micrometer
10–9 m – nanometer

27. Lysosome arises from

(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) golgi apparatus
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria

Soln:
Answer is (b) golgi apparatus

Explanation:
Main function of golgi apparatus is secretion, packaging and modification of proteins. It is also involved in
synthesis of new membranes and lysosomes.

28. Living cells were discovered by

(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Purkinje
(c) Leeuwenhoek
(d) Robert Brown

Soln:
Answer is (c) Leeuwenhoek

Explanation:
Robert hook first observed cells but he observed dead cork cell and it was Leeuwenhoek who observed living cell
from his microscope.
29. Select the odd one out
(a) The movement of water across a semi permeable membrane is affected by the amount of substances
dissolved in it.
(b) Membranes are made of organic molecules like proteins and lipids
(c) Molecules soluble in organic solvents can easily pass through the membrane.
(d) Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants

Soln:
Answer is (d) Plasma membranes contain chitin sugar in plants

Explanation:
Plasma membrane contain sugar is a wrong statement and rest other statements are true. Plant plasma membrane
contain cellulose in it.
Short Answer Questions

30. Why are lysosomes known as ‘suicide-bags’ of a cell?

Soln:
Lysosomes are the organelles that has digestive enzymes in them. These enzymes helps in removal of damaged
cells. Lysosomes encounter with damaged cell to burst out, releasing digesting enzyme resulting in destruction of
damaged cell hence they are called suicide bag of cell.

31. Do you agree that “A cell is a building unit of an organism”. If yes, explain why?

Soln:
Yes, I agree that A cell is a building unit of an organism because all the living beings are made up of cells and cell
is the smallest independent unit of living beings.

32. Why does the skin of your finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?

Soln:
Soap solution is hypertonic in nature which makes the water move out of the cells in your hand which results in
finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time.

33. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?

Soln:
Endocytosis is found only in animals because cellwall is absent in animals. Due to this, movement of substances
inside the cell is easier in animals than in plants.

34. A person takes concentrated solution of salt, after sometime, he starts vomiting. What is the
phenomenon responsible for such situation? Explain.

Soln:
Upon consuming salt solution Osmosis process takes place which results in dehydration. This is the reason for
vomiting of the person who consumes salt solution.
35. Name any cell organelle which is non membranous

Soln:
Ribosome is the only non-membranous cell organelle.

36. We eat food composed of all the nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and
water. After digestion, these are absorbed in the form of glucose, aminoacids, fatty acids, glycerol etc. What
mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and water?

Soln:
Absorption and digestion involves diffusion and osmosis respectively.

37. If you are provided with some vegetables to cook. You generally add salt into the vegetables during
cooking process. After adding salt, vegetables release water. What mechanism is responsible for this?

Soln:
After adding salt vegetables release water due to process of osmosis.

Explanation:
When we add salt surrounding will be hypertonic and water is released from vegetables to maintain equilibrium.

38. If cells of onion peel and RBC are separately kept in hypotonic solution, what among the following will
take place? Explain the reason for your answer.
(a) Both the cells will swell.
(b) RBC will burst easily while cells of onion peel will resist the bursting to some extent.
(c) a and b both are correct.
(d) RBC and onion peel cells will behave similarly.

Soln:
(c) a and b both are correct.

Explanation:
When surrounding medium is hypotonic water moves into the cell. This lead to swelling of cells. RBC do not
have plasma membrane and they swell and burst easily. Plant cell have cell wall which will prevent them from
bursting.

39. Bacteria do not have chloroplast but some bacteria are photoautorophic in nature and perform
photosynthesis. Which part of bacterial cell performs this?

Soln:
Small vesicles associated with plasma membrane are present in bacteria. These vesicles have pigment which can
trap sunlight to carry photosynthesis.
40. Match the following A and B
(A) (B)
(a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (i) Amoeba
(b) Lysosome (ii) Nucleus
(c) Nucleoid (iii) Bacteria
(d) Food vacuoles (iv) Detoxification
(e) Chromatin material (v) Suicidal bag and nucleolus

Soln:
(A) (B)
(a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (iv) Detoxification
(b) Lysosome (v) Suicidal bag and nucleolus
(c) Nucleoid (iii) Bacteria
(d) Food vacuoles (i) Amoeba
(e) Chromatin material (ii) Nucleus

41. Write the name of different plant parts in which chromoplast, chloroplast and leucoplast are present.

Soln:

Chromoplast- Flower and fruit-

Chloroplast- leaves
Leucoplast-Root

42. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under
(a) Transporting channels of the cell——
(b) Power house of the cell——
(c) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell——
(d) Digestive bag of the cell——
(e) Storage sacs of the cell——
(f) Kitchen of the cell——
(g) Control room of the cell——

Soln:
Answers
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Lysosomes
e) Vacuoles
f) Chloroplast
g) Nucleus
43. How is a bacterial cell different from an onion peel cell?

Soln:

Bacterial Cell Onion Peel

Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell
Lack of organized nucleus, the genetic material Well organised Nucleus
present in the form of nucleoid.
Nuclear membrane absent Nuclear membrane present
Only a single chromosome is present More than one chromosome are present
Membrane-bound organelles absent. Membrane-bound organelles present.
Nucleolus is absent Nucleolus is present.
Cell division takes place by fission or budding. Cell division takes place by mitosis or meiosis

44. How do substances like carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) move in and out of the cell?

Soln:

Substances like carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) move in and out of the cell through Osmosis.

45. How does amoeba obtain its food?

Soln:
Amoeba obtain its food through endocytosis.

Explanation:
Amoeba surround food particle by its pseudopodia. It ingest the food and water particle to form a food vacuole.
This process is known as endocytosis.

46. Name the two organelles in a plant cell that contain their own genetic material and ribosomes.

Soln:
Chloroplast and Mitochondria are the two organelles in a plant cell that contain their own genetic material and
ribosomes.

47. Why are lysosomes also known as “scavengers of the cells”?

Soln:
Lysosomes also known as “scavengers of the cells” because lysosomes have lytic enzymes which are used to
destroy pathogens and worn out cells. Lysosomes also destroys waste materials which are harmful for the cell.

48. Which cell organelle controls most of the activities of the cell?

Soln:
Nucleus controls most of the activities of the cell.
49. Which kind of plastid is more common in
(a) roots of the plant
(b) leaves of the plant
(c) flowers and fruits

Soln:
Answers
a) Leucoplasts are more common in roots of the plant
b) Chloroplasts are more common in leaves of the plant
c) Chromoplasts are more common in flowers and fruits
50. Why do plant cells possess large sized vacuole?

Soln:
Cells possess large sized vacuole because vacuoles not only stores important material but also contain sap that
give turgidity to the cell.

51. How are chromatin, chromatid and chromosomes related to each other?

Soln:
Chromatin are the thread like structures which form the chromosomes.
A copy of duplicated chromosome which is generally joined to the other copy by a centromere is called
Chromatid.
Chromosomes : When a cell starts to divide, the tangled mass of chromatin condense into long threads and
finally, rod-like bodies called chromosomes.

52. What are the consequences of the following conditions?

(a) A cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium
(b) A cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium.
(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.

Soln:
a) If a cell contains higher water concentration than the surrounding medium then cell looses water and it
shrinks. This process is called exosmosis.
b) If a cell has having low water concentration than the surrounding medium cell intakes water from the
surrounds and cell bursts. This process is called endosmosis.
c) If A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium then there will be no change in the
cell.
Long Answer Questions

53. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

(a) determines the function and development of the cell
(b) packages materials coming from the endoplasmic reticulum
(c) provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without bursting
(d) is site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life.
(e) is a fluid contained inside the nucleus

Soln:

(a) Nucleus: It determines the function and development of the cell

(b) Golgi apparatus: It packages materials coming from the endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Cell wall: It provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without bursting
(d) Cytoplasm: It is a site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life.
(e) Nucleoplasm: It is a fluid contained inside the nucleus
54. Illustrate only a plant cell as seen under electron microscope. How is it different from animal cell?
Soln:

Major differences between a plant cell and animal cell are

(i) Chloroplast in plant cell but absent in animal cells

(ii) large central vacuole in plant cell which is absent in animal cells
(iii) Cell wall is present in plant cell and absent in animal cells.
55. Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell.

Soln:

56. Draw a well labelled diagram of an eukaryotic nucleus. How is it different from nucleoid?

Soln:

Nucleus is an organelles present in the cell whereas Nucleoid is a small spot present in the cytoplasm of the cell.
Nucleus is well organized and large whereas nucleoid is poorly organized and it is very small.
Nucleus contains many chromosomes but Nucleoid contains single circular DNA molecule.
57. Differentiate between rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. How is endoplasmic reticulum
important for membrane biogenesis?

Soln:

Rough Endoplasmic reticullum Smooth Endoplasmic reticullum

RER Looks rough under Microscope SER varies greatly in appearance in different cells

Robosomes are present on all active cells Ribosomes are not present on SER

They are the sites of protein manufacturing helps in manufacture of fat molecules

Proteins are transported to various sites from here Detoxification of drug takes place

58. In brief state what happens when

(a) dry apricots are left for sometime in pure water and later transferred to sugar solution?
(b) a Red Blood Cell is kept in concentrated saline solution?
(c) the Plasma-membrane of a cell breaks down?
(d) rheo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup is put on it?
(e) golgi apparatus is removed from the cell?

Soln:
a) When we put dried raisins or apricots in plain water and leave them for some time cell gains water and
swells. If we put same seeds into a concentrated solution of sugar or salt. You will seeds it loses water,
and consequently shrinks.
b) When red blood cell is kept in concentrated saline solution. Cell loses water immediately and shrinks.
c) When the plasma membrane of a cell breaks down cell dies.
d) On boiling, cells of Rheo leaves are died and if we put sugar solution on it there will not be any intake of
water due to lack of osmosis. Here cell undergo plasmolysis concluding only living cells undergo
osmosis.
e) This stop the formation of vesicles and transport of proteins and lipids is stopped by the removal of Golgi
apparatus.
59. Draw a neat diagram of plant cell and label any three parts which differentiate it from animal
cell.
Chapter - 6
Tissues

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following tissues has dead cells?

(a) Parenchyma
(b) Sclerenchyma
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Epithelial tissue

Soln:
Answer is (b) Sclerenchyma

Explanation:

Parenchyma
Living tissues with thin cellwall with central vacuole and dense cytoplasm. Parenchyma cells are located in the
soft parts of the plants such as pith and cortex.

Sclerenchyma
These are dead tissue which have thick cellwall due to deposition of lignin. They are generally located in the leaf
veins, hard coverings of the seeds and can also be found surrounding the vascular bundle.

Collenchyma
Living tissues which have an elongated shape and thick cellwall in the corner. Collenchyma tissue can be located
in the leaf stalks, below the epidermis etc.

Epithelial tissues

Epithelial tissues are the covering or protective tissues in the animal body. Allmost every organs and cavities are
covered by Epithelium.

2. Find out incorrect sentence

(a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces
(b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners
(c) Apical and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues
(d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles

Soln:

Answer is (a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces

Explanation:

Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces is a wrong statement. Parenchyma act as a packing tissue in
plants hence they do not have intercellular spaces. Collenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
3. Girth of stem increases due to
(a) apical meristem
(b) lateral meristem
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) vertical meristem

Soln

Answer is (b) lateral meristem

4. Which cell does not have perforated cell wall?

(a) Tracheids
(b) Companion cells
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Vessels

Soln

Answer is (a) Tracheids

5. Intestine absorb the digested food materials. What type of epithelial cells are responsible for that?
(a) Stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Spindle fibres
(d) Cuboidal epithelium

Soln:

Answer is (b) Columnar epithelium

Explanation:

Columnar epithelium are pillar like cells which have nuclei towards their base. Columnar epithelium forms the
lining of stomach, small intestine and colon, forming the mucous membrane. They facilitate movement
across the epithelial barrier.Their main function is absorption and secretion.

6. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among the
following may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Break of skeletal muscle
(c) Ligament break
(d) Areolar tissue break

Soln:

Answer is (c) Ligament break

Explanation:

Dislocation of bones occurs when joints held by ligaments get separated.

Tendons joins skeletal muscle and they cause inflammation upon break.

Break of skeletal muscle cannot be the reason of bone dislocation as bones are joined by ligaments.

Areolar tissues are found around muscles, nerves and blood vessels hence they are not connected with bone
dislocation.

7. While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs etc. Which among the following is
correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones

Soln:

Answer is (d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones

Explanation:
While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs etc, skeletal muscles contract and they pull
the tendon, connecting muscles to bones. This will make bones to move and they do not pull the ligament as that
will cause a sprain or stretch.

8. Which muscles act involuntarily?

(i) Striated muscles
(ii) Smooth muscles
(iii) Cardiac muscles
(iv) Skeletal muscles

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Soln:

Answer is (b) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:

Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles which are also striated muscles hence the answer should be cardiac
muscles which are smooth muscles.
9. Meristematic tissues in plants are
(a) localised and permanent
(b) not limited to certain regions
(c) localised and dividing cells
(d) growing in volume

Soln:

Answer is (c) localised and dividing cells

(a) fluoride and calcium
(b) calcium and phosphorus
(c) calcium and potassium
(d) phosphorus and potassium

Explanation:

Connective tissue which connects muscles to bones are tendons. They are fibrous in nature and gives
strength and limkited flexibility.

18. Nerve cell does not contain

(a) axon
(b) nerve endings
(c) tendons
(d) dendrites

Soln:
Answer is(c) tendons

Explanation:

Neurons do not contain tendons as they are connective tissues that join skeletal muscles to bones.
19. Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ?
(a) Tendon
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Areolar
(d) Cartilage

Soln:
Answer is (c) Areolar

Explanation:

Areolar connective tissue is found between the skin and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves and in
the bone marrow. It fills the space inside the organs, supports internal organs and helps in repair of tissues.

Areolar tissue located between the skin and muscles, around blood vessels and nerves and in the bone
marrow. Areolar tissue fills the space inside the organs and supports internal organs and helps in repair of
tissue.

20. The muscular tissue which function throughout the life continuously without fatigue is
(a) skeletal muscle
(b) cardiac muscle
(c) smooth muscle
(d) voluntary muscle

26. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due
to the presence of
(a) cambium
(b) apical meristem
(c) lateral meristem
(d) intercalary meristem

Soln:
Answer is (d) intercalary meristem

Explanation:

Stem located at the base of leaves or nodes and leads to the increase in the length of an organ such as leaves and
internodes is intercalary meristem. They are responsible for the longitudinal growth of the plant hence length of
the sugarcane keep on increasing.

27. A nail is inserted in the trunk of a tree at a height of 1 metre from the ground level. After 3 years the
nail will (a) move downwards
(b) move upwards
(c) remain at the same position
(d) move sideways

Soln:

Answer is (c) remain at the same position

Explanation:

Longitudinal growth in the stem always takes place on the top hence apical meristem in the below region remains
constant hence there will be no change in position of nail inserted in the trunk of tree.

28. Parenchyma cells are

(a) relatively unspecified and thin walled
(b) thick walled and specialised
(c) lignified
(d) none of these

(A) (B)
(a) Parenchyma (i) Thin walled, packing cells
(b) Photosynthesis (ii) Carbon fixation
(c) Aerenchyma (iii) Localized thickenings
(d) Collenchyma (iv) Buoyancy
(e) Permanent tissue (v) Sclerenchyma

Soln:

(A) (B)
(a) Parenchyma (i) Thin walled, packing cells
(b) Photosynthesis (ii) Carbon fixation
(c) Aerenchyma (iv) Buoyancy
(d) Collenchyma (iii) Localized thickenings
(e) Permanent tissue (v) Sclerenchyma

37. If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapours appear on the wall of glass jar. Explain why?

Soln:

Because of a process called as transpiration vapours appear on the glass jar if a potted plant is covered with glass
jar.
38. Name the different components of xylem and draw a living component?

Soln:

Xylem comprises of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres. The only living
component of xylem is xylem parenchyma.

39. Draw and identify different elements of phloem.

Soln:
40. Write true (T) or false (F)
(a) Epithelial tissue is protective tissue in animal body.
(b) The lining of blood vessels, lung alveoli and kidney tubules are all made up of epithelial tissue.
(c) Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces.
(d) Epithelial layer is permeable layer.
(e) Epithelial layer does not allow regulation of materials between body and external environment.

Soln:

a) True
b) True
c) Epithelial cells have a lot of intercellular spaces.
d) True
e) False

41. Differentiate between voluntary and involuntary muscles. Give one example of each type.

Soln:

Voluntary muscles Involuntary muscles

They are also called striated muscles since they They are also called non-striated muscles since they
show stripes or striations lack striations.
Their cells are long and cylindrical Their cells are small and spindle shaped.
They have multinucleate cells They have uninucleate cells
They are under our will or control. They are not under our will or control.
They get tired and need rest at intervals. They can work continuously without getting tired
Ex: Limb muscles Ex: Cardiac muscles

42. Differentiate the following activities on the basis of voluntary (V) or involuntary (I V) muscles.

(a) Jumping of frog

(b) Pumping of the heart
(c) Writing with hand
(d) Movement of chocolate in your intestine

Soln:

a-v, b-iv, c-v, d-iv

(a) Jumping of frog – is an activity of voluntary muscles

(b) Pumping of the heart- is a function of involuntary muscles
(c) Writing with hand- is a function of voluntary muscles
(d) Movement of chocolate in your intestine- is a function of involuntary muscles
43. Fill in the blanks

(a) Lining of blood vessels is made up of———.

(a) Xylem and Phloem

(b) Stomata
(c) Suberin
(d) Sclenchyma
(e) Collenchyma
(f) Xylem;Phloem
(g) Water and minerals
(h) Food, leaf
Long Answer Questions

49. Differentiate between sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues. Draw well labelled diagram.

Parenchyma Sclerenchyma
Consists of living cells Consists of dead cells
Consists of thin walled cell Consists of uniformly thickened cellwalls
Cellwall is made up of cellulose Cellwall is made up of complex lignin
Serves as packing tissue Serves as mechanical tissue
Stores food and perform photosynthesis Gives strength, rigidity and protects from parasites.
50. Describe the structure and function of different types of epithelial tissues. Draw diagram of each type of
epithelial tissue.

Epithelial cells are the thin protective coverings that line most organs and cavities within the body. It also forms a
barrier to keep different body systems separate. The skin, the lining of the mouth, the lining of blood vessels, lung
alveoli and kidney tubules are all made of epithelial tissue. Epithelial tissue cells are tightly packed and form a
continuous sheet.

They have only a small amount of cementing material between them and almost no intercellular spaces.
Obviously, anything entering or leaving the body must cross at least one layer of epithelium. As a result, the
permeability of the cells of various epithelia play an important role in regulating the exchange of materials
between the body and the external environment and also between different parts of the body. Regardless of the
type, all epithelium is usually separated from the underlying tissue by an extracellular fibrous basement
membrane.

Epithelial cells are the protective coverings that line most organs and cavities of our body. Epithelial cells form a
barrier that keeps different body systems separate. Skin, lining of blood vessels, alveoli of lung, kidney tubles etc
are made of epithelial tissue. Cells in the epithelial tissue are tightly packed and form a continuous sheet.

Epithelial tissue have only a small amount of cementing material between them and almost no intercellular
spaces. It is obvious that anything entering or leaving the body must cross at least one layer of epithelium. This
results in the permeability of the cells of various epithelia to play an important role in regulating the exchange of
materials between the body and the external environment and between different parts of the body.

Epithelium is usually separated from the underlying tissue by an extracellular fibrous basement membrane.

Depending on the shape and function, epithelial cells are classified into a) Squamous epithelial tissue b) Stratified
squamous epithelial tissue c) Cuboidal epithelial tissue d) Columnar( Ciliated) epithelial tissue.

a) Squamous epithelial tissue

In cells lining blood vessels or lung alveoli transportation of substances occurs through a selectively permeable
surface, this epithelium is a flat kind of epithelium. This is called the simple squamous epithelium Simple
squamous epithelial cells are extremely thin and flat and form a delicate lining. The oesophagus and the lining of
the mouth are also covered with squamous epithelium. The skin, which protects the body, is also made of
squamous epithelium. Skin epithelial cells are arranged in many layers to prevent wear and tear. Since they are
arranged in a pattern of layers, the epithelium is called stratified squamous epithelium.

b) Stratified squamous epithelium: Skin epithelial cells are arranged in many layers to
prevent wear and tear. Since, they are arranged in a pattern of layers, the epithelium is
called stratified squamous epithelium.
c) Columnar epithelium: Where absorption and secretion occur, as in the inner lining of the
intestine, these tall epithelial cells are present. This columnar epithelial facilitates movement
across the epithelial barrier. In the respiratory tract, the columnar epithelial tissue also has
cilia, which are hair-like projections on the outer surfaces of epithelial cells. These cilia can
move and their movement pushes the mucus forward to clear it. This type of epithelium is
thus ciliated columnar epithelium.
d) Cuboidal epithelium: These form the lining of the kidney tubules and ducts of salivary
glands where these provide mechanical support. Sometimes, a portion of the epithelial
tissue folds inward and a multicellular gland is formed. This is glandular epithelium.
51. Draw well labelled diagrams of various types of muscles found in human body.

Soln:

52. Give reasons for

(a) Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but they lack vacuole.

(b) Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.

(d) Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.

(e) It is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut tree.

Soln:

a) Meristamatic tissue cells are continuously dividing and they have prominent nucleus and a dese
cytoplasm. Since they are diving rigorously they need not store food or waste products hence they lack
vacuoles.
b) Cellwall of sclerenchyma are lignified and are packed densely to protect the plant and to give mechanical
strength hence intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.
c) In pear fruit sclerenchyma cells are called stone cells. They are small, thick and hard. Because of this We
get a crunchy and granular feeling, when we chew pear fruit.
d) Junction of the tree branch composed of collenchyma cells which provide rigidity and flexibility to the
branches. Hence Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.
e) Husk of coconut tree is sclerenchyma which is hard. Hence it is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut
tree.

53. List the characteristics of cork. How are they formed? Mention their role.

Soln:

 Cork cells are mature and dead

 They are compactly arranged
 They do not have intercellular spaces
 They are thick and have several layers.

Outer protective tissue of the plant undergoes changes with age. Epidermis of the stem is replace by a secondary
meristem call phellogen or cork cambium .It is a simple tissue which consists of rectangular cells whose
protoplasts are vacuolated. Cork cells contains tanins and chloroplasts.

Cork cambium forms cork on the outer side and secondary cortex on the inner side by giving off new cells on
both its sides. The layer of cells which is cut by cork cambium on the outer side ultimately becomes several
layered thick cork (bark) of trees.

Cork cells are compactly arranged dead cells and they lack intercellular spaces. Walls of cork cells are thickened
with suberin which is fat. Because of Suberin these cells are impermeable to water and gases.

Role of cork

Cork provides protection to plant and it prevents loss of water from plant body. Cork protects the plants from
infection and mechanical injury. Cork is light in weight and it cannot catch fire. Because of this property it is used
as insulators. Cork is hard in nature hence it is used to make sports goods.

54. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they different from one other?

Soln

A complex tissue is the one which has more than one type of cells having a common origin which coordinate to
perform a common function.

Xylem and phloem are made of different types of cells hence they are called complex tissues.
Xylem is made up of four different types of cells (elements), namely

(i)tracheids- Tracheids are elongated cells in the xylem of vascular plants that serve in the transport of water and
mineral salts.

(ii)vessels- A vessel element (trachea) is one of the cell types found in xylem, the water conducting tissue of
plants. Vessel elements are found in flowering plants

(iii) xylem parenchyma- xylem parenchyma. live plant cells that are short, lignified and generally thin walled.
They surround conducting elements and assist directly or indirectly in the conduction of water upwards through
vessels and tracheids, and also serve for food storage.

(iv) xylem sclerenchyma (or fibre)- Xylem fibres are mainly supportive in function.

Phloem is also made of four different types of elements

(i) sieve tubes- Sieve tube, in flowering plants, elongated living cells (sieve-tube elements) of the phloem, the
nuclei of which have fragmented and disappeared and the transverse end walls of which are pierced by sievelike
groups of pores (sieve plates). They are the channels of food (mostly sugar) transport.

(ii) companion cells- companion cell A type of cell found within the phloem of flowering plants. Companion
cell are usually closely associated with a sieve element. Its function is uncertain, though it appears to regulate the
activity of the adjacent sieve element and to take part in loading and unloading sugar into the sieve element.

(iii) phloem parenchyma

(iv) phloem fibre

55. Differentiate between meristematic and permanent tissues in plants (b) Define the process of
differentiation ( Name any two simple and two complex permanent tissues in plants

Soln:

Answer is (a) Wuchereria

Explanation:

Wuchereria is a human parasite which causes Elephantiasis. Elephantiasis is spred through mosquitos.

Pinworm is a common intestinal parasite and causes enterobiasis

Answer is (c) flowers

13. Identify a member of porifera

(a) Spongilla
(b) Euglena
(c) Penicillium
(d) Hydra

Soln:

Answer is (a) Spongilla

Explanation:

Euglena is a protozoan.
Pencillium is a fungi
Hydra is a Coelenterata

14. Which is not an aquatic animal?

(a) Hydra
(b) Jelly fish
(c) Corals
(d) Filaria

Soln:

Answer is (d) Filaria

Explanation:

Filaria is a disease caused by Wuchereria. It is spread by Mosquitos.

15. Amphibians do not have the following
(a) Three chambered heart
(b) Gills or lungs
(c) Scales
(d) Mucus glands

Explanation:

25. The book Systema Naturae was written by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Haeckel
(c) Whittaker
(d) Robert Brown

Soln:

Answer is (a) Linnaeus

26. Karl Von Linne was involved with which branch of science?
(a) Morphology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology
(d) Medicine

Soln:

Answer is (b) Taxonomy

27. Real organs are absent in

(a) Mollusca
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Echinodermata

Soln:

Answer is (b) Coelenterata

Explanation:

Coelenterates have tissue level organization hence they lack real organs.

28. Hard calcium carbonate structures are used as skeleton by

(a) Echinodermata
(b) Protochordata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Nematoda

Soln:

(a) Echinodermata

Explanation:

Echinodermata are spiny skinned organisms which are exclusively free-living marine animals. They are
triploblastic and have a coelomic cavity. They use a unique water-driven tube from moving and they contain
calcium carbonate structres which are used as skeleton.
29. Differentiation in segmental fashion occurs in
(a) Leech
(b) Starfish
(c) Snails
(d) Ascaris

Soln:

Answer is (a) Leech

Explanation:

Leech belongs to Annelids and it shows metameric body segmentation.

30. In taxonomic hierarchy family comes between

(a) Class and Order

(b) Order and Genus
(c) Genus and Species
(d) Division and Class

Soln:

Answer is (b) Order and Genus

Explanation:

Taxonomic hierarchy

Species

Genus

Family

Order

Class

Phylum

Short Answer Questions

35. Write true (T) or false (F)

(a) Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification.
(b) Monera is divided into Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.
(c) Starting from Class, Species comes before the Genus.
(d) Anabaena belongs to the kingdom Monera.
(e) Blue green algae belongs to the kingdom Protista.
(f) All prokaryotes are classified under Monera.

Soln:

Answers
a-True
b- True
c- False
d-True
e-False
f- True

Explanation:

c) Taxonomic hierarchy

Species

Genus

Family

Soln:

Torpedo- cartilagenous
Sting ray- cartilagenous
Dog fish- cartilagenous
Rohu- bony
Angler fish- bony
Exocoetus- bony

42. Classify the following based on number of chambers in their heart. Rohu, Scoliodon, Frog, Salamander,
Flying lizard, King Cobra, Crocodile, Ostrich, Pigeon, Bat, Whale.

Soln:

Rohu- 2 chambered

Scoliodon-2 chambered

Frog-3 chambered

Salamander-3 chambered

Flying lizard-3 chambered

King Cobra-3 chambered

Crocodile-4 chambered

Ostrich-4chambered
Bat-4chambered

Whale-4 chambered

43. Classify Rohu, Scolidon, Flying lizard, King Kobra, Frog, Salamander, Ostrich, Pigeon, Bat, Crocodile
and Whale into the cold blooded/warm blooded animals.

Soln:

Rohu- Cold Blooded

Scolidon- Cold Blooded
Flying lizard- Cold Blooded
King Kobra- Cold Blooded
Frog- Cold Blooded
Salamander- Cold Blooded
Ostrich- Warm Blooded
Pigeon- Warm Blooded
Bat- Warm Blooded
Crocodile- Cold Blooded
Whale- Warm Blooded

44. Name two egg laying mammals.

Soln:

Billed platypus and the echidna are two egg laying mammals

(b) Worms causing disease elephantiasis is Filarial worm.
(c) Open circulatory system is found in Arthropods where coelomic cavity is filled with blood.
(d) Nematodes are known to have pseudocoelom.

48. Label a,b,c and d. given in Fig. 7.1 Give the function of (b)

Soln:

a) Dorsal fin
b) Caudal fin
c) Pelvic fin
d) Pectoral fin
49. Fill in the boxes given in Fig. 7.2 with appropriate characteristics/plant group (s)

Soln:
a) Thallophyta
b) Vascular tissue without specialization
c) Pteridopphyta
d) Phanerogams
e) Bare naked seeds
f) Angiosperms
g) Seeds with two cotyledons
h) Monocots
Multiple Choice Questions

50. Write names of few thallophytes. Draw a labelled diagram of Spirogyra.

Soln:

Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Cladophara, Ulva and Chara are few of the examples for Thallophytes

51. Thallophyta, bryophyta and pteridophyta are called as ‘Cryptogams’. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
are called as ‘phanerogams’. Discuss why? Draw one example of Gymnosperm.

Soln:

Thallophyta, bryophyta and pteridophyta are called as ‘Cryptogams’ because the reproductive organs of plants in
all these three groups are very inconspicuous, and they are therefore called ‘cryptogams’, or
‘those with hidden reproductive organs’. In these plants seeds are absent.

Example : Pinus

Gymnosperms and Angiosperms are called as ‘phanerogams’ these are the plants plants with well
differentiated reproductive parts that ultimately make seeds .

Example: Cycas
52. Define the terms and give one example of each
(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Coelom
(c) Triploblastic

Soln:

a) Organism with body shapes that are mirror images along a middle line. The internal organs, however, are
not necessarily distributed symmetrically. Example: Liver fluke
b) Coelem is a body cavity filled with fluid. Fluid runs the complete length of vertebrates to divide the body
of an organism into inner tube and outer tube is called Coelom Example : Butterfly
c) Animals that have 3 embryonic cell layers from which differentiated tissues are made are called
triploblastic organisms. Ex: Star Fish

53. You are given leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion; and all have segmented body
organisation. Will you classify them in one group? If no, give the important characters based on which you
will separate these organisms into different groups.

Soln:

The organisms given in the question does not belong to a common group of organisms. Leech and Nereis are
annelids but Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion are arthropods

Annelids have metamerically segmented body. In Metamerically segmented body body is divided into many
segments internally by septa. From head to tail body segments are lined up one after the other. Arthropoda have
jointed legs and open circulating system.

54. Which organism is more complex and evolved among Bacteria, Mushroom and Mango tree. Give
reasons.

Soln:

Among Bacteria, Mushroom and Mango tree; Mango tree is the complex and evolved organism Because it is
Eukaryotic, multicellular, autotrophic terrestrial plant. It is an angiosperm and its seeds are covered. It
reproductive organs and accumulated in the flower hence it is called as a flowering plant.

Bacteria are prokaryotic unicellular organisms and fungi are heterotrophic thallophytes with no body
differentiation. Hence mango tree is evolved more than bacteria and fungi.

55. Differentiate between flying lizard and bird. Draw the diagram.

Soln:

Sl Flying lizard is a reptile Bird belongs to class-Aves.

No
1 Ectothermic or cold-blooded, Warm-blooded, tetrapodous vertebrates
terrestrial or aquatic vertebrates. (birds) with various flight adaptations.
Size ranges from smallest humming
bird to largest ostrich.
2 Body covered with dry water-proof Persist on the feet but feathers cover
skin having horny epidermal scales most of the body.
or dermal acute plates.
3 Body varies in form and is usually Spindle or boat-shaped body is
divided into head, neck, trunk and divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail.
tail.
4 Limbs are tetrapodous pentadacytle Fore-limbs modified into wings for
(five-toed) type; with clawed digits flight, Hind-limbs bear four clawed
(limbs are absent in snakes and some digits and are adapted for walking,
lizards). perching, or swimming.
5 Teeth are present in all reptiles Narrow jaws form a horny beak, which
except in tortoises and turtles. is modified for different purpose. Teeth
are absent.
6 Respiration is through lungs only. No They breathe through lungs.
gills are present.
7 Heart is three chambered and is Four-chambered heart with two
divided into two auricles and an auricles and two ventricles.
incompletely divided ventricle. Only
crocodiles have four-chambered
heart.
8 Fertilisation is internal. Most reptiles Fertilization is internal. They are
are ' oviparous and lay their eggs oviparous and lay large, yolk-laden
with tough covering and do not need eggs having hard shell.
to lay their eggs in water. A few
reptiles are viviparous, (e.g., lizards
and snakes). No aquatic larval stage.
Flying Lizard Sparrow

56. List out some common features in cat, rat and bat

Soln:

 All are Eukaryotes

 They are multicellular
 They are heterotrophic in nature
 All Have Notochord
 Presence of four chambered heart
 have a dorsal nerve cord
 All are triploblastic
 have paired gill pouches
 They are coelomate.
57. Why do we keep both snake and turtle in the same class?

Soln:

Because both have certain common feature which are listed below.

 These animals are cold-blooded,

 They have scales and breathe through lungs.

 Both of them have a three-chambered heart

 Both of them lay eggs with tough coverings and do not need to lay their eggs in water
Chapter - 8
Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be:
(a) Zero
(b) π r
(c) 2 r
(d) 2π r

Soln:

Answer is (c) 2 r

Explanation:

After half revolution

1
Distance travelled = X circumference= πr
2
Path length

Displacement = Final position- Initial Position

It comes out to be the diameter of the circle = 2R.

2. A body is thrown vertically upward with velocity u, the greatest height h to which it will rise is,
(a) u/g
(b) u2/2g
(c) u2/g
(d) u/2g

Soln:

Answer is (b) u2/2g

Explanation:
V2= u2+2 as
here v = 0
a = -g
s=H

0 = u² -2gH

H = u²/2g

3. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is

(a) always less than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(c) always more than 1
(d) equal or less than 1
Soln:

Answer is (d) equal or less than 1

Explanation:

Shortest distance between initial and end point is called displacement. Distance is the total path length.

Displacement is vector and it may be positive or negative whereas Distance is scalar and it can never be negative.

Distance can be equal or greater than displacement which means ratio of displacement to distance is always equal
to or less than 1.

4. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
(a) uniform velocity
(b) uniform acceleration
(c) increasing acceleration
(d) decreasing acceleration

17. The velocity-time graph (Fig. 8.5) shows the motion of a cyclist. Find (i) its acceleration (ii) its
velocity and (iii) the distance covered by the cyclist in 15 seconds
Soln:

Here Velocity is constant hence v=20ms-1

(iii) s = v x t

= 20 x 15

= 300 m

18. Draw a velocity versus time graph of a stone thrown vertically upwards and then coming downwards
after attaining the maximum height.

Soln:

19. An object is dropped from rest at a height of 150 m and simultaneously another object is dropped from
rest at a height 100 m. What is the difference in their heights after 2 s if both the objects drop with same
accelerations? How does the difference in heights vary with time?

Soln:

When two objects fall with same acceleration simultaneously. after 2 seconds the difference in their heights will
not change and it remain 50 m.
Therefore the height of first object after 2 seconds is 130 m.

In the same way the height of second object is

Therefore, the height of second object after 2 seconds is 80 m.

So, the difference is same, i.e. 50 m.

This concludes that the difference in height of the two objects does not depend on time and will always be same.

20. An object starting from rest travels 20 m in first 2 s and 160 m in next 4 s. What will be the velocity
after 7 s from the start.

Soln:

Here Object starts from rest hence initial velocity u=0 t =2s and s=20 m
1
According to Second equation of motion s= ut+ at2
2
1
S=0+2a x22
1
20=2+ a x22= 2a
2

=20/2
a=10m/s

According to first equation of motion velocity after 7 s from the start

V=u+at
V=0+10x7
V=70m/s

21. Using following data, draw time - displacement graph for a moving object:

Time(s) 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Displacement(m) 0 2 4 4 4 6 4 2 0

Use this graph to find average velocity for first 4 s, for next 4 s and for last 6 s.
Soln

𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡
Average velocity for the first 4s=
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛

4−4 0
Average velocity of next 4 s=V= =
8−4 4

(0−6)𝑚 (−6)
Average velocity for last 6 s=(16−10)𝑠 = = 1 ms-1
6

22. An electron moving with a velocity of 5 × 104 m s-1 enters into a uniform electric field and acquires a
uniform acceleration of 104 m s–2 in the direction of its initial motion.
(i) Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.
(ii) How much distance the electron would cover in this time?

Soln:

Given initial velocity, u = 5 × 104 m s-1 and acceleration, a = 104 m s–2

(i) final velocity = v = 2 u = 2 × 5 ×104 m s–1 =10 × 104 m s–1
To find t, use v = at or t = u - u / a

(ii)
1
Using s = ut + at 2 = (5 ×104) × 5 + 1/ 2 (10 ) × (5) 2
2

= 25 ×104 + 25
2 ×104
= 37.5×104 m
23. Obtain a relation for the distance travelled by an object moving with a uniform acceleration in the
interval between 4th and 5th seconds.

Soln:

a = dv/dt

Assume that air resistanceis nil.

We can directly contain it by using Newton's equations of motion or from the below mentioned method:

Thus area under the v-t curve and the x-axis where the slope of the curve is the instantaneous acceleration.

In this case acceleration g is constant and due to free fall condition, initial velocity is zero.Therefore the v-t curve
is a straight line with a slope equal to g equal to 9.81 m/s passing through origin.

On dividing the total area under the curve into interval of unit seconds, then we initially obtain a triangle followed
by trapeziums of increasing height.

The ratio of area of first triangle to second triangle to third triangle is equal to the ratio of displacement in first,
second and third second. We get ratio equal to 1:3:5:7:9... and so on.

For 4th & 5th second it is 7:9.

24. Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously with their initial velocities u1 and u2
respectively. Prove that the heights reached by them would be in the ratio of u 2 2 1 2 :u ( Assume upward
acceleration is –g and downward acceleration to be +g ).

Soln:
Chapter - 9
Force and Laws of Motion

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following statement is not correct for an object moving along a straight path in an
accelerated motion?
(a) Its speed keeps changing
(b) Its velocity always changes
(c) It always goes away from the earth
(d) A force is always acting on it

Soln:

Answer is (c) It always goes away from the earth

Explanation:

To move away from earth Object’s acceleration should be more than the acceleration due to gravity. To escape
from gravity only moving along a straight path is not enough hence option © is a wrong statement.

Soln:

Answer is (b) 0 N

Explanation:

Here the friction is opposing the force hence no force is required to keep the object in uniform motion. Hence the
answer is 0 N.
7. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity

Soln:
Answer is (c) momentum

Explanation:

Velocity of hot gases coming out of rocket provided large momentum in opposite direction which makes the
rocket move upwards. Here the conservation of momentum takes place.

8. A water tanker filled up to 2/3 of its height is moving with a uniform speed. On sudden application of the
brake, the water in the tank would
(a) move backward
(b) move forward
(c) be unaffected
(d) rise upwards

Soln:

Answer is (b) move forward

Explanation:

On applying brakes water tanker comes to rest but water will be in motion this makes the water to come forward.

Short Answer Questions

9. There are three solids made up of aluminium, steel and wood, of the same shape and same volume.
Which of them would have highest inertia?

Soln:

Inertia depends on the mass of the object. For the solids with same size and volume inertia is determined by its
mass. Hence steel will have highest inertia.

10. Two balls of the same size but of different materials, rubber and iron are kept on the smooth floor of a
moving train. The brakes are applied suddenly to stop the train. Will the balls start rolling? If so, in which
direction? Will they move with the same speed? Give reasons for your answer.

Soln:

Yes the balls start rolling in the direction of train was moving.. When brakes are applied, train will come to rest
and balls try to attain rest because of inertia balls remain in motion and they began to roll. Since the mass between
two balls are not same inertia of iron ball is greater than the inertia of rubber ball. Hence rubber ball rolls faster
than iron ball.
11. Two identical bullets are fired one by a light rifle and another by a heavy rifle with the same force.
Which rifle will hurt the shoulder more and why?

Soln:

The momentum of the bullet depends on the backward momentum of the rifle. Since momentum of lighter rifle is
more than the heavier rifle, bullet fired from lighter rifle hurts the shoulder more.

12. A horse continues to apply a force in order to move a cart with a constant speed. Explain why?

Soln:

When cart moves on the road it has to encounter the friction. In order to keep the cart moving horse should
overcome the friction. Hence it continues to apply the force.

13. Suppose a ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed v, its speed decreases
continuously till it becomes zero. Thereafter, the ball begins to fall downward and attains the speed v again
before striking the ground. It implies that the magnitude of initial and final momentums of the ball are
same. Yet, it is not an example of conservation of momentum. Explain why?

Soln:

If external force did not act on the system momentum of that system remains constant. In the give case change in
velocity is due to gravitation force of the earth.

14. Velocity versus time graph of a ball of mass 50 g rolling on a concrete floor is shown in Fig. 9.1.
Calculate the acceleration and frictional force of the floor on the ball.
Soln:
Given, m = 50g
F =?
Force = mass × acceleration
50
= x10 = 0.5 N
1000

velocity = 80ms-1.

Velocity decelerates due to the friction of the floor with itself and comes to rest after 8 seconds.

𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 0−80

a= =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 8

−1000𝑥1000
a= x10
2.5

=107ms-2

F= ma
=105N

(ii) v=u+at

0=103-107t
107t= 103

t=103/107

= 10-4s

19. Derive the unit of force using the second law of motion. A force of 5 N produces an acceleration of 8 m
s–2 on a mass m1 and an acceleration of 24 m s–2 on a mass m2. What acceleration would the same force
provide if both the masses are tied together?

Soln:

F = m a = kg m s–2

This unit is also called newton. Its symbol is N.

𝑓 5
m1= = kg
𝑎1 8

𝐹 5
m2 = = kg
𝑎2 24

5 5 5
m= + kg = kg
8 24 6

Acceleration produced in M

𝑓 5
a= = = 6ms-2
𝑚 5/6

20. What is momentum? Write its SI unit. Interpret force in terms of momentum. Represent the following
graphically
(a) momentum versus velocity when mass is fixed.
(b) momentum versus mass when velocity is constant.

Soln:

Answer is (a) F/4

4. A boy is whirling a stone tied with a string in an horizontal circular path. If the string breaks, the stone
(a) will continue to move in the circular path
(b) will move along a straight line towards the centre of the circular path
(c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(d) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

Soln:

Answer is (c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path

Explanation:

At any instance of time object in circular motion tend to be in rectilinear motion. Object keeps on moving due to
centripetal force and it moves along a straight line tangential to the circular path when strings breaks.

5. An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with 12 3 , and 9
11 7 parts of their volumes outside the liquid surface in liquids of densities d1, d2 and d3 respectively.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d1> d2> d3
(b) d1> d2< d3
(c) d1< d2> d3
(d) d1< d2< d3

Soln:

Answer is (d) d1< d2< d3

6. In the relation F = G M m/d2, the quantity G

(a) depends on the value of g at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the earth
(d) is universal constant of nature

Soln:

Answer is (d) is universal constant of nature

Explanation:

G is called as Newton’s constant. It is the force of gravity on a body. Value of G is 6.66x 10-11 Nm2kg-2

7. Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between

(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and Sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only

Soln:

Answer is (c) any two bodies having some mass

8. The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation
(a) depends on mass of earth only
(b) depends on radius of earth only
(c) depends on both mass and radius of earth
(d) is independent of mass and radius of the earth

Soln:

Answer is (d) is independent of mass and radius of the earth

Explanation:

G is an universal constant hence it is independent of mass and radius of the earth.

9. Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the
distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
(a) 1 4 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 1 2 times
(d) unchanged

Soln:

Answer is (b) 4 times

Explanation:
𝑚1𝑥𝑚2
F= Gx
𝑟2

2𝑚1𝑥2𝑚2
F=Gx
𝑟2

𝑚1𝑥𝑚2
F= 4xGx
𝑟2

10. The atmosphere is held to the earth by

(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field

Soln:

Answer is (a) gravity

11. The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called
(a) gravitational potential
(b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field
(d) universal gravitational constant

Soln:

Answer is (d) universal gravitational constant

Explanation:
𝑚1𝑥𝑚2
F= Gx
𝑟2

Here point masses are separated by unit distance

Hence m1, m2 and r = 1

Hence F=G which is a universal constant hence answer is universal gravitational constant

12. The weight of an object at the centre of the earth of radius R is

(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) R times the weight at the surface of the earth
(d) 1/R2 times the weight at surface of the earth

Soln:

Answer is (a) zero

Explanation:

At the centre of the earth acceleration due to gravity is zero . Since weight is the product of mass and gravity.
Weight of object at the centre of the earth will be zero.

13. An object weighs 10 N in air. When immersed fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the liquid
displaced by the object will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 8 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 12 N

Soln:

Answer is (a) 2 N
Explanation:

Object of weight displace d by liquid = weight in air- weight in liquid

Weight of the object= M

R2
Original weight W0 = mg = mg M
R2

Hypothetically 4m and R becomes R

Then, weight = mG 4M
𝑅
( )2
2

=(16m g) M
R2

= 10xW0

Weight will be 16 times.

24. How does the force of attraction between the two bodies depend upon their masses and distance
between them? A student thought that two bricks tied together would fall faster than a single one under the
action of gravity. Do you agree with his hypothesis or not? Comment.

Soln:

Force of attraction between two masses separated by distance r is given by Newton law of gravitation
where F= Gm1m2 Where G is gravitational force and it is an universal constant.
R2
Gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of two bodies and inversely proportional
to the square of the distance between them.

Bodies thrown from same height fall with same speed irrespective of their mass. This is due to acceleration due to
gravity.

g= GM Where M is mass R is radius of the earth

This equation shows that acceleration due to gravity depends on mass of the earth and radius of the earth. Henec
tow brick tied will not fall faster than single one.

25. Two objects of masses m1 and m2 having the same size are dropped simultaneously from heights h1
and h2 respectively. Find out the ratio of time they would take in reaching the ground. Will this ratio
remain the same if (i) one of the objects is hollow and the other one is solid and (ii) both of them are hollow,
size remaining the same in each case. Give reason.

Soln:
1
h1 = gt21
2

1
h2 = gt22
2

as x = o

𝑡1 ℎ1
=√
𝑡2 ℎ2

As the acceleration remain same ratio between two objects remain same. In this case acceleration does not depend
upon mass and size.

26. (a) A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case will it
experience a greater buoyant force. If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water,
what will be the effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water.
Give reason for each case.

(b) A ball weighing 4 kg of density 4000 kg m–3 is completely immersed in water of density 103 kg m–3
Find the force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 m s–2.)
Soln:

i) Buoyant force, F = Vpg

p= Density of water, V = Volume of water displaced by the body

Volume and density of an object decides its Buoyancy. Cube will experience a greater byoyancy in
saturated solution. If cube is reduces to 4 cm on each side, volume of cube becomes less as the
buoyancy will be reduced as buoyant force is directly proportional to volume.

(ii) The magnitude of the buoyant force given by F = Vpg

where V = Volume of body immersed in water or volume of water displaced, p = Density of liquid.

[∴ Given, mass of a ball = 4 kg, density = 4000 kgm-3].

𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠
Hence Volume of solid =
𝐷𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦

4
=
4000

1
=
1000

Buoyancy F= Vpg
1
== x 1000x10
1000
10N
Chapter 11
Work and Energy
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Soln:

Answer is (c) remains constant

Explanation

Body falling freely towards the earth possess same kinetic and potential energy and it follows Law of
conservation of energy hence its total energy remains constant.

2. A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity 4 times of its initial velocity. In this process
the potential energy of the car
(a) does not change
(b) becomes twice to that of initial
(c) becomes 4 times that of initial
(d) becomes 16 times that of initial

Soln:

Answer is (a) does not change

Explanation:

Potential energy is the product of height, mass and gravity. Hence height is a factor in determining potential
energy. Here the height does not change hence potential energy of the car does not change.

3. In case of negative work the angle between the force and displacement is
(a) 00
(b) 450
(c) 900
(d ) 1800

Soln:

Answer is (d ) 1800
Explanation:

workdone =FS cosɵ

Cos180= -1

Hence the answer is 1800

4. An iron sphere of mass 10 kg has the same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass is 3.5 kg. Both
spheres are dropped simultaneously from a tower. When they are 10 m above the ground, they have the
same
(a) acceleration
(b) momenta
(c) potential energy
(d) kinetic energy

Soln:

Momentum, potential energy and kinetic energy varies with weight. But in this case acceleration is because of
acceleration due to gravity which is independent of mass hence acceleration is the right answer.

5. A girl is carrying a school bag of 3 kg mass on her back and moves 200 m on a levelled road. The work
done against the gravitational force will be (g =10 m s–2)
(a) 6 ×103 J
(b) 6 J
(c) 0.6 J
(d) zero

Soln:

Explanation:

When body is at height h, its potential will be hundred percent and kinetic energy will be zero. In the same way
when body reached ground its potential energy will be zero and kinetic energy will be maximum. At height h/2
both potential energy and kinetic energy of the body will be half.
Short answer Questions

10. A rocket is moving up with a velocity v. If the velocity of this rocket is suddenly tripled, what will be the
ratio of two kinetic energies?

Soln:

Initial velocity=v=3v
1
Initial kinetic energy= v2
2

1
Kinetic energy= v2
2

1 1
m(3v)2= 9( mv2)
2 2
Ratio between Initial kinetic energy and final kinetic energy is 1:9

11. Avinash can run with a speed of 8 m s–1 against the frictional force of 10 N, and Kapil can move with a
speed of 3 m s–1 against the frictional force of 25 N. Who is more powerful and why?

Soln:
P= f×v

P1= 10× 8 = 80W

P2=25×3=75W

Hence Avinash is more powerful than Kapil

12. A boy is moving on a straight road against a frictional force of 5 N. After travelling a distance of 1.5 km
he forgot the correct path at a round about (Fig. 11.1) of radius 100 m. However, he moves on the circular
path for one and half cycle and then he moves forward upto 2.0 km. Calculate the work done by him.

Soln:
Workdone = force × Displacement

Displacement =1500m+200m+200m= 1700

Workdone =5 ×1700= 18500 J

13. Can any object have mechanical energy even if its momentum is zero? Explain.

Soln:

Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. If the body is at rest its velocity will be zero. If it is reast at height
it possess gravitational potential energy hence mechanical energy.

14. Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is zero? Explain.

Soln:

No, Because its potential and kinetic energy are zero.

15. The power of a motor pump is 2 kW. How much water per minute the pump can raise to a height of 10
m? (Given g = 10 m s–2)

Soln:

Power of pump = 2kW =2000W

Time (t)= 60sec

Height (h) = 10m g = 10m/s2

Power =work done per unit time.

Work done = mgh = m ×10×10 =100m

10𝑚
2000W =
60𝑠

Therefore, m = 1200kg So, the pump can raise 1200kg of water in one minute.

16. The weight of a person on a planet A is about half that on the earth. He can jump upto 0.4 m height on
the surface of the earth. How high he can jump on the planet A?

Soln:

Person on Planet A can jump a height of 0.8 m because weight of person on plat A is half the weight that of earth.
Hence acceleration due to gravity on planet A will also be half of that on earth.
17. The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is increased by applying a constant force F, for some
distance in the direction of the motion. Prove that the increase in the kinetic energy of the body is equal to
the work done by the force on the body.

Soln:

v2-u2 = 2as

s= v2-u2
2a
F= ma

W=ma(v2-u2)
2a
1 2 1
= mv - mu2
2 2

=
(K.E)f-(K.E)t

18. Is it possible that an object is in the state of accelerated motion due to external force acting on it, but no
work is being done by the force. Explain it with an example.
Soln:

Force always acts in perpendicular to the displacement direction. If the object is moving in circular path then no
work will be done despite of action of force.

19. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of the ball reduces by 40% after striking the
ground, how much high can the ball bounce back? (g = 10 m s–2).

Soln:

mgh=m×10×10= 100m joules

when 40% energy is reduced remaining energy will be 60mjoules

Hence 60-m×10×h

H= -6m

20. If an electric iron of 1200 W is used for 30 minutes everyday, find electric energy consumed in the
month of April.

Soln:

Power of electric iron=1200W

Usage per day =30min

=30/60hrs
=0.5hrs
Number of days in the month of April=30days

Electrical energy consumed, E=Pxt 1200x0.5x30

=18000WH
=18KWH
=18units
Therefore, The Total Electricity consumed in april month is 18 units

Long answer Questions

21. A light and a heavy object have the same momentum. Find out the ratio of their kinetic energies. Which
one has a larger kinetic energy?

Soln:

1
Kinetic energy equation: Ek= mv2
2
1
Ek= mv2
2
Momentum equation: p=mv

p=mv
𝑝2
Kinetic energy equation in terms of momentum: Ek=
2𝑚

Kinetic energy of two objects will be same if their mass and momentum are same. Among light and heavy bodies
Heavy body has highest momentum. When the momentum is equal light body has more kinetic energy.

22. An automobile engine propels a 1000 kg car (A) along a levelled road at a speed of 36 km h–1. Find the
power if the opposing frictional force is 100 N. Now, suppose after travelling a distance of 200 m, this car
collides with another stationary car (B) of same mass and comes to rest. Let its engine also stop at the same
time. Now car (B) starts moving on the same level road without getting its engine started. Find the speed of
the car (B) just after the collision.

Soln:

m(A)= m(B) =1000 kg.

v = 36 km/h =10 m/s

Frictional force = 100 N

car A moves with a uniform speed, which means engine of car applies a force equal to the frictional force

Power = Force × distance / time = F . V

= 100 N × 10 m/s = 1000 W

After collision mA uA + mB uB = mA vA + mB vB.

1000 ×10 +1000 × 0

= 1000 × 0 + 1000 × vB vB
= 10 m s–1

23. A girl having mass of 35 kg sits on a trolley of mass 5 kg. The trolley is given an initial velocity of 4 m s–
1 by applying a force. The trolley comes to rest after traversing a distance of 16 m. (a) How much work is
done on the trolley? (b) How much work is done by the girl?

Soln:

(a)
Initial velocity of the trolley,u = 4 m/s
Final velocity of the trolleyv = 0
Mass of the trolleym = 5 kg

Distance covered by the trolley before coming to rest,s = 16 m

From Equation 2 as =v2-u2,

a = v2-u22 S
=0-(4)22x16
=0.5 m/s2

Force (frictional) acting on the trolley = ma

= 40 (- 0.5)
= - 20 N
Work done on the trolley = Fs = (20 N) (16 m)
= 320 J

(b) Since the girl does not move w.r.t. the trolley (as she is sitting on it),work done by the girl = 0.

24. Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it without raising or lowering it.
(a) How much work is done by the men in lifting the box?
(b) How much work do they do in just holding it?
(c) Why do they get tired while holding it? (g = 10 m s–2)

Soln:

(a)

F= 250kg×g= 2500 N

S= 1m

W=F.s= 250Nm= 2500 J

(b)
While holding box there is no displacement hence workdone is zero

c) While holding the box they apply muscular force which is equal and opposite to the gravitational force hence
they feel tired while holding box.

25. What is power? How do you differentiate kilowatt from kilowatt hour? The Jog Falls in Karnataka
state are nearly 20 m high. 2000 tonnes of water falls from it in a minute. Calculate the equivalent power if
all this energy can be utilized? (g = 10 m s–2)

Soln:

Power is the rate of transfer of energy or rate of doing work. Watt is the unit of power and kilowatt is 1000
watts.

h = 20 m, and mass = 2000 × 103 kg

= 2 × 106 kg
Power = m g h / t
= 2 x 106 x 10 x 20
60
4
w = x107w =
6

2 x107w
3

26. How is the power related to the speed at which a body can be lifted? How many kilograms will a man
working at the power of 100 W, be able to lift at constant speed of 1 m s–1 vertically? (g = 10 m s–2)

Soln:

Power = work/time
work=force x displacement
force = mass x acceleration
acceleration=velocity/time

Therefore
Power= velocity×mass× displacement
time × time
Here
Power,P=100W
velocity,v=1m/s
since time,t=1s
displacement, s=1m
acceleration,a=10m/s

From equation P=m×a×s

t
100=m×10
m=10
27. Define watt. Express kilowatt in terms of joule per second. A 150 kg car engine develops 500 W for each
kg. What force does it exert in moving the car at a speed of 20 m s–1?

Soln:

Power of an object which does work at 1 Joules/sec is called watt

𝑱𝒐𝒖𝒍𝒆
1 watt=
𝒔𝒆𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒅

1 kilowatt= 1000watts=1000J/sec

mass of car = 150kg

power for each kg=500x 150=7500w

speed=20m/s
power=Force x v

∴force=power/v
7500
20

=3750N

28. Compare the power at which each of the following is moving upwards against the force of gravity?
(given g = 10 m s–2) (i) a butterfly of mass 1.0 g that flies upward at a rate of 0.5 m s–1. (ii) a 250 g squirrel
climbing up on a tree at a rate of 0.5 m s–1.

Soln:

i) Butterfly force= mg=1/100

power=f×s÷t. {s÷t=velocity}
power=1÷100×.5
power=1÷200W

ii) squirrel force=mg=25

4. Sound travels in air if

(a) particles of medium travel from one place to another
(b) there is no moisture in the atmosphere
(c) disturbance moves
(d) both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another.
Soln:

Answer is (c) disturbance moves

Explanation:

Sound waves propagate by vibrating in its own position. Whereas disturbance created by vibration of particles
moves from one place to another.

5. When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its

(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Soln:

Answer is (b) amplitude

Explanation:

Loudness of sound is proportional to amplitude. When amplitude increase feeble sound change to loud sound.

6. In the curve (Fig.12.1) half the wavelength is

(a) A B
(b) B D
(c) D E
(d) A E

Soln:

Answer is (b) B D

Explanation:

Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive troughs. In the graph half the wavelength will BD.

7. Earthquake produces which kind of sound before the main shock wave begins
(a) ultrasound
(b) infrasound
(c) audible sound
(d) none of the above
Soln:

Answer is (b) infrasound

Explanation:

It is due to infrared rays few animals sense the earthquake and they behave abnormally before earthquake.

8. Infrasound can be heard by

(a) dog
(b) bat
(c) rhinoceros
(d) human beings

Soln:

Answer is (c) rhinoceros

Explanation:

Infrasound have frequency less than 20 Hz and Rhinoceroses communicate using Infrasound waves of frequency
of 5 Hz hence rhinoceros is the right answer.

9. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the
string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting
(a) intensity of sound only
(b) amplitude of sound only
(c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(d) loudness of sound

Soln:

Answer is (c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

Explanation:

Artists adjust the frequencies before beginning to play an instruments because musical instruments should be
tuned in with other musical instruments to produce pleasant music.
Short Answer Questions

10. The given graph (Fig.12.2) shows the displacement versus time relation for a disturbance travelling
with velocity of 1500 m s–1. Calculate the wavelength of the disturbance.

Soln: T= 2×106s
1
Frequency v=
𝑇
= 105 hz
𝑣
Wavelength λ =5×105m
𝑉

11. Which of the above two graphs (a) and (b) (Fig.12.3) representing the human voice is likely to be the
male voice? Give reason for your answer.

Soln:

Pitch of male voice is lighter than pitch of female hence the graph a represent male voice.
12. A girl is sitting in the middle of a park of dimension 12 m × 12 m. On the left side of it there is a
building adjoining the park and on right side of the park, there is a road adjoining the park. A sound is
produced on the road by a cracker. Is it possible for the girl to hear the echo of this sound? Explain your
answer.

Soln:

Echo can be heard if the gap between the original sound and reflected sound received by the listener is around 0.1
sec.

Sound Velocity× time interval

=344×0.1
= 34.4 m

Here sound reflects from the building and then reaches the girl which is much smaller than the required distance.
Hence echo cannot be heard.

13. Why do we hear the sound produced by the humming bees while the sound of vibrations of pendulum is
not heard?

Soln:

Humming bees produce the sound by beating their wings and the frequency of sound they produce will be in the
range of 20Hz to 20000 Hz which is audible . On the other hand pendulum produces sound less than 20 hz which
is below audible range and we don’t hear the sound of pendulum vibrations.

14. If any explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, what type of shock waves in water will take place?

Soln:

Answer is longitudinal waves

15. Sound produced by a thunderstorm is heard 10 s after the lightning is seen. Calculate the approximate
distance of the thunder cloud. (Given speed of sound = 340 m s–1.)

Soln:

Distance = speed ×time

Here speed = 340ms-1

Time = 10s
= 340× 10= 3400m.
16. For hearing the loudest ticking sound heard by the ear, find the angle x in the Fig.12.4.

Soln:

Angle of incidence is always equal to the Angle of reflection

Angle of Incidence =900-500=400

Angle of reflection= angle of incidence=400

Hence angle x is 400

17. Why is the ceiling and wall behind the stage of good conference halls or concert halls made curved?

Soln:

Ceiling and wall behind the stage of good conference halls or concert halls made curved to ensure the reflected
sound equally to all the audience.

Long Answer Questions

18. Represent graphically by two separate diagrams in each case

(i) Two sound waves having the same amplitude but different frequencies?
(ii) Two sound waves having the same frequency but different amplitudes.
(iii) Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different wavelengths.
Soln:

19. Establish the relationship between speed of sound, its wavelength and frequency. If velocity of sound in
air is 340 m s–1, calculate
(i) wavelength when frequency is 256 Hz.
(ii) frequency when wavelength is 0.85 m

Soln:

Relationship between Sound speed, wavelength and frequency

𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Speed =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒

𝑊𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ
V=
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒

𝑊𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ𝑥1
V = wavelength × 1/time
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

1
Frequency =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

V = wavelength × frequency

𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑
1) Wavelength =
𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦
340
=
256

= 1.32 mType equation here.

𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑
2) Frequency = speed / wavelength
𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ

340
=
0.85

= 400 HZ

20. Draw a curve showing density or pressure variations with respect to distance for a disturbance
produced by sound. Mark the position of compression and rarefaction on this curve. Also define
wavelengths and time period using this curve.

Soln:
Chapter - 13
why do we fall ill

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which one of the following is not a viral disease?
(a) Dengue
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Influenza

Soln:

Answer is (c) Typhoid

Explanation:

Typhoid is caused by a bacterium called as Salmonella typhi

2. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?

(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Anthrax
(d) Influenza

Soln:

Answer is (d) Influenza

Explanation:

Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholera bacterium

Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis bacteria.
Influenza is caused by Influenza virus hence option d) is the right answer.

3. Which one of the following disease is not transmitted by mosquito?

(a) Brain fever
(b) Malaria
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dengue

Soln:

Answer is (c) Typhoid

Explanation:

Typhoid is transmitted through food and water.

4. Which one of the following disease is not caused by bacteria?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Anthrax
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

Soln:

Answer is (d) Malaria

Explanation:

Malaria is cause by protozoans called Plasmodium vivax hence d) is the right answer

5. Which one of the following diseases is caused by protozoans?

(a) Malaria
(b) Influenza
(c) AIDS
(d) Cholera

Soln:

Answer is (a) Malaria

Answer is (c) viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own

Explanation:

Antibacterial drugs stop certain biochemical reaction in the bacteria that kills the bacteria. But in virus there are
few biochemical processes which are difficulty to target hence making anti-viral drugs is difficult.

10. Which one of the following causes kala-azar?

(a) Ascaris
(b) Trypanosoma
(c) Leishmania
(d) Bacteria

Soln:

Answer is (c) Leishmania

11. If you live in a overcrowded and poorly ventilated house, it is possible that you may suffer from which
of the following diseases
(a) Cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) Air borne diseases
(d) Cholera

Soln:

Answer is (c) Air borne diseases

12. Which disease is not transmitted by mosquitoes?

(a) Dengue
(b) Malaria
(c) Brain fever or encephalitis
(d) Pneumonia

Soln:

Answer is (d) Pneumonia

Explanation:

Explanation:

Mosquitos are dangerous as they spread disease like Malaria, Dengue, Japanese encephalitis etc.

16. You are aware of Polio Eradication Programme in your city. Children are vaccinated because
(a) vaccination kills the polio causing microorganisms
(b) prevents the entry of polio causing organism
(c) it creates immunity in the body
(d) all the above

Soln:

Answer is (c) it creates immunity in the body

Antibiotic is a chemical agent that kills the bacteria or fungi by blocking their biochemical pathway. Ex:
Streptomycin, Azithromycin.

23. Fill in the blanks

30. Explain giving reasons

(a) Balanced diet is necessary for maintaining healthy body.
(b) Health of an organism depends upon the surrounding environmental conditions.
(c) Our surrounding area should be free of stagnant water.
(d) Social harmony and good economic conditions are necessary for good health.

Soln:

a) Food is essential for the growth and normal function of our body. Balanced diet is the one which consists of all
the essential nutrients in an appropriate quantity. Balanced diet provided appropriate amount of biomolecules such
as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins and minerals which are very essential for our growth and body
functioning. Imbalance in diet lead to many physical and physiological diseases.

b) Health is defined as physical, mental and social well-being and comfort. Health is always dependent on our
surroundings and if our environment is unhygienic we get disease. We get cold and cough in rainy and winter
season. Our environment conditions are very important for being healthy.
c) Stangnant water is the breeding environment for mosquitos. Mosquitos spread many diseases like Malaria,
Dengue, Elephantisis, chickungunys etc. In order to stop spread of these disease our surrounding should be free of
stagnant water.

d) Human beings are social organisms. We live in different localities and environments. In order to lead a healthy
life we have to keep our environment clean. We need good hygienic food to lead healthy life which depends on
our earnings. We often encounter diseases, in order to get treatment we need money and our economic status
should be strong to afford the treatments.

31. What is a disease? How many types of diseases have you studied? Give examples.

Soln:

Each organs of an organ system has specific functions to do. When this functioning change or disrupt it leads to a
condition called disease. These changes results in some adverse effects on body’s normal functioning and the
changes observed are called signs and symptoms of the disease.

Types of Diseases

Acute:

Diseases that last for only very short periods of time, are called acute diseases. Ex: common cold

Chronic:

Diseases that last for a long time, even as much as a lifetime are called chronic diseases. Ex: elephantiasis.

Infectious:

Diseases which are caused by microorganisms are called infectious diseases. These disease can spread from one
person to another by vectors or by other means such as air, food and water. Ex: Typhoid

Non- Infectious

Diseases that are not caused by infectious agents. Their causes vary, but they are not external causes like microbes
that can spread in the community. Instead, these are mostly internal, non-infectious causes. Example: High blood
pressure.

32. What do you mean by disease symptoms? Explain giving two examples?

Soln:

When we encounter with disease some or more parts of our body start behaving abnormal and give certain signs
which are not normal. Such visible changes in our body are called as symptoms.

Ex: When we get cold our body responds and we start coughing and sneezing and in some cases our body
temperature increase these changes in our body are the symptoms of common cold.
When we get Malaria our body temperature increases our body start shivering due to chills.

33. Why is immune system essential for our health?

Soln:

Immune system is the defense line of our body. Immune system comprise of different kind of cells that kills the
infecting microorganism. When a pathogen enters our body our immune system send immune cells to fight and
kill pathogens. If our immune system clear the disease causing pathogens we stay healthy. If our immune system
fail to clear pathogen we encounter disease. In order to be healthy immune system is essential.

34. What precautions will you take to justify “prevention is better than cure”.

Soln:

Precautions to take to avoid diseases are as follows

1. Maintaining personal as well as public hygiene is very essential

2. Awareness about causes, symptoms and source of diseases
3. Using clean water and avoid storage of water to avoid growth of mosquitos.
4. Balanced diet
5. Regular exercise will boost our immunity
6. Vaccination

35. Why do some children fall ill more frequently than others living in the same locality?

Soln:

There may be many reasons behind fall ill of few children . Some of them are listed below.

Lack of balanced diet leading to malnutrition

Weak immunity

Living in congested unhygienic conditions

Lack of clean drinking water and hygienic food

Missing vaccinations.

36. Why are antibiotics not effective for viral disease?

Soln:

Antibiotics act on bacteria and fungi by blocking certain biochemical activities necessary for the living of
bacteria. On the other hand virus has very few biochemical processes which are hard to target for antibiotic.
Hence antibiotics are not effective against viruses.
37. Becoming exposed to or infected with an infectious microbe does not necessarily mean developing
noticeable disease. Explain.

Soln:

Our immune system fight disease causing pathogens and clears them by killing to gives us protection from
disease. When we get exposed to certain pathogen our immune system sends active cells that kill and clear the
pathogen. Because of the immune system we don’t often get disease despite of getting exposed to infectious
microbe.

38. Give any four factors necessary for a healthy person.

Soln:

Hygienic environment:
Clean water and a hygienic surrounding can keep us away from water and air borne diseases.

Personal Hygiene:
We should keep our body clean to be healthy.

Food:
Hygienic and nutritious food help to boost immune system hence balanced diet is essential for being healthy.

Vaccination:
Vaccination against severe disease is very essential to be healthy.

39. Why is AIDS considered to be a ‘Syndrome’ and not a disease?

HIV AIDS is caused by HIV Virus which enter our body through body fluids such as blood and breast milk or by
sexual means. HIV virus spread to lymphnodes and it block our immune system. This creates a condition where
our body cannot fight minor diseases like common cold.

A person with HIV can get pneumonia from common cold, minor gut infection may turn into sever diarrhoea. In
HIV a person will not have specific symptoms rather he will have a series of infections due hence HIV is called as
a syndrome not a disease.
Chapter - 14
Natural resources

Multiple Choice Questions

Most of the organisms live on earth required oxygen for their living If oxygen convert to ozone living beings will
get killed.
4. One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature
(a) the sun
(b) water
(c) wind
(d) polythene bags

Soln:

Answer is (d) polythene bags

Explanation:

Polythene bags pollutes the soil and converts the soil infertile.

5. The two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere are

(a) water and ozone
(b) water and oxygen
(c) ozone and oxygen
(d) water and carbon-dioxide

Soln:

Answer is (c) ozone and oxygen

Explanation:

Ozone is an allotropic form of oxygen.

6. The process of nitrogen-fixation by bacteria does not take place in the presence of
(a) molecular form of hydrogen
(b) elemental form of oxygen
(c) water
(d) elemental form of nitrogen

Soln:

(b) elemental form of oxygen

7. Rainfall patterns depend on

(a) the underground water table
(b) the number of water bodies in an area
(c) the density pattern of human population in an area
(d) the prevailing season in an area

Soln:
Answer is (b) the number of water bodies in an area
Explanation:

Water bodies provide water for evaporation which are converted into clouds and bring rainfall. Lack of water
bodies also reduce the humidity which will affect the rainfall pattern.

8. Among the given options, which one is not correct for the use of large amount of fertilisers and
pesticides?
(a) They are eco-friendly
(b) They turn the fields barren after some time
(c) They adversally affect the useful component from the soil
(d) They destroy the soil fertility

Explanation:

Physical causes lead to change in pressure on water bodies. Hence change in water pressure will not affect
pollution of water.

12. Which of the following is not a green house gas?

(a) Methane
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Ammonia

Soln:

Answer is (d) Ammonia

13.Which step is not involved in the carbon-cycle?

(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

Soln:

Answer is (b) Transpiration

Explanation:

Transpiration is the process of exhaling water from trees. Transpiration is a part of water cycle.

14. Ozone-hole’ means

(a) a large sized hole in the ozone layer
(b) thinning of the ozone layer
(c) small holes scattered in the ozone layer
(d) thickening of ozone in the ozone layer

Soln:

Answer is (b) thinning of the ozone layer

15. Ozone-layer is getting depleted because of
(a) excessive use of automobiles
(b) excessive formation of industrial units
(c) excessive use of man-made compounds containing both fluorine and chlorine
(d) excessive deforestation.

Soln:
Answer is (c) excessive use of man-made compounds containing both fluorine and chlorine

Green plants utilize atmospheric carbon-dioxide during photosynthesis to make organic compounds. When
animals eat plants organic compounds will go to animals. When plant or animals die they get decomposed to turn
into in-organic carbon.

20. Major source of mineral in soil is the

(a) parent rock from which soil is formed
(b) plants
(c) animals
(d) bacteria

Soln:

Answer is (a) parent rock from which soil is formed

Explanation:

Rock weathering is a process which forms soil. Rocks are naturally occurring soil aggregates which are rich in
minerals. Hence rock is the source of minerals in the soil.

21. Total earth’s surface covered by water is

(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 85%
(d) 50%

Soln:

Answer is (a) 75%

Explanation:

Answer is (b) unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended in air

Explanation:

Unburnt carbon particles and Hydrocarbons suspend in air to create smog. Because of smog visibility will be low
in cold weather.

26. Growth of Lichens on barren rocks is followed by the growth of

(a) moss
(b) ferns
(c) gymnosperms
(d) algae

Soln:

Answer is (a) moss

Explanation:

Lichens releases certain enzymes which makes the rock suitable for the growth of moss. Further moss lead to the
formation of soil which will allow higher plants to grow.

27. Marked temperature changes in aquatic environment can affect

(a) breeding of animals
(b) more growth of aquatic plants
(c) process of digestion in animals
(d) availability of nutrients.

Soln:

Answer is (a) breeding of animals

Explanation:

Most aquatic animals are cold blooded. Their egg and larvae are highly susceptible to temperature changes hence
breeding of animals gets affect from temperature changes.
28. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(a) raising forests
(b) deforestation
(c) excessive use of fertilizer
(d) overgrazing by animals

Soln:

Answer is (a) raising forests

Explanation:

Trees in the forest hold on the soil by its roots. Hence growing forest can prevent soil erosion.

29. What happens when rain falls on soil without vegetational cover?
(a) Rain water percolates in soil efficiently
(b) Rain water causes loss of surface soil
c) Rain water leads to fertility of the soil
(d) Rain water does not cause any change in soil

Explanation:

b) Rain water causes loss of surface soil

Explanation:

Roots hold on the surface soil and helps them to get washed away from current of water due to rainfall. When
there is no vegetation surface soil gets washed away.

30. Oxygen is harmful for

(a) ferns
(b) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(c) chara
(d) mango tree

Soln:

Answer is (b) nitrogen fixing bacteria

Explanation:

Nitrogen fixing bacteria are anaerobic, they get killed when exposed to oxygen hence oxygen is harmful for them.

Short Answer Questions

31. How do fossil fuels cause air pollution?

Soln:

When we burn fossil fuels carbon-do-oxide, nitrous oxide and other chemicals are released which increase the
green-house effect and contribute to global warming. Nitrous oxide forms smog and results in acid rain.

32. How can we prevent the loss of top soil?

Soln:

Loss of top soil can be stopped by 1) Afforestation 2) Crop rotation 3)Counter farming 4) proper irrigation
methods.

33. How is the life of organisms living in water affected when water gets polluted?

Soln:

Addition of pollutants like fertilizers and chemicals to the water bodies will bring disease to aquatic organisms.
Pollutants increases the oxygen requirement in aquatic life. Pollutants also decrease the dissolved oxygen in the
water which will affect the aquatic life adversely.

34. During summer, if you go near the lake, you feel relief from the heat, why?

Soln:
Lake water gets evaporated and vapors due to evaporation creates a cooling effect near lake. Hence we feel
relieved from heat.

35. In coastal area, wind current moves from the sea towards the land during day; but during night it
moves from land to the sea. Discuss the reason.

Soln:

During day time land heats more than sea .This create a low pressure in the land and wind always move from low
pressure to high pressure regions. Similarly in the night land cools faster and sea remains hot making wind to
move from sea to land.

36. Following are a few organisms

(a) lichen
(b) mosses
(c) mango tree
(d) cactus
Which among the above can grow on stones; and also help in formation of soil? Write the mode of their
action for making soil.

Soln:

Answers are (a) lichen (b) mosses

Explanation:

Lichens grow on rocks and releases certain enzymes which favor the growth of mosses. Mosses forms clumps of
soil from rock which results in formation of top soil.

37. Soil formation is done by both abiotic and biotic factors. List the names of these factors by classifying
them as abiotic and biotic?

Soln:

Abiotic factors;
Sun, water and wind

Biotic Factors:
Lichens, mosses and trees.

38. All the living organisms are basically made up of C, N, S, P, H and O. How do they enter the living
forms? Discuss.

Soln:

C, N, S, P, H and O are enter the living community through plants. Carbon comes through photosynthesis and
nitrogen are obtained through nitrogen fixing bacteria. Sulphur and Phosphorus are absorbed from soil. Hydrogen
and oxygen are obtained by water. These nutrients are obtained by animals from plants.

39. Why does the percentage of gases like oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide remain almost the same in
the atmosphere?

These gases are used by human beings for their growth and development. But these are returned back to
environment in one or other form. This process of using natural resources and giving them back to nature is called
as Bio-Geo Chemical cycle. Because of Bio-Geo Chemical cycle percentage of gases like oxygen, nitrogen and
carbon dioxide remain almost the same in the atmosphere.

40. Why does moon have very cold and very hot temperature variations eg, from -190°C to 110°C even
though it is at the same distance from the sun as the earth is?

Soln:

Earth has atmosphere which prevents over heating of the earth during day time. On the other hand Moon does not
have atmosphere hence it appears to be hotter during day time. Lack of atmosphere in moon also allows the heat
to escape during night because of this phenomenon temperature varies on moon surface.

41. Why do people love to fly kites near the seashore ?

Soln:

Near the sea shore breeze blows during day time which is ideal for flying kites.
42. Why does Mathura refinery pose problems to the Taj Mahal?

Soln:

Mathura refinery releases oxides of Sulphur which causes acid rain. Acid rain corrodes the marble of tajmahal
hence Mathura refinery pose problems to Tajmahal.

43. Why do not lichens occur in Delhi whereas they commonly grow in Manali or Darjeeling?

Soln:

Lichens are sensitive to Sulphur oxide released by automobiles. Delhi has more number of automobiles which
increase the pollution. Pollution avoids lichens in Delhi.

44. Why does water need conservation even though large oceans surround the land masses?

Soln:

Sea water is not suitable for livelihood of humans and plants. Fresh water resources are limited hence they need to
be conserved.

45. There is mass mortality of fishes in a pond. What may be the reasons ?

Soln:

Reasons for mortality of fishes in a pond are i) Thermal pollution ii) addition of mercuric compounds and other
toxic chemicals iii) Blockage of gills by pollutants.

46. Lichens are called pioneer colonisers of bare rock. How can they help in formation of soil?

Soln:

Lichens releases enzymes that break the rock into smaller pieces and helps in formation of soil.

47. “Soil is formed by water.” If you agree to this statement then give reasons

Soln:

Water causes soil formation by following steps.

1) Water causes wear off of rock for a long period of time.

2) Water makes rubbing between the rocks to smaller particles which are deposited as soil.
3) On freezing, water expands to cause breaks in the rock.

48. Fertile soil has lots of humus. Why?

Soln:

Fertile soil has a number of microorganisms that decomposes dead and organic matter to convert to humus.
Humus provides nutrients, absorb water and makes soil porous.
49. Why step farming is common in hills?

Soln:

In hills there are steep slopes which risk washout of topsoil by wind and rain. In order to conserve top soil step
farming is done in hills.

1. Chemical Fertilizers and pesticides consists of poisonous chemical which reach the water body to turn
water into toxic.
2. Dumping of sewage directly into water bodies
3. Release of industrial effluents into water resources.

Below are the steps we can take to reduce water pollution

1. Stop connecting sewage lines directly to water bodies.

2. Avoiding throwing garbage and other domestic waste into water resource.

3. Prevent dumping of toxic chemical into water body.

4. Avoid washing of clothes near water bodies.

53. A motor car, with its glass totally closed, is parked directly under the sun. The inside temperature of the
car rises very high. Explain why?

(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Sorghum
(d) Gram

Soln:
Answer is (d) Gram

Explanation:

Rice millets and sorghum has carbohydrates in them as a major source of energy. Whereas Gram is a di-cotyledon
which is rich in proteins hence gram is the answer.

3. Find out the wrong statement from the following

(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production
(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is called as sustainable
agriculture
(d) None of the above

Soln:
Answer is (d) None of the above

Explanation:

Statements provided in option a), b) and c are right statements hence answer is d) none of the above.
4. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?
(a) Increased production and storage of food grains
(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

Soln:

Answer is (d) All of the above

5. Find out the correct sentence

(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants

(ii) Cross between two varieties is called as inter specific hybridisation
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter varietal hybridisation

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Soln:

Answer is (a) (i) and (iii)

6. Weeds affect the crop plants by

(a) killing of plants in field before they grow
(b) dominating the plants to grow (
c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients
(d) all of the above

Soln:

Answer is c) competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients

Explanation:

Viruses, bacteria and fungi causes diseases in poultry.

14. Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder?

(a) Rohus
(b) Mrigals
(c) Common carps
(d) Catlas

Soln:

Answer is (d) Catlas

15. Animal husbandry is the scientific management of

(i) animal breeding
(ii) culture of animals
(iii) animal livestock
(iv) rearing of animals

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Soln:

Answer is (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

16. Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilizers?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Potassium

Soln:

Answer is (c) Iron

Explanation:

Plants obtain iron from nutrients in the soil. There is no fertilizer that can prove iron for the plants.

17. Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include
(a) strict cleaning
(b) proper disjoining
(c) fumigation
(d) all of the above

Soln:

Answer is (d) all of the above

Short Answer Questions

18. Match the column A with the column B

(A) (B)
(a) Catla (i) Bottom feeders
(b) Rohu (ii) Surface feeders
(c) Mrigal (iii) Middle-zone feeders
(d) Fish farming (iv) Culture fishery
Soln:

(a) Catla (ii) Surface feeders

Soln:

(A) (B)
(a) Cattle used for tilling and carting (iii) Drought animals
(b) Indian breed of chicken (v) Aseel
(c) Sahiwal, Red Sindhi (iv) Local breed of cattle
(d) Milch (i) Milk producing female
(e) Chicken better fed for obtaining (ii) Broiler

26. If there is low rainfall in a village throughout the year, what measures will you suggest to the farmers
for better cropping?

Soln:

Farmers are suggested to grow drought resistant crops which can mature early. Along with this farmers are
advised to use manure for their field as it increases the water holding capacity of thesoil.

27. Group the following and tabulate them as energy yielding, protein yielding, oil yielding and fodder
crop. Wheat, rice, berseem, maize, gram, oat, pigeon gram, sudan grass, lentil, soyabean, groundnut, castor
and mustard.

Soln:

Energy Yielding crop- Wheat rice Maize

Protein Yielding crop- gram, pigeon gram, lentil, soyabean

Oil yielding crop- groundnut, castor, mustard, soyabean

Different crops need different climatic conditions for the growth such as temperature, photoperiod and water.
Some of the crops grown in rainy season which are called Kharif and some grow in winter which are called Rabi
crops.

31. Fill in the blanks

(a) A total of——nutrients are essential to plants.
(b) ———and———are supplied by air to plants.
(c) ———is supplied by water to plants.
(d) Soil supply———nutrients to plants.
(e) ———nutrients are required in large quantity and called as———.
(f) ——— nutrients are needed in small quantity for plants and are called ———.
Soln:

(a) A total of 16 nutrients are essential to plants.

(b) Carbon-di-oxide and Oxygen are supplied by air to plants.
(c) Hydrogen is supplied by water to plants.
(d) Soil supply 13 nutrients to plants.
(e) 6 nutrients are required in large quantity and called as macronutrients.
(f) 7 nutrients are needed in small quantity for plants and are called micronutrients.

32. Differentiate between compost and vermicompost?

Soln:

Compost is formed by using farm waste materials like livestock excreta, vegetable waste, domestic waste, straw,
discarded weeds. These all are decomposed and are used as manure for the farms.

Vermicompost is s compost prepared by using organic matter. Here composting is done by using earthworms.

33. Arrange these statements in correct sequence of preparation of green manure.

(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil.
(b) Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used.
(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into the soil.
(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.

Soln:
(b) Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used.
(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into the soil.
(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil.
(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.

34. An Italian bee variety A. mellifera has been introduced in India for honey production. Write about its
merits over other varieties.

Soln:

Advantages of Italian bee variety A. mellifera over other bee varities are as follows

 They stings less

 Their honey collection capacity is maximum.

 In stays in a single bee hive for very long period of time

 Its breeding capacity is high.

35. In agricultural practices, higher input gives higher yield. Discuss how?

Soln:

Higher inputs gives higher yield refers to the facilities and financial status of a farmer. Good financial status
allows farmers to take up new methodologies and technologies to increase the yield. Higher buying capacity
decides cropping methods and agricultural practices.

Long Answer Questions

36. Discuss the role of hybridisation in crop improvement.

Soln:

Hybridization is a method of crossing two dissimilar varieties to get desirable characters in the off-springs.
Hybridization improves the crop in following attributes

High yield: Hybridization helps to improve crop yield

Pest resistance: Crop can obtain pest resistance by incorporating pest resistance genes. Ex: BT Cotton

Draught resistance: Plants obtain draught resistant genes from draught resistant varieties.

Disease resistance: Plants can be immune to certain disease against which genes are incorporated.

37. Define (i) Vermicompost (ii) Green manure (iii) Bio fertilizer

Soln:

Vermicompost:

Manure which is rich is organic materials. Vermicompost is prepared by using earthworms, plant and animal
waste. Earthworms helps in composting organic waste to give a nutrient rich manure.

Green Manure:

Manure prepared by composting green plant is known as green. Green manure is usually made in the field Ex:
Hemp is allowed to decompose to get green manure.

Bio-fertilizers:

Usage of living organisms to provide nutrient to plant and to make soil fertile is known as bio fertilizers. Ex: Blue
green algae used as bio-fertilizer in paddy fields.
38. Discuss various methods for weed control.

Soln:

Various methods of weed control are listed below

 Mechanical removal
 Preparation of seed bed
 Timely sowing of desired crop
 Crop rotation

39. Differentiate between the following

(i) Capture fishery and Culture fishery
(ii) Mixed cropping and Inter cropping
(iii) Bee keeping and Poultry farming

Soln:
Capture fishery is a traditional fishing where fisherman catches the fishes from natural resources like sea and
rives. Culture fishery is the one where the fishes are obtained reared for the commercial purpose.

Mixed cropping is the method of growing two or more crops in a single field. Inter cropping is a type of mixed
cropping where two or more crops are grown in a single field in a definite patterns.

Bee keeping is the method of rearing bees to obtain honey. Poultry farming is method of raising domestic fowl for
the purpose of egg and meat.

40. Give the merits and demerits of fish culture?

Soln:

Merits of Fish culture

Desired fishes can be obtained in large amount in small area.

Improved food quality as fishes are the cheap source of proteins.

Demerits of fish culture

Only desired varieties of fishes are reared

It is threat to biodiversity.

41. What do you understand by composite fish culture?

Soln:

Composite fish culture is a method of rearing five to six varieties of fish species in a single pond. Species are
selected in such a way that they should not compete with other for food because of change in their food habits.
Hence fishes use food available in pond. Ex: Catla’s are surface feeders. Rohu is middle zone feeder and common
caps are bottom feeders.
42. Why bee keeping should be done in good pasturage?

Soln:

Bees need a quality nectar to produce honey. A good pasturage consists of plenty of flowers which can be used
by bees to get quality nectar. This increase the quality as well as the quantity of the bees. If bees are confined to
only single variety of flowers for nectar honey quality will have similar taste, consistency. Most of the farmers
make honey obtained from single nectar.

43. Write the modes by which insects affect the crop yield.

Soln:

Below are the modes by which insects decrease crop yield.

a) Cutting:

Insects cut plant parts such as leaves, fruits, flowers etc. This damages the plant, damaged leaves result in
decreased rate of photosynthesis , decreased flower decreases the production of seeds.

b) Borers:

Some pests bore holes in specific plant parts and start living inside. These pest utilize plant nutrients and food
which result in the decrease in the yield.

c) Suckers
Few pests suck cell sap by using their proboscis. This result in adverse effect on plant which reduces the yield.

44. Discuss why pesticides are used in very accurate concentration and in very appropriate manner?

Soln:

Pesticides are used in very accurate and in very appropriate manner because of following reasons

Excess use of pesticides will reduce the fertility of the soil.

 Reduces the organic matter present in the soil

 Kills useful microorganisms present in the soil.

 Causes air, water and soil pollution.

45. Name two types of animal feed and write their functions.

Soln:

Roughage
Roughages are provided by husk, grass and chopped leaves. Roughages give complete nourishment to animals
and roughages aids proper digestion in animals.

Concentrates

These are prepared as per the requirement of particular cattle and they are highly rick in proteins and minerals.
Varieties of concentrates are available in the market.

46. What would happen if poultry birds are larger in size and have no summer adaptation capacity? In
order to get small sized poultry birds, having summer adaptability, what method will be employed?

Soln:

Temperature maintenance is vital for the better egg production. Even though if the size of poultry birds is large
but without temperature adaptation egg production may decrease. To obtain high adaptability and small sized
poultry. Cross breeding of poultry birds is done. Small size also require small food and small area to rear.

47. Suggest some preventive measures for the diseases of poultry birds.

Soln:

Preventive measures to avoid disease in poultry are

1.Cleaning: It is very important to maintain hygiene. Poultry farms should be cleaned regularly to maintain
hygiene in the farm.

2. Sanitation: Sanitation should be maintained inside the farm

3.Disinfectatnts : Disinfectant should be sprayed on a regular basis.

4. Vaccination: Birds should be vaccinated to prevent disease in poultry.

48. Figure15.1 shows the two crop fields [Plots A and B] have been treated by manures and chemical
fertilizers respectively, keeping other environmental factors same. Observe the graph and answer the
following questions.
(i) Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
(ii) Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?
(iii) What is the reason for the different pattern of the two graphs?

Soln:
i) When we chemical fertlizers there will be sudden increase in the yield as nutrients are released abundantly. But
with time crop yield decrease because excess usage of chemical fertilizers kills the useful micro-organisms
present in the soil and also reduces the organic material present in the soil.

ii) Manure release the nutrients slowly as they are rich in organic matter. But manure enriches the soil by
providing nutrients and necessary environment for the growth of useful micro-organisms.

iii) Different pattern in the graph is due to the release of nutrients into soil by two different methods. Graph shows
that excessive usage of chemical fertilizers is detrimental and using manure is beneficial for long time. Yield
remain high when quantity of the manure increases.

49. Complete the crossword puzzle (Fig.15.2)

Across
1. Oil yielding plant (9)
3. Crop grown in winter season (4)
5. Fixed by Rhizobium (8)
9. Common honey bee (4)

Downward
2. Animal feed (6)
4. A micronutrient (5)
6. Unwanted plant in crop fields (4)
7. An exotic breed of chicken(7)
8. Bottom feeders in fish pond(7)
10. A marine fish (4)

Soln:

Across:

1.Sunflower
3. Rabi
5. Nitrogen
9. Apis

Down

2. Fodder
4.Boron
6.Weed
7. Leghorn
8.Mrigals
10.Tuna

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