Averages: Arithmetic Mean, Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean
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MAHESHWAR M R (RA2111004010136)Averages: Arithmetic Mean, Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean
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MAHESHWAR M R (RA2111004010136)AVERAGES B1 =300 kg
B2 = 40 % B3 + B3 = 156 + 390 = 546 kg
Mean or what is popularly known as average represents the B3 = 30 % B1 + B1 = 90 + 300 = 390 kg
central value of a set of values or observations.
B4 = 400 kg
Means are of three types – Arithmetic Mean, Geometric Mean B5 = 2 B4 = 800 kg
and Harmonic Mean. More as a practice, mean normally B1 < B3 < B4 < B2 < B5.
implies arithmetic mean. So, Average of B1, B3, B4 & B2 = 1636/4 = 409 kg
Arithmetic Mean Average of B3, B4, B2 & B5 = 2136/4 = 534 kg
Given a set of values, say x , x , ........., x , the arithmetic mean or Difference = 534 – 409 = 125 kg
1 2 n
just the mean is obtained by dividing the sum of the values by 3. In a telecom assembly factory, there are 250 men and 150
the number of values. women. The average productivity of all workers is 12
units per day. The average productivity of a man is 15
Thus units per day. What is the average productivity of a
woman per day(in units)?
Arithmetic Mean = Sum of values/Number of values
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 8
= x1 x2 ........ xn /n Ans: [c]
Total productivity = (250 + 150) * 12 = 400 * 12 = 4800
As a corollary, sum of the values = number of values mean Total productivity by Men = 250 * 15 = 3750
If the mean of n values is a and mean of m values is b, then the Total productivity by women = 4800 – 3750 = 1050
overall mean, M is given by Average productivity by women = 1050/150 = 7.
4. Average salary of 15 teachers is Rs.35000. 3 teachers
Overall/pooled/combined mean M = {(n a) + (m b)}/(n + m)
went out and the average dropped by Rs.1800. What is
Geometric Mean and Harmonic Mean the sum of salaries of 3 teachers who left?
(a) Rs.173000 (b) Rs.165000
Given two numbers, a and b, their Geometric Mean ab (c) Rs.169800 (d) Rs.126600
Ans: [d]
and their Harmonic Mean = (2ab)/(a + b)
Total salary of 15 teachers = 35000 * 15 = 525000
1. Of a set of 30 numbers, average of first 10 numbers After three teachers left, the average dropped by 1800.
= average of last 20 numbers. Then the sum of the last 20 So total of remaining 12 teachers = (35000 – 1800) * 12 =
numbers is 398400
(a) 2 X sum of last ten numbers So total salary of people who left = 525000 – 398400 =
(b) 2 X sum of first ten numbers 126600
(c) Sum of first ten numbers 5. What is the average of the first 200 terms of the series?
(d) Cannot be determined with given data 1, –2, 3, –4, 5, –6, 7 ……………
Ans: [b] (a) 0.5 (b) 50.5 (c) 0.5 (d) 50
Let Sum of first ten terms be “x” Sum of last 20 terms be Ans: [a]
“y”
Taking one ODD term and one EVEN term in pair, we get
So Average of first ten terms = Average of last twenty 100 such pairs.
terms x/10 = y/20
(1 – 2) + (3 – 4) + (5 – 6) + ...
So 2x = y
this gives (– 1) added 100 times.
Sum of last 20 terms = 2 X sum of first ten terms.
So the sum is = (– 100).
2. There are 5 boxes in a cargo hold. The weight of the first For the average, divide the sum by 200.
box is 300 kg and the weight of the second box is 40% Hence, Answer will be = (– 100)/200 => (– 1/2) = – 0.5
higher than the weight of the third box, whose weight is
30% higher than the first box’s weight. The fourth box at 6. 3 friends A, B, C went for weekend party to McDonald's
400 kg is 50% lighter than the fifth box. Find the restaurant and there they measure their weights in some
difference in the average weight of the four heaviest boxes order in 7 rounds. A, B, C, AB, BC, AC, ABC. Final round
and four lightest boxes. measure is 155 kg, then find the average weight of all the
(a) 90 (b) 125 (c) 77 (d) 116 7 rounds (in kg).
(a) 88.5 (b) 77.5 (c) 50 (d) 55
Ans: [b]
Ans: [a] MIXTURES AND ALLIGATIONS
Average weight for 7 rounds = (A + B +C +AB + BC +CA
+ ABC)/7 The problems under this topic fall essentially into 5 broad
ABC = 155 categories.
A + B + C = 155
1. Given two similar mixtures or solutions each
AB + BC + CA = 2ABC = 155 * 2 = 310
containing the same two constituents in two different
Average = (155 + 155 + 310) / 7 = 88.57 ratios, to find the ratio in which these two
7. There are 3 classes having 20, 24 and 30 students mixtures/solutions are to be mixed so as to obtain a
respectively having average marks in an examination as desired ratio of the two constituents in the resultant
20, 25 and 30 respectively. The three classes are mixture/solution,
represented by A, B and C and you have the following
information about the three classes. 2. Given the quantity of one mixture/solution of two
A. In class A highest score is 22 and lowest score is 18 constituents in a particular ratio, to find the quantity
of a similar mixture/solution of the same constituents
B. In class B highest score is 31 and lowest score is 23
to be added so as to obtain a desired ratio of the two
C. In class C highest score is 33 and lowest score is 26.
constituents in the resultant mixture/solution,
If five students are transferred from A to B, what can be said
3. Given the quantity of one mixture/solution of two
about the average score of A; and what will happen to the
constituents in a particular ratio, to find the quantity of
average score of C in a transfer of 5 students from B to C?
either of the constituents to be added so as to obtain a
(a) Definite decrease in both cases
desired ratio of the two constituents in the resultant
(b) Can't be determined in both cases mixture/solution,
(c) Definite increase in both cases
4. Given the quantity of one mixture/solution of two
(d) Will remain constant in both cases constituents in a particular ratio, to determine the
Ans: [b] ratio of the two constituents in the resultant
Class A average is 20 and their range is 18 to 22 mixture/solution when certain quantity is removed
Class B average is 25 and their range is 23 to 31 and replaced with one of the constituents.
Class C average is 30 and their range is 26 to 33 5. A variation of (4) where the process of removing and
If 5 students transferred from A to B, A’s average cannot replacing is repeated.
be determined but B’s average down as the highest score
of A is less than lowest score of B. 10. A merchant buys 20 kg of wheat at Rs.30 per kg and 40 kg
of wheat at Rs.25 per kg. He mixes them and sells one
If 5 students transferred from B to C, C’s average cannot
third of the mixture at Rs.26 per kg. The price at which the
be determined the B’s range of marks and C’s range of
merchant should sell the remaining mixture so that he
marks are overlapping.
may earn a profit of 25% on his whole outlay is
8. A student’s average (arithmetic mean) test score on 4 (a) Rs.30 (b) Rs.40 (c) Rs.360 (d) Rs.37
tests is 78. What must be the students score on a 5th test Ans: [d]
for the students average score on the 5th test to be 80?
Total investment made:
(a) 80 (b) 82 (c) 84 (d) 86 (e) 88
20 * 30 + 40 * 25 = 600 + 1000 = Rs.1600.
Ans: [e]
Profit expected = 25 % = 400.
Total mark in 4 test = 4 * 78 = 312
Total marks in 5 test should be 5 * 80 [in order to get 80 Total = 1600 + 400 = Rs.2000.
average] Selling price:
Difference = 400 – 312 = 88 marks (he must scored in 5th 1/3rd of mixture = 20 kg = sold at 26/kg. Amount realized
test) = 26 * 20 = 520.00
9. The price of lunch for 15 people was 207 pounds, Remaining volume = 40 kg. Remaining amount to be
including a 15 percent gratuity of service. What was the realized = 2000 – 520 = 1480.
average price per person, EXCLUDING the gratuity? So selling price/kg = 1480/40 = Rs.37.00
(a) 11.73 (b) 12 (c) 13.8 (d) 14 (e) 15.87
11. Kelly and Chris are moving into a new city. Both of them
Ans: [b] love books and thus packed several boxes with books. If
Total cost + Gratuity = 207 pounds Chris packed 60% of the total number of boxes, what was
100% Total cost + 15% total cost = 207 pounds the ratio of the number of boxes Kelly packed to the
1.15 cost = 207 pounds number of boxes Chris packed?
Total cost = 180 pounds (a) 1:6 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:5 (d) 2:5
Average price per persons = 180/15 = 12 pounds
Ans: [b]
Chris packed = 60% of total box
So, Remaining 40% packed by Kelly
Assume Total = 100 boxes
Kelly packed = 40 boxes, Chris packed = 60 boxes
Ratio of their packed boxes
40: 60 = 2:3
Ratio = 1.66:8.33 or 1:5
12. Three containers A, B and C are having mixtures of milk
and water in the ratio of 1:5, 3:5, 5:7 respectively. If the 15. How many liters of a 90% of concentrated acid needs to
capacities of the containers are in the ratio 5:4:5, find the be mixed with a 75% solution of concentrated acid to get
ratio of milk to water, if all the three containers are mixed a 30 liter solution of 78% concentrated acid?
together. (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 10
(a) 53:115 (b) 53:113 (c) 54:115 (d) 54:113 Ans: [c]
Ans: [a] 75 90
A, B, C three containers have mixture of milk and water in
the ratio 1:5, 3:5, 5:7 respectively.
Capacity of containers ratio 5:4:5
1 3 5
Ratio of milk 5 6 4 8 5 12 106 53
Ratio of water 5 5 4 5 5 7 230 115
6 8 12
12 3
13. Rama bought two varieties of rice, costing Rs.70 per kg 4 : 1
and Rs.80 per kg each, and mixed them in some ratio. 5P = 30
Then she sold the mixture at Rs.90 per kg, making a profit
1P = 6 litres
of 25%. What was the ratio of the mixture?
(a) 1:9 (b) 4:1 (c) 2:5 (d) 2:7 PERCENTAGES
Ans: [b]
Selling price of Rs.90.00, includes the profit of 25%. So Percentage calculations essentially imply converting everything
actual selling price of the mixture is 1.25 of cost price in terms of 100.
SP = 90.00, CP = 72.00 Thus, 30% 30 per 100 or 30 over 100 or 30/100 or 0.3
By using allegation method:
= 300 (25/100)
= 75 or 300 0.25 = 75
40% of 800 = 800 (40/100)
= 320 or 800 0.4
= 320
Or in general,
Ratio = 8:2 or 4:1
14. Easha bought two varieties of rice, costing Rs.50 per kg x% of y = y (x/100) = xy /100 and
and Rs.60 per kg each, and mixed them in some ratio. y% of x = x (y/100) = xy /100
Then she sold the mixture at Rs.70 per kg, making a profit
of 20%. What was the ratio of the mixture? So,
(a) 1:10 (b) 3:8 (c) 1:5 (d) 2:7
Ans: [c] x% of y = y% of x
Selling price of Rs.70.00, includes the profit of 20%,
300 as a percentage of 400 = (300/400) 100
So actual selling price of the mixture is = 1.20 cost price
SP = 70.00, CP = 58.33 = 75 or (300/400)
By using allegation method: = 0.75 which is the same as 75%
300 as a percentage of 900 = (300/900) 100
= 100/3
= 331% or 300/900 19. Length, Breadth and Height of a 3D figure is in the ratio
3
3:2:1. If the length is doubled and Breadth & Height are
= 1/3 which is the same as 331% halved, then what is the % decrease in the volume of the
3
solid?
x as a percentage of y = (x/y) 100 (a) Decreased by 15% (b) Decreased by 18%
(c) Decreased by 30% (d) Decreased by 50%
In general,
Ans: [d]
x as a percentage of y is not the same as y as a percentage of x. Given l:b:h = 3:2:1
Let h = 10, b = 20 and l = 30
16. Total income of 2012, 2013, 2014 is Rs.48412. Every year Volume = l b h
the salary increases by 20%. What was the salary in
2012? Now after those adjustments in the measurements,
(a) Rs.12,000 (b) Rs.13,300 l = 60, b = 10, h = 5
(c) Rs.9800 (d) Rs.15,000 Volume = 3000
6000 3000 1
Ans: [b] Percentage decrease 100 50%
Let income of 2012 = x, 2013 = y, 2014 = z 6000 2
Given, x + y + z = 48412 20. 5000 voted in an election between two candidates. 14%
Also, y = 1.2 x, z = 1.2 y Z = 1.44 x of the votes were invalid. The winner won by a margin
Substituting, approximately closer to 15%. Find the number of votes
X + 1.2x + 1.44 x = 48412 secured by the person.
(a) 2300 (b) 2400 (c) 3060 (d) 1800
3.64 x = 48412
Ans: [a]
X = 13300
Valid votes = 5000 * 86/100 = 50 * 86 = 4300
17. In a country, 60% of the male citizens and 70% of the L = 100%
female citizens are eligible to vote.
W = 115%
70% of the male citizens eligible to vote voted, and 60%
215% = 4300
of female citizens eligible to voted.
115% = 2300
What fraction of the citizens voted during the election?
(a) 0.49 (b) 0.42 (c) 0.48 (d) 0.54 21. A bakery opened yesterday with its daily supply of
Ans: [b] 40 dozen rolls. Half of the rolls were sold by noon and
80% of the remaining rolls were sold between noon and
Let total no. of male male = 100 and female = 100
closing time. How many dozen rolls had not been sold
male citizen voted = 70% * 60%(100) = 42%
when the bakery closed yesterday?
and female voted = 60% * 70%(100) = 42% (a) 40 (b) 16 (c) 4 (d) 20
then out of 200 total citizen voted = 84 Ans: [c]
So, 84/200 = 42% Total = 40 dozens
i.e. 0.42 Half sold by noon. So remaining = 20 dozens
18. In a certain city, 60 percent of the registered voters are 80 % of remaining sold before closing. (16 dozens)
PARTY B supporters and the rest are PARTY A supporters. Remaining = 20% of 20 dozens = 20/5 = 4 dozens.
In an assembly election, if 75 percent of the registered
PARTY B supporters and 20 percent of the registered 22. Country Club has an indoor swimming club. Thirty
PARTY A supporters are expected to vote for Candidate A, percent of the members of a swim club have passed the
what percent of the registered voters are expected to vote lifesaving test. Among the members who have not passed
for Candidate A? the test, 12 have taken the preparatory course and 30
have not taken the course. How many members are there
(a) 53 (b) 20 (c) 60 (d) 75
in the swim club?
Ans: [a]
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 110 (d) 120
let the people in the city be 100
Ans: [a]
Party B supporters = 60% of 100 = 60
Passed = 30%
40% are Party A = 40% of 100 = 40
Remaining = 70% [12 + 30] = 42 people
Out of 60, 75% voted for Party B = 75% (60) = 45
70% = 42
Out of 40%, 20% voted for Party B = 20% (40) = 8
100% = (42/70 * 100) = 60 people
Total = 45 + 8 = 53
Total percent = 53%
ALGEBRA 25. Raj writes a number. He sees that the number of two
digits exceeds four times the sum of its digits by 3. If the
(i) Commutative property: For all a, b R, a b ba number is increased by 18, the result is the same as the
(ii) Associative property: For all a, b, c R, number formed by reversing the digits. Find the number.
a b c a b c (a) 35 (b) 42 (c) 49 (d) 57
Ans: [a]
(iii) Distributive property: For all a, b, cR,
Let the two digit number be 10x + y
a b c ab ac 4(x + y) + 3 = 10x + y
(iv) Existence of additive identity: For all aR, 10x + y + 18 = 10y + x
0 R :a 0 0 a a 2x – y = 1; y – x = 2. Solving the equations, we get x = 3, y
=5
'0' is called the additive identity element.
Number = 35
(v) Existence of additive inverse: For all aR,
aR : a a a a 0 26. George, Paul and Hari start a business by contributing
Rs.30000/-, Rs.40000/- and Rs.50000/- respectively.
'–a' is called the additive inverse of 'a' and viceversa. '–a' After ½ a year George withdraws half his contribution. At
is also called as the negative of a . the end of the year the business showed a profit of
(vi) Existence of multiplicative identity element for all Rs.90000 which was divided amongst the 3 men
a R, 1 R such that a 1 1 a a, 1 is called the proportionate to the amount and duration of their
multiplicative identity element. investment in the enterprise. Paul got
(vii) Existence of multiplicative inverse: For all a R , (a) Rs.25000 (b) Rs.18000
1 1 1 1 (c) Rs.32000 (d) Rs.24000
a 0, R such that a a 1, is called the
a a a a Ans: [c]
1 George investment for year is 6*15000+12*15000 =
multiplicative inverse of a and viceversa. is also called
2,70,000
a
as the reciprocal of 'a'. Paul = 12*40,000 = 4,80,000
Hari = 50,000*12 = 6,00,000
23. Apples cost Rs.L per kilogram for the first 30 kilograms
Their ratio is 9 : 16 : 20
and Rs.Q per kilogram for each additional kilogram. If the
price paid for 33 kilograms of apples is Rs.1167 and for 36 Given, profit = Rs.90000
kilograms of apples is Rs.1284, then find the cost of first So, Paul share = (90000)*16/45 = Rs.32000
10 kgs of apples. If a lemon and an apple together costs Rs.12.00, a tomato
27.
(a) Rs.117 (b) Rs.1053 (c) Rs.350 (d) Rs.281 and a lemon cost Rs.4.00 and an apple cost Rs.8.00 more
Ans: [c] than a tomato or a lemon, then which of the following can
30L + 3Q = 1167 ... (i) be the price of a lemon?
30L + 6Q = 1284 ... (ii) (a) Rs.2 (b) Rs.4 (c) Rs.1 (d) Rs.3
By solving two equations, Ans: [a]
Q = 39 L + A = 12 ...(1)
L = 35 T + L = 4......(2)
For first 10 kg it cost Rs.L/kg L + 8 = A .....(3)
10 * 35 = Rs.350 Taking 1 and 3, we get A = 10 and L = 2
24. On a 26 question test, 5 points were deducted for each 28. A boy buys 35 sharpeners (brown or white) for Rs.300.
wrong answer and 8 points were added for right answers. For every white sharpener, he pays one rupee more than
If all the questions were answered, how many were the brown sharpener. What is the cost of white sharpener
correct if the score was zero? and how many did he buy?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) Rs.8, 15 (b) Rs.15, 10
Ans: [a] (c) Rs.9, 20 (d) None of these
Total number of questions = 26 Ans: [c]
Let us assume ‘x’ questions were correct. Therefore, (26 – If he bought x white sharpeners for (y + 1) rupees each
x) were wrong and (35 – x) brown sharpeners for y rupees each,
8x – 5(26 – x) = 0 X * (y + 1) + y * (35 – x) = 300
Solving we get On simplification, we get: x + 35 y = 300.
x = 10 Hence x < 35.
X = 300 – 35 y division has 15 employees and the recruitment division
Only integral value for x = 20, y = 8. has 10 employees, then what is the total cost of the shares
So, No. of white sharpeners = 20, given by the company (in $)?
Cost of white sharpener = 8 + 1 = 9 Rupees each. (a) 2650 (b) 3180 (c) 3250 (d) 3120
Ans: [c]
29. A shop sells chocolates. It used to sell chocolates for Rs.2
We have to use additional formula
each, but there were no sales at that price. When it reduced
the price, all chocolates sold out enabling the shopkeeper to nAB nAnBnAB
realize Rs.164.90 from the chocolates alone. If the new price 20 = 15 + 10 – x
was not less than half the original price quoted, how many x=5
chocolates were sold (at the reduced price)?
So total shares given to only technical 1015150
(a) 39 (b) 97 (c) 37 (d) 71
Shares given to only Recruitment 51050
Ans: [b]
Shares given to Technical as well as recruitment people
Price realized = Rs.164.90. It can be taken as 16490 = 2 ×
525125
5 × 17 × 97
Total shares 15050125325.
Now chocolate price should be greater than 1 and less
than 2. Total value 325103250
So 2 x 5 x 17 = 170 paise or 1.7 Rupees.
So Total chocolates sold = 97 and New chocolate price =
Rs.1.7
30. 30L + 3Q = 1167
30L + 6Q = 1284
Find L.
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45
Ans: [b] 33. If the price of an item is decreased by 10% and then
30L + 3Q = 1167 … (1) increased by 10%, the net effect on the price of the item is
(a) decrease of 99% (b) No change
30L + 6Q = 1284 … (2)
(c) decrease of 1% (d) increase of 1%
(1) – (2) => – 3Q = – 117; Q = 39
Ans: [c]
Substituting in any of the equations we get L = 35.
Let initial price be 100 10% decrease = 90
31. Raj goes to market to buy oranges. If he can bargain and 10% increase = 90 + (10% of 90) = 99
reduce the price per orange by Rs.2, he can buy 30
100 – 99 = 1 (loss)
oranges instead of 20 oranges with the money he has.
Decreased by 1%
How much money does he have?
(a) Rs.100 (b) Rs.50 (c) Rs.150 (d) Rs.120 RATIO AND PROPORTIONS
Ans: [d]
Let price of an orange is x. A ratio is a relation between two or more quantities normally of
If he can reduce the price by Rs.2 he can buy 30 oranges. same kind. The ratio a to b is written as a:b and is also expressed
as a fraction a/b (b ≠ 0). While considering homogeneous
So 30(x – 2) = total money now.
quantities, the ratio is also expressed as percentage.
Similarly, if the price is not reduced then he can buy 20
oranges. If two quantities are in the ratio a:b, it means that if the first
So, total money he have 20 * x. quantity is ax, then the second quantity is bx. A and B are in the
So, 30(x – 2) = 20x ratio a:b ⇒ as a proportion of the total, A is a/a + b and B is b/a + b.
Solving we get x = 6
Ratio is a mere number and to find the ratio of two quantities,
So total money he had 6 * 20 = Rs.120
they must be expressed in the same units.
32. According to the stock policy of a company, each
employee in the technical division is given 15 shares of If the two ratios are equal, then the four quantities are in
the company and each employee in the recruitment proportion. Thus if a:b is equal to c:d, then a, b, c, d are in
division is given 10 shares. Employees belonging to both proportion and the proportion is written as a:b::c:d, where a and
committees get 25 shares each. There are 20 employees in d are called the extremes and b and c the means. Thus if a:b::c:d,
the company, and each one belongs to at least one then ad = bc.
division. The cost of each share is $10. If the technical
Proportionality: The values of two quantities may not be Ans: [a]
independent. For example, the volume of a cube is proportional Final concentration = Initial concentration (1 – replace-
to its side and vice versa. Two mutually dependent quantities ment quantity final volume)
are proportional if the ratio of their values remains constant.
If a/b = c/d, then each term of the ratio a/b and c/d is called
proportional. a, b, c and d are respectively the first, second, third
and fourth proportionals. Here, a and d are known as extremes
and b, c are known as means. 36. The present ratio of students to teachers at a certain
school is 30 to 1. If the student enrollment were to
Direct Proportion: If two quantities are so related that an increase by 50 students and the number of teachers were
increase or decrease in one quantity produces a proportional to increase by 5, the ratio of the teachers would then
increase or decrease in the other, then the two quantities are 25 to 1. What is the present number of teachers?
said to be directly proportional to each other, e.g. the weight of (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (e) 15
solid material is proportional to its volume.
Ans: [e]
Direction Variation: If A is said to vary directly as B, then as Student : Teacher
A increases, B also increases but not proportionally. The 30x : 1x
variation is denoted by A ∝ B or A = kB, where k is a constant. Student increases by 50, Teacher increased by 5 then
ratio
For example, the total cost of production is directly related to 25y : y
the number of items produced. 25y = (30x + 50) … (1)
Here, the variation is direct but not proportional. Y=x+5 … (2)
By solving two equations
Inverse Proportion: If two quantities are so related that an X = 15 (initial no. of teacher)
increase in one of them produces a proportional decrease in the
37. Dinalal divides his property among his four sons after
other or vice versa, then the two quantities are said to be donating Rs.20,000 and 10% of his remaining property. The
inversely proportional to each other, e.g. the time a train takes amounts received by the last three sons are in arithmetic
to travel a certain distance is inversely proportional to its speed. progression and the amount received by the fourth son is
equal to the total amount donated. The first son receives as
Inverse Variation: If A is inversely related to or varies
his share Rs.20,000 more than the share of the second son.
inversely as B increases, A decreases but not proportionally.
The last son received Rs.1 lakh less than the eldest son.
This relation can be expressed mathematically as
1 1 Find the share of the third son.
A A k where k is constant. Here, the
(a) Rs.80,000 (b) Rs.1,00,000
varaio
tnis (c) Rs.1,20,000 (d) Rs.1,50,000
B B
inverse but not proportional. Ans: [c]
Assume the amounts received by the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th
34. If 50% of the 2:3 solution of milk and water is replaced sons are a + d, a, a – d (as they are in AP)
with water, what is the concentration of the solution Now Eldest son received Rs.20,000 more than the 2nd
remaining? son. So He gets a + d + 20,000
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 30% Last son received 1 lakh less than the eldest son. So (a + d
Ans: [a] + 20,000) – (a – d) = 1,00,000 ⇒ 2d = 80,000
Assume total quantity to be 50 litres. ⇒ d = 40,000
2:3 = milk : water. So Amounts received by the 4 sons are a + 60,000,
So Milk = 20 l and water = 301 a + 40,000, a, a – 40,000.
50 % of solution is taken (ie) 25 litre solution with 10 l Assume His property = K rupees.
milk and 15 l water is replaced with 25 l water. It was given that the youngest son's share is equal to
1
No milk and water in the final solution = milk = 10 l, water 20,000 K 20,000
= 40 l. 10
Concentration = 10/(10+40) * 100 = 1/5 * 100 = 20% 1
Then 20,000 K 20,000 a 40,000 ... (i)
35. In a vessel, there are 10 litres of alcohol. An operation is 10
defined as taking out five litres of what is present in the and the Remaining property = Sum of the properties
vessel and adding 10 litres of pure water to it. What is the received by all the four son's together.
ratio of alcohol to water after two operations?
(a) 1:5 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:6 (d) 3:2
20
9 The number of circular permutations of n distinct objects is
Remaining property K 20,000 (n – 1)!, if the clockwise and anticlockwise directions are
10
different.
9
(K – 20,000) = (a + 60,000) + (a + 40,000) + a If there are n things and if the direction is not taken into
10 (n 1)!
+ ( a - 40,000) ... (2) consideration, the number of circular permutations is .
2
Solving we get K = 40,000 and a = 1,20,000
So third son got Rs.1,20,000
COMBINATION
38. A property was originally on a 99 years lease and two Each of the different groups of selection which can be made by
thirds of the time passed is equal to the four fifth of the taking some or all of a number of items is called a combination.
time to come. How many years are there to go? For example, the combination of three items a, b, c taken two at
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 55 a time are ab, bc, ca.
Ans: [a] Here the order of the items is not important.
Assume x years have passed and y years to go The number of combination of n things taken 'r' at a time is
n!
2 4 3 4 6 denoted by nCr, which can be written as nCr
Given x y x y y
3 5 2 5 5 n r! r!
But x + y = 99 Total number of combinations
6 Out of n given objects, the number of ways of selecting one or
So, y y 99
5 more objects is where we can select 1 or 2 or 3 ..........or n objects
Solving we get y = 45 years at a time.
39. On a certain assembly line, the rejection rate for Hyundai The number of ways nC1 n C2 n C3 ..... nCn
i10s production was 4 percent, for Hyundai i20s This is called the total number of combinations and is equal to
production 8 percent and for the 2 cars combined 7
2n 1 .
percent. What was the ratio of Hyundais i10 production?
3 2 1 1 nC1 nC2 nC3 .... nCn 2n 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 1 1 2 The number of ways of selecting one or more objects
Ans: [a] from 'n' given objects is 2n 1 .
Simple weighted average rule can be applied. Let a cars of
i10’s and b cars of i20s are made. 40. The figure shows an equilateral triangle of side length 6,
which is divided into unit triangles. A valid path is a path
4(a) + 8(b)/a + b = 7
from the triangle in the top row to the adjacent triangles
4(a) + 8(b) = 7a + 7b in our path share a common edge and the path never
3a = b => a/b = 3/1 travels up (from a lower row to a higher row) or revisits a
triangle. An example of one such path is illustrated below.
PERMUTATION AND COMBINATIONS How many such valid paths are there?
A permutation is an arrangement in a defined order of a number
of objects taken some or all at a time.
Permutations when all the objects are distinct:
The number of permutations of n different objects taken r at a
time, where 0 < r ≤ n is n ( n – 1) ( n – 2). . .( n – r + 1), which is
n
denoted by Pr can be written in factorial form as follows. (a) 120 (b) 16 (c) 23 (d) 24
Ans: [a]
n n!
Pr
(n r)!
Permutations of objects not all distinct
The number of mutually distinguishable permutations of n
things, taken all at a time, of which p are alike of one kind, q
n!
alike of second kind such that p + q = n, is .
p !q !
In question it is mentioned side length to be 6
Circular Permutation By using combination rule (n – 1)!, eliminating the first
row, total number of paths = (6 – 1)! = 120 paths.
A circular permutation is one in which objects are arranged
along a circle. It is also called as closed permutation.
41. 10 people are there, they are shaking hands together, how Hence, 11 = 33
many handshakes are possible, if they are in no pair of 12 = 32
cyclic sequence? 13 = 31
(a) 45 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 10 21 = 23
Ans: [a] 22 = 22
You need two people for one hand shake. 31 = 13
So number of distinct 2 people combinations we can make 32 = 12
out of ten people = 10C2 = 10 * 9/2 * 1 = 45.
33 = 11
42. If ABERSU are sorted in alphabetical order, 24 sortings cell 11 – 33 can be altered in 3 ways (as there are 3
are required for ABUSRE, 25 for AEBRSU, 49 for ARBESU, colours)
then how many sortings are required for AEUSRB? cell 12 – 32 can be altered in 3 ways
(a) 45 (b) 48 (c) 47 (d) 46 cell 13 – 31 can be altered in 3 ways
Ans: [b] cell 21 – 23 can be altered in 3 ways
24 + 18 + 4 + 1 + 1 = 48 and, cell 22 can be altered in 3 ways
43. In a staircase, there are 8 steps. A child is attempting to climb So number of possibilities = 35 = 243
the staircase. Each time, she can either make 1 step or 2 46. In how many ways can the digits of the number
steps. In how many different ways can she climb the 2233558888 be arranged so that the odd digits are placed
staircase? in the even positions?
(a) 20 (b) 28 (c) 34 (d) None of these (a) 900 (b) 450 (c) 225 (d) 360
Ans: [c] Ans: [b]
8 * 1 step = 1 way
6! 5!
Choosing 1 two step in 7 moves = 7C1 = 7 ways 1530 450
2! 4! 2! 2!
Choosing 2 two steps in 6 moves = 6C2 = 15 ways
47. The letters in the word “MASTER” are permuted in all
Choosing 3 two steps in 5 moves = 5C3 = 10 ways
possible ways and arranged in alphabetical order. Find
4 * 2 steps = 1 way the word in the 44th rank.
Total number of ways = 1 + 7 + 15 + 10 + 1 = 34 ways (a) AMTESR (b) MESTAR
44. How many vehicle registration plate numbers can be (c) ESTMAR (d) TERMAS
formed with digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (no digits being Ans: [a]
repeated) if it is given that the registration number can Arranging letters of word MASTER in alphabetical order
have 1 to 7 digits? = AEMRST
(a) 20035 (b) 13699 (c) 32465 (d) 12305 Words starting with A________ = 5! = 120
Ans: [b] Words starting with AE ______ = 4! = 24
One digit number plates = 7 Words starting with AM______ = 4 ! = 24 (48 ranks)
Two digit number plates = 7 * 6 = 42 Words starting with AME ____ = 3! = 6 words (30 ranks)
Three digit number plates = 7 * 6 * 5 = 210 Words starting with AMR _____= 3! = 6 words (36 ranks)
Four digit number plates = 7 * 6 * 5 * 4 = 840 Words starting with AMS ____ = 3! = 6 words (42 ranks)
Five digit number plates = 7 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 = 2520 43rd rank = AMTERS
Six digit number plates = 7 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 = 5040 44th rank = AMTESR
Seven digit number plates = 7 * 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 5040
48. An organisation has three committees. Only two persons
Total = 7 + 42 + 210 + 840 + 2520 + 5040 + 5040 = 13699
are members of all three committees, but every pair of
45. In a 3 x 3 square grid comprising 9 tiles, each tile can be committees has three members in common. What is the
painted in red, green or blue color. When the tile is least possible number of members on any one committee?
rotated by 180º, there is no difference which can be (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
spotted. How many such possibilities are there? Ans: [a]
(a) 168 (b) 243 (c) 294 (d) 256
Ans: [b]
Grid has to be rotated at 180 degrees.
1 2 3
1 2 3
1 2 3 Total 4 members minimum required to serve only on one
committee.
49. There are 20 persons sitting in a circle. In that there are Ans: [c]
18 men and 2 sisters. How many arrangements are Total people = Mr. Smith + Mrs. Smith + 9 friends + 9
possible in which the two sisters are always separated by spouse = 20 members
a man? Total arrangement = 20!
(a) 18! 2 (b) 17! Mr and Mrs. Smith always together = 19! * 2 ways
(c) 17! 2! (d) 12 Mr. Smith and Mrs. Smith never together = 20! – 19! * 2
Ans: [a] = 19!(20 – 2)
If we fix the two sisters in any alternate seats, I can = 19! * 18
arrange the remaining 18 men in 18! Ways.
53. In how many ways can we distribute 10 identical looking
Also these two sisters can interchange their positions
pencils to 4 students so that each student gets at least one
resulting in doubling the number of arrangements.
pencil?
So totally they can be arranged into 18! * 2 ways.
(a) 5040 (b) 210
50. Find the 32nd word in the list, where the word MONOS is (c) 84 (d) None of these
permuted in all possible ways and arranged in Ans: [c]
alphabetical order. Since the pencils are identical, we can just give one to
(a) OSMON (b) ONMSO each student leaving six to be given out. The number of
(c) OSMNO (d) OSONM ways to distribute n identical objects among r people is
Ans: [b] given by
n r 1! . For our problem, this is 9! 84.
Arranging letters of MONOS in alphabetic order = MNOOS r 1! 3!
Words starting with M ______ = 4!/2 = 12 (12 ranks)
54. There are Six periods in each working day of a school. In
Words starting with N _______= 4!/2 =12 (24 ranks)
how many ways can one arrange 5 subjects such that each
Words starting with O ______ = 4! = 24 (48 ranks) subject is allowed at least one period?
Words starting with OM _____ = 3! = 6 (30 ranks) (a) 3200 (b) 1800
31st rank = ONMOS (c) 3600 (d) None of these
32nd rank = ONMSO Ans: [c]
So 32nd permutation will be = ONMSO 5 subjects in 6 periods = 6P5 = 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 = 720
51. A owes B a sum of Rs.50. He decides to pay back the loan Remaining 1 period can have any of 5 subjects = 5C1 = 5
but can pay back the loan by giving either a 10 rupee note Total ways = 720 * 5 = 3600 ways
or a 20 rupee note at a time. In how many ways, can he
repay the loan such that he uses at least one note of each 55. 36 people {a1, a2, ..., a36} meet and shake hands in a
denomination? circular fashion. In other words, there are totally
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 36 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3}, ...,
{a35, a36}, {a36, a1}. Then size of the smallest set of
Ans: [c]
people such that the rest have shaken hands with at least
The amount can be returned in the following ways: one person in the set is
(i) 10 20 20 (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 18
(ii) 20 10 20 Ans:[a]
(iii) 20 20 10 Smallest set where shaken hand with at least one person
(iv) 10 10 10 20 a1 shaken hand with a36 and a2.similarly a4 shaken hand
(v) 10 10 20 10 with a3 and a5 ......and so on.
(vi) 10 20 10 10 In this way we get a series like
(vii) 20 10 10 10 a1, a4, a7, ...... , a34 (this is nothing but the A P series)
So seven ways are there to return the money where
tn = 34
52. Mr and Mrs Smith have invited 9 of their friends and their
a=1
spouses for a party at the Waikiki Beach resort. They
stand for a group photograph. If Mr Smith never stands d=3
next to Mrs Smith (as he says they are always together tn = a + (n – 1)d
otherwise), how many ways the group can be arranged in 34 = 1 + (n – 1)3
a row for the photograph? 33 = (n – 1)3
(a) 20! (b) 19! 18! n – 1 = 11
(c) 18 19! (d) 2 19! n = 12
56. Find the number of ways a batsman can score a double Ans: [d]
century only in terms of 4’s & 6’s. If left and right digits are fixed with 5 and 6, then the
(a) 16 ways (b) 14 ways remaining 5 places can be filled by remaining 8 digits in
8P5 = 6720 ways.
(c) 12 ways (d) 13 ways
Ans: [a]
61. A person starts writing all the 4 digits number. How many
4x + 6y = 200 => 2x + 3y = 100 => x = (100 – 3y)/2 times he has written the digit 2?
= 50 – (3/2)y (a) 3700 (b) 2800 (c) 3200 (d) 2500
As x is an integer, y should be a multiple of 2. Ans: [a]
If
(1) At unit's digit = 10 * 10 * 9 = 900 (10 times in every
y = 0, x = 50 100)
y = 2, x = 47 (2) At ten's digit = 10 * 10 * 9 = 900 (10 times in every
y = 4, x = 44 100)
... (3) At hundred's digit = 100 * 9 = 900 (100 times in every
y = 32, x = 2 1000)
So total ways are (32 – 0)/2 + 1 = 17 (if 0 6’s are possible) (4) At thousand's digit = 1000 (2000 to 2999)
otherwise 16 So total 900 + 900 + 900 + 1000 = 3700 times
57. There are 4 different letters and 4 addressed envelopes. 62. How many 8 digits numbers can be formed with
In how many ways can the letters be put in the envelopes repetition by using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 which are divisible by 4?
so that atleast one letter goes to the correct address?
(a) 3160 (b) 78125 (c) 8040 (d) 86234
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 12
Ans: [b]
Ans: [a]
In order to be divisible by 4, the two least significant
Total ways of putting r letters to r covers = r! = 4! = 24 digits must be 12, 24, 32, 44, 52 (a total of 5 choices)
Number of ways that none of them goes into the right The other 6 digits can be any of the five allowed digits.
envelope = D4 = 4!(12! – 13! + 14!) = 9
The total number of possible numbers is (56) * (5) = 57 =
So at least one envelope goes into the right one = 24 – 9 =
78125
15 ways
63. A takes 15 hours to make a publication. B takes 13 hours
58. How many different integers can be expressed as the sum to make a publication. Find the time taken by them to
of three distinct numbers from the set make two publications, working independently.
{3, 8, 13, 18, 23, 28, 33, 38, 43, 48}? (a) 15 hours (b) 14 hours
(a) 421 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 22 (c) 28 hours (d) 14 hours 40 minutes
Ans: [d] Ans: [a]
Minimum sum of 3 numbers = 24 A = 15 hours
Maximum sum of 3 numbers = 129 B = 13 hours
Now the series of possible sum values = 24, 29, 34, ..., 129 To make two publications independently, the time taken
(it is an A.P) will be same as the time taken maximum for one
Number of terms = {(129 – 24)/5} + 1 = 22 publication. So answer is 15 hours because in 15 hours, A
will finish his publication and B would have completed it
59. How many parallelograms are formed by a set of 4
parallel lines intersecting on other set of 7 parallel lines? 2 hours ago.
(a) 125 (b) 126 (c) 127 (d) 128 64. In how many ways can the digit of the number
Ans: [b] 4477996666 be arranged so that the odd digits are placed
So ways of selecting 2 lines from 4 parallel lines = 4C2 = in the even positions?
12/2 = 6 ways (a) 900 (b) 450 (c) 225 (d) 360
And ways of selecting 2 lines from 7 parallel lines = 7C2 = Ans: [d]
42/2 = 21 ways Total places 10
Number of parallelograms formed = 21 * 6 = 126. The possibilities in places are = 6 * 4 * 5 * 3 * 4 * 2 * 3 * 1
*2*1
60. There is a 7-digit telephone number with all different
digits. If the digit at extreme right and extreme left are 5 Total possibilities = 17280.
and 6 respectively, find how many such telephone To cancel the repetition of digits in the odd positions,
numbers are possible? We divide the possibilities by (4! * 2!) = 48
(a) 120 (b) 30240 17280/48 = 360
(c) None of these (d) 6720
65. There are 4 boxes colored red, yellow, green and blue. If 70. Letters in the word ABUSER are permuted in all possible
2 boxes are selected, how many combinations are there ways and arranged in alphabetical order then find the
for at least one green box or one red box to be selected? word at position 49 in the permuted alphabetical order?
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 5 79. ARBSEU (b) ARBESU
Ans: [d] (c) ARBSUE (d) ARBEUS
Sample Space for the selecting two out of four coloured Ans: [b]
boxes are = {(R, Y), (R, G), (R, B), (Y, G), The best way to solve this problems is Just ask how many
(Y, B), (G, B)} words starts with A. If we fix A, then the remaining letters
Combinations having at least one red or one green = 5 can be arranged in 5! ways = 120. So the asked word must
combinations. start with A.
Arrange all the given letters in alphabetical order.
66. The letters in the word “PLACES” are permuted in all ABERSU
possible ways and arranged in the alphabetical order.
Let us find all the words start with AB. AB**** = 4!= 24
Find the word at position 48th in the permuted
ways
alphabetical order.
Now we find all the words start wit AE. AE****= 4!= 24
79. AESPLC (b) ALCEPS
ways
(c) ALSCEP (d) AESPCL
So next word start with AR and remaining letters are
Ans: [a] BESU
Arranging letters of PLACES in alphabetic order = ACELPS So option B
Words starting with A ________= 5! = 120 ranks
Words starting with AC______ = 4! =24 ranks 71. 49 members attended the party. In that 22 are male, 27
are female. The shake hands are done between males,
Words starting with AE______ = 4! = 24 (48 ranks)
females, male and female. Total 12 people given shake
So 48th permutation will be = AESPLC hands. How many such kinds of shake hands are possible?
67. How many six digit even numbers can be formed from (a) 122 (b) 66 (c) 48 (d) 28
digits 1 to 7 such that the digits should not repeat and the Ans: [b]
second last digit should be even? Since 12 people shakes hand.
(a) 6480 (b) 320 (c) 2160 (d) 720 If n is the number of people then the Number of Shakes
Ans: [d] are given by = n * (n – 1)/2 = (12 * 11)/2 = 66
The possibilities of available numbers in the six digit 72. A student can select one of 6 different math book, one of
places are
3 different chemistry book & one of 4 different science
(5) (4) (3) (2) (2) (3) book. In how many different ways students can select
So answer is = 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 2 * 3 = 720 book of math, chemistry & science?
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 72 (d) 74 (e) 76
68. A number plate can be formed with two alphabets
followed by two digits, with no repetition. Then how Ans: [c]
many possible combinations can we get? One Maths book out of 6 = 6C1 = 6 ways
(a) 58500 (b) 67600 (c) 65000 (d) 64320 One chemistry book out of 3 = 3C1 = 3 ways
Ans: [a] One science book out of 4 = 4C1 = 4 ways
So number of possibilities in each place Total = 6 * 3 * 4 = 72 ways
= 26 25 10 9
73. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
Total possible combinations = 26 * 25 * 10 * 9 = 58500 “LEADING” be arranged in such a way that the vowels
always come together?
69. In how many ways a team of 11 must be selected from 5
men and 11 women such that the team must comprise of (a) 360 (b) 720 (c) 480 (d) 5040
not more than 3 men? Ans: [b]
(a) 1565 (b) 2256 (c) 2456 (d) 1243 Given letters are A, E, I, D, L, N, G
Ans: [b] Of which AEI are vowels. Let us combine them into a
There are only four possibilities of selecting a tem with single letter x. Now total letters are x, D, L, N, G
maximum of 3 men These letters are arranged in 5! ways. But 3 vowels can
(i) Totally women = 11C11 = 1 way arrange themselves in 3! ways.
(ii) 10 Women & 1 Men = 11C10 * 5C1 = 11 * 5 = 55 ways So total ways 5! × 3! = 720
(iii) 9 Women & 2 Men = 11 C9 * 5C2 = 55 * 10 = 550 74. What is the number of ways of expressing 3600 as a
(iv) 8 Women & 3 Men = 11C8 * 5C3 = 55 * 3 * 10 = 1650 product of three ordered positive integers (abc, bca etc.
are counted as distinct). For example, the number 12 can
So total ways of selection = 1 + 55 + 550 + 1650 = 2256
be expressed as a product of three ordered positive
ways.
integers in 18 different ways.
(a) 441 (b) 540 (c) 84 (d) 2100
Ans: [b] Important results of probability
4 2 2
36002 3 5 (1) 0 P(A) 1
Let abc 24 32 52 (2) P(S) = 1 (S – sample space)
We have to distribute four 2’s to three numbers a, b, c in
75. Tickets are numbered from 1, 2 … 1100 and one card is
431
C31 6C2 15 ways drawn randomly. What is the probability of having 2 as a
Now two 3’s has to be distributed to three numbers in digit?
231
C31 4C2 6 ways 290 320
79. 80.
Now two 5’s has to be distributed to three numbers 1100 1100
231
C31 4C2 6 ways 292 390
81. 1100 82. 1100
Total ways 1566540 Ans: [b]
Solution:
PROBABILITY
Number of 2’s between 1 – 1000 = 300 and 1000 – 1100
Probability is the measure of happening of a particular event. It
= 20 so total 2’s between 1 – 1100 = 320
is classically defined as, if a sample space (S) contains n
So probability = 320/1100
outcomes and if m of them are favourable to an event A, then,
we write n(S) = n and n(A) = m and the probability of the event 76. Two people, Ranbir and Katrina decide to meet at a beach
n(A) m between 1 p.m. to 2 p.m., given that both will surely turn
A, P(A) =
n(S) n up once in the given time frame. If Ranbir arrives, he waits
for 15 minutes and then leaves feeling betrayed and
Some important classifications on events are as follows:
similarly Katrina waits for 15 minutes after she arrives. So
Equally likely events what’s the probability that they meet?
1 1 7 9
Two or more events are said to be equally likely if each one of (a) (b) (c) (d)
them has an equal chance of occurrence. 4 6 16 16
Ans: [a]
Mutually exclusive events
In 60 minutes, Ranbir will be waiting only for 15 minutes
Two or more events are said to be mutually exclusive if the and then he leaves.
occurrence of one event prevents the occurrence of other So, Probability of not meeting Katrina = 45/60 = ¾.
events. That is, mutually exclusive events can’t occur So probability of meeting = 1 – (3/4) = ¼
simultaneously. Thus, if A and B are two mutually exclusive
events, then A B = 77. One card is lost from a pack of 52 cards. Two cards are
drawn randomly. They are spade. What is the probability
Complementary events that the lost card is also spade?
Let E be an event of a random experiment and S be its sample 1 11 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
space. The set containing all the other outcomes which are not 52 50 4 13
in E but in the sample space is called the complimentary event of Ans: [b]
E.
It is denoted by E'. Thus, E' = S – E.
Note that E and E' are mutually exclusive events.
Exhaustive events
Events E1 , E2, ..., En are exhaustive events if their union is the
sample space S.
Sure event
Let S and S1 be the respective events of choosing a spade
The sample space of a random experiment is called sure or
and a card which is not spade. Let A denote drawing two
certain event as any one of its elements will surely occur in any
spades. Out of 52 cards, 13 are spade and 39 cards are not
trail of the experiment. So, probability of a sure event is 1.
spade.
Impossible event P (S) = 13/52 = 1/4
An event which will not occur on any account is called an P (S1) = 39/52 = 3/4
impossible event. It is denoted by . So, probability of an
impossible event is 0.
We first calculate the total probability of drawing two 79. There are two boxes, one containing 39 red balls & the
spades when the missing card is a spade and the missing other containing 26 green balls. You are allowed to move
card is not a spade. the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a
Total probability = box random & a ball at random from the chosen box, the
A A probability of getting a red ball is maximized. The
P( A) P(S A) P(S1 A) P(S ).P P(S1).P
S 1 maximum probability is
S
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.3
When one spade is lost, there are 12 spades out of 51
Ans: [c]
cards. Two cards can be drawn out of 12 spade cards in
12 Here we are allowed to transfer the balls between the two
C2 ways. Similarly, 2 cards can be drawn out of 51
boxes,
cards in 51 C2 ways so we keep only one red ball in first box and move all the
Probability of drawing 2 spades when one spade is lost = remaining balls to the second box,
12 so that we get maximum probability of drawing red ball
C2 22
51
= from first box
C2 425
A 1 22 So first box--- only one red ball
P(S A) P(S ).P second box--- 38 red and 26 green
S
4 425 Probability of choosing any box is 1/2.
When the lost card is not spade, there are 13 spades out of probability of choosing the red ball from first box is 1
51 cards. Two cards can be drawn out of 13 spades in probability of choosing the red ball from second box is
13
C2 ways whereas 2 cards can be drawn out of 51 cards 38/64
in 51C
2 ways. So probability of taking one red ball = [(1/2) × (1)] +
[(1/2) * (38/64)] ≃ 0.8
The probability of getting two cards, when one card is lost
A 80. For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been
which is not spade, is given by P
1 predicting the winner of each match with amazing
S
13 success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams
A C2 26
P = = A and B, Paul picks A with the same probability as A's
51 425
S
1 C chances of winning. Let's assume such rumors to be true
2
A 3 26 and that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the
P(S A) P(S ).P
1 1 = 2
1 stronger team has a probability of of winning the game.
S 4 425
3
The probability that the lost card is spade given that two What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the
S P(S A)
spades are drawn = P = = winner of the Ghana-Bolivia game?
A P( A) 1 4 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
P(S).P(A / S ) = 9 9 9 3
P(S).P(A / S ) P(S1).P(A / S1) Ans: [c]
1 / 422 / 425 Here probability of Ghana is 2/3.
= 11/50
1 / 422 / 425 3/ 426 / 425 The octopus also should have same probability in
selecting Ghana as winner which is 2/3. So total
78. A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability of selecting the right team (winning team) by
probability of getting exactly three red hats or exactly the octopus is (2/3)(2/3) = 4/9.
three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of
If Ghana has 2/3 chances, Bolivia will have 1 – 2/3 = 1/3
the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the
chances (Assuming that a tie is not possible).
drawer before taking out the next?
So octopus also has 1/3 chances of selecting Bolivia.
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 3/8
So total probability for Bolivia would be (1/3)(1/3) = 1/9.
Ans: [a]
Any team can win the match. So total probability is 4/9 +
4 Red, 4 Blue Possible outcomes =
1/9 = 5/9
[{RRRR, RRRB, RRBR, RBRR, BRRR, RRBB, RBRB, BRRB,
BRBR, BBRR, RBBR, BBBR, BBRB, BRBB, RBBB, BBBB}] 81. In a single throw with two dice, find the probability that
N(s) = 16 their sum is a multiple either of 3 or 4.
N(E) = 8 1 1 5 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
P(E) = N(E)/N(S) = 8/16 = ½ 3 2 9 36
Ans: [c]
Their sum can be 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12
For two dice, any number from 2 to 7 can be get in (n – 1) Now number of ways selecting six number out of 10 = 106
ways and any number from 8 to 12 can be get in (13 – n) Now number of ways of selecting 6 numbers from 1 to 7 =
ways. 76
Then possible ways are 2 + 3 + 5 + 5 + 4 + 1 = 20 possible Number of ways of selecting 6 numbers from 1 to 6 = 66
cases. So number of ways of selecting 7 numbers of which 7 is
So probability is (20/36) = (5/9) maximum = 76 – 66
82. Four people each roll a die once. Find the probability that 7 6
6 6
at least two people will roll the same number. Required probability =
106
5
(a)
18 85. If 75% of a class answered the first question on a certain
test correctly, 55% answered the second question on the
13
(b) test correctly, and 20% answered neither of the questions
18 correctly, what percentage answered both correctly?
(c) None of the given choices (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60
1295 Ans: [c]
(d) 1296
Let the percentage of students who answered both
Ans: [b]
correctly be x
The number of ways of rolling a dice where no two
numbers probability that no one rolls the same number =
6P4 = 6543360
Now total possibilities of rolling a dice = 64
The probability that a no one gets the same number
6543 5
64 18
So the probability that at least two peoples gets same 75 – x + x + 55 – x + 20 = 100
5 13
number 1 X = 50
18 18
86. Probability that leap year chosen at random will have
83. Two decks of cards are there. Each deck contains 53 Sundays is
20 cards, with numbers from 1 to 20 written on them. A 1 3 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
card is drawn of random from each deck, getting the 49 7 7 7
numbers x and y. What is the probability that log x + log y Ans: [d]
is a positive integer? (Logs are taken to the base 10) The leap year has two odd days. Those days can be Sun,
3 29 7 1 Mon
(a) (b) (c) (d)
200 200 400 50 Mon, Tue
Ans: [c] Tue, Wed
Log x + log y = log (xy) Wed, Thu
log xy is integer when (x, y) = (1, 10), (10, 1), (10, 10), (5, Thu, Fri
20), (20, 5), (2, 5), (5, 2) Fri, Sat
So, required probability = 7/400 Sat, Sun
84. In this question, AB refers to A raised to the power B. So Two chances out of seven has Sunday. So probability =
Ten tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, ..., 10. Six tickets are selected 2/7
at random one at a time with replacement. The
probability of the largest number appearing on the 2rd 5 th
87. of the balls in a bag are blue, the rest are pink. If
selected ticket is 7 is 3 9
(76 1 ) (76 66 ) 7 th
(a) (b) of the blue balls and of the pink balls are defective,
8
106 106
find the total number of balls in the bag given that the
(76 66 ) 66 number of non defective balls is 146.
(c) (d)
10 6 106 (a) 216 (b) 649 (c) 432 (d) 578
Ans: [b] Ans: [c]
Number of ways of selecting six numbers out of 10 = 106 Let the total number of balls be x
2x/3 are blue and remaining x/3 are pink 9 7 7 21
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Defective balls: (5/9) (2x/3) + (7/8) (x/3) = x – 146 50 25 20 50
Solving for x, we get, x = 432 Ans: [b]
88. A bag contains six sticks of the following lengths 1 cm, Total = 2500
3 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm, 11 cm and 13 cm. Three sticks are Municipal bond investors = 35% = 35% of 2500 = 875
drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability Oil stock investors = 18% = 18% of 2500 = 450
that we can form a triangle with those sticks? Municipal + Oil = 7% = 7% of 2500 = 175
11 1 2 No invest = 2500 – (875 + 450 + 175) = 1000
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d)
20 4 5 Probability of municipal investment alone = (875 –
Ans: [c] 175)/2500 = 7/25
Total possibilities = 6C3 = 20
92. An article manufactured by a company consists of two
Now for making a triangle, the sum of any 2 sides must be parts X and Y. In the process of manufacturing of part X, 9
greater than 3rd side so only the following combinations out 100 parts many be defective. Similarly, 5 out of 100
will result in formation of triangle: are likely to be defective in the manufacturer of Y.
3 5 7 Calculate the probability that the assembled product will
3 11 13 not be defective?
5 7 11 (a) 0.6485 (b) 0.6565 (c) 0.8645 (d) None of these
7 11 13 Ans: [c]
5 11 13 Probability of non defective x part = 1 – 9/100 = 91/100
So, Probability = n(E)/n (S) = 5/20 = 1/4 Probability of non defective y part = 1 – 5/100 = 95/100
Probability of non defective assembly (95/100 * 91/100)
89. From a box containing 3 white chips, 7 blue chips and = 0.8645
15 green chips, 2 chips are drawn at random. What is the
93. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining
probability that one of the chips is blue and the other is
cards of the pack, two cards are drawn and are found to
white?
be both spade. Find the probability of the lost card being a
7 7 7 21
(a) (b) (c) (d) spade.
625 50 100 625 10 10 11 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Ans: [c]
50 53 50 53
No. of ways of selecting 2 chips = 25c2 Ans: [c]
Probability of getting one blue = 7c1 Total cards = 52
Probability of getting one white = 3c1 Drawn cards (spade) = 2
Required probability = 7c1 * 3c1/25c2 = 21 * 2/(25 * 24) = Now, Actual present total cards = Total cards – Drawn
7/100 cards = 52 – 2 = 50
Total spade = spade – Drawn cards (spade) = 13 – 2 = 11
90. A father purchases dress for his three daughters. The So, probability = 11/50
dresses are of same color but of different size, the dress is
kept in dark room. What is the probability that all the 94. There are two bags containing white and black balls. In
three will not choose their own dress? the first bag there are 8 white and 6 black balls and in the
2 1 1 1 second bag, there are 4 white and 7 black balls. One ball is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 6 9 drawn at random from any of these two bags. Find the
probability of this ball being black.
Ans: [b]
21 7 21 41
De arrangement Formula (a) (b) (c) (d)
154 54 77 77
= x![1 – 1/1! + ½! – 1/3! + ¼! +........ 1/n!]
Ans: [d]
= 120[1 – 1/1 + ½ – 1/6 + 1/24 – 1/120]
1 6C 1 7C 41
= 6[1 – 1/1 + ½ – 1/6] = 2 ways Probability 1 1
14 11
Probability of getting all wrong dress = 2/3! = 2/6 = 1/3 2 C1 2 C1 77
91. Among a group of 2500 people, 35 percent invest in 95. A bag contains 1100 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, ... 1100. If a
municipal bonds, 18 percent invest in oil stocks, and ticket is drawn out of it at random, what is the probability
7 percent invest in both municipal bonds and oil stocks. If that the ticket drawn has the digit 2 appearing on it?
1 person is to be randomly selected from 2500 people, 291 292 290 301
what is the probability that the person selected will be (a) (b) (c) (d)
1100 1100 1100 1100
one who invests in municipal bonds but not in oil stocks?
Ans: [c] Relative Speed
Numbers which dont have 2 from 1 to 9 = 8
Relative speed is the rate at which the distance between two
Numbers which don't have 2 from 10 to 99:
moving particles increase or decrease and depends on the
Let us take two places _ _. Now left most place is fixed in 8 direction in which the particles are moving.
ways. Units place is filled with 9 ways. Total 72 numbers.
Numbers which don't have 2 from 100 to 999 =_ _ _ = 8 × 9 Relative speed = sum of speeds, if the particles move in
× 9 = 648 opposite directions
Numbers which don't have 2 from 1000 to 1099 =10_ _ = = difference in speeds, if the particles move
9 × 9 = 81 in the same direction
Finally 1100 does not have 2. So 1.
Total number with no 2 in them = 8 + 72 + 648 + 81 + 1= The relative speed concept can be applied only if both particles
810 are moving. If the particles start moving at different points of
Tickets with 2 in them = 1100 – 810 = 290 time, the given data needs to be restructured to the time when
Required probability = 290/1100 both particles move simultaneously.
96. 100 students appeared for two examinations. 60 passed Steps involved in applying relative speed to solve problems:
the first, 50 passed the second and 30 passed both. Find
1. Determine the initial distance between the particles.
the probability that a student selected at random has
failed in both the examinations? If both particles move simultaneously, the distance between
1 5 1 5 them is the initial distance and if they do not start at the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 6 7 7 same time, calculate the distance between them when the
late starter begins to move and take that as the initial
Ans: [a] distance.
n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B)
2. Evaluate the relative speed.
n(A∪B) = 60 + 50 - 30 = 80 3. Calculate the time taken for the two particles to meet or
So 80 passed in atleast one of the exams. 100 – 80 = 20 cross each other as the ratio of initial distance to the relative
failed in both. speed.
Probability = 20/100 = 1/5 The relative speed concept can also be employed to determine
the distance between two moving particles at any given time by
TIME, SPEED, DISTANCE the following rule.
Speed
Required distance = initial distance (time lapse relative
If distance D is covered in time T, the speed S is given by speed)
S = D/T
Train Problems
From this, we get T = D/S Train problems broadly centre around the following three types.
1. Time taken by a train to cross a stationary point
and D=ST 2. Time taken by a train to cross a stationary length
3. Time taken by a train to cross a moving length
D and S are directly proportional, but T and S are inversely
“A train takes 20 seconds to cross or go past a man” implies that to
proportional.
start with the man was in line with the front of the train and after
Average Speed 20 seconds he was in line with the rear of the train. Thus, the
distance travelled by a train to cross a man or a tree or a lamp post
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time or for that matter any stationary point is its length itself and hence
the time taken can be obtained once the train speed is known.
If the time is constant, the average speed is the arithmetic Time taken by a train to cross a stationary point
mean of the speeds and if the distance is constant, the average = train length/train speed
speed is the harmonic mean of the speeds.
If the train has to cross a platform, it has to cover an additional
[Given two numbers a and b, their arithmetic mean (AM) distance equal to the platform length. The same logic applies to
= (a + b)/2, the harmonic mean (HM) = 2ab/(a + b) and AM HM.] tunnel or bridge or any stationary length.
Time taken by a train to cross a stationary length Relative speed = 20 kmph
= (train length + stationary length)/ train speed Distance covered = 120 km
If the train is to cross another train which is stationary, the
distance to be covered is the sum of the length of the two trains
and the speed would be governed by the speed of the moving
train. But if the other train is also moving, the distance to be
covered remains the same, but the speed would be governed by
the relative speed since both trains are moving.
Time taken by a train to cross another train moving in the
Distance covered in 6 hours by A = 40 * 6 = 240 km
same direction = sum of length of the two trains/difference in
Distance covered in 6 hours by B = 60 * 6 = 360 km
their speeds
Total Distance = 240 + 360 = 600 km.
Time taken by a train to cross another train moving towards it 98. George walks 36 kms partly at a speed of 4 kms per hour
= sum of length of the two trains/sum of their speeds and partly at 3 km per hour. If he had walked at a speed of
3 km per hour when he had walked at 4 km per hour and
The above rules are applicable if the front of one train is in line 4 km per when he had walked at 3 km per hour he would
with the front of the other in the second case and in line with have walked only 34 kms. The time (in hours) spent by
rear of the other train in the first case. George walking was
If the two trains are apart to start with, that distance needs to be (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 5 (d) 10
added to the numerator of above results to get the time. Ans: [d]
In train problem, it is more likely that the length would be in 4T1 + 3T2 = 36 ... (i)
metres and the speeds would be in km/h. The following 3T1 + 4T2 = 34 ... (ii)
conversion factor is useful in such cases. 4 * (i) – 3 * (ii), we get
16T1 + 12T2 = 144
5
1 km/h = m/s and 1 m/s = 3.6 km/h (–) 9T1 + 12T2 = 102
18
--------------------------
Boat and Stream Problems 7T1 = 42
---------------------------
These problems are governed by the following results.
T1 = 6
Downstream (along the current) speed (D) T1 = 6 hrs and T2 = 4 hrs
= Boat speed (B) + current (stream) speed (C) So time taken for one leg in both cases = 10 hours.
Upstream (against the current) speed (U)
= Boat speed – current (stream) speed
Speed of the boat = average of downstream and upstream
speeds
Speed of the current = half the difference of downstream and
upstream speeds
Or as formulae,
99. Ram & Shyam are at X & Y point on same path. Ram &
D=B+C Shyam start journey at same time from X & Y to reach Y &
U=B–C X respectively. At a midpoint Ram takes 4 hours to reach Y
B = (D + U)/2 & Shyam took 16 hours to reach X. Ram’s speed is 48
C = (D – U)/2 km/hr. What is the speed of Shyam?
(a) 24 kmph (b) 56 kmph
97. A travels at 40 kmph and B travels at 60 kmph. They are (c) 32 kmph (d) 12 kmph
travelling towards each other and start at the same time. Ans: [d]
By the time they meet, B would have travelled 120 km
Ram : Shyam
more than A. Find the total distance.
Time 4 : 16
(a) 600 km (b) 720 km (c) 400 km (d) 540 km
1 : 4
Ans: [a]
1 : 4
A = 40 kmph
48 km/hr : 12 km
100. A and B start from their house at 10 a.m.. They travel from 103. Anusha, Banu and Esha run a running race of 100 meters.
their house on MG road at 15 kmph and 30 kmph. There is Anusha is the fastest followed by Banu and then Esha.
a T junction on their path A turns left at the T junction at Anusha, Banu and Esha maintain constant speeds during
12:00 noon. B reaches the T junction earlier and turns the entire race. When Anusha reached the goal post, Banu
right. Both of them continue traveling till 2:00 p.m.. What was 10 m behind. When Banu reached the goal post Esha
is the distance between A and B at 2:00 p.m.? was 10 m behind. What is the distance covered by Esha
(a) 100 km (b) 120 km when Anusha reached the goal post (in meter)?
(c) 140 km (d) 150 km (a) 70 (b) 81 (c) 90 (d) 80
Ans: [b] Ans: [b]
By that time Anusha covered 100 m, Bhanu covered 90 m.
So ratio of their speeds = 10:9
By that time Bhanu reached 100 m, Esha covered 90 m. So
ratio of their speeds = 10:9
Ratio of the speed of all the three = 100 : 90 : 81
By that time Anusha covered 100 m, Esha covers only 81.
104. One day, Eesha started 30 minutes late from home and
reached her office 50 minutes late while driving 25%
slower than her usual speed. How much time in minutes
does Eesha usually take to reach her office from home?
(a) 80 min (b) 50 min
(c) 60 min (d) 70 min
Ans: [a]
So distance between A and B at 2 p.m. = 30 + 90 = 120
Easha starts 30 mins late and reacheds 50 mins late by
km
travelling 25% slower than her normal speed.
101. Megha drives along the perimeter of square field of side So 25 % reduction in speed increases 20 mins of her
10 kms. She drives along the first side at 10 kmph, along journey.
the second side at 20 kmph, along the third side at So usual time taken to reach office can be found out by
30 kmph and along the fourth side at 40 kmph. Her using Time Speed concept.
Average speed is
Taking into account of 100 % speed. She will require
(a) 19.2 kmph (b) 18 kmph = 4 * 20 mins = 80 mins.
(c) 20 kmph (d) 30 kmph
105. Car A leaves city C at 5 pm and drives at a speed of
Ans: [a]
40 kmph. 2 hours later another car B leaves city C and
Average speed = total distance travelled /total time taken drives in the same direction as car A. In how much time will
Total distance = 10 * 4 = 40 kms car B be 9 km ahead of car A if speed of car B is 60 kmph?
Total time = T1 + T2 + T3+ T4 = 10/10 + 10/20 + 10/30 (a) 4.27 hours (b) 4.17 hours
+ 10/40 (c) 4.30 hours (d) 4.45 hours
= (120 + 60 + 40 + 30)/120 = 250 / 120 = 2.08 Ans: [d]
hrs
So, Average Speed = 40/2.08 = 19.2 Km/h
102. Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 4 times as fast as
Mohan's old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohan's Mercedes
is 35 km/hr and the distance traveled by the Ferrari is
490 km, find the total time taken by Rohit to drive that
distance.
(a) 3 hours (b) 4 hours
(c) 3.5 hours (d) 4.5 hours
Time Taken = 89 / 20 = 4.45 hours
Ans: [c]
Speed of Mercedes = 35 kmph 106. Two cyclists begin training on an oval racecourse at the
same time. The professional cyclist completes each lap in
Speed of Ferrari = 4 * 35 = 140 kmph
4 minutes; the novice takes 6 minutes to complete each
Distance covered = 490 km lap. How many minutes after the start will both cyclists
Time = 490/140 = 3.5 hours pass at exactly the same spot where they began to cycle?
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 12
Ans: [d] (24/x) + (24/(7 – x)) = 14
Prof .cyc = every 4 mins reach starting point Try the values from the options. If Jake speed is 4 km/h
Nov. Cyc = every 6 mins reach starting point then Paul’s is 3km/h that satisfies the condition.
Both meet at starting point LCM for 4 and 6 110. Ram and Shakil run a race of 2000 m. First, Ram gives
After 12 mins both cyclist will be in starting point Shakil a start of 200 m and beats him by 1 minute. Next,
Ram gives Shakil a start of 6 min and is beaten by
107. Tim and Elan are 90 km from each other, they start to
1000 metres. Find the time (in minutes) in which Ram
move each other simultaneously Tim at speed 10 and Elan
and Shakil can run the race separately.
5 kmph. If every hour they double their speed what is the
(a) 12, 18 (b) 10, 12 (c) 11, 18 (d) 8, 10
distance that Tim will pass until he meet Elan?
Ans: [d]
(a) 45 km (b) 60 km (c) 20 km (d) 80 km
Statement 1:
Ans: [b]
Ram ran 2000 m
90 km
Shakil ran 2000 – 200 = 1800 m
Tim ------------------------------ Elan Ram takes x sec to run 200 m and Shakil takes ‘x + 60’ sec
First hour Tim covered 10 km Elan = 5 km, to run 1800 m.
So, 90 – 15 = 75 km remaining So time taken to run 1 m by
Second hour Tim covered 20 km Elan = 10 km = 30 km Ram = x/2000
= 75 – 30 = 45 km remaining Shakil = (x + 60)/1800
Time taken to cover by both person. Relative speed= 40 Statement 2:
+ 20 = 60kmph (every hour they double their speed) Ram gave 6 minutes i.e. 3600 sec lead and got beaten by
T = 45/60 = ¾ hours = ¾ * 60 = 45 min 1000 m
After 2hours 45 min they will meet So, Ram ran 1000 m and Shakil ran 2000 m
Total distance covered by Tim when meeting elan = 10 Ram takes y sec to run 1000 m where Shakil takes
+ 20 + 30 = 60 km ‘y + 3600’ sec to run 2000
So, time taken to run 1 m by Ram = y/1000
108. J is faster than P. J and P each walk 24 km. Sum of the Shakil = (y + 3600)/2000
speeds of J and P is 7 kmph. Sum of time taken by them is Now solving the equations:
14 hours. Then J speed is equal to
x/2000 = y/1000 and x + 60/1800 = y + 3600/2000
(a) 7 kmph (b) 3 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) 4 kmph
We get x = 8 min and y = 10 min
Ans: [d]
Distance covered by J and P = 24 km 111. An old man and a young man are working together in an
Speed of J > Speed of P office and staying together in a near by apartment. The
old man takes 30 minutes and the young 20 minutes to
SJ SP 7 km/h ( SJ and SP are speed of J and P)
walk from apartment to office. If one day the old man
TJ TP 14 ( TJ and TP are time of J and P) started at 10:00 am and the young man at 10:05 am from
S = D/T the apartment to office, when will they meet?
(a) 10:15 a.m (b) 10:30 a.m
SJ J km/h
(c) 10:45 a.m (d) 10:00 a.m
SP 7J km/ h Ans: [a]
Total time = 24/J + 24/(7 – J) = 14 Ratio of old man speed to young man speed = 2:3
=> 24 (7 – J) + 24J/J(7 – J) = 14 The distance covered by old man in 5 min = 10
168 = 14(7J – J2) The 10 unit is covered with relative speed = 10/(3 – 2)
12 = 7J – J2 = 10 min
J2 – 7J + 12 = 0 So, they will meet at 10:15 a.m..
J = 4, 3
112. Walking at ¾ of his usual speed, a man is 16 minutes late
J is faster > 3.5
for his office. The usual time taken by him to cover that
J = 4 kmph distance is
109. Jake is faster than Paul, Jake and Paul each walk 24 km. (a) 48 min (b) 60 min (c) 42 min (d) 62 min
The sum of their speed is 7 km per hour. And the sum of Ans: [a]
times taken by them is 14 hours. Then, Jake speed is Walking at 3/4 of usual speed, he is 16 min late.
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr So losing 1/4th of his speed makes him lose 16 mins.
Ans: [a] So at normal speed the time taken by him is thrice the
Speed = Distance/Time time lost = 3 * 16 = 48 mins.
Let the speed of joke be x, then speed of Paul will be 7 – x
CLOCKS & CALENDERS The finding can be extended to other angles by applying the
11 11
Unit of Time formula, 30 H M or M30 H for every hour in
2 2
The unit of time in clocks is seconds. A second, the SI unit of the clock.
time, is defined as the natural periodicity of the radiation of a So, let us name such times as the reference time and consider it
caesium-133 atom. A duration of 60 seconds is defined as a as the reason for the shortfall of the frequency of formation of
minute. In clocks, it is also defined as the time taken by the angles between the hands of the clock.
minute hand to move across a minute space.
Angle Occurrence in a day Reference time
A duration of 60 minutes is defined as an hour. In clocks, it is 0º 22 times 12 o'clock
also defined as the time taken by the hour hand or short hand to 30º 44 times 11 o'clock and 1 o'clock
move across five minute spaces or one hour space. A day is also
60º 44 times 10 o'clock and 2 o'clock
defined as the duration of 24 hours.
90º 44 times 9 o'clock and 3 o'clock
Angles in the Face of a Clock
120º 44 times 8 o'clock and 4 o'clock
Hour hand covers an angle of 360 in 12 hours. So, the hour 150º 44 times 7 o'clock and 5 o'clock
360 180º 22 times 6 o'clock
hand in one hour will cover 30 . So for every minute, the
12
30 From the table, we find that there are two reference times for all
hour hand moves through 0.5 . angles except 0 and 180. As seen already, the angle 30 is
60
formed twice for every hour but occurs only thrice in the
Minute hand covers an angle of 360 in 1 hour. So for every following periods of time.
360
minute, the minute hand moves through 6 . From 10 o'clock to 12 o'clock (Reference time 11 o'clock)
60
From 12 o'clock to 2 o'clock (Reference time 1 o'clock)
Both the hands of the clock move in same direction. So, their
relative displacement for every minute is 5.5. This 5.5 Hence, in 12 hours the no. of times the hands of the clock form 30 is
movement constitutes the movements of both the hands. So for 22. Therefore, in 24 hours the no. of times is 44. Similar approach
every minute, both the hands give a relative displacement of can be used to conclude the frequency of formation for other angles.
5.5. Gain and loss of time in an incorrect clock
Formula to find the angle between the hands of the clock A normal clock becomes incorrect when there is a change in the
11 speeds of the hands of the clock. As seen already, duration of a day
30 H M (When minute hand is trailing the hour hand) is measured by the time taken by the hour hand to move across
2 the 12 divisions twice. So, when the speed of the hands of the
11 clock increases they complete their rotation for a day sooner.
M30 H (When minute hand is leading the hour hand)
2 Thus, they result in loss of time when actually compared with the
Where is the angle between the hands, H and M are the duration for a day in a correct clock . Similarly, when the hands of
positions of hour hand and minute hand at that instant the clock move slower than usual, they take more time to
respectively. complete the rotations for a day. Thus, they result in gaining more
time for a day when compared with that in a correct clock.
Frequency of formation of angles between the hands of the
clock 113. Reflex angle when is 9:40.
(a) 310 (b) 220 (c) 120 (d) 270
With the relative displacement, it is easier to find the frequency
at which the hands of a clock form a particular angle. Let's find Ans: [a]
the number of times the hands of the clock form 0 in a day. 11m
5 720 30H
or minutes. 2
The hands of the clock coincide every 65 11
11 1140
270
In a day there are 24 60 = 1440 minutes 2
In a day the hands of the clock coincide 270 22050
11 36050310
1440 22 times
720 114. In a month of 31 days, there are exactly 4 Thursdays and 4
It can be inferred that the hands of the clock coincide once in Sundays. What is the day of the week on the first of that
every hour except for two occasions i.e. from 11 to 1 o'clock month?
they coincide only once at 12 o'clock. So, it is 11 times in 12 (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
hours and thus 22 times in 24 hours. (c) Monday (d) Thursday.
Ans: [c]
Total days = 31
No. Of odd days = 3
Those 3 days must be Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday.
Because there are exactly 4 Sundays and 4 Thursdays.
So that month must start with a Monday.
115. My flight takes off at 2 am from a place at 18N 10E and
landed 10 hrs later at a place with coordinates 36N 70W.
What is the local time when my plane landed?
(a) 12 noon (b) 6:40 AM 8 Jan 2029 has 1 odd day. So, the day is on Monday.
(c) 5:20 PM (d) 6:50 AM
119. At what time between 3 and 4 o’ clock are the hands of a
Ans: [b]
clock together?
The destination place is 80 degree west to the starting
(a) 15 7 minutes past 4
place. 11
For each degree, the time diff is 4 mins. (b) 16 4 minutes past 3
11
Hence the time difference between these two places is 4 * (c) 16 2 minutes past 3
80 = 320 mins or 5 hrs 20 mins. 11
(c) 16 2 minutes past 2
When the flight landed, the time at the starting place is 12 11
noon (2 AM + 10 hours). Ans: [b]
Hence, the time at the destination place is 12 00 hrs – 5:20 At 3 ‘o clock, the minute hand is 15 minute spaces apart
hours = 6: 40 AM from the hour hand.
116. At what time between 6 and 7 will the hands of the clock To be coincident if must gain 15 minute spaces.
coincide? 55 minutes are gained in 60 minutes.
(a) 6:13 (b) 6:36 ∴ 15 minutes are gained in 60 × 15
55
8 = 180 = 16
4
minutes
(d) 6:35
11 11 11
4
∴ The hands will be together at 16 min past 3.
8 11
(c) 6:32
11 120. Find the angle between the two hands of a clock at 30
Ans: [c] minutes past 4o’ clock.
30H 11/2M (a) 40° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 50°
Ans. (c):
11/2(M) = 180 360 9 °
1802 8 Angle traced by the hour hand in 9 hrs. = ( = 135º
M 32 2 12
× 2)
11 11 360 9 °
Angle traced by the minute hand in 30 min. = ( × )
12 2
117. When asked what the time is a person answered that the
= 180º
1
amount of time left is of the time already completed. ∴ Required angle = 180º – 135º = 45º
5
What is the time? 121. Find the number of times the hands of a clock are in a
(a) 8 pm (b) 8 am (c) 12 pm (d) 12 am straight line everyday
Ans: [a] (a) 44 (b) 24 (c) 42 (d) 22
A day has 24 hrs. Assume x hours have passed. Remaining Ans: [a]
time is (24 – x)
In 12 hours, the hands coincide or in opposite direction
24 – x = 15x => x = 20 22 times.
Time is 8 PM
∴ In 24 hours the hands are straight 44 times
118. Curious Elva asked her father what he would gift for her
122. A clock takes 9 secs to strike 4 times. Find the time taken
nineteenth birthday. Father replied that it would depend
to strike 12 times at the same rate.
on the day of the week and be one of SUNglasses,
(a) 27 secs (b) 36 secs (c) 30 secs (d) 33 secs
MONeybag, ..., FRIedcake, and SATchel. Please help Elva
find the day of the week on 08-Jan-2029 Ans: [d]
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday There are 3 intervals when the clock strikes 4
(c) Thursday (d) Saturday ∴ Time taken for 1 interval = 9 = 3 .
3
Ans: [a]
In order to strike 12, there are 11 intervals.
123. A clock gains 10 minutes in every 24 hrs. It is set right on Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Monday at 8 am. What will be the correct time on the Odd days in 400 years = 0
following Wednesday when the watch indicates 6pm.
5 years = 4 ordinary years + 1 leap year = 4 x 1 + 1 x 2 = 6
(a) 5:36pm (b) 5:40pm odd days.
(d) 4:36pm (d) None of these Jan Feb March April May
Ans: [a] 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 28 = 148 days= 21 weeks + 1 day = 1
Total number of hour from Monday at 8 AM to the odd days.
following Wednesday at 6 Pm = 24 x 2 + 10 = 58 hrs.
∴ Total number of odd days = 0 + 0 + 6 + 1 = 7 = 0 odd day.
24 hrs. 10 min of this clock are the same as 24 hrs. of a
∴ The given day is Sunday.
correct clock.
145
⟹ ℎ of the incorrect clock = 24 hrs of the correct 128. The last day of the century cannot be
6
clock. (a) Monday (b) Wednesday
24×6 288
∴ 58 hrs. of the incorrect clock = 58 × = ℎ = (c) Tuesday (d) Friday
145 5
57
3 Ans: [c]
hrs.
5 100 years contain 5 odd days
∴ The correct time on the following Wednesday will be 5:
∴ Last day of 1st century is Friday
36 PM.
200 years contain 5 x 2 = 10 = 3 odd days.
124. January 1,2007 was Monday. What day of the week lies on
∴ Last day of second century is Wednesday
Jan 1,2008?
300 year contain 5 x 3 = 15 = 1 odd day
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
∴ Last day of the third century is Monday.
(c) Wednesday (d) Sunday
400 years contain
Ans: [b]
∴ Last day of the fourth century is Sunday.
The year 2007 is an ordinary year – so, it has 1 odd day.
This cycle is repeated
1st day of the year 2007 was Monday
∴ 1st day of the year 2008 will be 1 day legend Monday. ∴ Last day of the century cannot be Tuesday, Thursday or
Saturday.
Hence, if will be Tuesday
125. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the TIME AND WORK
year. Two quantities are said to be directly proportional if on the
(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2017 (d) 2018 increase or decrease of the one, the other increases or decreases
Ans: [d] to the same extent. Work done is directly proportional to the
Counting the number of odd days from 2007 number of men working on it (more men, more work). Two
quantities are said to be indirectly proportional if on the
increase of the one, the other decreases to the same extent and
on the decrease of the one, the other increases to the same
14 exxtent. Time taken to finish a work is inversely proportional to
Sum = 14 odd days = 0 odd day [ = 2] the number of persons working on it.
7
∴ Calendar for the year 2018 will be the same as for the 1
year 2007 If A does a work in 'a' days, then in one day A does of the
a
126. Which of the following is not a leap year? work.
(a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 1200 (d) 2000 1
Ans: [a] If B does a work in 'b' days, then in one day B does of the
b
Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year. work.
The century divisible by 400 is a leap year.
If A and B work together, their combined work for one day is
∴ Here, 700 is not a leap year. 1 1 ab
127. What was the day of the week on 28th may 2006? a b ab
(a) Thursday (b) Friday For example, if A can do a work in 10 days, and B can do the
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday same work in 12 days, then the work will be completed in how
many days?
Ans: [d]
1 1 22 11
28th May 2006 = 2005 years + Period from 1.1.2006 to One day's work of A and B
28.5.2006 10 12 120 60
Then the number of days required to complete work First 15 days, Mark is not working. So, George will
60 5 complete = 90/30 = 3 U/day 3 * 15 = 45 Units of work
5 days
11 11 Remaining work = 90 – 45 = 45 Units of work, which both
of them do together.
If A and B are trying to build a wall while C is working to break
3U + 2U = 5 U/day = 45 / 5 = 9 days. Total time = 15 + 9 =
the wall, then we say C is doing negative work. 24 days.
For example, A can build a wall in 10 days, B can build it in 5 131. George and Mark can paint 720 boxes in 20 days. Mark
days and C can completely destroy the wall in 20 days. If they and Harry in 24 days and Harry and George in 15 days.
work together in how many days will the work be completed? George works for 4 days, Mark for 8 days and Harry for 8
1 1 1 5 1 days. The total number of boxes painted by them is
The combined work per day
10 5 20 20 4 (a) 252 (b) 516 (c) 348 (d) 492
Ans: [c]
The work can be completed in 4 days.
Capacity of G + M = 720/20 = 36
129. Daniel can do some work in 12 hours, Roy can do the M + H = 720/24 = 30
same work in 10 hours while Hillary can do the same H + G = 720/15 = 48
work in 15 hours. All the three of them start working at Combined capacity = 2 (G + H + M) = 114
9 a.m. while Daniel stops working at 11 a.m. and G + H + M = 114/2 = 57
remaining two complete the work. Approximately at what
Now capacity of G = (G + H + M) – (H + M) = 57 – 30 = 27
time will the work be finished?
M = (G + H + M) – (H + G) = 57 – 48 = 9
(a) 1.30 p.m. (b) 12.30 a.m.
H = (G + H + M) – (G + M) = 57 – 36 = 21
(c) 2.00 p.m. (d) 1.00 p.m.
Given that G worked for 4 days, and mark for 8 and harry
Ans: [c]
for 8 days
Daniel = 12 hours
So total work by them = 4 x 27 + 8 x 9 + 8 x 21 = 348
Roy = 10 hours boxes
Hilari = 15 hours
132. 60 men can complete a piece of work in 40 days. 60 men
LCM of 12, 10, 15 = 60 = Total units of work
start the work but after every 5 days 5 people leave. In
Daniel = 5 U/hr how many days will the work be completed?
Roy = 6 U/hr (a) 60 (b) 80
Hilari = 4 U/hr (c) 120 (d) None of these
All the three work together for 2 hours (9 to 11 a.m.) Ans: [d]
5 + 6 + 4 = 15 U/hr = So in two hours they will complete Let total units of work to be done = 60 * 40 = 2400 Units
30 Units After every 5 days, 5 people leave.
Remaining units = 30 First 5 days = 60 * 5 = 300 Units
After that only Roy and Hilari complete the work. Next five days = 55 * 5 = 275 Units.
Units per hour by Roy and Hilari = 10 Units So Units of work done = 300 + 275 + 250 + 225 + 200 +
Time taken = 30/10 = 3 hours. 175 + 150 + 125 + 100 + 75 + 50 + 25 = 1950 Units
Work will be completed approximately 3 hours after 11 After this everyone leave. So the answer must be option
a.m. = 2:00 p.m. (d).
130. George and Mark work for a company. George can finish a 133. A certain sum of money is sufficient to pay either George
certain job in 30 days. Mark can finish the sample job in wages for 15 days or Mark wages for 10 days. How long
45 days. A project was taken by the company and George will it be sufficient if both work together?
was made superior to Mark. This move from the company (a) 9 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
was not liked by Mark. So Mark did not work for 15 days. Ans: [c]
Find the total number of days the entire work was Given that George’s wage for 15 days = Mark’s wage for
competed if Mark works at his normal speed after 15 days 10 days.
from the date of commencement?
Assume total salary to be = 30 units
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 35 (d) 24 George earns = 2 U/day
Ans: [d] Mark earns = 3 U/day
George = 30 days Total wage for both = 5 U/day
Mark = 45 days So, 30 units will pay both of them together for 30/5 = 6
L.C.M = 90 = Total units of work days.
134. George can do some work in 8 hours. Paul can do the 137. Truck A and truck B move grain into a box at the rate of
same work in 10 hours while Hari can do the same work 1
20 kilos/min and 13 kilos a minute respectively while
in 12 hours. All the three of them start working at 9 am 3
while George stops work at 11 am and the remaining two Truck C removes grain from the box at the rate of 10
complete the work. Approximately at what time will the kilos/min. If the capacity of the box is 2.4 tons, and Truck
work be finished? A, Truck B and Truck C are working simultaneously then
(a) 11.30 am (b) 1 pm the box will be filled in
1 3
(c) 12.30 pm (d) 12 noon (a) 1 hours (b) hours
Ans: [b] 2 5
Let the total work = 120 units. 5 1
(c) 1 hours (d) 2 hours
As George completes this entire work in 8 hours, his 7 8
capacity is 15 units /hour Ans: [c]
Similarly, the capacity of paul is 12 units / hour A fills 20 k/m
the capacity of Hari is 10 units / hour B fills 40/3 k/m
All 3 started at 9 am and worked upto 11 am. So total C removes 10 k/m = fills -10k/m
work done upto 11 am = 2 x (15 + 12 + 10) = 74 Total fills: = 20 + 40/3 – 10 = 70/3
Remaining work = 120 - 74 = 46 2.4 ton = 2400 k
Now this work is to be done by paul and hari. 46 / (12 + So, 2400/(70/3) = 720/7 min = 12/7(60) min = 12/7 hr
10) = 2 hours (approx) 5
12/7 hr = 1 hr so ans is c.
So work gets completed at 1 pm 7
135. Two women Renu and Usha are working on an 138. The volume of water inside a swimming pool doubles every
embroidery design. If Usha worked alone, she would need hour. If the pool is filled to its full capacity within 8 hrs, in
eight hours more to complete the design than if they both how many hours was it filled to one quarter of its capacity?
worked together. Now if Renu worked alone, it would (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
need 4.5 hours more to complete the design than they Ans: [d]
both working together. What time would it take Renu
Quantity is doubling every hour. It is full in 8 hours
alone to complete the design?
So will be half filled in 7 hours (1 hour earlier)
(a) 10.5 hrs (b) 12.5 hrs
Will be one quarter of its capacity in 6 hours (one hour
(c) 14.5 hrs (d) 18.5 hrs
before)
Ans: [a]
If Renu + Usha = x 139. A completes 80% of a work in 20 days. Then B also joins
and A and B together finish the remaining work in 3 days.
Their combine efficiency = 1/x
How long does it need for B if he alone completes the
Usha"s work = x + 8 work?
And her efficiency = 1/x + 8 (a) 28 days (b) 37(1/2) days
Like this way renu's work = x + 4.5 (c) 45 days (d) None of these
And her efficiency = 1/x + 4.5 Ans: [b]
Now (1/x = 8)+(1/x + 4.5)= 1/x A = 80% in 20 days, so 100 % of work in 25 days.
∴x=6 A + B = 20 % work in 3 days, so 100 % of work in 15 days.
6 + 4.5 = 10.5 Let total work to be done be 75 units.
136. Aravind can do a work in 24 days. Mani can dig the same A = 3U/day
well in 36 days. Aravind, Mani and Hari can do a work A + B = 5 U/day
together in 8 days. Hari alone can do the work in So B= 5 – 3 = 2 U/day
(a) 12 days (b) 18days (c) 16 days (d) 24 days So to complete the work, B alone takes 75/2 = 37 (1/2)
Ans: [b] days.
Aravind = 24 days (3 U/day)
140. A completes a work in 20 days, B in 60 days and C in
Mani = 36 days (2 U/day)
45 days. All three persons working together on a project
Aravind + Mani + Hari = 8 days (9 U/day) got a profit of Rs.26000. What is the profit of B?
L.C.M = 72 = Total Units of work. (a) Rs.4875 (b) Rs.6400 (c) Rs.3000 (d) Rs.3500
Hari = 9 – ( 3 + 2 ) = 4 U/day Ans: [a]
Time taken by Hari alone to dig = 72/4 = 18 days. A = 20days = 9 U/day
B = 60 days = 3 U/day B can do 2/3rd of the work in 4 days. So total work in 6
C = 45 days = 4 U/day days (8 U/day)
Total units of work = 180 U A + B + C can do the work in 3 days (16 U/day), Total = 48
A:B:C = 9:3:4. Total profit = 26000, B’s share = 3/(9 + 3 + Units.
4) = (3/16) * 26000 So C = 16 – 8 – 6 = 2 U/day. In two days 4 U = 4 / 48 =
B’s Share = 4875. 1/12 part work
141. An engineer undertakes a project to build a road 15 km 144. For a car there are 5 types including one spare tyre
long in 300 days and employs 45 men for the purpose. (4 + 1). All types are equally used. If the total distance
After 100 days, he finds only 2.5 km of the road has been travelled by the car is 40000 km then what is the average
completed. Find the (approx..) number of extra men he distance travelled by the each tyre?
must employ to finish the work in time. (a) 10000 (b) 40000
(a) 43 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 68 (c) 32000 (d) 8000
Ans: [d] Ans: [c]
Using Men – Day concept: Total distance travelled by the car = 40000 km
M1 * D1/W1 = M2 * D2/W2 So total distance travelled by 4 wheels = 4 * 40000
100 * 45/2.5 = 200 * x/12.5 = 160000
X = 112.5 (number of men cant be in decimals, so take As all tyres (4 + 1) are equally used
113. So average distance travelled by the each tyre = 160000/5
= 32000
Number of additional men required to complete the job =
113 – 45 = 68 men. 145. A man takes 9 minutes to load a box in a truck. 8 boxes
142. The wages of 24 men and 16 women amount to Rs.11600 can be loaded into a truck. If 16 men load for one and a
per day. Half the number of men and 37 women working half hours, how many trucks will be loaded?
for a day earn the same money. The daily wages paid to (a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 40
each man is Ans: [a]
(a) Rs.375 (b) Rs.400 1 Man = 1 box = 9min
(c) Rs.350 (d) Rs.325 1 man = 1/9 box = 1 min
Ans: [a] 16 men = 16/9 boxes = 1 min
24 x + 16 y = 11600 (i) 16 men = ? boxes = 1 ½ hrs = 90 min
12x + 37y = 11600 (ii) = (16/9 * 90 ) = 160 boxes 1
(ii) × 2, we get Truck car carry = 8 boxes
24x + 74y = 23200 160 boxes = 20 trucks
(–) 24x + 16y = 11600
146. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every
---------------------------- 40 seconds, and Machine B produces bolts at a uniform
58y = 11600 rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If the two machines run
---------------------------- simultaneously, how many seconds will it take for them to
y = 200 produce a total of 200 bolts?
24x = 11600 – 3200 (a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 28
x = 8400/24 = Rs.350 (d) 32 (e) 56
Ans: [b]
1 th Machine A = 120 bolt/40 sec = 3 bolt/sec
143. A alone can do of the work in 2 days. B alone can do
4
th
Machine B = 100 bolt/20 sec = 5 bolt/sec
2 of the work in 4 days. If all the three work together,
3 Machine A + Machine B = 3+5 = 8 bolt/sec
they can complete it in 3 days so what part of the work To produce 200 bolts = 200/8 = 25sec
will be completed by C in 2 days?
147. J can dig a well in 16 days. P can dig a well in 24 days. J, P, H
dig in 8 days. H alone can dig the well in how many days?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 32 (b) 48 (c) 96 (d) 24
12 8 16 20
Ans: [b]
Ans: [a] J = 16 days
A can do 1/4th of the work in 2 days, So total work in 8
days (6 U/day) P = 24 days
J + P + H = 8 days
L.C.M of 16, 24, 8 = 48 = Total units of work Ans: [b]
J = 3 U/day; P = 2 U/day; J + P + H = 6 U/day
1st day 8th day Off
H = 6 – (3 + 2) = 1 U/day
Monday Monday Tuesday
So to dig the well alone H takes 48/1 = 48 days.
Wednesday Wednesday Thursday
148. 1 2 3 4 ... 98 99 ?
Friday Friday Saturday
(a) 49 (b) 0 (c) 50 (d) 50
Sunday Sunday Monday
Ans: [c]
Splitting the given series into the form: Tuesday Tuesday Wednesday
1 – 2) + (3 – 4) + (5 – 6) + (7 – 8) ... + (97 – 98) + 99 = (– 1) Thursday Thursday Friday
* 49 + (99) = 99 – 49 = 50
Saturday Saturday Sunday
149. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days
Monday Monday Tuesday
respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is
After 7 days the off day cycle repeats so, 12th off will be on
assisted by B and C on every third day?
R(12/7) = 5 i.e., Wednesday.
(a) 11 days (b) 15 days
(c) 10 days (d) 12 days 152. Tony alone can paint a wall in 7 days and his friend Roy
Ans: [b] alone can paint the same wall in 9 days. In how many days
they can paint the wall working together? Round off the
A = 20 days ... (3 U/day)
answer to the nearest integer.
B = 30 day ... (2 U/day)
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
C = 60 days ... (1 U/day)
Ans: [b]
L.C.M = 60 = Total units of work
Tony 7 days 9 (u/d)
So, A is working on the project and every third day B & C
Roy 9 days 7 (u/d)
assists him First day: A = 3U.
Second day: A = 3 U (6 U completed) Total unit = 63
Third day: A + B + C = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6 U (12 U completed) Tony + Roy = 16 (u/d)
So for 3 days = 12 units of work completed. Total days = 63/16 = 3.9375 nearest integer 4 days.
So for completing 60 units of work = 3 * 5 = 15 days will 153. Thomas takes 12 days to paint a house completely
be required. whereas Raj would require 20 days to paint the same
house completely. How many days will it take to paint the
150. Rajiv can do a piece of work in 10 days, Venky in 12 days
house if both of them work together?
and Ravi in 15 days. They all start the work together, but
Rajiv leaves after 2 days and Venky leaves 3 days before (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 7.5
the work is completed. In how many days is the work Ans: [d]
completed? xy 1220 240
7.5
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7 x y 12 20 32
Ans: [d]
Let the work be 60 units. If Venky leave 3 days before the 154. A play school has chocolates which can supply 50
work, last 3 days must be worked by Ravi. So the students for 30 days. For the first ten days only 20
remaining days of work be x days, total days to complete students were present. How many more students can be
the work be x + 3 days. accommodated into the earlier group such that the entire
Now, capacities of Rajiv is 60/10 = 6, Venky is 5, Ravi is 4. chocolates get consumed in 30 days? Assume each
(6 +5 4) 2 + (5 + 4) (x – 3) + 4 × 3 = 60. student takes the same number of chocolates.
30 + 9x – 27 + 12 = 60. (a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 55 (d) 70
9x – 15 = 30 Ans: [a]
9x = 45 Let each student’s get 1 chocolate. Now total chocolates =
x=5 50 × 30 = 1500
So total days to complete the work = 2 + 5 = 7 days. If first 10 days only 20 students were present, then total
chocolates consumed = 10 × 20 = 200
151. A man has a job, which requires him to work 8 straight
Now we are left with 1500 – 200 = 1300 chocolates. These
days and rest on the ninth day. If he started work on
Monday, find the day of the week on which he gets his were to be consumed in 20 days.
12th rest day. So each day 1300/20 = 65 chocolates were to be
(a) Thursday (b) Wednesday distributed.
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday So we can add 65 – 20 = 45 students.
155. Sara can dig a well in 12 days. Swathi can dig the same 159. Father is 5 times faster than son. Father completes a work
well in 16 days. Sara, Swathi and Sheela together dig the 40 days before the son. If both of them work together,
well in 6 days. Sheela alone can dig the well in when will the work get complete?
(a) 32 days (b) 48 days (a) 8 days (b) 8 1/3 days
(c) 96 days (d) 24 days (c) 10 days (d) 20 days
Ans: [b] Ans: [b]
Sara = 12 days Let S denote Son’s work and F denote Father’s work.
Swathi = 16 days Efficiency of Father = 5 times the efficiency of Son, So days
Sara + Swathi + Sheela = 6 days of work : S = 5F
LCM of 12, 16 and 6 = 48 = Total units of work S took 40 more days; S = F + 40
Sara = 4 U/day Solving equations we get, F = 10days
Swathi = 3U/day S = 50 days
Sara +Swathi + Sheela = 8 U/day Working together= FS/F + S = 500/60 = 8 1/3 days.
Sheela alone = 8 – (4 + 3) = 8 – 7 = 1 U/day 160. The water from one outlet, flowing at a constant rate, can
To complete the total work, Sheela will need 48/1 = 48 fill the swimming pool in 9 hours. The water from second
days. outlet, flowing at a constant rate can fill up the same pool
approximately in 5 hours. If both the outlets are used at
156. A takes 12 hours to make a publication. B takes 10 hours
the same time, approximately what is the number of
to make a publication. Find the time taken by them to
hours required to fill the pool?
make two publications, working independently.
(a) 0.22 (b) 0.31 (c) 2.50 (d) 3.21 (e) 4.56
(a) 12 hours (b) 11 hours
Ans: [d]
(c) 22 hours (d) 11 hours 40 minutes
A 9 hours 5(u/hr)
Ans: [a]
B 5 hours 9(u/hr)
A = 12 hours B = 10 hours
Total units = 45
Ultimately, even if B completes first and immediately
starts working another, he can’t complete it in 2 hours. A + B = 14(u/d)
Total time independently taken to complete two Total time taken = 45/14 = 3.21 hours
publications is 12 hours. 161. A is 20 percent more efficient than B. If the two person
157. Four examiners evaluate certain number of papers in can complete a piece of work in 60 days, in how many
8 days working 5 hours a day. If 2 examiners evaluate days, A working alone can complete the work?
twice the number of papers in 20 days then how many (a) 80 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 110
hours per day should they work? Ans: [d]
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 4.5 (d) 7 As A is 20% more efficient than B, if B’s per day work is
Ans: [a] 100 units then A’s 120.
Using men – day – hour concept: Both persons together completes (100 + 120) units = 220
units/day
M1 * D1 * H1/W1 = M2 * D2 * H2/W2
They took 60 days to complete the work. So total work =
4 * 8 * 5/x = 2 * 20 * h/2x
60 × 220
Solving the above equation, we get If A alone set to complete the work, he takes
H = 8 hours a day 220
60 110days
158. Aravind can do a work in 24 days. Mani can dig the same 120
well in 36 days. Aravind, Mani and Hari can do a work
162. B alone can do piece of work in 10 days. A alone can do it
together in 8 days. Hari alone can do the work in
in 15 days. If the total wages for the work is Rs.5000, how
(a) 12 days (b) 18 days much should B be paid if they work together for the entire
(c) 16 days (d) 24 days duration of the work?
Ans: [b] (a) Rs.2000 (b) Rs.4000
Aravind = 24 days (3 U/day) (c) Rs.5000 (d) Rs.3000
Mani = 36 days (2 U/day) Ans: [d]
Aravind + Mani + Hari = 8 days (9 U/day) Time taken by A and B is in the ratio of 3:2
L.C.M = 72 = Total Units of work. Ratio of the work = 2:3 (since, time and work are
Hari = 9 – ( 3 + 2 ) = 4 U/day inversely proportional)
Total money is divided in the ratio of 2:3 and B gets
Time taken by Hari alone to dig = 72/4 = 18 days.
Rs.3000.
163. There is a tank, and two pipes A and B. A can fill tank in Constant Polynomial: A polynomial of degree zero is called a
25 min and B can empty the tank in 20 min. If both the constant polynomial. General form : p(x) = c, where c is a real
pipes are opened at same time, how much time is number.
required for the tank to be filled?
Linear Polynomial: A polynomial of degree one is called a
(a) 15 min (b) 18 min
linear polynomial. General form : p(x) = ax + b, where a and b
(c) 13 min (d) Never be filled
are real numbers and a 0.
Ans: [d]
A = 25 mins (filling the tank) Quadratic Polynomial: A polynomial of degree two is called a
B = 20 mins (emptying the tank) quadratic polynomial. General form: p(x) ax2 bx c
So working together the tank will never be filled because where a, b, and c are real and a 0.
negative work is higher than the positive work done.
Cubic Polynomial: A polynomial of degree three is called a
164. X takes 4 days to complete one-third of a job, Y takes
cubic polynomial. General form : p(x) ax3 bx2 cx d
3 days to complete one-sixth of the same and Z takes 5
where a, b, c and d are real and a 0.
days to complete half the job. If all of them work together
for 3 days and X and Z quit, how long will it take for Y to Zeros of a polynomial: Let p(x) be a polynomial in x. If p(a) = 0,
complete the remaining work? then we say that a is a zero of the polynomial p(x).
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 5.1 days (d) 8.1 days
Further, if x = a satisfies the polynomial equation p(x) = 0, then x
Ans: [c]
= a is called a root of the polynomial equation p(x) = 0.
X 1/3 work 4 days
To complete whole work 12 days Division algorithm for polynomial: Let p(x) and g(x) be two
polynomials with degree of p(x) degree of g(x) and g(x) 0,
Y 1/6 work 3 days
then there exists unique polynomials q(x) and r(x) such that,
To complete whole work 18 days p(x) = g(x) q(x) + r(x) where r(x) = 0 or degree of r(x) < degree
Z 1/2 work 5 days of g(x).
To complete whole work 10 days
Remainder theorem
Total unit = 180 units
Let p(x) be any polynomial of degree greater than or equal to
X 15 (u/d) one and
Y 10 (u/d) let a be any real number. If p(x) is divided by the linear
Z 18 (u/d) polynomial x – a, then the remainder is p(a).
For 2 days all three worked together {2 * (15 + 10 + 18)] =
Factor theorem
129 units
If p(x) is a polynomial of degree n > 1 and a is any real number,
Remaining units = 51 units
then
This remaining units will be completed by Y
(i) x – a is a factor of p(x), if p(a) = 0, and
51/10 = 5.1 days
(ii) p(a) = 0, if x – a is a factor of p(x).
FUNCTIONS Useful algebraic identities
(x + y + z)2 = x2 + y2 + z2 + 2xy + 2 yz + 2 zx
POLYNOMIALS
(x + y)3 = x3 + y3 + 3xy(x + y)
A polynomial is an expression consisting of variables and
coefficients, that involves only addition, subtraction, (x – y)3 = x3 – y3 – 3xy(x – y)
multiplication. x3 + y3 + z3 – 3xyz = (x + y + z) (x2 + y2 + z2 – xy – yz – zx)
Types of polynomials (based on the number of terms) Application 1
zeros of a cubic polynomial p(x) are 1, 2 and 3. Find p(x).
Monomial: Polynomials which have only one term are known as
Solution
monomials.
The polynomial which satisfy the given condition = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x
Binomial: Polynomials which have only two terms are called as – 3)
binomials. = x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6
Trinomial: Polynomials which have only three terms are named as So, the required polynomial is x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6
trinomials. Application 2
Types of polynomials (based on the degree): If a + b = 13 and ab = 30, then find the values of a and b.
Solution
Let a + b = 13 … (1)
So, HCF = (x + 2)
a–b= (ab)2 4ab 169120 7
a–b=7 … (2) Application 8
On solving (1) and (2), a = 10 and b = 3. Find a, if 4x3 5x2 ax 2 leaves the remainder 3 on dividing
by x – 1.
Application 3
Solution
1 3 1
x
If 24 , find the value of x 3 . p1 45a23
x x
Solution a 3 3
1 31 1 So, a = 6
We know that, x3 x 3 x
x3 x x Application 9
3 1 3 2 Find a, b, if x + 1, x – 1 are factors of x4 ax3 2x b.
So, x 24 324 24(24 3)13752
x3 Solution
Application 4 p1 1a2b 0
If a2 + b2 + 2ab – 4a – 4b = 21, find the value of a + b. a b 3 … (1)
Solution p1 1a2b0
Given equation can be written as, a2 + b2 + 4 + 2ab – 4a – 4b = 25
a b 1 … (2)
Terms of the given equation can be identified as the terms of (a
On solving (1) & (2) we get,
+ b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca)
b= – 1, a = 2
So, (a + b – 2)2 = 25 or a + b – 2 = 5
Therefore, a + b = 7 or –3 165. In this question AB means A raised to the power B. If f(x)
= ax4 – bx2 + x + 5 f(–
Application 5
3) = 2
1 1
If y + 1 = 2 and xy = 1 then find the value of . Then f(3) = ?
x2 y2
(a) 3 (b) – 2 (c) 8 (d) 1
Solution Ans: [c]
Given, y = 2 1 and xy = 1 F(x) = a x4 – b x2 + x + 5
1 1 F (– 3) = 81 a – 9 b + 2 = 2
x= 2 1
We can conclude that 81 a – 9 b = 0
F (3) = 81 a – 9 b + 3 + 5 = 0 + 8 = 8.
x+y= 2 2
166. How many polynomial functions f of degree >= 1 satisfy
1 1 x2 y2 (x y)2 2xy
f (x2) = [f(x)]2 = f(f(x)) ?
x2 y2 (xy)2 (xy)2
(a) More than 2 (b) 2
(2 2)2 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
6
1
Ans: [d]
Application 6 Let f(x) = x2
Find the value of 7 4 3. f(x2)[x2]2 x4
Solution f (x)2 [x2]2 x4
7 4 3 4 3 4 3 2 32 2 f( f(x)) f(x2)[x2]2 x4
= 3.732 Only 1.
Application 7 167. If f(1) = 4, f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 7xy + 2 for x > 0 and y > 0,
find f(2) + f(5).
Find the HCF of x2 – 4x – 12, 2x2 – 3x + 2 and 3x2 + 4x – 4.
(a) 98 (b) 120
Solution
(c) 115 (d) Cannot be determined
On factorizing the given polynomials,
Ans: [c]
x2 – 4x – 12 = (x – 6) (x + 2)
F(1) = 4; f (x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 7xy + 2
2x2 + 3x – 2 = (2x – 1) (x + 2)
3x2 + 4x – 4 = (3x – 2) (x + 2)
F(2) = f(1 + 1) = f(1) + f(1) + 7(1)(1) +2 = 4 + 4 + 7 + 2 = 48 36n
m
17 17
F(3) = f(2 + 1) = f(2) + f(1) + 7 (2)(1) +2 = 17 + 4 + 14 + 2 14 2n
= 37 m 2 2n
17
F(4) = f (3 + 1) = f(3) + f(1) + 7 (3)(1) + 2 = 37 + 4 + 21 + 2
So for n = 10, we get m = 24.
= 64
So, |11(17m 36n)| = 528 So minimum value of the given
F(5) = f(4 + 1) = f(4) + f(1) + 7(4)(1) + 2 = 64 + 4 + 28 + 2
= 98 expression is 2.
So, F(2) + f(5) = 17 + 98 = 115 171. In this problem, ABS(x) provides absolute value of x, without
regard to its sign. For example ABS(3) = ABS(–3) = 3
168 If f(f(n)) + f(n) = 2n + 3, f(0) = 1 then f(2012) = ?
The graphs of y = – ABS(x – a) + b and y = – ABS(x – c) + d
(a) 2012 (b) 2013 (c) 2011 (d) 2014 intersect at points (2, 5) and (8, 3).
Ans: [b] Find a + c.
Put n = 0 (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 5
Then f(f(0))+f(0) = 2(0) + 3 ⇒ f(1) + 1 = 3 ⇒ f(1) = 2 Ans: [a]
Put n = 1 Both curves intersect at (2, 5)
f(f(1)) + f(1) = 2(1) + 3 ⇒ f(2) + 2 = 5 ⇒f(2) = 3 So 5 = – |2 – a| + b ⇒ 5 + |2 – a| – b = 0 - - - (1)
Put n = 2 5 = – |2 – c| + d ⇒ 5 + |2 – c| – d = 0 - - - (2)
Also,
f(f(2)) + f(2) = 2(2) + 3 ⇒ f(3) + 3 = 7 ⇒ f(3) = 4
3 = – |8 – a| + b ⇒ 3 + |8 – a| – b = 0 - - - (3)
......
3 = – |8 – c| + d ⇒ 3 + |8 – c| – d = 0- - - (4)
f(2012) = 2013 Equating 1 and 3, 5 + |2 – a| = 3 + |8 – a| ⇒ 2 + |2 – a| = |8–
169. Function ‘f’ satisfies the question f(x) + 2 * f(6 – x) = 1 for a|
all real numbers x. Value of f(1) is So a = 4
(a) 1 (b) 2 Similarly if we equate 2 and 4, we get c = 4
a+c=8
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
Ans: [c] GEOMETRY & MENSURATION
Given,
The pre-requisite for solving problems in geometry is a firm grip
f(x) + 2 * f(6 - x) = x
on relevant theorems and results.
Put x =1 => f(1)+2*f(6-1) = 1 => f(1) + 2*f(5) = 1----- (1)
Put x = 5 => f(5)+2*f(6-5) = 5 => f(5) + 2*f(1) = 5 Important Theorems and Results
Put f(5) = 5 - 2*f(1) in the first equation (1) Straight Lines
=> f(1) + 2*(5 - 2*f(1)) = 1
1. Two angle x and y are said to be complementary if
=> f(1) + 10 - 4f(1) = 1
=> f(1) = 3
x y 90.
170. What is the minimum value of abs (187m – 396n – 526) as 2. Two angles x and y are said to be supplementary if
m, n take all integer values? Here abs is the absolute value x y 180.
function (that is, if x > 0, then abs(x) = x and if x < 0, then
abs(x) = – x). 3. When a straight line stands on another straight line, the
two adjacent angles are supplementary. i.e. the two angles
(a) 0 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) 1
add up to 180º.
Ans: [c]
We have to find the minimum value of 4. When two straight lines intersect, the vertically opposite
|(187m 396n 526)| = |(187m 396n) 526)| angles are equal.
If |(187m 396n)| is 526 then the given expression 5. When a pair of parallel lines is intersected by a
attains minimum. transversal,
Now observe carefully, both 187, 386 are multiples of 11. (i) the corresponding angles are equal
So |11(17m 36n)| may not equal to exactly 526 but
(ii) the alternate angles are equal
some value near to 526. Nearest multiple of 11 is 528.
Now, |11(17m 36n)| 528 (iii) the interior angles are supplementary.
(17m 36n) 48 6. If a straight line L is parallel to another straight line L1,
then it is parallel to all straight lines parallel to L1.
Triangles ○ rectangle if all the vertical angles are right, the
opposite sides are equal but the adjacent sides are
1. The sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180º.
unequal,
2. Each exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the
○ square if all the vertical angles are right and all the
opposite interior angles.
sides are equal,
3. The sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater
○ rhombus if all the sides are equal,
than the third side.
4. The line joining the midpoints of any two sides of a ○ cyclic if it is inscribed in a circle, i.e. the vertices lie on
triangle is parallel to the third side and half its length. the circumference of a circle.
[This is known an midpoint theorem.] 2. In a parallelogram
5. A triangle with any two sides equal is called an isosceles
○ The diagonals bisect each other.
triangle.
6. A triangle with all three sides equal is called an equilateral ○ The opposite angles are equal.
triangle. 3. In a rectangle
7. A triangle with one angle as 90º is called a right triangle.
○ The diagonals bisect each other.
8. Area of triangle = 12 Any side × the altitude on that
○ The diagonals are equal.
side,
4. In a square
abc
ssa sb sc,[s 2
, a, b, c being the
○ The diagonals bisect each other at right angles.
sides],
○ The diagonals are equal.
= 12 Product of any two sides sin(included angle)
5. In a rhombus
9. In a right triangle,
○ The diagonals bisect each other at right angles.
(i) the side opposite the right angle is called the hypotenuse,
○ 4a2 d12 d22, where a = edge and 1d and d2 are
(ii) the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the
diagonals.
squares of the other two sides. [This is the famous
Pythagoras Theorem.] 6. In a cyclic quadrilateral, the opposite angles are
supplementary.
10. In a 30º–60º –90º right triangle, the sides are in the ratio
1 : 3 : 2. Polygons
11. In a 45º –45º –90º right triangle, the sides are in the ratio 1. A n-sided figure is called a polygon.
1 : 1 : 2.
2. Sum of all interior angles of a n-sided polygon
12. In an equilateral triangle with edge a, n 2 180º
(i) the altitude (3 / 2)a,
3. Sum of all exterior angles of any polygon = 360º
(ii) the area (3)a2 / 4,
4. A polygon is regular if all its sides are equal and all its
(iii) in-radius = (1/2) circum-radius, interior angles are equal.
(iv) area of the circum-circle = 4 area of the in-circle. 5. Polygon nomenclature
13. In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite the equal No of sides Name of Polygon
sides are also equal.
5 Pentagon
Quadrilaterals
6 Hexagon
1. A quadrilateral is
7 Heptagon
○ trapezium if just one pair of opposite sides is parallel, 8 Octagon
○ parallelogram if both pairs of opposite sides are parallel 9 Nonagon
or both pairs of opposite sides are equal or any one pair
of opposite sides is both parallel and equal, 10 Decagon
6. Each angle of a regular hexagon = 120º 173. Perimeter of a equilateral triangle is equal to the
perimeter of Hexagon. What is the ratio of their areas?
7. Each angle of a regular decagon = 144º
(a) 6:1 (b) 1:6 (c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
Circles Ans: [c]
1. A circle is described as the path of a point which Perimeter of triangle = 3a
moves keeping a constant distance from a fixed Perimeter of hexagon = 6a
reference point. The constant distance is called the Consider side of the triangle as 10 and side hexagon as 5.
radius and the fixed reference point is called the
So the perimeters are equal 3 * 10 = 30 = 6 * 5
centre. Double the radius is called the diameter. Any
straight line joining any two points on the Area of triangle = (√3/4) * a2.
circumference of the circle is called a chord and the Area of hexagon = (3 √3/4) * a2.
part of the circumference cut off by the chord is called Ratio = (√3/4) * a2 : (3 √3/4) * a2
arc – the smaller one is called the minor arc and the
By cancelling common terms on both sides, we get the
larger one is known as major arc. A chord divides a
ratio 3:2
circle into two parts called segments – the smaller one
is called the minor segment and the larger one the 174. Find the ratio of the area of square to area of triangle.
major segment. Any straight line that cuts across a
circle is called a secant and a straight line which
touches a circle only at a single point is called a
tangent.
2. The perpendicular from the centre to a chord bisects
the chord and consequently, if l is the chord length, r
the radius and d the distance of the centre from the (a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2
chord, then r2 l/2 d2.
2 Ans: [b]
Let the side of the square = 2 units.
3. A chord subtends the same angle at every point on the Now the area of the square = 22 = 4
same segment.
Area of the triangle = 1/2 * 2 * 2 = 2
4. The angles subtended by a chord on any point on the Ratio = 4:2 = 2:1
major segment and on any point on the minor
segment add to 180º. 175. A rectangle of height 100 squares and width 200 squares
is drawn on a graph paper. It is colored square by square
5. The angle subtended by a chord at any point on the from top left corner and moving across in a spiral turning
circumference is half the angle subtended by the right whenever a side of the rectangle or a colored square
chord at the centre. is reached. Which square is colored last (give its row and
6. Diameter subtends 90º at every point on the column numbers – the bottom right square is on row 100
circumference of the circle. and column 200)?
(a) 51, 150 (b) 51, 50
7. The angle between the tangent and the radius at the
point of contact is 90º. (c) 50, 150 (d) 50, 50
8. From any point outside the circle, two tangents can be 176. Two full tanks, one shaped like a cylinder and the other
drawn and these two tangents are equal in length. like a cone, contain liquid fuel. The cylinder tank held 500
litres more than the conical tank. After 200 litres of fuel is
9. The part of the circle enclosed by any two radii and pumped out from each tank the cylindrical tank now
the intervening arc is called a sector of the circle. A contains twice the amount of fuel in the conical tank. How
sector is made up of a segment and a triangle. many litres of fuel did the cylindrical tank have when it
172. Two cylinders are covered with papers on the curved was full?
surfaces. The top and bottom regions of the cylinder are (a) 1200 (b) 1000 (c) 700 (d) 1100
left exposed. If the length of the papers just covers the Ans: [a]
surface area of the cylinder (after cutting them if Let the cylindrical tank capacity x + 500 then the conical
necessary), then what is the sum of the volumes of the
tank capacity = x
two cylinders in cc. The height of the 1st cylinder & 2nd
cylinder is 10 cms and 12 cms respectively. The area of After 200 lts pumped out, then remaining fuel with the
paper covering the first cylinder is 10 cm × 8 cm and the tanks = x +300, x - 200
second is 10 cm × 4 cm. The answers are to be correct for Given that first term is doubt the second.
10 cm × 4 cm. The answer is to be corrected to 2 decimal x 300 2
places.
x 200 1
(a) 61.54 (b) 54.54 (c) 65.43 (d) 47.76
Solving we get x = 700 30 * x2/100 = 24.3 (x = percentage reduction in length and
Cylindrical tank capacity = 1200 lts breadth)
x = 9%
177. There is a rectangle with dimension 400 x 300 ft. Inside
So breadth must have reduced 9 % = 0.91 * 5 = 4.55 cm.
the rectangle, there are 3 ants for every square inch. So,
how many ants (approximately) will be there inside the 180. There is a plane contains 32 points. All the 32 points have
rectangle? equal distance from point x. Which of the following is
(a) 8 million (b) 51840000 true?
(c) 80000 (d) 50 million (a) All 32 points i.e. in circle
Ans: [b] (b) The distance from x to all 32 points is less than the
400 ft = 4800 inch distance between each other
300 ft = 3600 inch (c) Both (a) and (b)
Area = 3600 * 4800 = 17280000 square inches (d) None of these
For 1 square inch = there are 3 ants. Ans: [c]
So for 17280000 sq. Inch there are = 51840000 X must be the center of the circle and 32 points are on the
circumference. So Option A is correct
178. There is a circle with 2 triangles inscribed in it in opposite n(n 3)
directions making a star. The triangle is equilateral of side Number of diagonals of a regular polygon =
12. You have to tell the area of the remaining portion of 2
the circle. So for a polygon of 32 sides, Number of diagonals = 464.
(a) 65 (b) 67.8 (c) 72 (d) 75 Now the minimum distance between any two points =
Ans: [b] 2πr 11
r
32 56
Now total length of all the distances from 32 points = 2πr
+ Sum of the lengths of all the 464 diagonals.
Sum of the lengths of x to all the 32 points = 32 radius =
32r
But the 464 diagonals have 16 diameters connecting 2
opposite points connecting via center. So Sum of the
Side of equilateral triangle = 4 cm lengths of distances from point to point is clearly greater
than sum of the length from x to all 32 points. Option B is
Height of equilateral triangle = {√3/2} * a
correct
H = 2√3 cm
R = 2h = 2 * 2√3 = 4√3 cm 181. Messrs. Siva Constructions, leading agents in Chennai
Area of circle = π r2 = π (4√3)2 = 48π cm2 prepared models of their lands in the shape of a rectangle
and triangle. They made models having same area. The
Area of equilateral triangles = 12 * √3/4 * a2
length and width of rectangle model are 24 inches and 8
12 * 4√3 = 48√3 cm 2 inches respectively. The base of the triangle model is 16
Required area = Area of circle – area of triangles inches. What is the altitude of triangle model from the
= 48 π – 48√3 = 67.8 cm2 base to the top?
(a) 24 inches (b) 8 inches
179. A cuboidal ice-cream bar have a length, breadth and
thickness of 3 cm, 5 cm and 2 cm respectively. Suppose (c) 20 inches (d) 32 inches
both length and breadth decrease by the same percentage Ans: [a]
and the thickness remains the same. As a result, volume is Area of rectangle = area of triangle.
reduced by 19%. What is the new breadth? Area of rectangle = l x b = 24 * 8 = 192 in2
(a) 4.5 cm (b) 5.5 cm (c) 6.5 cm (d) 7.5 cm Area of triangle = 0.5 * 16 * h = 192
Ans: [a] H = 192/8 = 24 inches.
Length, Breadth and thickness of the ice cream bar = 3 cm,
5 cm and 2 cm. 182. Length, Breadth and Height of a cuboid is in the ratio
1:3:7. Volume of the cuboid is 27 m3. If the length is
So initial volume of the ice cream bar = 3 * 5 * 2 = 30 cm3
doubled and Breadth & Height are halved, then what is
No volume is decreased by 19 %. So final volume = 0.81 *
the change in the volume of the cuboid?
30 = 24.3 cm3
(a) Decreased by 15% (b) Decreased by 18%
Thickness is same. But breadth and length decrease by (c) Decreased by 30% (d) Decreased by 50%
same percentage.
Ans: [a]
183. From a square of side 2 cm, equal triangles are cut from Required area = Area of circle – area of triangles = 48 π
its corners to from a regular octagon. We will get an – 48√3 = 48 (π – √3)
octagon. What is the area of that octagon?
185. In a rectangular coordinate system, what is the area of a
(a) 4(sqrt2) + 8 (b) 8(sqrt2) – 8
triangle whose vertices whose vertices have the
(c) 2(sqrt2) + 8 (d) 8(sqrt2) + 4
coordinates (4, 0), (6, 3) and (6, – 3)
Ans: [b] (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 7.5 (d) 6.5
Ans: [a]
Base = 6
Height = 2
Area = ½ * base * height = ½ * 6 * 2 = 6
186. If the area of a square region having sides of length 6 cms
is equal to the area of a rectangular region having width
Let x = side of the regular octagon. By symmetry, each
2.5 cms, then the length of the rectangle, in cms, is
figure cut from the corners must be an isosceles right
(a) 9.6 (b) 10.5 (c) 9.5 (d) 14.4 (e) 8.5
(45 – 45 – 90) triangle, and all four of them must be
congruent. Ans: [d]
Then the leg of each isosceles triangle must have measure Area of square = Area of rectangle A * a = l * b
x/sqrt(2) 6 * 6 = l * 2.5
Then we must have x/sqrt(2) + x + x/sqrt(2) = 2, or after 36 = l * 2.5 L = 14.4 cm
simplification, x = 2/(1 + sqrt(2)) this is one side of
187. A hollow cube of size 5 cm is taken, with a thickness of
octagon.
1 cm. It is made of smaller cubes of size 1 cm. If 1 face of
Area of octagon = 2(1 + sqrt(2))a2, where a is side of the outer surface of the cube are painted, totally how
octagon So we get , 8 (sqrt 2) – 8. many faces of the smaller cubes remain unpainted?
184. There is a circle with two equilateral triangles of side (a) 900 (b) 488 (c) 563 (d) 800
12 cm inscribed in it in opposite direction making it a star Ans: [c]
as shown in the figure. What is the area of the remaining Total no of cubes in solid cube = 53
portion of the circle outside the star (dotted region)? Total no of cubes in given hollow cube = 53 – 33 = 98
Total no of faces = 98 * 6 = 588
Since one face of big cube painted total faces painted = 25
Therefore faces unpainted = 588 – 25 = 563
188. A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has concrete
crossroads running in the middle of the park and rest of
the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is
(a) 48( 3) (b) 48( 3) 2109 sq.m, then what is the width of the road?
(a) 2.91 m (b) 3 m
(c) 24( 3) (d) 38( 3)
(c) 5.82 m (d) None of these
Ans: [a]
Ans: [b]
Side of equilateral triangle = 12/3 = 4 cm
Height of equilateral triangle = {√3/2} * a
Let us shift the path to the left hand side and top. This
H = 2√3 cm does not change the area of the lawn.
R = 2h = 2 * 2√3 = 4√3 cm Now lawn area (60 x)(40 x)
Area of circle = π r2 = π (4√3)2 = 48π cm2
For x = 3m, we get law area 2109m2.
Area of equilateral triangles = 12 * √3/4 * a2
12 * 4√3 = 48√3 cm2
189. In the medieval times, the sheikdom of Al kurazi had a Ans: [d]
proud tradition of inventing their own measurements
m + n = 12a + 8 => m n2 144a2 192a 64 ... (i)
units. The unit for distance was du, and the unit of time
was pu. Unfortunately exactly what these measurement m – n = 12b + 6 => m n2 144b2 144b 36 ... (ii)
units are in modern terminology has been lost. The sheikh
of Al Kurazi had built a huge mansion in the desert (near (i) – (ii) => 4mn = 144a2 192a 144b2 144b 28
an oasis) with a circular wall around it, and the wall had
mn = 36a2 48a 36b2 36b 7
four gates pointing north, south, east and west. He had
built three observation towers, one 144 du to the north of Now mn is divided by 6, all the terms except 7 gives 0.
the north gate, one 135 du to the east of the south gate, So, 7 is divided by 6. Remainder = 1.
1
and one 7 du to the east of the east gate. They had been 194. Find the greatest number that will divide 148, 246 and
2 623 leaving remainders 4, 6 and 11 respectively.
aligned to be all in a straight line passing thru the oasis.
(a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 48
What was the diameter of the wall that surrounded the
city (in Du)? Ans: [b]
(a) 178 (b) 183 (c) 180 (d) 181 HCF of the 148-4,246-6 and 623-11 i.e HCF of 144, 240,
Ans: [c] 612 is the greatest number that leave remainders 4,6 and
11 respectively.
144 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3;
240 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5;
612 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 17
i.e. HCF is 12
195. A number when successively divided by 5, 3, 2 gives
remainder of 0, 2 and 1 respectively in that order. What
will be the remainder when the same number is divided
successively by 2, 3 and 5 in that order?
All the three gates are represented by A, C and T. Now A is
144 du away from N and C is 7.5 du away from E and T is (a) 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 0, 4
135 du away from S, and all are in straight line. (c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 4, 1, 2
AOC, AST are similar triangles. Ans: [b]
So AOOC ASST Let the number = N
144 r/r 7.5 144 2r/135 Now N = 5K
Solving we get r = 90. K = 3L + 2
So diameter of the wall = 180 du L = 2M + 1
K = 3(2M + 1) + 2 = 6M + 5
NUMBERS N = 5(6M + 5) = 30 M + 25
190. When 147 is divided by N, the reminder is 4. For M = 0 we get the least number as 25. Now when 25 is
divided by 2, we get 12 as quotient and 1 as remainder.
255 is divided by N, the reminder is 8.
When 12 is divided by 3 we get 4 as quotient, and 0 as
622 is divided by N, the reminder is 11. Find N?
remainder. When 4 is divided by 5 we get 4 as remainder.
191. Write numbers from sequence 149 to 387 like 149150159
196. For which of the following n is the number 274 + 22058 + 22n
………? How many time does 1 occur?
a perfect square?
192. A number divided by 406 leaves remainder 115. What (a) 2020 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2100
will be the reminder when it will be divided by 29? Ans: [a]
(a) 28 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 40 274 + 22058 + 22n =(237)2 + (21029)2 + (2n)2
Ans: [a] now, if we put 237 = a ; 21029 = b; Then for the above
R (N/406) = 115 expression to be perfect square 22n must be equal to
When the quotient is 0. N = 115 (2*a*b)= 2*(237)*(21029);
When R (115/29) = 28. ==> 22n = 2(1067)
==> 2n = 1067,
193. The remainder when m + n is divided by 12 is 8, and the
but this case is not possible since R.H.S is an odd integer
remainder when m - n is divided by 12 is 6. If m > n, then
whereas L.H.S is an even integer.
what is the remainder when m * n divided by 6?
So , the above mentioned case can't hold.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
Now, if we put 237 = a; 2n = b; So, for the given expression To find the digit in the 10th place, we have to multiply,
to be perfect square 22058 = (2 * a * b) = 2 * (237) * (2n) 10th digit in the base and unit digit in the power.
= 2(n+38); So the Last two digits of the given expression = 61 + 21
So, 2058 = (n + 38) = 82
=> n = 2020
650
So, The answer is n = 2020 201. What is the remainder of ?
216
197. 12 divides ab313ab (in decimal notation), where a, b are (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 0 (d) 42
digits > 0, the smallest value of a + b is Ans: [c]
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 4
650/216 can be written as
Ans: [a]
650/63 = 647
a, b should take the least possible values.
The remainder is zero as it is perfectly divisible.
Since it should be divisible by 12, we check divisibility
criteria for 3 & 4. 202. Q is a prime number bigger than 10. What is the smallest
So we fill the last two digits with a least multiple of 4, that positive number (except 1) that 3Q can be divided by
is 12 (a, b > 0). 1231312 is a multiple of 4, but not 3. So we equally?
go for next option = 16. 1661616 is divisible by both 3 & (a) 3Q (b) 3 (c) Q 3 (d) Q 3
4. So sum of a + b = 1 + 6 = 7 Ans: [a]
198. P, Q, R, S are distinct integers that can take values from 1 Q is a prime number, but 3Q is not a prime number
P R because it is a multiple of 3. Suppose Q is 13 then 3Q is
to 12. What is the possible smallest value for Q S ? 39.....3 divides 39 in three equal parts. Hence the smallest
positive number which divides 3Q is 3. 2 cant divide any
1 2 1 9 prime number because 2 is the only even prime number.
(a) (b)
12 11 11 10
203. J, K, L, M and N collected stamps. They collected a total of
1 2 1 1 100 stamps. None of them collected less than 10. No two
(c) (d)
11 12 10 11 among them collected the same number.
Ans: [a] (i) 3 collected the same number as K and M together.
P, Q, R and S are distinct values which means options c (ii) L collected 3 more than the cube of an integer.
and d are eliminated. (iii) The no. collected by J was the cube of an integer.
Clearly option a will be the smallest result. (iv)Total no. collected by K was either the square or cube
of an integer.
199. If ab64ab is divisible by 12, then the least possible value
of a b is The number of stamps collected by N was
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
Ans: [c] Ans: [c]
Here probability of Ghana is 2/3. K + M = J + L + N = 50 L = 3 +x3
The octopus also should have same probability in J = y3
selecting Ghana as winner which is 2/3. So total K = z2 or z3
probability of selecting the right team (winning team) by Only Cube number which is in between 10 and 50 is 33 =
the octopus is (2/3)(2/3) = 4/9. 27. J =27, L= 3 + 23 = 11
If Ghana has 2/3 chances, Bolivia will have 1 – 2/3 = 1/3 N = 50 – (27 + 11) = 12.
chances (Assuming that a tie is not possible).
204. X, Y, Z and W are integers. The expression X Y Z is
So octopus also has 1/3 chances of selecting Bolivia.
even and the expression Y Z W is odd. If X is even
So total probability for Bolivia would be (1/3)(1/3) = 1/9. what must be true?
Any team can win the match. So total probability is 4/9 + (a) Y Z must be odd (b) Z must be odd
1/9 = 5/9
(c) W must be odd (d) None of these
200. If xy is denoted as x raised to the power y, find last two Ans: [c]
digits of (1831 4382 3826
)(1871 ). X – Y – Z = EVEN
X is EVEN.
(a) 82 (b) 72 (c) 32 (d) 42
So, Y – Z must be EVEN (option a ruled out)
Ans: [a]
(Y – Z) – W = ODD, Since (Y – Z) is EVEN, W must be ODD
1 raised to any power will give 1 as unit digit.
to get ODD result. Thus option c is the answer.
205. 0 a b c d. Which is largest? 208. Find a number such that when it is added to 7249 will be
(b d) (a d) perfectly divisible by 12, 14, 21, 33 and 54.
(a) (a c) (b) (b c)
(a) 8136 (b) 9123 (c) 8727 (d) 9383
(b c) (c d) Ans: [d]
(c) (d)
(a d) (a b) The L.C.M of 12, 14, 21, 33, 54 is 8316.
Ans: [a] So the numbers that gives remainder zero when divided
by all the given divisors are multiples of 8316 = 8316,
Assume a = – 1, b = – 2, c = – 3, d = – 4. 16632, ...
(a) (b + d)/(a + c) = 1.5 First number to be added to 7249 = 8316 – 7249 = 1067
(b) (a + d)/(b + c) = 1 (not in option)
(c) (b + c)/(a + d) = 1 Second possibility = 16632 – 7249 = 9383.
(d) (c + d)/(a + b) = 1.4 209. Find the odd man out: 5, 20, 60, 320, 1280, 5120.
So clearly it is option (a). (a) 20 (b) 60 (c) 1280 (d) 320
206. An absentminded professor has a very peculiar problem, Ans: [b]
in that he cannot remember numbers larger than 15. 20 * 5 = 5
However, he tells his wife, I can remember any number up 22 * 5 = 20
to 100 by remembering the three numbers obtained as 24 * 5 = 80
remainders when the number is divided by 3, 5 and 7
26 * 5 = 320
respectively. For example, (2, 2, 3) is 17. Professor
28 * 5 = 1280
remembers that he had (1, 1, 6) rupees in the purse, and
he paid (2, 0, 6) rupees to the servant. How much money 210 * 5 = 5120.
is left in the purse? So, 60 is the odd one. It should be 80.
(a) 59 (b) 61 (c) 49 (d) 56 210. Find the odd man out: 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284.
Ans: [d] (a) 284 (b) 331 (c) 263 (d) 383
Amount he had = 7x + 6, possible values within 100 are, Ans: [d]
13, 20, 27, 34, 41, 48, 55, 62, 69, 76, 83, 90, 97 (also when In each number except 383, the product of first and third
divided by 5, remainder is 1, so unit digit must be 1 or 6, digits is the middle one.
So amount he had must be 41 or 76. Divided by 3 gives
remainder 1 so the amount he had = 76.00 211. Find the odd man out: 7, 17, 19, 43, 91, 131.
Amount he paid = 7x+6, but when divided by 5, remainder (a) 17 (b) 43 (c) 91 (d) 131
is zero. So possible values are 20 and 55. (90 can’t be the Ans: [c]
amount because he had only 76 rupees) Divided by 3, Except 91 all the other numbers are prime numbers.
remainder is 2, So amount pad = 20.00
212. Cora, a blue whale, participated in a weight loss
Remaining amount = 76 – 20 = 56 rupees.
programme. At the end of every month, the decrease in
weight from the original weight was measured and noted as
207. Find the number of zeroes in 11 22 33 ..........4848 4949.
1, 2, 6, 21, 86, 445, 2676. While, Cora made a steadfast
(a) 250 (b) 225 (c) 5455 (d) 135 effort, the weighing machine showed an erroneous weight
Ans: [a] once. What weight was that?
No. Of 5’s in the product: (a) 445 (b) 2676 (c) 86 (d) 2
55 = 5 Ans: [c]
1010 = 10 86 is the wrong weight, it should have been 88.
1515 = 15 1 00 1
2020 = 20 2 11 1
2525 = 550 = 50 6 22 2
3030 = 30 21 36 3
3535 = 35 88 421 4
4040 = 40 445 588 5
4545 = 45
2676 64456
No of 2’s is more than number of 5’s.
o no of pairs 5 * 2 = no. Of 5’s 213. Sum of the digits in the product of (16100)(125135) is
5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 50 + 30 + 35 + 40 + 45 = 250. (a) 2 (b) 11 (c) 3 (d) 8
Ans: [b] Here it is asked to find the sum of base 7 numbers of 1234
(16100) * (125135) is the given product and 6543.
The above equation can be simplified as: Add the two numbers.
((2400) * (5405)) 1234 + 6543 = 7777
((2400) * (5400) * (55)) Now as per base 7 rule:
((2 * 5)400) * (55)) Divide 7777 by 7, you will get 1111 as quotient and
((10400) * (55)) remainder as 0.
as we know that 10n= 10000...... Hence 11110
so ((1000 ...) * (3125)) 217. N is an integer and N 2, at most how many integers
we get 312500000 ..... among N 2, N 3, N 4, N 5, N 6, and N 7 are
ans = 3 + 1 + 2 + 5 + 0 + 0 + 0.......= 11 prime integers?
(if we add the digits again we get 1 + 1 = 2) (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
Ans: [c]
214. What is the greatest possible positive integer n if 8n
Let N = 3
divides (44)44 without leaving a remainder?
then among 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
(a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 15 only 2 are prime integer
Ans: [c] Take N = 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
Given: (x + y + z)/3 = m Prime numbers are 2
y = 5;
218. The remainder when 1! 2!3!... 50! divided by 5! will
m = x + 10; x = m – 10;
be
z = m + 15
(a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 36 (d) 33
sub in above give equation will get m = 10;
Ans: [d]
sub in x, y, z = 0, 5, 25, total = 30
1! + 2! + 3! + 4! + 5! + 6! + 7! ..... + 50!
215. How many prime numbers are there which are less than In which from 5! all the terms will give remainder zero
100 and greater than 3 such that they are simultaneously when divided by 5!
of the following forms. 1! + 2! + 3! + 4! = 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 = 33
4x 1 R(33/120) = 33
5y 1
(a) 11 (b) 12 219. In the question, AB means, A raised to power B. If
(c) 7 (d) None of these xy2 z 0, then which one of the following
Ans: [d] statements must be true?
Let the number be N. (i) xz 0 (ii) z 0 (iii) xyz 0
So N = 4x + 1 = 5y – 1 (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) only
⇒ x = 5y − 24 (c) None of these (d) (i) only
y = 2 satisfies the equation. Ans: [d]
So minimum number satisfies both the equations is 9 and x y2 z 0
general format of the numbers which satisfies the
equation = k. LCM (4, 5) + 9 = 20k + 9. Irrespective of positivity or negativity of the term y, y2
Now by putting values 1, 2, 3..........for k, we get 29, 49, 69, will always be positive.
89. So xz 0 means that only option d is true.
Of which only 29, 89 are primes. If x is +ve, z is – ve and vice versa. By x y always less
216. In base 7, a number is written only using the digits 0, 1, 2, than 0.
2 1
……… 6. The number 135 in base 7 is 1 7 3 7 5 220. 7221 divided by 25 gives remainder
= 75 in base 10. What is the sum of the base 7 numbers (a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 24 (d) 22
1234 and 6543 in base 7?
Ans: [c]
(a) 11101 (b) 11110
72/2521/20 (bcz 25 is not prime no. so, Qn= 25 (1 – 1/5) =
(c) 10111 (d) 11011
20)
Ans: [b]
=221 = 22
221. n is a natural number and n3 has 16 factors. Then how 225. 1(1!) 2(2!) 3(3!) ... 2012 (2012!) ?
many factors can n4 have? (a) 2013! (b) 2012!
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 2013! 1 (d) 2012! 1
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Ans: [c]
Ans: [b] 1(1!) 1 2! 1
p q r
Total factors of a number N a b c ... is (p + 1) 1(1!) 2(2!) 1 4 5 3! 1
(q + 1) (r + 1) … 1(1!) 2(2!) 3(3!) 1 4 18 23 4! 1
As n3 has 16 factors n3 can be one of the two formats ……………………
given below
……………………
n3 a15 1(1!) 2(2!) 3(3!) ........ 2012(2012!) 2013! 1
3 3 3
n a b
226. 77!(77! 254!)3/(77! 54!)3 54!(277! 54!)3/
If n3 a15 then n a5 and number of factors of n4 21
(77! 54!)3
n3 a3 b3 then n ab and number of factors n4 25
(a) 2 77! 2 54! (b) 77! 54!
222. Find the remainder when 650 is divided by 215. (c) 77! 54! (d) 2 77! 2 54!
(a) 31 (b) 26 (c) 36 (d) 38 Ans: [b]
Ans: [c] Let a = 77!
R[650 /215] R[(63)1662/215] b = 54!
From above
R[21616 62/215]
a(a 2b)3/(a b)3 b(2a b)3/(a b)3
R[21616 /215]R[62/215]
By solving them by using (a b)3 (a3 b3 3a2b 3ab2
R[(216/215)16]R[(6/215)2]
Finally we get answer as (a b)
116 62 36
Therefore the answer is (77! – 54!)
223. Find last two digits of the following expression. 227. HCF of 2472, 1284 and a 3rd number ‘N’ is 12. If LCM of
(201202203204246247248249)2 these three numbers is 23 * 32 * 51 * 103 * 107, then what
(a) 72 (b) 76 (c) 78 (d) 80 is the value of ‘N’?
Ans: [b] (a) 22 * 32 * 51 (b) 22 * 32 * 71
Taking last 2 digit of each number (c) 22 * 32 * 103 (d) None of these
0102030446474849 122040576 Ans: [a]
Ends in 76 HCF = 12
(76)power any value ends in 76 LCM 23 32 51 103107
So, (76)2 last two digit is 76. N1 2472 23 3103
N2 1284 22 3107
224. a, b, c, d, e are distinct numbers.
N3 12x
If (75 a)(75 b)(75 c)(75 d)(75 e) 2299 then
Product of LCM and HCF = Product of numbers
a bc d e ?
(a) 352 (b) 356 (c) 360 (d) 370 (23 32 5103107)(22 3)
Ans: [b] (23 3103)(22 3107)x; x 15
Two of the terms in the given expression should equal to N3 1512 180.
1. As all the digits are distinct, two of the terms should be
negative. 22 32 51
One possible solution
228. Consider the sequence of numbers 0, 2, 2, 4, … where for
(75 64)(75 56)(75 86)(75 74)(75 76) n > 2 the nth term of the sequence is the units digit of the
Then a bc d e 64 56 86 74 76 356 sum of the previous two terms. Let Sn denote the sum of
But as the sum of only 4 terms was asked, we have to the first n terms of the sequence. What is the smallest
subtract one term. value of n for which Sn > 2771?
So given answer can be one of 292, 306, 270, 282, 280 (a) 692 (b) 693 (c) 694 (d) 700
Ans: [b] 232. Find the odd man out: 2, 8, 20, 44, 83.
0, 2, 2, 4, 6, 0, 6, 6, 2, 8, 0, 8, 8, 6, 4, 0, 4, 4, 8, 2, 0, 2, 2, … (a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 44 (d) 83
this series will be repeated after every 20 terms and the Ans: [d]
sum of every 20 terms of series = 80
Except 83 all the numbers are even
2771/80 = 34 (quotient) and = 51 (remainder); sum of 13
terms = 52 233. The first 44 integers are written in order to form the large
34 * 20 = 680 number N = 123456 ………… 424344. What is the
remainder when N is divided by 45?
So, number of terms is 680 + 13 = 693.
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 14 (d) 18
229. How many of the numbers x (x being integer) with 10< = x Ans: [a]
< = 99 are 18 more than the sum of their digits?
For number to be divisible by 45 it should be divisible by
(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 10
both 5 and 9 as you can see, last digit is 4 and we know
Ans: [d] that number should be divisible by both 5 and 9 for
20 2 0 2 18 20 number to be divisible by 5 last digit should be 0 or 5; so,
21 2 1 3 18 21 we can say that reminder should be 4 because only if we
deduct 4 last digit will be 0 so, answer is: the remainder is
22 2 2 4 18 22
4
23 2 3 5 18 23
24 2 4 6 18 24 234. How many two digit numbers are there which when
subtracted from the number formed by reversing its
25 2 5 7 18 25
digits, as well as when added to the number formed by
26 2 6 8 18 26 reversing its digits result in a perfect square?
27 27 9 18 27 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
28 2 8 10 18 28 Ans: [a]
29 2 9 11 18 29 Let the number xy = 10x + y
30 3 0 3 18 21 Given that, 10x + y – (10y – x) = 9 (x – y) is a perfect
square
So, only 10 values satisfy the given condition.
So x – y can be 1, 4, 9. … (1)
230. What is the greatest power of 143 which can divide 125! So given that 10x + y + (10y + x) = 11(x + y) is a perfect
exactly? square.
(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 8 (d) 9 So x + y be 11.
Ans: [d]
Possible options are (9, 2), (8, 3), (7, 4), (6, 5) … (2)
Prime factors of 143 1113 From the above two conditions only (6, 5) satisfies the
Find maximum power of 11 and 13 condition.
Only 1 number 56 satisfies.
235. Mr. Bean chooses a number and he keeps on doubling the
number followed by subtracting one from it, if he chooses
1112 139 119 139 1439 so, maximum power of 3 as initial number and he repeats the operation for
143 is 9. 30 times then what is the final result?
(a) (230) – 1 (b) (230) + 2
231 What will be the next term in the series 1, 7, 8, 49, 50, 56,
57, 343 …..? (c) (231) +1 (d) (231) – 2
(a) 344 (b) 350 Ans: [c]
(c) 2401 (d) Cannot be determined Step 1: (3 * 2) - 1 = 5 ( 22 + 1)
Ans: [a] Step 2: (5 * 2) - 1 = 9 (23 + 1)
1=1 Step 3: (9 * 2) - 1 = 17 (24 + 1)
7 17 Step 4: (17 * 2) - 1 = 33 (25 + 1)
8 17 1 So After 30 steps we have 231 + 1
49 77 1 236. 210, 161, 125, 100. What is the next number?
50 77 1 (a) 75 (b) 96 (c) 84 (d) 60
57 8 7 1 Ans: [c]
210
343 49 7
161 = (210 – 49)
Next term should be 497 1 344
125 = (161 – 36) 2123 – 2122 – 2121 ends in 8 – 4 – 2 = 2
100 = (125 – 25) 3234, Unit digit = 9, 3233, Unit digit = 3, 3232, Unit digit = 1
84 = (100 – 16) 3234 – 3233 – 3232 ends in 9 – 3 – 1 = 5
237. Find the number of divisors of 1728. Product of these two values ends in 2 * 5 = 10.
(a) 12 (b) 21 (c) 24 (d) 28 Which has only one zero.
Ans: [d] 242. 11 23 47 83 131. What is the next number?
1728 can be written in terms of powers of prime as 26 * (a) 145 (b) 178 (c) 176 (d) 191
33. Ans: [d]
So number of divisors = (6 + 1) * (3 + 1) = 7 * 4 = 28 1
56 87 23 = (11 + 12)
47 = (23 + 24)
238. How many 4’s will be there in the number 221222223 …
till 440? 83 = (47 + 36)
131 = (83 + 48)
(a) 52 (b) 54 (c) 50 (d) 84
191 = (131 + 60)
Ans: [d]
Given number is 221222223224 ……… 440 243. Find the next number in the series.
221 .........300, there are 18 4’s. (204,214 – neglected) 70, 54, 45, 41, ?
301 .........400, there are 21 4’s (a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 38 (d) 40
401 ..........440, there are 40 4’s in hundreds place, 1 4’s in Ans: [d]
tens place and 4 4’s in ones place. 70
Totally, 18 + 21 + 40 + 1 + 4 = 84 … 4’s 54 = (70 – 42)
45 = (54 – 32)
239 35ab3 is a five digit number divisible by 17. If the number 41 = (45 – 22)
formed from the two digits ab is a multiple of 17, then
40 = (41 – 12)
ab = ?
(a) 51 (b) 65 (c) 30 (d) 25 244. How many number x(x being integer) with 10 < = x < = 99
Ans: [a] are 18 more than sum of their digits?
(i) 35513 = divisibility criteria for 17 (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 18 (d) 10
3 * 5 = 15; 3551 – 15 = 3536; Ans: [d]
6 * 5 =30; 353 – 30 = 323 The numbers that satisfy this property are 20, 21, 22, 23,
3 * 5 = 15; 32 – 15 = 17. (satisfies) 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29
(ii) 35653 : Which are 18 more than the sum of digits.
3 * 5 = 15; 3565 – 15 = 3550 So 10 possible numbers are there.
5 * 5 = 25; 35 – 25 = 10 (not satisfy) 245. What is the value of A such that X2 – 11 * X + A and X2
(iii) 35303: – 14 * X + 2A will have a common factor?
3 * 5 = 15; 3530 – 15 = 3515 (a) – 1/2 (b) 24 (c) – 2 (d) 20
5 * 5 = 25; 351 – 25 = 326 Ans: [b]
6 * 5 = 30; 32 – 30 = 2 (not satisfy) a = 24, then polynomials will become
(iv) 35253: x2 – 11x + 24 and x2 – 14x + 48
3 * 5 = 15; 3525 – 15 = 3510 which can be written as
1 * 5 = 5; 35 – 5 = 30 (not satisfy) (x – 8) * (x – 3) and (x – 8) * (x – 6)
So answer is 51. (x – 8) is common factor.
240. Find the odd man out: 3, 13, 17, 43, 87, 127 246. There are 14 digits of credit card number to be filled. Each
(a) 17 (b) 13 (c) 87 (d) 127 of the below three boxes contains continuous digits of 18
as sum. Given: 4th digit is 7 and 7th digit is x. Then what is
7 x the value of x?
c1 c2 c3 c4 c5 c6 c7 c8 c9 c10 c11 c12 c13 c14 (a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 2
Ans: [b]
241. The number of zeros at the end of (2123 – 2122 – 2121)
x (3234 – 3233 – 3232) is Sum of any three columns = 18
(a) 0 (b) 1 So, 7 + c5 + c6 = 18 c5 + c6 + x = 18
(c) 121 (d) None of these From (1) c5 + c6 = 11
Ans: [b] Sub in (2)
2123, Unit digit = 8, 2122, Unit Digit = 4, 2121, Unit digit = 2 X = 18 – 11 = 7
247. A sequence x1, x2 and x3 is said to be in a harmonic 252. What is the sum of all even integers between 99 and 301?
progression if the reciprocals 1/x1, 1/x2 and 1/x3 are in (a) 40000 (b) 20000 (c) 40400 (d) 20200
arithmetic progression. The 5th term and the 7th term for Ans: [d]
an harmonic progression are 30 and 50 respectively. 100 + 102 + 104 + 106 + ……… + 300
What is the difference between the 6th and 4th term? Sn = n/2 (a +l); n = 1 + 50 + 50 = 101
(a) 16 (b) 14.5 (c) 13.4 (d) 12.5 Sn = 101/2 (100 + 300) = 101 * 200 = 20200
Ans: [d]
253. If n is the sum of two consecutive odd integers and less
Let the harmonic series be a, a/1 + d, a/1 + 2d, a/1 + 3d .....
than 100, what is greatest possibility of n?
The 5th term a/1 + 4d = 30 and 7th term = a/1 + 6d = 50
(a) 98 (b) 94 (c) 96 (d) 99
Solving the 2 equations, we get a = 150 and d = 1 Ans: [c]
for 6th term =150/1 + 5 = 25 Sum < 100 (odd + odd = even)
4th term = 150/1 + 3 = 37.5 So checking for 98 = 49 + 49 (not satisfying)
difference = 37.5 – 25 = 12.5 Next possible value = 96 = 49 + 47 (satisfies)
248. For a real number X, int (x) denotes the integral part of x, 254. x2 < 1/100, and x < 0 what is the highest range in which x
that is int(x) is the largest integer less than or equal to x. can lie?
Thus int (1, 2) = 1 and int (– 2, 4) = – 3. The value of (a) –1/10 < x < 0 (b) – 1 < x < 0
int(1/2) + int(1/2 + 1/100) + int(1/2 + 2/100) …int(1/2
(c) – 1/10 < x < 1/10 (d) – 1/10 < x
+ 99/100) is
Ans: [a]
(a) 150 (b) 149 (c) 151 (d) 148
X2 < 1/100 & x<0.
Ans: [a]
int (1/2) = 0 So the highest range in which x can lie X < √(1/100) <
1/10 & x< 0
int (1/2 + 100 ) = 100
int (1/2 + 2/100) = 0 From the options it is clear that – 1/10 < x < 0 satisfies the
above condition.
......
int ( 1/2 + 50/100 ) = 1 255. The sequence {An} is defined by A1 = 2 and An + 1 = An
int (1/2 + 51 /100) = 1 + 2n what is the value of A100
....... (a) 9902 (b) 9900 (c) 10100 (d) 9904
int (1/2 + 99/100) = 1 Ans: [a]
So 100 + 1 + 1 +..... 50 times = 150 A1 = 2
A2 = A1 + 2(1) = 2 + 2 = 4
249. How many numbers are there between 10 and 99 such
A3 = A2 + 2(2) = 4 + 4 = 8
that the number exceeds its sum of the digits by 18?
A4 = A3 + 2(3) = 8 + 6 = 14
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15
A5 = A4 + 294) = 14 + 8 = 22
Ans: [c]
.
The numbers that satisfy this property are 20, 21, 22, 23,
24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 .
Which are 18 more than the sum of digits. .
So 10 possible numbers are there. A100 = A99 + 2(99)
Adding all equations:
250. If 3y + x > 2 and x + 2y 3, what can be said about the (A1 + A2 + A3 + .... + A99) + A100 = 2 + [(A1 + A2 + A3 + ...
value of y? + A99) + 2(1 + 2 + 3+...+99)]
(a) y = – 1 (b) y > – 1 (c) y < – 1 (d) y = 1 A100 = 2 + 2[(99 * 100/2)]
Ans: [b] A100 = 9902
3y + x > 2 (1)
256. Divide 50 into two parts, such that the sum of their
2y + x ≤3 (or) – 2y – x > -3 (2)
reciprocals is 1/12.
Solving (1) and (2) (a) 25, 25 (b) 10, 40 (c) 20, 30 (d) 15, 35
Y>–1 Ans: [c]
251. If m is an odd integer and n an even integer, which of the So let us assume the two parts be a & b
following is definitely odd? So a + b = 50
(a) (2m + n) (m – n) (b) (m + n2) + (m – n2) 1/a + 1/b = 1/12
(c) m + mn + n
2 2 (d) m + n On simplification, a + b/ab = 1/12
Ans: [d] 12(a + b) = ab; 12 * 50 = ab = 600
So sum = 50, product = 600
The partitions are clearly = 20, 30 Ans: [c]
Let P = 3
257. The prime factorization of integer N is A x A x B x C, where
N = 4P = 12 -- even factors 2, 4, 6, 12 Let P = 5
A, B and C are all distinct prime integers. How many
factors does N have? N = 4P = 20 --- even factors 2, 4, 10, 20 Let P = 7
(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 4 (d) 6 N = 4P = 28 ---even factors 2, 4, 14, 28
Ans: [a] No. of even factors of N = 4
A * A * B * C = A2 *B *C 263. What is the next term in the given series 1, 4, 2, 8, 6, 24,
Number of factors = (2 + 1)(1 + 1)(1 + 1) = 3 * 2 * 2 = 12 22, 88?
258. How many prime numbers between 1 and 100 are factors (a) 86 (b) 90 (c) 154 (d) 352
of 7150? Ans: [a]
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) Five Solution:
Ans: [d] The sequence follows the logic of alternate (*4) and (– 2)
So, the next sequence is 86
264. In a quadratic equation, (whose coefficients are not
necessarily real) the constant term is not 0. The cube of the
Prime number = 5, 2, 11, 13 = 4 sum of the squares of its roots is equal to the square of the
sum of the cubes of its roots. Which of the following is true?
259. Of the following, which is the closest approximation of
(a) Both roots are real
(50.2 * 0.49)/199.8?
(b) Neither of the roots is real
(a) 1/10 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 5/4 (e) 1/2
(c) At least one root is non-real
Ans: [b]
(d) At least one root is real
(50.2 * 0.49)/199.8
Ans: [b]
= 24.598/199.8
Solution:
= 1/8
Assume the given quadratic equation is ax2 + bx + c = 0
260. What is the of lowest possible integer that is divisible by whose roots are α, β.
each the integers 1 through 7, inclusive? Now given that (α2 + β2)3 = (α3 + β3)2
(a) 420 (b) 840 (c) 1,260 By expanding we get,
(d) 2,520 (e) 5,040 α6 + 3.α4.β2 + 3.α2.β4 + β6 = α6+β6 + 2.α3.β3
Ans: [a] 3.α2.β2(α2 + β2) = 2.α3.β3
Lcm of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 = 420 3.(α2 + β2) = 2.α.β
3.(α2 + β2) + 6.α.β − 6.α.β = 2.α.β
261. After loading a dock, each worker on the night crew
loaded 3/4 as many boxes as each worker on the day of 3.(α + β)2 = 8.α.β.......(1)
the crew. If the night crew has 4/5 as many workers as We know that sum of the roots = α+β=−ba product of the
the day crew, what fraction of all the boxes loaded by two roots = α.β=ca
crews did the day crew load? Substituting in the equation (1) we get
(a) 1 by 2 (b) 2 by 5 (c) 4 by 5 (d) 5 by 8 3.(−ba)2=8.ca⇒3.b2=8.a.c.
Ans: [d]
Let X be number of boxes loaded during day The nature of the roots can be determined by finding the
Then number of boxes loaded during night = 3/4X magnitude of the determinant = b2−4ac
Also let y be number of workers during day But we know that ac = 3b2/8
then number of workers during night = 4/5 y So b2−4ac = b2−4.3b2/8=−b2/2<0
therefore, number of boxes loaded during day = x * y So the roots are imaginary.
Number of boxes loaded during night = ¾ X * 4/5 Y = 3/5 34
265. Find the remainder when 3233 is divided by 11.
XY
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) 1
The required ratio = x y/(x y + 3/5 x y)
Ans: [b]
= x y/(8/5)x y
Solution:
= 5/8.
We know that when the divisor is a prime number,
262. If N = 4P, where P is a prime number greater than 2, how Fermat little theorem says, ap−1 when divided by p,
many different positive even divisors does n have remainder is 1
including n? So 3210 gives remainder 1.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
(d) Six (e) Eight
Now we have to write 32^33^34 in this format. So we 270. The sum of 5 numbers in AP is 30 and the sum of their
have to find the remainder 33^34 when divided by 10. squares is 190. Which of the following is the third term?
The remainder is nothing but unit digit of the number (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9
33^34 gives unit digit of 9. Ans: [b]
So 33^34 = 10 K + 9 Solution:
32^33^34 =32 (10K+9)=(3210)K.329
Let the 5 numbers be (a - 2d), (a - d) , a, (a + d), (a + 2d)
Now this expression when divided by 11 leaves a
Given = sum = 30 = a – 2d + a – d + a + a + d + a + 2d
remainder of 329 which in turn is equal to (−1) 9 = −1 = 10
=> 5a = 30; So a = 6. (third term)
266. If AB means A raised to the power of B, in which of the
following choices must P be greater than Q? 271. The least number which when divided by 48, 60, 72, 108
(a) 0.9P = 0.9Q (b) 0.9P = 0.92Q and 140 leaves 38, 50, 62, 98 and 130 as remainders
respectively, is
(c) 0.9P = 0.9q (d) None of these
Ans: [none of these] (a) 4562 (b) 15110 (c) 2135 (d) 7589
Solution: Ans: [b]
Option A is wrong as P = Q Solution:
Option B is wrong as P/Q = log 0.92/log0.9 = 0.791 Considering the maximum possibility : when divided by
Option C is wrong P = Q 140 , it should leave a remainder 130.
All the options are wrong Which means the number is in the format of = 140 x
+ 130, and will definitely end with zero.
267. A two digit number is 18 less than the square of the sum
So from options, we can directly check for 15110.
of its digits. How many such numbers are there?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 So that number satisfies all the conditions.
Ans: [b] Thus the number is 15110.
Solution: 272. Given that 0 < a < b < c < d, which of the following is the
Take N = 10a + b. largest?
Given that, (10a + b) + 18 = K2 = (a + b)2 (a) (c + d) / (a + b) (b) (a + d) / (b + c)
Given number = K2 - 18 = (10a + b)
(c) (b + c) / (a + d) (d) (b + d) / (a + c)
That means, when we add 18 to the given number it
Ans: [a]
should be a perfect square. So K2 takes the
Assume a = – 1, b = – 2, c = – 3, d = – 4
following values. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100, 121, ....
1 to 25 are ruled out as if we subtract 18 from them, the So (i) (c + d)/(a + b) = – 7/– 3 = 2.333
resulting number is a single digit number. (ii) (a + d)/(b + c) = – 5/– 5 = 1
Now 36 - 18 = 18 (iii) (a + d)/(b + c) = – 5/– 5 = 1
49 - 18 = 31 (iv) (b + d)/(a + c) = – 6/– 4 = 1.5
64 - 18 = 46 So clearly, (i) is the largest.
81 - 18 = 63
273. The number of multiples of 10 which are less than 1000,
100 - 18 = 82
which can be written as a sum of four consecutive
121 - 18 = 103
integers is
Now 63, 82 satisfies.
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 216
268. How many 2’s are there between the terms 112 to 375? Ans: [a]
(a) 313 (b) 159 (c) 156 (d) 315 We can write 10 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4. So we have to find how
Ans: [c] many multiples of 10 can be written in this manner.
Solution: Let the first of the four numbers be n.
The number of two’s in ones place = 8 + 10 + 8 = 26
So n + (n + 1) + (n + 2) + (n + 3) = 10k
The number of two’s in tens place = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30
4n + 6 = 10k
The number of two’s in hundreds place = 100 = 100
2n + 3 = 5k
So total = 26 + 30 + 100 = 156
(5k 3) (k 1)
269. Complete the series: 4, 20, 35, 49, 62, 74, ? n 2k 1
2 2
(a) 76 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 85 So n is integer for k = an odd number.
Ans: [d]
So for k = 1, 3, 5, … 99 we can write a number as a sum
Solution: four consecutive integers.
The series is a difference series:
So there are 50 numbers.
4 20 35 49 62 74 85
(+16) (+15) (+14) (+13) (+12) (+11)
PATTERN BASED PROBLEMS No. Of upward triangles size 2 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15
No. Of upward triangles size 4 = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
274. Star Questions: Total = 15 + 6 = 21
(i) Find 13x + 13y from the below sudoku.
277. In subtraction problem below, some single digits (not
8 1 7 3
necessarily distinct) are replaced by letters. Find the
x 6 7 8 value of 3 * A + 5 * B + 4 * C * D
9 2 3 1 6 A 4 C 2
4 7 5 6 –3 B 4 8
7 9 Y 1 2
2 7 0 D
6 3 4 9
4 9 2 1 6
(a) 95 (b) 133 (c) 124 (d) 150
6 5 4
Ans: [b]
7 8 5 9
A 4 C 2
(a) 117 (b) 169 (c) 91 (d) 130 –3 B 4 8
(ii) Try 7x + 10y using the above table.
275. In the simple subtraction problem below, some single 2 7 0 D
digits (not necessarily distinct) are replaced by letters,
find the value of 7A + 7B + 6 CD. Solving by crypto arithmetic, we get, A = 6, B = 7, C = 5, D
= 4. 3A + 5B + 4CD = 18 + 35 + 80 = 133
A 7C2
278. In the sample subtraction problem below, single digits are
–4B68
replaced by letters. Find the value of 2 * A + 4 * B + 7 * C *
D=?
543D
A 6C2
(a) 77 (b) 95 (c) 84 (d) 70 –3B54
276. The figure below shows a “size 3” equilateral triangle
divided up into 9 “size 1” equilateral triangles. The figure 493D
has 6 upward facing and 3 downward facing “size
1”equilateral triangles, 3 upward facing and no downward (a) 280 (b) 548 (c) 260 (d) 396
facing “size 3” triangle. It has a total of 13 equilateral Ans: [b]
triangles of all sizes. A 6C2
–3B54
493D
Solving this crypto arithmetic, we get, A =8, B = 7, C = 9 &
D =8
The following size 6 triangle is divided up in the same 2A + 4B+ 7CD = 16 + 28 + (7 * 72) = 548
way. What is the sum of the number of up facing size 2
279. There is a set of 9 numbers that relate to each other in a
triangles and the number of upward facing size 4
certain way. Find the way the first set of boxes works. The
triangles?
numbers in the second set work in exactly the same way.
(a) 21 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 Find the number that must be filled.
Ans: [a]
(a) 16 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) – 21
280. If 5 + 3 + 2 = 151022, 9 + 2 + 4 = 183652, 8 + 6 + 3 1(1 times), 2(2 times), 3(3 times), 4(4 times) = 10 terms
= 482466 and 5 + 4 + 5 = 202541, then 7 + 2 + 5 = group 1
(a) 143547 (b) 132234 1(2 times), 2(4 times), 3(6 times), 4(8 times) = 20 terms
(c) 2577224 (d) 112321 = group 2
Ans: [a] 1(3 times), 2(6 times), 3(9 times), 4(12 times) = 30 terms
5 + 3 + 2 = 151022, 9 + 2 + 4 = 183652, 8 + 6 + 3 = 482466 = group 3
and 5 + 4 + 5 = 202541. And so on...
So clearly the pattern is understood that: So total number of groups can be formed reaching the
First two digits of result is product of first two numbers in 2926th term.
sum 10 + 20 + 30 + ......+ n > = 2926
Next two digits of result is the product of first and third (n/2) (20 + (n – 1)10) > = 2926
number in sum 10 n + 5 n2 – 5 n > = 2926
Last two digits of result is the difference between the sum 5 n2 + 5 n > = 2926
of result of previous two steps and the middle number in 5 n (n+1) > = 2926
the sum. n (n + 1) > = 586, minimum value satisfying value of
So 7+2+5 = 14 35 47 n = 24
(7 * 2) (7 * 5) ((14 + 35) – 2) So group 24 will have the desired term.
281. 9 + 99 + 999 + …… + 9999 +.......... 9999. There are 21 “9” Total terms covered till 24 groups = 5(24 (25)) = 3000
digits in the last term of the series. Find the last three Total terms covered till 23 groups = 5(23 (24)) = 2760
digits of the sum. Group 24 starts with 24 ones (2761 – 2784) followed by
(a) 089 (b) 238 48 twos (2785 – 2832) followed by 96
(c) 078 (d) None of these threes (2833 – 2928). So 2926th term will be 3.
Ans: [a] 284. For any two numbers, we define an operation $ yielding
The last three digits of the sum can be found out by using another number X $ Y such that following condition holds:
the product. X $ X = 0.
The ones digit = 21 * 9 = 189 = 9 (18 carry over) Also for all X, X $ (Y $ Z) = X $ Y + Z. Find the Value of
The tens digit = 20 * 9 =180 + 18 = 198 = 8 (19 carry over) 2012 $ 0 + 2012 $ 1912.
The hundreds digit = 19 * 9 = 171 + 19 = 190 = 0 (19 carry (a) 2112 (b) 100
over) (c) 5936 (d) Cannot be determined
So the last three digits are = 089. Ans: [a]
282. If 28a + 30b + 31c = 365, find the value of a + b + c, if a, b Here it is clear that $ represent the – operator so X – X = 0
and c are natural numbers. first condition
(a) 4 (b) 12 x $ (y $ z) = x – (y – z) = x – y + z.
(c) 10 (d) Cannot be determined it can be written as x $ y + z.
Ans: [b] 2012 – 0 + 2012 – 1912 = 2112.
28a + 30 b + 31 c = 365 285. 8 + 88 + 888 + …… + 8888.............. 8888. There are 21 “8”
Any value for a and b will not give unit digit to be 5. digits in the last term of the series. Find the last three
So only option to get unit digit as 5 in the sum is by using c digits of the sum.
to be 5. So 31 * 5 = 155. (a) 458 (b) 648 (c) 658 (d) 968
Remaining = 365 – 155 = 210. Ans: [d]
This 210 should be the sum of 28a + 30 b. Ones digit = 21 * 8 = 168 = 8 (16 carry over)
The only values which satisfy this are a = 5, b = 2 and Tens digit = 20 * 8 = 160 +16 = 176 = 6 (17 carry over)
a = 0, b = 7. Hundreds digit = 19 * 8 = 152 + 17 = 169 = 9 (16 carry
Either way the sum is 5 + 2 + 5 = 0 + 7 + 5 = 12 over)
Last three digits in the sum = 968
283. In the sequence 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3,
3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, …… what 286. In a series of numbers, the next number is formed by
is the 2926th term? adding 1 to the sum of the previous numbers, and the
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 10th number is 1280. Then what is the first number in
the series? (series will be like this x, x + 1, (x + (x + 1))
Ans: [c]
+ 1, )
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
Ans: [b] 290. Let a, b, c, d and e be distinct integers in ascending order
The given series is x, x 1, 2x 2, 4x 4.... such that (76 – a) (76 – b) (76 – c) (76 – d) (76 – e)
If you observe the pattern here, the coefficient of x + 1 is = 1127. What is a + b + c + d
in the powers of 2. (a) 30 (b) 274 (c) 334 (d) 136
So 4th term has a power of 2, 5th term has a power of 3 … Ans: [b]
10th term has a power of 8. Product of 5 terms equal to 1127. As all the five terms are
So tenth term would be 28(x + 1) = 256 (x + 1). integers, given product should be a product of 5 numbers.
Now factorize 1127.
Given 256(x + 1) = 1280
x = 4. 1127 72 23 7723
But given that all the a, b, c, d, e are distinct. And we are
287. All even numbers from 2 to 98 inclusive, except those getting only 3 terms with 7 repeats.
ending 0, are multiplied together. What is the rightmost Now the logic is, integers means positive and negative, 7
digit (the units digit) of the product? and – 7 possible and 1, – 1 also possible. As a, b, c, d, e are
(a) 6 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4 in ascending order, the factors should be in decreasing
Ans: [d] order.
2 4 6 8 12 14 ..... 98 So (23, 7, – 1, – 7)
Now units digit of 2 468 4 Now a 53; b 69; c 75; d 77
Also 12141618 also 4. So on a + b + c + d = 274.
Total 10 times 4 occurs in the units digit 410 6 LOGICAL BASED PROBLEMS
288. In this question AB means A raised to the power of B Start 291. A city in the US has a basketball league with 3 basketball
with the integers from 1 to 102012. Replace each of them teams, the Aztecs, the Braves and the Celtics. A sports
by the sum of its digits to get a string of 102012 numbers. writer notices that the tallest player of the Aztecs is
Keep doing this until you get 102012 single digit numbers. shorter than the shortest player of the Braves. The
Let m be the number of 1's and n be the number of 2's. shortest of the Celtics is shorter than the shortest of the
Then m – n is Aztecs, while the tallest of the Braves is shorter than the
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0 tallest of the Celtics. The tallest of the braves is taller than
Ans: [a] the tallest of the Aztecs. Which of the following can be
We divide all the numbers into groups of 9. (1 to 9), (10 to judged with certainty?
18) …. X) Paul, a Braveis taller than David, an Aztec
Now when we divide each term in the first group by 9, we Y) David, a Celtic, is shorter than Edward, an Aztec
get 1, 2, 3 … 0 as remainders. (a) X only (b) Both X and Y
Now digit sum is nothing but finding remainder when a
(c) Neither X nor Y (d) Y only
number is divided by 9.
Ans: [a]
So the last term, 102012 gives remainder 1 when divided It’s clearly written that the tallest player of the Aztecs is
by 9. Shorter than the shortest player of the Braves.
So, there is one “1” extra than 2’s. => all players of braves are taller than all players of
289. How many of the numbers x (x being integer) with Aztecs.
10 < = x < = 99 are 18 more than the sum of their digits? => X is true
(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 10 292. M, N, O and P are all different individuals; M is the
Ans: [d] daughter of N; N is the son of O; O is the father of P;
20 2 + 0 = 2 + 18 = 20 Among the following statements, which one is true?
21 2 + 1 = 3 + 18 = 21
22 2 + 2 = 4 + 18 = 22
23 2 + 3 = 5 + 18 = 23
24 2 + 4 = 6 + 18 = 24
25 2 + 5 = 7 + 18 = 25
26 2 + 6 = 8 + 18 = 26
27 2 + 7 = 9 + 18 = 27 M
28 2 + 8 = 10 + 18 = 28 (a) M is the daughter of P
29 2 + 9 = 11 + 18 = 29 (b) If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters
30 3 + 0 = 3 + 18 = 21 (c) If C is the granddaughter of O, then C and M are sisters
So, only 10 values satisfy the given condition. (d) P and N are bothers
Ans: [b] Victor turned to the sister on the right, then asked, “Who
M is a Female, N is a male and O is also a male. is that in the middle?” The sister then replied, “She is
(i) M is not the daughter of P, she is the niece of P Eesha”.
(ii) If N has another daughter B, then M & B are definitely This confused Victor; he had asked the same question
sisters. three times and received three different answers.
(iii) If C is the grand-daughter of O, then C & M can be Who was actually sitting in the middle?
cousins as well. (a) Asha (b) Eesha
(iv) P & N are brothers cannot be concluded until we (c) Usha (d) Cannot be determined
know gender of P. Ans: [b]
So, only the option B can be concluded. Only possible arrangement
293. University of Vikramsila has enrolled nine PhD = USHA EASHA ASHA
candidates. Babu, Chitra, Dheeraj, Eesha, Farooq, Gowri, Sister in left can't be Asha, because that would make her a
Hameed, Iqbal, Jacob. liar. The middle one also can't be Asha because that too
make her a liar. So, the sister in right must be Asha. Thus
- Farooq and Iqbal were enrolled on the same day as each
the sister in middle is Easha and the sister in left is Usha.
other, and no one else was enrolled that day.
- Chitra and gowri were enrolled on the same day as each 295. Three persons sail in a ship which got drowned near an
other, and no one else was enrolled that day. island and they are struck there. One of them is a Knight
- On each of the other days of hiring, exactly one who speaks only truth, one is a spy who speaks either a
candidate was enrolled. truth or a lie and other one is the knave who speaks only
lies. From the following statements made by 3 people A, B
- Eesha was enrolled before Babu.
and C comprising the knight, spy and knave though not
- Hameed was enrolled before Dheeraj necessarily in that order, identify the spy.
- Dheeraj was enrolled after Iqbal but before Eesha A I am knight
- Gowri was enrolled after both Jacob and Babu B A is not knave
- Babu was enrolled before Jacob C If you had asked me, I would say A is the spy
Who were the last two candidates to be enrolled? (a) A (b) B
(a) Babu and Gowri (b) Eesha and Jacob (c) C (d) Cannot be determined
(c) Babu and Chitra (d) Gowri and Chitra
296. On door A – It leads to freedom
Ans: [d]
On door B – It leads to Ghost house
The arrangement
On door C – door B leads to Ghost house
Farooq Iqbal
The statement written on one of the doors is wrong.
Hameed
Identify which door leads to freedom.
Dheeraj
(a) A (b) B
Eesha
(c) C (d) Cannot be determined
Babu
Ans: [c]
Jacob
Case 1: A, B are true. In this case, Statement C also correct.
Chitra Gowri
So contradiction.
294. Three sisters are identical triplets. The oldest by minutes Case 2: B, C are true. In this case, B leads to ghost house
is Asha, and Asha always tells anyone the truth. The next and C confirms it. Now A is wrong. So door A does not lead
oldest is Eesha, and Eesha always will tell anyone a lie. to freedom. So Door C leads to freedom.
Usha is the youngest of the three. She sometimes lies and
sometimes tells the truth. 297. A drinks machine offers three solutions Tea, Coffee or one
of the two at random but the machine has been wired up
Victor, an old friend of the family’s came over one day and
wrongly so that each button does not give what it claims.
as usual he didn’t know who was who, as he asked each of
If each drink costs Rs.50, what is the minimum amount of
them one question.
money that must be spent to determine with certainty the
Victor asked the sister that was sitting on the left, “Which correct labeling of the buttons?
sister is in the middle of you three?” and the answer he
(a) Rs.100 (b) Rs.50
received was, “Oh, that’s Asha”.
(c) Rs.150 (d) Cannot be determined
Victor then asked the sister in the middle, “What is your
name?” The response given was, “I’m Usha.” Ans: [b]
For the first drink press the button labelled Random.
We know this is NOT the Random button so if it dispenses Ans: [c]
Tea it is the Tea button likewise if it dispenses Coffee it is F + 6 = 2(R + 6)
the Coffee button. From here it is simple to work out the
F = 2R + 6
other buttons knowing that they can't be what they say
they are. M – 2 = 2(R – 2)
There are only two possible combinations each only M = 2R-2
requires 50 rupees Therefore the sum of Raju's Parent's age is
F + M = 2R + 6 + 2R – 2
F + M = 4R + 4
4 more than four times Raju's age
301. My next door neighbor lies a lot. In fact, he only tells the
truth on one day a week! One day he told me, “I lie on
Mondays and on Tuesdays.” The next day he said, “Today
is either Thursday, Saturday or Sunday.” The next day he
said, “I lie on Wednesdays and Fridays.” On which day of
the week does my neighbour tell the truth?
298. There are 100 in a class and they attend a test. 20
students are failed in both the subjects. 50 students pass (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
in subject A. 60 students passed in subject B. How many (c) Wednesday (d) None of these
students passed in subject A only. Ans: [b]
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 15 (d) 25 So he either tells the truth on Monday / Tuesday /
Ans: [b] Wednesday / Friday. We can also conclude that he surely
lies on the second day.
Lets call the days mentioned as Day 1, Day 2 and Day 3.
Case 1: Truth on Monday
==> (Day 1 = Saturday Day 2 = Sunday Day 3 = Monday)
Wrong (Day 2! = Thursday/Saturday/Sunday as he lies on
second day)
Total = 100, Let students who pass both subjects be “x”
Case 2: Truth on Tuesday
50 – x + x + 60 – x = 100, Solving for x, we get x = 10.
==> (Day 1 = Sunday Day 2 = Monday Day 3 = Tuesday)
So number of students who passed in subject A alone = 50
– x = 50 – 10 = 40 Possible (Day 2! = Thursday/Saturday/Sunday as he lies
on second day)
299. Asha and Eesha – Eesha lies on Monday, Tuesday and
Case 3: Truth on Wednesday
Wednesday. Asha lies on Thursday, Friday and Saturday.
Other days they will say the truth. Professor forgot and ==> (Day 1 = Wednesday Day 2 = Thursday Day 3
asked them what day it is. Both of them said yesterday I = Friday)
was lying and then professor got the day. What day it is? Wrong (Day 2! = Thursday/Saturday/Sunday as he lies on
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday second day)
(c) Friday (d) Cannot be determined Case 4: Truth on Friday
Ans: [b] ==> (Day 1 = Friday Day 2 = Saturday Day 3 = Sunday)
It is clear that the statement from both Asha and Easha Wrong (Day 2! = Thursday/Saturday/Sunday as he lies on
“yesterday I lied” concludes that on that particular day second day)
one must have lied and one must have said the truth. Only So the man speaks the Truth on Tuesday
Thursday satisfies that condition because on Thursday
Asha can say the truth that yesterday (Wednesday) she 302. Each Door A, B and C in a room is labeled as “way to
lied and Easha can say lie that yesterday (Wednesday) she freedom”, “way to death”, “door b is false”. Atleast one of
lied (which is lies). the door is true, one is false. Which door is always true?
(a) A (b) B
300. After 6 years Raju’s father’s age will be twice that of the
his age and 2 years ago, his mothers age was twice that of (c) C (d) None of these
Raju’s age. What is the sum of Raju’s parents’ age? Ans: [a]
(a) 4 less than four times Raju’s age The door saying “way to freedom” is always true
(b) 2 more than four times Raju’s age If we consider c as true, b will be false
(c) 4 more than four times Raju’s age If we consider b as true, c will be false
(d) 2 less than four times Raju’s age But A is always true.
303. There are 4 couples who go for a honeymoon together. At (ii) 4 5 2 3 1:
one of the places, they all have to cross a river but there is After boss sends letter 4, he types 4th letter and boss
only one boat available. Wives are jealous and they don’t sends 5th one and he types. No he cant go for 2nd letter. He
like their husbands travelling with other women.
can only finish it in the sequence of 3, 2 and 1. So it is not
Husbands are also possessive and they don’t like their
possible.
wives travelling with other men. The number of minimum
possible ways in which they will cross the river are (iii) 3 2 4 1 5:
(a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 After boss sends 3rd letter, secretary types it and he
Ans: [a] completes 2nd letter also. Then boss sends 4th letter, he
types 4th letter and 1st letter. At last boss sends 5th letter
and he completes. So it is possible.
(iv) 1 2 3 4 5:
Boss sends letters one by one and before the next one is
sent the secretary completes the letters in the given order.
So it is also possible.
So the only impossible order is option b.
First trip = H1 and H2 will cross.
Second trip = H1 alone returns back 306. In a group of 5, Anooj said “One of us is lying”. Pooja said
Third trip = H1 and W1 will cross “Exactly two of us are lying”. Bittoo said, “Exactly three of us
are lying”. Billa said, “Exactly four of us are lying”. Chitra
Fourth trip = H2 will get back.
said, “Exactly five of us are lying. Which one said the truth?
Now for one couple to cross it takes 4 trips in the boat.
(a) Billa (b) Anooj (c) Chitra
So for all four couples to cross the river, it will take 4 * 4 =
16 trips. (d) Pooja (e) Bittoo
Ans: [a]
304. Seven versity basket ball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are
to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be As all are contradictory statements, it is clear that ONLY
seated on the dias in a row. A and G have to leave the one of them is telling the truth. So remaining 4 of them are
luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme lying. Billa mentioned that exactly 4 are lying. So, he is
right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and telling the truth. Only one person tells the truth (as all the
so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D statements are different).
are bitter rivals and, therefore must be seated as far apart So 5 – 1= 4 were lying. This statement is true only in the
as possible. Which of the following pair cannot occupy the case of Billa.
seats on either side of B?
(a) F and D (b) D and E 307. A man cannot remember numbers which are more than
(c) E and G (d) C and F 15 till 100. Instead, he remembers a set of three numbers
Ans: [c] through which he can generate a given number. These 3
numbers are the remainders obtained by dividing the
The arrangement of definite positions are:
given numbers by 5, 7 and 13 respectively. Ex: Instead of
(D/C) (F/E) (E/F) (B) (C/D) (A) (G)
remembering 17, he remembers it as (2, 3, 4) which are
From the arrangement it is clear that the pair E & G can’t the remainders when 17 is divided by 5, 7 and 13
come next to B because G is at the extreme end.
respectively. He has some amount in his purse which he
305. In an office, at various times during the day the boss gives remembers as (4, 4, 9) and he pays out some amount
the secretary a letter to type, each time putting the letter which he remembers as (3, 0, 2). What will be the amount
on top of the pile in the secretary’s inbox. When there is that will be left in his purse?
time, the secretary takes the top letter off the pile and (a) 40 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) 52
types it. If there are five letters in all, and the boss delivers
Ans: [c]
them in the order 1 2 3 4 5, which of the following could
NOT be the order in which the secretary types them? Amount he had = 13x + 9, possible values within 100 are
(a) 2 4 3 5 1 (b) 4 5 2 3 1 22, 35, 48, 61, 74, 87, 100 (also when divided by 7,
remainder is 4, So amount he had must be 74. Divided by
(c) 3 2 4 1 5 (d) 1 2 3 4 5
5 gives remainder 4 so the amount he had = 74.00
Ans: [b]
Amount he paid = 13x+2, So possible values are 15, 28, 41,
(i) 2 4 3 5 1:
54, 67. Divided by 7, remainder is 0, so possible value is
After boss sends 2nd letter, secretary types it and then 3rd
28. (divided by 5, remainder is 3) So amount paid = 28.00
and 4th letters arrive and then he types 4th and 3rd letter,
and 5th letter arrives after so he completes 5th and the 1st Remaining amount = 74 – 28 = 46 rupees.
one at last. It is possible.
308. The sticks of same length are used to form the triangles as Ans: [a]
shown below. If 840 such sticks are used then how many Each min it moves 4 steps
triangles can be formed?
Aft 60th min = it would have moved = 60 * 4 = 240 steps
Every 5 multiple ends in 1, so at 240th step also the fly will
be 1
(a) 419 (b) 420 (c) 840 (d) 421 311. If there are 30 cans out of them one is poisoned if a
Ans: [a] person tastes very little he will die within 14 hours so if
there are mice to test and 24 hours to test, what is the
From the diagram it is clear that for the first triangle alone
minimum no. of mice’s required to find poisoned can?
we need 3 sticks. After that all the triangles need only two
sticks because 1 stick is common for every two triangles. (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1
So from 9 sticks = 4 triangles can be made. Ans: [a]
And so from 840 sticks = 420 – 1 = 419 triangles can be 3 Mice are needed
made in this same manner. Let M1 take C1 at 1 pm
M2 take C11
309. I bought a certain number of marbles at a rate of 59
marbles for rupees 2 times M, where M is an integer, I M3 take C21
divided these marbles into two parts of equal numbers, Let M1 take C2 at 2p.m.
one part of which I sold at the rate of 29 marbles for Rs.M, M2 take C12
and the other at a rate 30 marbles for Rs.M. I spent and M3 take C22
received an integral number of rupees but bought the
.
least possible number of marbles. How many did I buy?
.
(a) 870 (b) 102660 (c) 1770 (d) 1740
.
Ans: [d]
Let M1 take C10 at 10 p.m.
Let the number of marbles bought be 2k, since it needs to
be an even number because it needs to be divided into M2 take C20 M3 take C30
two equal parts. So 14 hours after 10 pm – 1 am
Now the money spent = 59 × 2k/2m = 59 × k/m, (since 59 Based on time of death we can find the poisoned bottle.
× k/m is a integer therefore k is multiple of m, let it be
312. Kate wanted to buy 2 kgs of apples. The vendor kept the
k1 m n.
2 kg weight on the right side and weighed 4 apples for
The money received = m × (m × n)/29 + m × (m × n)/30 that. She doubted on the correctness of the balance and
= (m2) × (n × 59/(29 × 30) since these to be integer. placed 2 kg weight on the left side and she could weigh
14 apples for 2 kgs. If the balance was correct how many
((m2) n)/(2930) should be integer. m2 cannot be apples she would have got?
29. (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
But can be a number which is a factor of 30. Ans: [c]
But there is no such number except 1. Therefore As she got less apples when the weight put on the right
k1 29 30 870 and k mn 870 side, the left pan has more weight say w kgs.
Therefore the answer is 22930 1740 (least value Now w + 4a = 2
possible) and w + 2 = 14 a
Solving we get a = 2/9 kgs.
310. There are 10 stepping stones numbered 1 to 10 as shown
below. A fly jumps from the first stone as follows; Every So she gets, 2/(2/9) = 9 apples
minute it jumps to the 4th stone from where it started -
313. Letters of alphabets from 1 to 26 are consecutively with 1
that is from 1st it would go to 5th and from 5th it would
assigned to A and 26 to Z. By 27th letter we mean A, 28th
go to 9th and from 9th it would go to 3rd etc. where
B. In general 26 m + n, m and n negative integers is same
would the fly be at the 60th minute if it starts at 1?
as the letters numbered n.
Let P = 6, strange country military general sends this
secret message according to the following codification
scheme. In codifying a sentence, the 1st time a letter
occurs it is replaced by the pth letter from it. 2nd time if
occurred it is replaced by P2 letter from it. 3rd time it
occurred it is replaced by p3 letter from it. What is the
code word for ABBATIAL?
(a) GHNNZOOR (b) GHKJZOHR
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 9 (c) GHHGZOGR (d) GHLKZOIR
Ans: [d] No October tickets are blue.
A should be coded as 1 + 6 = G (it occurred for first time) If the Cinema 3 tickets for September are red, then which
B should be coded as 2 + 6 = H (it occurred for first time) one of the following statements must be true?
B should be coded as 2 + 36 = 38 – 26 = 12 = L (it occurred (a) The Cinema 3 tickets for October are green.
for second time) Option D is correct. (b) The Cinema 1 tickets for October are red.
(c) The Cinema 1 tickets for September are green.
314. Five college students met at a party and exchanged
gossips. Uma said, “Only one of us is lying”. David said, (d) The Cinema 1 tickets for September are white.
“Exactly two of us are lying”. Thara said, “Exactly 3 of us Ans: [a]
are lying”. Querishi said, “Exactly 4 of us are lying”. Chitra If we take cinema 3 ticket colour of September are green
said “All of us are lying”. Which one was telling the truth? then.
(a) David (b) Querishi October tickets set colour will be: red, blue, white but no
(c) Chitra (d) Thara October tickets are blue.
Ans: [b] Thus, cinema 3 ticket of October is green.
As all are contradictory statements, it is clear that ONLY
317. The fourteen digits of a credit card are to be written in the
one of them is telling the truth.
boxes shown above. If the sum of every three consecutive
So remaining 4 of them are lying. digits is 18, then the value of x is:
Querishi mentioned that exactly 4 are lying. So, he is
telling the truth.
Let us 1st assume that Uma is telling the truth. Then (a) 3
according to her only one is lying. But if only one is lying
(b) Cannot be determined from the given information.
then all the others’ statements are contradicting the
possibility. (c) 2
In the same way all the other statements should be (d) 1
checked. If we assume the Querishi is telling the truth, Ans: [a]
according to him exactly 4 members are lying.
So all the others are telling lies and he is the one who is
telling the truth. This case fits perfectly. Sum of any three columns = 18
So, 7 + a + b = a + b + c = b + c + x = x + d + e = d + e + f
315. We have an equal arms two pan balance and need to weigh = e + f + 8 = 18
objects with integral weights in the range 1 to 40 kilo
So we get c = 7, d = 8
grams. We have a set of standard weights and can place the
weights in any pan. . (i.e) some weights can be in a pan with Then: a + b = 11, e + f = 10
objects and some weights can be in the other pan. The c + x + d = 18, so x = 18 – 15 = 3
minimum number of standard weights required is:
318. Overfishing is a serious environmental issue. It has been
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d) 6 determined by the scientists that if the net of a trawler
Ans: [b] has mesh size x cm (a square mesh), then the percentage
of fish entering the net that are caught in the net is
316 A Cinema multiplex MNOX has exactly three Cinema
(100 – 0.04x2 – 0.24x). For example, if the mesh size is
screens:
zero, 100% of the fish that enter the net will be caught. A
Cinema 1, Cinema 2 and Cinema 3, the multiplex prints trawler with net with a square mesh, that was suspect of
three sets of tickets for September and three sets of using an illegal size net, dropped its net to the ocean floor
tickets for October: one set for each of its cinemas for each near the Andamans and the coast guard, officials arrested
of the two months. The company’s tickets are printed in a the crew. The scientists later looked the size of the fish
manner consistent with the following conditions: caught, and estimated that for the net used by the trawler,
Each of the six tickets is one of the following colours; atleast 97.8% of the fish entering the net would be caught.
green, blue, red, white. What is the maximum value of x for the net used by the
For each Cinema the September tickets are a different trawler?
colour than the October tickets. (a) 5
For each month, tickets for different Cinemas are in (b) 4.5
different colours. (c) 7
Exactly one set of September tickets is red. (d) None of the above answer
For Cinema 3 either the September tickets or the Ans: [a]
October tickets, but not both, are green. For some x, 97.8% fish was caught. So
The September tickets for cinema 2 are blue.
100 0.04x2 0.24x 97.8 15 : (13 + 11 + 9 + 7 + 5 + 3 + 1) × 2 = 98
Sum of the hash numbers = 278
0.04x2 0.24x 2.2
321. Given the following information, who is youngest?
4x2 24x 220
C is younger than A; A is taller than B.
x2 6x 55 0 C is order than B; C is younger than D.
Solving we get x = 5 and – 11 B is taller than C; A is older than D.
So x = 5 (a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A
Ans: [c]
319. In the above table, the sum of numbers in each column, Age wise order:
each row and the two diagonals are the same. What is the
(i) C < A
value of (A * B) + (c * d)– (E * F)?
(ii) C > B, C < D
(iii) A > D
Combining the three statements we conclude that
B<C<D<A
(a) 10297 (b) 10280 (c) 10397 (d) 10389 So B is the Youngest.
Ans: [c] 322. 2 gears, one with 12 teeth and the other one with 14 teeth
We have to form equations. are engaged with each other. One tooth in smaller gear
311 + E … (1) and one tooth in bigger gear are marked and initially
those 2 marked teeth are in contact with each other. After
212 + A + C … (2)
how many rotations the smaller gear with the marked
319 + F = x … (3)
teeth and the bigger gear with the marked teeth will again
212 + B + D = x … (4) come into contact for the first time?
317 + A = x … (5) (a) 7 (b) 12
214 + E + B = x … (6) (c) Data insufficient (d) 84
214 + C + F = x … (7) Ans: [a]
309 + D = x … (8)
196 + F + D = x … (9)
327 + C = x … (10)
Here 7 variables but 10 equations.
So can be solved easily.
Initially two teeth are meshed.
320. Professor Nitwit obtains a hash number of a given After first rotation those tooth will be separated by
positive integer > 3 as follows. He substracts 2 from the 14 – 12 = 2 teeth between
number (to get the new number), and multiplies the new
After second rotation the gap between two tooth is = 4
number by 2 to get a term. He repeats this with the new
teeth.
number (to get newer numbers and terms) until the
number becomes 2 or 1. The hash is defined as the sum of Similarly to cover a full circle and mesh again, it will need
all the numbers generated in the process. to cover 14 teeth, 2 teeth per rotation, so after
7 rotations the marked teeth will meet again.
For example, with the number 5, he multiples (5 – 2 = 3)
by 2 to get the first term 6. He multiplies (3 – 2 = 1) by 2 323. 10 years ago, the average age of 10 people was 33 years.
to get the second term 2. As the number has become 1, he After 3 years, a person of age 40 died. After another
stops. The hash is the sum of the two numbers (6 + 2) = 8. 3 years, another person of age 40 died. After another 3
If Professor Nitwit is given 3 numbers 19, 7, 15, what is the years, another person of age 30 dies. Find the present
sum of the hash numbers he obtains for the three numbers? average age.
(a) 297 (b) 273 (c) 290 (d) 278 (a) 43 (b) 44 (c) 35 (d) 40
Ans: [d] Ans: [b]
As we are subtracting 2 continuously from the resulting 10 yrs ago = total age = 10 * 33 = 330 … (1)
numbers, get a progression with a common difference of 2 3 years hence = 330 + 10 * 3 = 360
and we need to multiply the sum by 2 to get hash number. After death of 1st person = 360 – 40 = 320 (9 people)
For example 5: (3 + 1) × 2 =8 3 years hence = 320 + 9 * 3 = 347
19 : (17 + 15 + 13 + …… + 1) × 2 = 81 × 2 = 162 After death of 2nd person = 347 – 40 = 307(8 people)
7 : (5 + 3 + 1) × 2 = 18 3 years hence = 307 + 8 * 3 = 331
After death of 3rd person = 331 – 30 = 301 (7 people) 327. A dog takes four leaps for every five leaps of hare but
1 year hence (present) total age = 301 + 7 = 308 three leaps of the dog is equal to four leaps of the hare.
Average = 308/7 = 44 years Compare their speed.
(a) 12:16 (b) 19:20 (c) 16:15 (d) 10:12
324. All faces of a cube with an eight - meter edge are painted Ans: [c]
red. If the cube is cut into smaller cubes with a two -
Let the distance covered by dog in 1 leap is x and hare
meter edge, how many of the two meter cubes have paint
covered 1 leap is y.
on exactly one face?
then, 3x = 4y
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 60 (d) 48
=> x = (4/3) y => 4x = (16/3) y
Ans: [a]
Then, the ratio of speeds of dog and hare = Ratio of
8 m 2m = 4 * 4 cube
distances covered by them in the same time
Total 64 cubes
= 4x : 5y
colour face = 6(n – 2)2 = 6(4 – 2)2 = 24 cubes
= (16/3)y : 5y =(16/3) : 5
325. Roy is now 4 years older than Erik and half of that amount = 16:15
older than Iris. If in 2 years, Roy will be twice as old as
Erik, then in 2 years what would be Roy’s age multiplied 328. In a 8 x 8 chess board what is the total number of
by Iris’s age? squares?
(a) 28 (b) 48 (c) 50 (d) 52 (a) 204 (b) 220 (c) 240 (d) 210
Ans: [b] Ans: [a]
Given that now Roy is 4 years older that Eric so Total squares 8 * 8
R = 4 + E --> 1 82 + 72+ 62 + 52 + 42 + 32 + 22 + 12
and half of that older than Iris N = 8, n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6 = 8 * 9 * 17/6 = 204
R=2+I -->2 329. Adam sat with his friends in the Chinnaswamy stadium at
in 2 years Roy is twice as old as Eric Madurai to watch the 100 metres running race organized
R + 2 = 2(E + 2) by the Asian athletics Association. Five rounds were run.
R = 2E + 2 After every round half the teams were eliminated. Finally,
one team wins the game. How many teams participated in
substitute in eq 1 2E + 2 = 4 + E
the race?
E=2R=4+2=6
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 41 (d) 54
I=R–2=6–2=4 Ans: [b]
So the present ages of Roy = 6, Eric = 2 and Iris = 4 Total five rounds were run. So in the final round 2 teams
after 2 years Roy = 8 and Iris = 6 must have participated. In the penultimate round 4 teams,
Product = 6 * 8 = 48 years and 3rd round 8, 2nd round 16 and in the first round 32
teams must have participated as in each round half of the
326. A turtle is crossing a field. What is the total distance (in teams got eliminated.
meters) passed by turtle?
Consider the following two statements 330. A grandfather has 3 grandchildren. Age difference of two
(X) The average speed of the turtle is 2 meters per minute children among them is 3. Eldest child age is 3 times the
youngest child’s age and the eldest child age is two year
(Y) Had the turtle walked 1 meter per minute faster than
more than the sum of age of other two children. What is
his average speed it would have finished 40 minutes
the age of the eldest child?
earlier
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 15
(a) Statement X alone is enough to get the answer
Ans: [d]
(b) Both statements X and Y are needed to get the answer
(c) Statement Y alone is enough to get the answer Let the eldest child be E
(d) Data inadequate Middle Child be M
Ans: [d] Youngest child be Y
The average speed of turtle = 2 m/min E = 3Y … (1)
If it walked at 3m/min, it would have finished 40 mins E= 2 + (M + Y) … (2)
earlier. M–Y=3
With this provided data we can’t find the distance M=3+Y … (3)
covered. By solving three equations
Data inadequate 3Y = 2 + 3 + Y + Y = 5 + 2Y
Y=5
E = 3 * 5 = 15 years Use (2) in (1)
9 + B + 10 = 2B – 20
331. 10 suspects are rounded by the police and questioned
B = 39 years
about a bank robbery. Only one of them is guilty. The
suspects are made to stand in a line and each person 335. A dealer originally bought 100 identical batteries at a total
declares that the person next to him on his right is guilty. cost of q rupees. If each battery was sold at 50 percent
The rightmost person is not questioned. Which of the above the original cost per battery, then, in terms of q, for
following possibilities are true? how many rupees was each battery sold?
A. All suspects are lying. (a) 3q/200 (b) 3q/2 (c) 150q
B. leftmost suspect is innocent. (d) q/100 (e) 150/q
C. leftmost suspect is guilty Ans: [a]
(a) A only (b) A or C (c) A or B (d) B only Total cost of 100 batteries = q rupees
Ans: [c] Cost of 1 battery = q/100 rupee
If first is victim then all suspects are lying. Here you Sp of 1 battery = q/100 + 50% of q/100
should remember that the rightmost person is not
= q/100 + q/200 = 3q/200
questioned.
If any of the person leaving leftmost is victim then the 336. There are 100 wine glasses. I offered my servant 3 paise
leftmost suspect is innocent. for every glass to be delivered safely and forfeit 9 paisa
But "and" should not be used between the conditions for every glass broken at the end of day. He received
because leftmost is not innocent necessarily so answer is Rs.2.40. How many glasses did he break?
(c) A or B (a) 20 (b) 73 (c) 5 (d) 8
Ans: [c]
332. If YWVSQ is 25 - 23 - 21 - 19 – 17, Then MKIGF is
If a glass has been broken, he has to loose 3 paisa + 9
(a) 13 - 11 - 8 - 7 - 6 (b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5 - 7 paisa = 12 paise
(c) 9 - 8 - 7 - 6 - 5 (d) 7 - 8 - 5 – 3 Assume K glasses got broken
Ans: [a]
100312K 240 K 5
Y W V S Q 25 23 21 19 17 (number of
letters in alphabetical order; middle letter number 337. The shopkeeper charged 12 rupees for a bunch of
changed by one) chocolates, but I bargained with the shopkeeper and got
So MK I G F 13 11 8 7 6 (follows the few extra ones, and that made them cost one rupee for
dozen less than first asking price.
same logic as above)
How many chocolates I received in 12 rupees?
333. A, E, F and G ran a race. (a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 18
A said “I did not finish 1st/4th Ans: [d]
E said “I did not finish 4th" Let number of chocolates be x; number of dozens = x/12
F said “I finished 1st” Price of x/12 dozens is Rs.12
G said “I finished 4th" So price of 1 dozen is 144/x
If there were no ties and exactly 3 children told the truth, 2nd condition state that:
then who finishes 4th? (144/x) – (144/(x + 2)) = 1
(a) A (b) E (c) F (d) G Solving this, we get x as 16.
Ans: [d] But I bargained and got extra two chocolates so
A E F G x + 2 = 16 + 2 = 18 chocolates.
T T T F 338. There are 16 teams divided in 4 groups. Every team from
T F T T each group will play with each other once. The top
F T T T 2 teams will go to the next round and so on the top two
teams will play the final match. Minimum how many
Using the given condition only condition two satisfies.
matches will be played in that tournament?
G finished 4th.
(a) 43 (b) 40 (c) 14 (d) 50
334. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If Ans: [a]
A is now 9 years older than B the present age of B is For first round four groups play with each other. So ways
(a) 19 years (b) 29 years of selecting 2 from 4: 4 4C2 24
(c) 39 years (d) 49 years For second round four groups get reduced by half:
Ans: [c]
2 4C2 12
(A 10) 2(B 10) … (1)
A=9+B … (2)
For third round only one group of four teams remain: Ans: [a]
1 4C2 16
Final match = 1
Total = 24 + 12 + 6 + 1 = 43
339. The figure shown can be folded into the shape of a cube.
In the resulting cube, which of the lettered faces is Total ways of selecting 3 dots out of 15 is 15C3 = 455.
opposite the face marked x? If 3 dots are collinear then triangle may not be formed.
Now look at the above diagram. If we select any 3 dots
from the red lines they may not form a triangle.
They are 3 x 5C3 = 30. If we select the three letters from
blue lines, they may not form a triangle.
They are in total 5 ways. Also there are 6 others lines
(a) C (b) A (c) D (d) B which don't form a triangle.
Ans: [a] Also another two orange lines. Total = 30 + 5 + 6 + 2 = 43.
From the diagram it is clear that, keeping A to the front, So we can form a triangle in 455 - 43 = 412.
X is at left, B is at top and C is at right. D & E takes the back So probability could be 412/455.
and bottom of the cube.
So the face opposite to X is C. 343. 8 year old Eesha visited her grandpa. He gave her this
riddle.
340. Eesha bought 18 sharpeners for Rs.100. She paid 1 rupee
I started working at 13. I spent 1/6 of my working life in a
more for each white sharpener than for each brown
factory. I spent 1/4 of my working life in an office, and I
sharpener. What is the price of a white sharpener and
spent 1/4 of my working life as a school caretaker. For the
how many white sharpener did she buy?
last 32 years of my working life I've been doing social
(a) Rs.5, 10 (b) Rs.6, 10
service. How old am I?
(c) Rs.5, 8 (d) Rs.6, 8
(a) 109 yrs (b) 102 yrs (c) 105 yrs (d) 113 yrs
Ans: [b]
Ans: [a]
If he bought x white sharpeners for (y + 1) rupees each
Let x be the number of years he worked.
and (18 – x) brown sharpeners for y rupees each,
x/6 x/4 x/4 32 x
x × (y + 1) + y × (18 – x) = 100
On simplification, we get: x + 18y = 100. x 96
Here x < 18. His age 96 13 109
x = 100 – 18y
344. The five tyres of a car (four road tyres and one spare)
Only integral value for x = 10, y = 5.
were used equally in a journey of 40,000 kms. The
So, no. of white sharpeners = 10, number of kms of use of each tyre was
Cost of white sharpener = 5 + 1 = 6 rupees each. (a) 40000 (b) 10000 (c) 32000 (d) 8000
341. Mark told John "If you give me half your money I will have Ans: [c]
Rs.75. John said, "if you give me one third of your money, I Total distance = 40,000 kms
will have Rs.75.”- How much money did John have? The number of kms use of each type = 40,000 kms/No. of
(a) Rs.45 (b) Rs.60 (c) Rs.48 (d) Rs.37.5 Tyres = 40,000/5 = 8000
Ans: [b] As 4 tyres are used at a time, so 4 × 8000 = 32000
Let the money with Mark and John be M and J 345. In a group of five families, every family is expected to have
respectively. a certain number of children, such that the number of
Now children forms an arithmetic progression with a common
M + J/2 = 75 difference of one, starting with two children in the first
M/3 + J = 75 family. Despite the objection of their parents, every child
Solving we get M = 45, and J = 60. in a family has as many pets to look after as the number of
offsprings in the family. What is the total number of pets
in the entire group of five families?
342. (a) 99 (b) 9 (c) 55 (d) 90
Ans: [d]
As the number of children are in arithmetic progression
Here is 15 dots. If you select 3 dots randomly, what is the starting with 2, the five families have 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 kids
probability that 3 dots make a triangle? respectively. As each children has kept the pets equal to
(a) 412/455 (b) 434/455
the number of kids in the family, each family has n2 pets.
(c) 449/455 (d) 438/455
So total 22 32 42 52 62 90
346. There is a set of 36 distinct points on a plane with the
following characteristics:
* There is a subset A consisting of fourteen collinear
points.
* Any subset of three or more collinear points from the 36
are a subset of A.
How many distinct triangles with positive area can be
formed with each of its vertices being one of the 36
points? (Two triangles are said to be distinct if at least one
of the vertices is different)
(a) 7140 (b) 4774 (c) 1540 (d) 6776
Ans: [d]
The given data indicates that 14 points are collinear and
remaining 22 points are non collinear. A triangle can be
formed by taking 1 points from 14 and 2 points from 22
(or) 2 points from 14 and 1 points from 22 (or) 3 points
from 22
14C1 22C2 14C2 22C1 22C3 6776
347. In the town of Unevenville, it is a tradition to have the size
of the front wheels of every cart different from that of the
rear wheels. They also have special units to measure cart
wheels which is called uneve. The circumference of the
front wheel of a cart is 133 uneves and that of the back
wheel is 190 uneves. What is the distance traveled by the
cart in uneves, when the front wheel has done nine more
revolutions than the rear wheel (in uneves)?
(a) 570 (b) 1330 (c) 3990 (d) 399
Ans: [c]
LCM of 133 and 190 is 1330. So to cover this distance,
front wheel takes 10 rounds, and back wheel takes 7
rounds.
So far 3 rounds extra, 1330 unevens distance has to be
travelled. To take 9 rounds extra, 1330 × 3 = 3990
unevens has to be travelled.
READING COMPREHENSION Q1. What is understood by ‘mental health
disruptions’?
Read the passage and answer the following
questions. A. Abnormal functioning of the mind
B. Extreme illness of the mind and the body
Mental health can affect daily living, C. Disorientation of the rain
relationships and physical health. Factors in D. Lack of coordination between the brain and
people’s lives, interpersonal connections and other parts of the body
biological factors can all contribute to mental Answer: A
health disruptions. Looking after mental health
can preserve a person’s ability to enjoy life. Q2. Which is not true according to the passage?
Doing this involves reaching a balance between
life activities, responsibilities and efforts to A. Social and financial circumstances, biological
achieve psychological resilience. Conditions factors, and lifestyle choices cannot shape a
such as stress, depression and anxiety can all person’s mental health.
affect mental health and disrupt a person’s B. Mental health involves reaching a balance
routine. Although mental health is in everyday between life activities, responsibilities and
use, many conditions that doctors recognize as efforts to achieve psychological resilience.
psychological disorders have physical roots. C. Preserving and restoring mental health is
crucial on an individual basis, as well as
Mental health is about not only avoiding active throughout different communities and societies
conditions but also looking after ongoing the world over.
wellness and happiness. Preserving and
restoring mental health is crucial on an D. Mental health is about not only avoiding
individual basis and throughout different active conditions, but also looking after
communities and societies the world over. In ongoing wellness and happiness.
the United States, the National Alliance on Answer: A
Mental Illnesses estimates that almost 1 in 5
adults experience mental health problems each
year.
According to the National Institute of Mental Q3. What is the tone of the passage?
Health (NIMH), in 2017, an estimated 11.2
million adults in the USor about 4.5 % of adults, A. Prescribing
had a severe psychological condition. Everyone B. Incendiary
has some risk of developing a mental health C. Laudatory
disorder, no matter their age, sex, income or D. Analytical
ethnicity. In the US and much of the developed Answer: D
world, mental health disorders are one of the
leading causes of disability. Social and financial Q4. What do you mean by “Mental health is
circumstances, biological factors, and lifestyle about not only avoiding active conditions but
choices can all shape a person’s mental well- also looking after ongoing wellness and
being. A large proportion of people with a happiness”?
mental health disorder have more than one
condition at a time. It is important to note that A. Mental health care is about looking after
good mental health depends on a delicate ongoing wellness and happiness on a day-to-
balance of factors and the world at large can day basis.
work together to contribute to disorders. B. Mental health care is about treatment of
active mental health disruptions as well as
general mental well- being. Q1. Which statement is CORRECT according to
C. Mental health care is not about taking care of the passage?
mental disruptions but bodily diseases.
D. Mental health care is about avoiding active A. Research about vaccines is not reliable
mental disruptions only. B. All pandemics are not to be feared
Answer: B C. Pandemics keep occurring periodically
D. There is no solution for a pandemic
Q2. Read the passage given below and Answer: C
answer the questions.
Q3.(1-6) Directions: Read the following
It’s apparently humankind’s fate never to stop passage carefully and answer the questions.
writing the history of pandemics. No matter
how often they occur - and they do occur with The English language in education today is all-
great frequency - we collectively refuse to think pervasive. “Hear more English, speak more
about them until circumstances demand it. English and become more successful” has
Then, when the immediate crisis passes, we put become a self-fulfilling prophecy. Some say it’s
it out of our minds as quickly as possible. And already a universal language, ahead of other
so, we again are unprepared when the next mother tongues such as Arabic, Chinese,
contagion - in this case, COVID-19 - bursts upon Russian, Spanish or French. In reality, of
us. Richard Conniff traces this alarming cycle in course, this has been centuries in the making.
“How devastating pandemics change us,” this Colonial conquest and global trade routes won
month’s cover story. It examines our long the hearts and minds of foreign education
relationship with infectious diseases, from the systems. These days, the power of English has
hard lessons we’ve been forced to learn to the become accepted wisdom, used to justify the
brave, and often difficult, characters who’ve globalisation of education at the cost of existing
risked their lives to save us. systems in non-English- speaking countries.
The British Council exemplifies this, with its
Smallpox taught us that we could prevent global presence and approving references to
disease through inoculation and, as the 1700s the “English effect” on educational and
ended, vaccination. By the mid-1800s, cholera’s employment prospects.
lesson was about sanitation and the need for
centralized water and sewer systems. About In non-English countries the packaging of
the same time, one man we’ve all heard of, English and its promise of success takes many
Louis Pasteur, and one many of us haven’t, forms. Instead of being integrated into (or
Robert Koch, became the co-fathers of germ added to) national teaching curricula, English
theory. Tools they created are still used to language learning institutes, language courses
identify and fight what Conniff calls “an and international education standards can
astonishing rogues’ gallery of deadly dominate whole systems. Schools in non-
pathogens.” English-speaking countries attract globally
ambitious parents and their children with a mix
And yet here we are, again, fighting on two of national and international curricula. The love
fronts: the first, against a new coronavirus of all things English begins at a young age in
sweeping the planet to devastating effect; the non-English-speaking countries, promoted by
second, with each other, over domestic and pop culture, Hollywood movies, fast-food
international politics and whether we’re willing brands, sports events and TV shows. Later,
to pay the price of prevention. with English skills and international education
It’s an important question for our planet. While qualifications from high school, the path is laid
we debate, the next pandemic draws nearer. to prestigious international universities in the
English- speaking world and employment
opportunities at home and abroad. But those religion, nationalism, Gotong Royong
opportunities aren’t distributed equally across (collective voluntary work), independence and
socioeconomic groups. Global education in integrity. These are not necessarily measurable
English is largely reserved for middle-class by conventional, Western, English-speaking
students. This is creating a divide between and empirical means.
those inside the global English proficiency
ecosystem and those relegated to parts of the Q1.Refer to the sentence: These days, the
education system where such opportunities power of English has become accepted wisdom,
don’t exist. For the latter there is only the used to justify the globalisation of education at
national education curriculum and the lesson the cost of existing systems in non-English-
that social mobility is a largely unattainable speaking countries. What does the author seek
goal. to convey through the sentence?
Indonesia presents a good case study. With a A – Although diversity is a major goal of global
population of 268 million, access to English education, the prevalence of English has led to
language curricula has mostly been limited to the degradation of education systems in non-
urban areas and middle-class parents who can English-speaking countries.
afford to pay for private schools. At the turn of B – The English language has become a unifying
this century, all Indonesian districts were force for various countries.
mandated to have at least one public school C – The significance of English is widely
offering a globally recognised curriculum in accepted and it has undermined existing
English to an international standard. But in education systems in non-English-speaking
2013 this was deemed unconstitutional countries.
because equal educational opportunity should D – The dominance of English in global
exist across all public schools. Nevertheless, education has led to deterioration of quality.
today there are 219 private schools offering at Answer: C
least some part of the curriculum through
Cambridge International, and 38 that identify Q2.What is the primary purpose of the author
as Muslim private schools. Western in the second paragraph of the passage?
international curricula remain influential in A – to highlight how unequal access to English
setting the standard for what constitutes may be associated with the class divide
quality education. B – to highlight the difference in quality of
private and government schools
Academic performance measured by C – to highlight the need to provide access to
knowledge and skill is, of course, still important English language to every socio- economic class
and a source of personal fulfilment. But without D – to highlight the overwhelming focus on
that cultural balance and the nurturing of English instead of local languages
positive character traits, it lacks deeper Answer: A
meaning. A regulation issued by the Indonesian
minister of education in 2018 underlined this. Q3.Based on the information given in the
It listed a set of values and virtues that school passage, it is clear that ______.
education should foster: faith, honesty, A - English language should be accepted as the
tolerance, discipline, hard work, creativity, global medium of education as European
independence, democracy, curiosity, countries have fared better in terms of
nationalism, patriotism, appreciation, education.
communication, peace, a love of reading, B - If English becomes the global language, we
environmental awareness, social awareness may end up losing better ways of learning.
and responsibility.These have been simplified C - English is often seen as a passport to
to five basic elements of character education: success in many non-English-speaking
countries.
D - There is a need to focus on other education SENTENCE COMPLETION
systems that only use English in a limited way.
Answer: C Q1. Read the following passage and fill in
the blanks by selecting the most
Q4.As per the passage, which of the following appropriate option.
statements is TRUE?
Did you know that most of the mothers in the
A - The inability to communicate coherently in animal kingdom feed on their new borns? It
the mother tongue limits the chances of comes as a 1 for many humans who have
success. always overly 2 the role of a mother. The
B - The English language may dominate the animal kingdom, especially the species of the
education system but pop culture is still lower strata like reptiles and insects , lack
dominated by regional languages. emotions like mammals.
C -Education systems of different countries are
based on different values and they understand Blank 1: a. shock b. revelation c. miracle
success in different ways. d. marvle
D - Access to English language may be uniform Blank 2: a. glorified b. amplified c.
but the access to global education is not. personified d. characterized
Answer: C A. 1-a, 2-b
B. 1-d, 2-a
Q5. Which of the following factors have C. 1-b, 2-a
contributed to the rise of English as a global D. 1-c, 2-b
language? Answer: B
Colonialism and dominance of trade routes by
English-speaking countries Q2. You are going to read a text about the
Dominance of the English language in the pop history of working women. Some sentences are
culture missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-
Better academic and employment C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap
opportunities are available to those proficient (1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence
in English that you do not need to use.
A - Only 1
B - Only 2 and 3 Women started working in the time of the war
C - Only 1 and 3 during the period of 1914-1918 and 1939-
D - All 1, 2 and 3 1945, when the need of the hour was
Answer: D manpower at the factories and other industries.
1. While their husbands and brothers were
Q6. Which of the following is the opposite in away at war, women fulfilled their new roles,
meaning to the word ‘unattainable’ 2. Many other women were inspired by those
as used in the passage? women who were able to perform both the
A - Convivial roles adeptly. A much greater increase in the
B - exuberant percentile of working women was seen after
C - esoteric the industrial revolution, when the industrial
D - feasible society was doing extremely well.
Answer: D
A. Back at home, they were still performing
their own roles which were looking after kids,
running the house, etc.
B. Women came out of their houses and picked
up shovels
C. Industrial revolution empowered women A. 1-B, 2-A
and gave them more freedom of thought B. 1-B, 2-B
C. 1-D, 2-B
A. 1-A, 2-A D. 1-A, 2-C
B. 1-B, 2-A Answer: A
C. 1-C, 2-A
D. 1-B, 2-C Q5. Read the following passage and fill in
Answer: B the blanks by selecting the more
appropriate options.
Q3.You are going to read a text about
transformation of self. Some sentences are The main cause of teachers leaving the
missing from the text. Choose from the list (A- workforce is not tough and rigid work contract
C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap in schools, but is poor working condition
(1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence meagre salaries.
that you do not need to use.
Blank 1: A. rather B. however
Transformation is usually painful because it C. so D. then
involves a process, a means to find an end. 1____ Blank 2: A. aroused B. worsened
In pain is our true enlightenment as our crucial C. aided D. eased
lessons are learnt here. 2____For humans,
evolution is painfully slow as we take the A. 1-A and 2-B
longest to learn. B. -B and 2-B
Attainment, on the other hand, is happiness C. 1-A and 2-D
because you gained what you wanted. D. 1-D and 2-C
Without process, however, there is no Answer: 1-A 2-C (Not in option)
achievement, so there is no gain without pain.
How long the process continues will depend on Q6. Select the most appropriate option to fill
how fast we learn our lessons. in the blank.
A. (1)-A, (2)-B Almost all colonial buildings have been so
B. (1)-A, (2)-C altered and developed that their_____structure
C. (1)-C, (2)-B is no longer______.
D. (1)-B, (2)-C
Answer: D A. external, necessary
B. original, recognisable
Q4.Read the following passage and fill in the C. main, found
blanks by selecting the more appropriate D. Internal, attractive
options. Answer: B
By 2025, marketing campaigns 1. relied on Q7. You are going to read a text. Parts of two
Artificial Intelligence to enhance customer sentences are missing from the text. Choose
experience. Companies will be communicating from the list (A-C) the most appropriate part to
their complete the sentence for each gap (1-2) in the
2. only through personalised and curated text. There is one extra part that you do not
content. need to use.
Blank 1: A. will B. will have C. would D. wil
being Those who are concerned about society may be
Blank 2: A. uniqueness B. marketing C. future D. troubled by the idea of overdependence on
products technology_____(1)_____ We have made
technology our primary religion and This can pave the way for more innovative and
culture.____(2)_____ cost-efficient treatment.
This practice increases the costs of collecting,
A. It has started to overtake us because it has storing and analysing data.
crippled our ability to keep a track of events
around us. A. 1-A, 2-C
B. Our new religion and culture is making us B. 1-B, 2-A
more confident and productive. C. 1-B, 2-C
C. Our deviation from our roots affects our D. 1-C, 2-A
ability to trust each other. Answer: D
Q10.Read the following paragraph and fill in
A. (1) B and (2) C the blanks by selecting the appropriate words.
B. (1) C and (2) A The cost of production of electricity has
C. (1) A and (2) B increased in the last two years. Because of high
D. (1) A and (2) C production changes, the government
Answer: D has____1_____the people to reduce their
electricity _____2______. Hopefully, the
Q8.The following sentence pair can be situation will be at ease in the coming years.
combined into one better sentence. Choose the
option that combines the two sentences best. Blank 1: A. persuaded B. funded
C. resulted D. convinced
I completed the assignment. I submitted the Blank 2: A. connection B. consumption
assignment. C. station D. meter
A. 1-D, 2-C
A. I completed but submitted the assignment B. 1-C, 2-D
B. I completed the assignment and submitted it C. 1-A, 2-B
C. I completed the assignment, however, I D. 1-B, 2-A
submitted the assignment Answer: C
D. Although I completed the assignment, I
submitted the assignment Q11.Read the following paragraph and fill in
Answer: B the blanks by selecting the appropriate words.
Q9. You are going to read a text. Partes of two There are many hobbies that one can practise
sentences are missing from the text. Choose for leisure. Travelling for exploration can be
from the list (A-C) the most appropriate part to one of the most ____1_____.hobbies one can
complete the sentence for each gap (1-2) in the practise. Nevertheless, it is the most expensive
text. There is one extra part that you do not too, as nowadays the airfares are _____2._____.
need to use. However, one can still explore cheaper options
and nearby destinations for travelling.
In order to conduct clinical trials of medical
treatments, scientists gather a huge amount of Blank 1: A. nourishing B. glorifying
information of their patients. ____1____ Some C. dissatisfying D. fulfilling
researchers argue that medical research can be Blank 2: A. distribution B. refunding
massively improved by a shift toward artificial C. decreasing D. skyrocketing
Intelligence. ___2 ____
A. 1-A, 2-B
This can result in more efficient and less B. 1-D, 2-A
complicated clinical trials of medical C. 1-B, 2-C
treatments. D. 1-D, 2-D
Answer: D
Q12. Read the following sentence and fill in the cherish and an asset to protect. 2_____Eating
blank by selecting the appropriate word. healthy, having ample sleep, and not indulging
The most obvious evil of the advertisement in smoking or drinking are a few of the rules of
industry lies in the exaggerated _____________of good health.
the products actual goodness.
A. misinformation It is human nature to disregard everything that
B.determination is easily available to them.
C. judgement We must make efforts to keep our lifestyle in
D. portrayal accordance with the rules of good health.
Answer: A We should also pay visits to the doctor for
complete body check-ups at regular intervals.
A. (1)-C, (2)-A
Q14. You are going to read a text about anger
management. Some sentences are missing from B. (1)-A, (2)-B
the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most C. (1)-B, (2)-A
appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the D. (1)-C, (2)-B
text. Answer: B
There is one extra sentence/part that you do Q16. You are going to read a text supplements.
not need to use. Some sentences are missing from the text.
Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate
Loving someone and receiving love are sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text. There is
essential elements in emotional health._____ one extra sentence/part that you do not need
1______People tend to harbour resentment and to use.
hatred against someone who wronged them.
They would be surprised to see how close they When one takes calcium supplement, one must
feel to that person after releasing their negative also make sure that diet is rich in vitamin D,
emotions and energy.____2 ______. 1______. If there is not sufficient vitamin D
intake, body does not generate hormone
But expressing anger instead of repressing it is calcitriol. Then the body starts to take calcium
also necessary to vent frustration. from its deposits in the skeleton,____2 _____.
This helps in building trust and mutual respect
for others. A. because this vitamin makes the absorption of
If only people can learn the art of managing the calcium possible
their anger and resentment. B. because this vitamin is also very good for
bone health
A. 1-C, 2-A C. which weakens existing bone and gradually
B. 1-A, 2-C diminishes whole structure
C. 1-A, 2-B
D. 1-B, 2-A A. 1-A, 2-B
Answer: D B. 1-C, 2-A
C. 1-A, 2-C
Q15. You are going to read about Health. Some D. 1-B, 2-C
sentences are missing from the text. Choose Answer: C
from the list (A -C) the most appropriate
sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text. There is Q17. The following sentence pair can be
one extra sentence that you do NOT need to use combined into one better sentence. Choose the
. option that combines the two sentences best
We do not understand the value of good health without changing the meaning.
until is lost 1_____Good health is a blessing to
The father was happy on his son’s birthday. A. 1-A and 2-B
The son was feeding hundred poor men instead B. 1-A and 2-D
of throwing a birthday party. C. 1-D and 2-B
D. 1-C and 2-D
A. The father was happy to see his son feeding Answer: D
hundred poor men on his birthday instead of
throwing a birthday party. Q20.Select the most appropriate option to
B. The father was happy to see his son throwing fill in the blank
a birthday party instead of feeding hundred
poor men. Not only did_____late, but he was also
C. The father was happy on his son’s birthday, completely unprepared and looked as though
so the son was feeding hundred poor men he had_____that kind of task before.
instead of throwing a birthday party.
D. The father was happy to see his son feeding A. he came, never saw
hundred poor men on his birthday and B. he come, never seen
throwing a birthday party. C. he is, never see
Answer: A D. he was, never seen
Answer: B
Q18.Complete the given sentence by filling in
the blanks with the most appropriate pair of Q21. You are going to read a text about
words from the options given. counselling. Some sentences are missing from
the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most
Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International airport is appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the
likely to throw open_____fourth runway for text.
operations in There is one extra sentence/part that you do
September_____year. not need to use.
A. the / that
B. its / this Confidence is the key to success in the sports
C. their / previous industry. A player who sustains injury during a
D. its / last match may tend to lose his
Answer: B confidence____1____in such a situation a sports
psychologist can help immensely ____2___.
Q19.Read the following paragraph and fill in Counsellors have a better grip over the players
the blanks by selecting the appropriate words. with sports injuries. That is why they are
extremely important to be included in a team.
If you are a public figure and enjoy some
popularity, it becomes imperative for you A. He can help clear out the mental scars and
to____1 directly with your followers. This help the player restore his lost confidence
allows you to communicate your feelings and B. He helps young athletes mental skills to
opinion candidly and_____2 information enhance their performance
authentically. When there is a medium between C. As a result, he may not be able to perform at
you and your fan base, information is filtered the same pace again
and edited without your control.
A. 1-C, 2-A
Blank 1: A. entertain B. encourage B. 1-B, 2-C
C. engage D. encounter C. 1-C, 2-B
Blank 2: A. give B. pass D. 1-A, 2-B
C. write D. disseminate Answer: A
Q22. You are going to read a text. Some parts of Q24. Some sentences are missing from the
sentences are missing from the text. Choose given text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most
from the list (A -C) the most appropriate appropriate for each gap (1-2) in the text.
sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text. There is There is one extra sentence/part that you do
one extra sentence that you do NOT need to use not need to use.
.
Krupabai Satthianadhan was India’s pioneering
In recent years, there has been a growing trend writer in English.____1____ She also authored a
among young children to rely heavily on a diet novel Saguna--A story of Native Christian life.
of junk food. Once addicted, ____1_____it is ____2_____ Krupabai then went on to write
essential, therefore,_____2_____ another novel Kamala--A story of Hindu Life
before her untimely death at the age of 31. This
A. that parents encourage healthy eating from was published posthumously.
an early age.
B. that parents make them informed about food A. A native of the Bombay Presidency, she
decisions. wrote articles for periodicals under the by-line
C. they find it extremely difficult to change this An Indian Lady.
habit later in life. B. Queen Victoria is believed to have read this
A. (1) B and (2) A novel and been impressed.
B. (1) B and (2) C C. Krupbai received a scholarship to study
C. (1) A and (2) C medicine in the Madras Medical College.
D. (1) C and (2) A
Answer: D A. (1)-A, (2)-B
B. (1)-A, (2)-C
Q23. The following sentence can be redrafted C. (1)-C, (2)-A
to make it read better. Choose the sentence that D. (1)-B, (2)-C
is the best answer. Answer: A
I have been a counsellor for 5 yrs now, but I can Q25. The following sentence can be revised into
say I have learned much more from my one better sentence. Choose the sentence that
interactions with clients than the theories I is the best answer.
read in books. The principal met the students. The principal
had won an award.
A. On being a counsellor for 5 yrs now, but I can
say I have learned much more from my A. The principal met the students and they had
interactions with clients than the theories I won an award.
read in books. B. The principal who had won an award met
B.Since being a counsellor for 5 yrs now, but I the students.
can say I have learned much more from my
C. The principal met the students who had won
interactions with clients than the theories I an award.
read in books. D. The principal met the students and won an
C. After being a counsellor for 5 yrs now, but I award.
can say I have learned much more from my Answer: B
interactions with clients than the theories I
read in books.
D. Having been a counsellor for 5 yrs now, but I
can say I have learned much more from my
interactions with clients than the theories I
read in books.
Answer: D
ERROR IDENTIFICATION
A. to head to the Principal’s office
Q1. One part of the sentence below may contain B. All the students of the class decided
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, C.to complain for the new teacher’s misconduct
please choose ‘No error’. D. No error
Answer: C
Riya finally declined the proposal which she
were eagerly waiting for. Q5.One part of the sentence below may contain
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error,
A. She were eagerly waiting for. please choose ‘No error’.
B. No error.
C. Riya finally declined The soldiers, in an attempt of showing their
D. the proposal which loyalty towards their king, fought ruthlessly
Answer: A until the end of war.
Q2. One part of the sentence below may contain A. No error
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, B. fought ruthlessly until the end of war.
please choose ‘No error’. C. The soldiers, in an attempt of showing
D. their loyalty towards their king,
As little pieces of debris and space-dust burn Answer: C
up in Earth’s atmosphere, it causes spectacular Q6.The part of the sentence below may contain
shooting stars. an error. Identify the part. If there is no error,
choose ‘No error’.
A. No error
B. It causes spectacular shooting stars World Health Organisation must intensify their
C. As little pieces of debris and space-dust efforts to vaccinate people in African countries.
D. burn up in Earth’s atmosphere
Answer: B A. World Health Organisation must
B. people in African countries.
Q3. One part of the sentence below may contain C. No error
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, D. intensify their efforts to vaccinate
please choose ‘No error’. Answer: D
As little pieces of debris and space-dust burn Q7. The part of the sentence below may contain
up in Earth’s atmosphere, it causes spectacular an error. Identify the part. If there is no error,
shooting stars. choose ‘No error’.
A. No error A paramedic is expected to be highly skilled
B. It causes spectacular shooting stars into dealing with emergency patients.
C. As little pieces of debris and space-dust
D. burn up in Earth’s atmosphere A. highly skilled into dealing with
Answer: B B. No error
C. emergency patients
Q4.One part of the sentence below may contain D. A paramedic is expected to be
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, Answer: A
please choose ‘No error’.
Q8. The part of the sentence below may contain
All the students of the class decided to head to an error. Identify the part. If there is no error,
the Principal’s office to complain for the new choose ‘No error’.
teacher’s misconduct.
The rise in the price of oil and an increase in Q12. One part of the sentence below may
demand has forced some farmers to harvest oil contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
crops for biofuels. error, choose ‘No error’.
A. farmers to produce oil crops for biofuels. Everyone has been talking about how well he
B. No error plays a guitar.
C. in demand has forced some A. No error.
D. The rise in the price of oil and an increase B. Everyone has been talking
Answer: C C. about how well
D. he plays a guitar.
Answer: D
Q9. One part of the sentence below may contain
an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, Q13. One part of the sentence below may
choose ‘No error’. contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
A sociologist studies the ways in which people error, choose ‘No error’.
live together, raise their family and follow
community structures and customs. The art of good film-making lies into knowing
where to focus your camera.
A. and follow community structures and
customs. A. where to focus your camera.
B. A sociologist study the ways in which B. lies into knowing
C. people live together, raise their family C. No error
D. No error D. The art of good film-making
Answer: B Answer: B
Q10. One part of the sentence below may Q14. One part of the sentence below may
contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
error, choose ‘No error’. error, choose ‘No error’.
May you carry these books for me, please? By analysing the sediment from the Bay of
Bengal, researchers are finding that the present
A. No error Indian monsoon system dates back at least 27
B. carry these books million years.
C. for me, please?
D. May you A. that the present Indian monsoon system
Answer: D B. researches are finding
C. dates back at least 27 million years
Q11. One part of the sentence below may D. By analysing the sediment from the Bay of
contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no Bengal,
error, choose ‘No error’. Answer: B
Neither of them are going to attend the meeting Q15. One part of the sentence below may
contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
A. No error error, choose ‘No error’.
B. going to
C. Neither of them are When Shailja will come, we will have to talk
D. attend the meeting about the issue together.
Answer: C
A. No error SYNONYMS
B. about the issue together.
C. we will have to talk Q1.In the following question, out of the four
D. When Shailja will come, alternatives, choose the one which best
Answer: D expresses the meaning of the given word.
Q16. One part of the sentence below may Overjoyed
contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no
error, choose ‘No error’. A - Guarantee
B - Respectable
Real Madrid brilliantly played against C - Ecstatic
Barcelona last night. D - Objective
Solution
A. brilliantly played (c) is the correct answer. OVERJOYED means
B. against Barcelona last night. ‘extremely happy’. ECSTATIC is its synonym.
C. Real Madrid Guarantee- Assurance, Respectable- regarded
D. No error. to be good, Objective- Aim.
Answer: A
ANTONYMS
Q17. One part of the sentence below may
contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no Q1.In the following question, choose the word
error, choose ‘No error’. opposite in meaning to the given word.
Tyrion Lannister is better of the two advisors Indigent
of the queen.
A - Wealthy
A. Tyrion Lannister is better B - Suffered
B. of the queen C - Subject
C. No error D - Opportunity
D. of the two advisors Solution
Answer: C (a) is the correct answer. INDIGENT means
poor or needy. WEALTHY is its antonym.
Q18.Select the part of the sentence with error. Suffered- Undergone, Subject- Issue,
Opportunity- Chance.
Since sunrise to sunset my grandmother would
sit by her wheel spinning and reciting prayers. Fill in the Blanks
A. No error Q1.Read the following passage and fill in the
B. My grandmother would sit by her wheel blanks by selecting the most appropriate
C. Spinning and reciting prayers option.
D. Since sunrise to sunset
1.Experts warn that tourists should stay as far
Answer: D
away as possible from wild elephants. They do
not look violent or ____ 1 _____when compared
to the big cats. But, a five ton _____2_____
elephant can do serious damage.
Blank 1: a. provoking b. angry
c. powerful d. threatening
Blank 2: a. excited b. enraged
c. pacific d. roaring
A. 1-c, 2-b always overly __2__ the role of a mother. The
B. 1-b, 2-a animal kingdom, especially the species of the
C. 1-a, 2-b lower strata like reptiles and insects, lack
D. 1-d, 2-b emotions like mammals.
Answer: A
Blank 1: a. shock b. revelation
Q2.Sailing is fun. But it takes work and muscles c. miracle d. marvle
to keep the sailboat moving. One will have to Blank 2: a. glorified b. amplified
constantly ___1___ the weather and adjust the c. personified d. characterised
sails to turn the boat in the required direction. A. 1-a, 2-b
It also takes a lot of ___2___ to raise the mast and B. 1-d, 2-a
sails before you start enjoying the freedom of C. 1-b, 2-a
exploring new places in your sailboat. D. 1-c, 2-b
Answer: B
Blank 1: a. search b. scrutinize
c. check d. scan Q7.Kamlesh wanted to argue and __________ to
Blank 2: a. attempt b. effort rebel, but the fear of Mr. Rattan, his teacher,
c. strive d. endeavor always stopped him.
A. 1-c, 2-b
B. 1-b, 2-a A. longed
C. 1-c, 2-d B. is longing
D. 1-a, 2-a C. has longed
Answer: B D. longs
Answer: C
Q3.Abdul is confident ____ the scholarship.
Q8.Rathan than ________ stones on the mad man,
A. of winning people should be ____ with him and providing
B. to win him with the appropriate treatment.
C. in winning
D. for winning A. pelting, sympathized
Answer: A B. pelting, sympathizing
Q4.The train arrived ____ time. C. pelted, sympathizing
A. After D. pelt, sympathize
B. by Answer: B
C. at
D. on Q9.You are going to read a text about the
Answer: D history of working women. Some sentences are
missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-
Q5.The world __________ for the vaccines eagerly C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap
before they were launched last month. (1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence
A. have been waiting that you do not need to use. Women started
B. was waiting working in the time of the war during the
C. has been waiting period of 1914-1918 and 1939-1945, when the
D. had been waiting need of the hour was manpower at the
Answer: D factories and other industries. ___1___ While
their husbands and brothers were away at war,
Q6.Did you know that most of the mothers in women fulfilled their new roles, ___2___. Many
the animal kingdom feed on their new borns? It other women were inspired by those women
comes as a __1__ for many humans who have who were able to perform both the roles
adeptly. A much greater increase in the Blank 1: A. will B. will have C. would D. wil
percentile of working women was seen after being
the industrial revolution, when the industrial Blank 2: A. uniqueness B. marketing C. future
society was doing extremely well. D. products
A. Back at home, they were still performing A. 1-B, 2-A
their own roles which were looking after kids, B. 1-B, 2-B
running the house, etc. C. 1-D, 2-B
B. Women came out of their houses and picked D. 1-A, 2-C
up shovels Answer: A
C. Industrial revolution empowered women
and gave them more freedom of thought Q12. Read the following passage and fill in the
blanks by selecting the more appropriate
A. 1-A, 2-A options. The main cause of teachers leaving the
B. 1-B, 2-A workforce is not tough and rigid work contract
C. 1-C, 2-A in schools, but _________ is poor working
D. 1-B, 2-C condition__________ meagre salaries.
Answer: B
Blank 1: A. rather B. however C. so D.
Q10. You are going to read a text about then
transformation of self. Some sentences are Blank 2: A. aroused B. worsened C. aided D.
missing from the text. Choose from the list (A- eased
C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap
(1-2) in the text. There is one extra sentence A. 1-A and 2-B
that you do not need to use. Transformation is B. 1-B and 2-B
usually painful because it involves a process, a C. 1-A and 2-D
means to find an end. 1 ___________ In pain is our D. 1-A and 2-C
true enlightenment as our crucial lessons are Answer: D
learnt here. 2 ______________ For humans,
evolution is painfully slow as we take the Q13. Almost all colonial buildings have been so
longest to learn. altered and developed that their _________
structure is no longer ______.
A. Attainment, on the other hand, is happiness
because you gained what you wanted. A. external, necessary
B. Without process, however, there is no B. original, recognisable
achievement, so there is no gain without pain. C. main, found
C. How long the process continues will depend D. Internal, attractive
on how fast we learn our lessons. Answer: B
A. (1)-A, (2)-B Q14. You are going to read a text. Parts of two
B. (1)-A, (2)-C sentences are missing from the text. Choose
C. (1)-C, (2)-B from the list (A-C) the most appropriate part to
D. (1)-B, (2)-C complete the sentence for each gap (1-2) in the
Answer: D text. There is one extra part that you do not
need to use.Those who are concerned about
Q11. By 2025, marketing campaigns ___1___ society may be troubled by the idea of
relied on Artificial Intelligence to enhance overdependence on technology ____(1)_____ We
customer experience. Companies will be have made technology our primary religion and
communicating their ___2___ only through culture. _____(2)______
personalised and curated content.
A. It has started to overtake us because it has Blank 1: A. persuaded B. funded C. resulted D.
crippled our ability to keep a track of events convinced
around us. Blank 2: A. connection B. consumption C.
B. Our new religion and culture is making us station D. meter
more confident and productive.
C. Our deviation from our roots affects our A. 1-D, 2-C
ability to trust each other. B. 1-C, 2-D
C. 1-A, 2-B
A. (1) B and (2) C D. 1-B, 2-A
B. (1) C and (2) A Answer: C
C. (1) A and (2) B
D. (1) A and (2) C Q17. Select the most appropriate option to fill
Answer: D in the blank
Q15. You are going to read a text. Partes of two Eagles can fly _______ sparrows.
sentences are missing from the text. Choose
from the list (A-C) the most appropriate part to A. taller than
complete the sentence for each gap (1-2) in the B. higher than
text. There is one extra part that you do not C. taller then
need to use. In order to conduct clinical trials of D. higher then
medical treatments, scientists gather a huge Answer: B
amount of information of their patients. ___1___
Some researchers argue that medical research Q18. Read the following paragraph and fill in
can be massively improved by a shift toward the blanks by selecting the appropriate words.
artificial Intelligence. ___2___. There are many hobbies that one can practise
for leisure. Travelling for exploration can be
A. This can result in more efficient and less one of the most 1.___________ hobbies one can
complicated clinical trials of medical practise. Nevertheless, it is the most expensive
treatments. too, as nowadays the airfares are 2.________.
B. This can pave the way for more innovative However, one can still explore cheaper options
and cost-efficient treatment. and nearby destinations for travelling.
C. This practice increases the costs of
collecting, storing and analysing data. Blank 1: A. nourishing B. glorifying C.
dissatisfying D. fulfilling
A. 1-A, 2-C Blank 2: A. distribution B. refunding C.
B. 1-B, 2-A decreasing D. skyrocketing
C. 1-B, 2-C
D. 1-C, 2-A A. 1-A, 2-B
Answer: D B. 1-D, 2-A
C. 1-B, 2-C
Q16. Read the following paragraph and fill in D. 1-D, 2-D
the blanks by selecting the appropriate words. Answer: D
The cost of production of electricity has Q19.Read the following sentence and fill in the
increased in the last two years. Because of high blank by selecting the appropriate word.
production changes, the government has ___1___ The most obvious evil of the advertisement
the people to reduce their electricity ___2___. industry lies in the exaggerated ___________ of
Hopefully, the situation will be at ease in the the products actual goodness.
coming years.
A. misinformation good health until is lost 1 _______ Good health is
B. determination a blessing to cherish and an asset to protect. 2
C. judgement ________Eating healthy, having ample sleep, and
D. portrayal not indulging in smoking or drinking are a few
Answer: A of the rules of good health.
Q20.Read the following sentence and fill in the A. It is human nature to disregard everything
blank by selecting the appropriate word. that is easily available to them.
It is not easy to __________ the profoundness of a B. We must make efforts to keep our lifestyle in
mother’s love for her child. accordance with the rules of good health.
C. We should also pay visits to the doctor for
A. overestimate
complete body check-ups at regular intervals.
B. fluctuate
C. equate
D. evaluate A. (1)-C, (2)-A
Answer: C B. (1)-A, (2)-B
Q21. You are going to read a text about anger C. (1)-B, (2)-A
management. Some sentences are missing from D. (1)-C, (2)-B
the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most Answer: B
appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the
text. There is one extra sentence/part that you Q23.You are going to read a text supplements.
do not need to use. Loving someone and Some sentences are missing from the text.
receiving love are essential elements in Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate
emotional health. _______1_______ People tend to sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text.
harbour resentment and hatred against
someone who wronged them. They would be There is one extra sentence/part that you do
surprised to see how close they feel to that not need to use. When one takes calcium
person after releasing their negative emotions supplement, one must also make sure that diet
and energy. ________2________ is rich in vitamin D, ___1___. If there is not
sufficient vitamin D intake, body does not
A. But expressing anger instead of repressing it generate hormone calcitriol. Then the body
is also necessary to vent frustration. starts to take calcium from its deposits in the
B. This helps in building trust and mutual skeleton, ___2___
respect for others.
C. If only people can learn the art of managing A. because this vitamin makes the absorption of
their anger and resentment. the calcium possible
B. because this vitamin is also very good for
A. 1-C, 2-A bone health
B. 1-A, 2-C C. which weakens existing bone and gradually
C. 1-A, 2-B diminishes whole structure
D. 1-B, 2-A
A. 1-A, 2-B
Answer: D
B. 1-C, 2-A
Q22.You are going to read about Health. Some C. 1-A, 2-C
sentences are missing from the text. Choose D. 1-B, 2-C
from the list (A -C) the most appropriate Answer: C
sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text.
Q24. Complete the given sentence by filling in
There is one extra sentence that you do NOT the blanks with the most appropriate pair of
need to use. We do not understand the value of words from the options given.
Delhi’s Indira Gandhi International airport is A. he came, never saw
likely to throw open ________ fourth runway for B. he come, never seen
operations in September __________ year. C. he is, never see
D. he was, never seen
A. the / that Answer: B
B. its / this Q28. You are going to read a text about
C. their / previous counselling. Some sentences are missing from
D. its / last the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most
Answer: B appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the
text. There is one extra sentence/part that you
Q25. Select the most appropriate option to fill do not need to use.
in the blank
Confidence is the key to success in the sports
I wish someone ________ me to buy some sugar industry. A player who sustains injury during a
when we were all in the shop. match may tend to lose his confidence ___1___ in
such a situation a sports psychologist can help
A. remind immensely ___2___. Counsellors have a better
B. would remind grip over the players with sports injuries. That
C. reminds is why they are extremely important to be
D. reminded included in a team.
Answer: B
A. He can help clear out the mental scars and
Q26.Read the following paragraph and fill in help the player restore his lost confidence
the blanks by selecting the appropriate words. B. He helps young athletes mental skills to
enhance their performance
If you are a public figure and enjoy some C. As a result, he may not be able to perform at
popularity, it becomes imperative for you to the same pace again
___1___ directly with your followers. This allows
you to communicate your feelings and opinion
candidly and ___2___ information authentically. A. 1-C, 2-A
When there is a medium between you and your B. 1-B, 2-C
fan base, information is filtered and edited C. 1-C, 2-B
without your control. D. 1-A, 2-B
Answer: A
Blank 1: A. entertain B. encourage C. engage D.
encounter Q29.You are going to read a text. Some parts of
Blank 2: A. give B. pass C. write D. disseminate sentences are missing from the text. Choose
A. 1-A and 2-B from the list (A -C) the most appropriate
B. 1-A and 2-D sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text.
C. 1-D and 2-B
D. 1-C and 2-D There is one extra sentence that you do NOT
Answer: D need to use. In recent years, there has been a
growing trend among young children to rely
Q 27.Select the most appropriate option to fill heavily on a diet of junk food. Once addicted,
in the blank ___________ 1 _________ it is essential, therefore,
__________ 2 __________
Not only did ______ late, but he was also
completely unprepared and looked as though
he had ____ that kind of task before.
A. that parents encourage healthy eating from Krupabai Satthianadhan was India’s pioneering
an early age. writer in English. ____1____ She also authored a
B. that parents make them informed about food novel Saguna--A story of Native Christian life.
decisions. ___2___ Krupabai then went on to write another
C. they find it extremely difficult to change this novel Kamala--A story of Hindu Life before her
habit later in life. untimely death at the age of 31. This was
published posthumously.
A. (1) B and (2) A
B. (1) B and (2) C A. A native of the Bombay Presidency, she
C. (1) A and (2) C wrote articles for periodicals under the by-line
D. (1) C and (2) A An Indian Lady.
Answer: D B. Queen Victoria is believed to have read this
novel and been impressed.
Q30. Select the most appropriate option to fill C. Krupbai received a scholarship to study
in the blank. medicine in the Madras Medical College.
Let us wait ______ the clock strikes twelve. A. (1)-A, (2)-B
A. up to B. (1)-A, (2)-C
B. since C. (1)-C, (2)-A
C. until D. (1)-B, (2)-C
D. unless Answer: A
Answer: C
SENTENCE RE-ARRANGEMENT
Q31.Select the most appropriate option to fill in
the blank Q1.For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph,
I ___________ waiting for two hours and I cannot sentences S1 and S3 are given. From the
wait any longer. options P, Q and R, choose the appropriate
A. have been sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.
B. would been S1. The colour of the ocean is due to the
C. would have been absorption and scattering of the sunlight.
D. should be S2.
Answer: A S3.
S4. This water now scatters both blue and
Q32.Select the most appropriate option to fill in yellow light, producing the characteristic green
the blanks colour of the Atlantic Ocean.
P. When sunlight strikes the water, the red
Srikant _______ his corporate job and joined the wavelength is absorbed and blue wavelength is
TASC force to ____ his country. scattered, making the ocean appear blue.
A. relinquish; serve Q. However, in the case of the Atlantic Ocean,
B. has relinquish; served the decaying plants on the ocean bed release
C. relinquished; serve yellow pigments that dissolve in the water.
D. relinquished: served R. The colour of the water depends on the light
Answer: C scattered and substances dissolved in it.
Q33. Some sentences are missing from the A. PQ
given text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most B. QR
appropriate for each gap (1-2) in the text. C. RQ
There is one extra sentence/part that you do D. QP
not need to use. Answer: A
Q2.For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph, A. RQ
sentences S1 and S3 are given. From the B. QP
options P, Q and R, choose the appropriate C. RP
sentences for S2 and S3 respectively. D. PQ
S1. In the early years when long trade voyages Answer: A
were undertaken that would take months or
maybe even a year to reach the destination, Q4.For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph,
coconuts were granted a special place. sentences S1 and S3 are given. From the
S2. options P, Q and R, choose the appropriate
S3. sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.
S4. Its popularity has recently increased S1. Using data analytics has helped companies
although they were grown in tropical regions identify trends and purchase patterns at
for more than 4,500 yrs. various levels and helped customise various
P. By and large, the coconut water was drunk styles.
and the pulp eaten. S2.
Q. The best part of this fruit was that there S3.
were no chances of it going bad. S4. It is correct to say that many business
R. The voyages were rife with difficulties and owners will have a lot on their minds post
hardships lockdown and till the pandemic dies down.
P. Data analytics utilizes powerful algorithms to
A. RQ analyse current and past customer data to
B. PQ come up with solutions
C. QP Q. They have adapted to digitalization and
D. RP have customized their products in line with
Answer: B current trends
R. Low cost of implementing data analytics
Q3.For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph,
driven software is an added advantage
sentences S1 and S3 are given. From the
A. QP
options P, Q and R, choose the appropriate
B. RQ
sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.
C. QR
S1. Probably dating back to the early Neolithic
D. PR
and even the Palaeolithic age, the mythology of
Answer: A
Greek goddesses is considered to be the oldest
mythologies of the world, even a precursor to
Q5. For the four sentence (S1-S4) paragraph
Indo-European mythologies.
below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the
S2.
options P, Q and R choose the appropriate
S3.
sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.
S4. She was a symbol of regenerative powers of
S1. Some 200 km from Leh are the villages of
nature such as fertility, birth, rebirth and death.
Dha, Hanu, Garkone and Darchik on both sides
P. The Biblical snake is one of the many
of the Indus river, inhabited by the Buddhist
remaining symbols that demonise the old
Dard Tribes.
female snake death.
S2.
Q. It is largely been censored by the scientific
S3.
community and yet there is extensive reliable
S4. He added people of this region are
research on the subject.
culturally and linguistically different from
R. A 20th century archaeologist, Marija
those in other parts of Ladakh.
Gimbutas developed a theory on an evolved
P. The villages are together called the “Aryan
and pastrola Old European civilisation that
valley”
worshipped Goddesses in the form of a bird,
Q. “The word ‘Dard’ is derived from the
feline or a snake
Sanskrit word, ‘Daradas’, which means people the intelligence is debatable, this study surely
who live on hillsides”, said Virendra Bangroo, lifted the spirit of the Indian children.
assistant professor at Indira Gandhi National P. The study revealed that the Indian children
Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), who has were superior to the natives of other countries.
extensively researched on their lives. Q. This result was mighty surprising for many
R. There is also a line of thought that the education experts.
“Aryans of Ladakh” might have descended from R. If this is the truth, then why is there a brain
soldiers in Alexander’s army who had come to drain in India?
the region over 2,000 years ago.
A. RP A. QR
B. QP B. PQ
C. PR C. RP
D. PQ D. PR
Answer: D Answer: B
Q6.For the four sentence (S1-S4) paragraph Q8.For the four sentence (s1 to S4) paragraph
below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the given below, sentences S1 and S4 are given.
options P, Q and R choose the appropriate From the options P, Q and R, choose the
sentences for S2 and S3 respectively. appropriate sentences for S2 and S3
S1. When employees are constantly working for respectively.
a long time, they start getting influenced by S1. Research suggests that the price of products
others’ moods and vibes. and advertisements motivate customers to try
S2. out new products
S3. S2.
S4. But this emotional transfer also happens S3.
through digital communication. S4. Above all, the credibility of the source of the
P. This phenomenon is known as emotional advertised message affects the consumers
contagion. judgement of the performance risk associated
Q. Positive emotions lead to higher with the product being advertised.
productivity, creativity, and job performance. P. The conflicting findings may be due to the
R. Emotional contagion is most pronounced nature of advertisements
when employees are together physically. Q. The relationship between price and
perceived performance risk is also impacted by
A. PQ the presentation of an advertised message.
B. PR R. A relatively high price will reduce the
C. QP consumer’s perception of performance risk.
D. RP
Answer: B A. QP
B. QR
Q7. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph C. RQ
below, sentence S1 and S4 are given. From the D. PQ
options P,Q and R, choose the most appropriate Answer: A
sentences for S2 and S3 respectively.
S1. Recently a study was undertaken in the Q9.For the four sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph
school of the UK to ascertain which country’s given below, sentences S1 and S4 are given.
children have the highest IQ. From the options P, Q and R, choose the
S2. appropriate sentences for S2 and S3
S3. respectively.
S4. Though the validity of IQ as a measure of S1. Free play is much better in benefits and
scope than structured play during early Q11.For the four sentence (s1 to S4) paragraph
childhood given below, sentences S1 and S4 are given.
S2. From the options P, Q and R, choose the
S3. appropriate sentences for S2 and S3
S4. Which leaves no room for free-thinking, respectively.
imagination, make-believe games and overall S1. There is no denial of the fact that recycling
development of a child’s wild mind plastic is essential but believing that it will help
P. Both free-play and structured play can be to save the Earth will be a misconception.
combined in suitable proportions for the S2.
optimal development of a child’s mind S3.
Q. The former opens up a plethora of S4. The actual and grave problem is that single-
possibilities for widening the horizons of a use plastic is a gross abuse of advanced
child’s imagination technology and massive production of it should
R. Whereas, the latter confines a child’s mind be avoided at all costs options:
within certain rules of the game P. But our effort is absolutely insufficient and
distracts us from the real issue.
A. RP Q. The bigger role is played by the corporate
B. QP polluters in plastic problem
C. PQ R. We all make an effort to find a place to
D. QR recycle our waste plastic and feel overjoyed if
Answer: D we succeed in doing so
Q10. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4)
A. PQ
paragraph below, sentence S1 and S4 are given.
B. QR
From the options P,Q and R, choose the most
C. RP
appropriate sentences for S2 and S3
D. PR
respectively.
Answer: C
S1. With its sensational launch in 2008, IPL
added a new word to India’s vocabulary Q12.For the four sentence (s1 to S4) paragraph
:“Sportainment”. given below, sentences S1 and S4 are given.
S2. From the options P, Q and R, choose the
S3. appropriate sentences for S2 and S3
S4. In addition to the economic growth, it respectively.
generated employment both directly and S1. Dams that divert water out of rivers may
indirectly. have significant additional climate change
P. The IPL, however has proved to be a true impacts.
game-changer, with a distinct pre-and post IPL S2.
eras of sports marketing. S3.
Q. The success of IPL proved to be catalyst for S4. A proposal for a dam on the Cache Ia
the T20 boom across the sporting world of Poudre River in Colorado would dry up 1,700
cricket. acres of wetlands thus emitting about 7,000
R. But, for India it marked the beginning of a metric tons of CO2 equivalents.
different journey--- a journey towards Options:
becoming a sporting nation. P. This is because they tend to drain and dry up
downstream wetland that are “carbon sinks”
A. S2: P, S3:R holding vast amounts of greenhouse gases in
B. S2:Q, S3:P soils.
C. S2:R, S3:P Q. Besides, such draining and dry-up causes
D. S2:Q, S3:R carbon and methane to be released and emitted
Answer: A into the air.
R. When Colorado river, to site one example, R. Green tea gets its signature green colour
was diverted the dams dried up 2 million acres from chlorophyll, which is a powerful
of wetlands. detoxifier.
A. S1:P, S2:Q A. RP
B. S1:R, S2:Q B. PQ
C. S1:P, S2:R C. QP
D. S1:Q, S2:R D. RQ
Answer: D Answer: C
Q13. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) Q15. In the question given below, rearrange the
paragraph below, sentence S1 and S4 are given. parts of the sentence in the correct order, and
From the options P,Q and R, choose the most choose the correct option.
appropriate sentences for S2 and S3 attempts to cut spending (A)/ during her first
respectively. months in office (B)/ as a result of the
S1. Although we commonly say that fire ants administration's (C)/ she attracted public
bite, fire ants actually sting. attention (D)
S2. A - ADCB
S3. B - ABDC
S4. But the younger ones, whose stingers and C - DBAC
skeletons are not fully developed, play dead. D - DBCA
P. Adult fire ants are aggressive and attack in Solution - D
swarms. DBCA is the final order. D begins the sentence
Q. They sting humans who disturb their nest. by establishing the subject - SHE, and tells us
R. Their nest consists of a loose mound with that she attracted attention from the public. B
small cavities for ventilation. follows by telling us when - during the first few
months when she was in office. CA follows as a
A. RP pair, telling us the reason behind this - the
B. PR administration tried to cut spending. Thus, (d)
C. QP is the right answer.
D. PQ Q16. In the question given below, rearrange the
Answer: C parts of the sentence in the correct order, and
choose the correct option.
Q14.For the four sentence (s1 to S4) paragraph large sections of the fans began to (A)/
given below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. question the coach's ability and (B)/ as a result,
From the options P, Q and R, choose the crowds began to dwindle (C)/ and morale was
appropriate sentences for S2 and S3 beginning to suffer (D)
respectively. A - ACBD
S1. Matcha tea is a variant of the Japanese B - BCDA
green tea. C - BADC
S2. D - No rearrangement required
S3. Solution -D
S4. According to many sources, the main ABCD is the final order. A begins the sentence
antioxidant in green tea, EGCG, boosts by establishing the subject - large sections of
metaback. the fans. B follows by telling us that they began
P. One serving of Matcha tea has 10 times more to question the ability of the coach. CD follow as
antioxidants than one cup of brewer green tea. a pair, giving the effects of this - crowds began
Q. It is made from whole tea leaves and packed to reduce in number, and morale of the team
with antioxidants. was suffering. Thus, (d) is the right answer.
Q17. In the question given below, rearrange the gives the causes behind these deaths - famine
parts of the sentence in the correct order, and and forced labour. D concludes by telling us
choose the correct option. when this took place - during the Japanese
the Hindu cultural influence found (A)/ many occupation. Thus, (d) is the right answer.
of the surviving examples of (B)/ today
throughout Southeast Asia (C)/ are the result of Q19. In the question given below, rearrange the
the Chola expeditions fragments in the correct order, and choose the
(D) correct option.
A - BDAC P. Disability is an 'umbrella term for
B - BACD impairments, activity limitations and
C - BCAD participation restrictions.
D - ADBC Q. These limitations are caused by an
Solution -B interaction between the health conditions of an
BACD is the final order. BA begins the sentence individual and the contextual factors reflected
as a pair, by establishing the subject - the in the socialeconomic environment of the day.
surviving examples of Hindu cultural influence. R. The understanding about disability has
C follows by telling us where these examples moved away from a biological perspective to
have been found - throughout Southeast Asia. D questions of accessibility, inclusion and
concludes by telling us that they are the result empowerment.
of Chola expeditions. Thus, (b) is the right S. Civil Society activists and policymakers have
answer. started thinking about the issue of disability in
terms of a rights-based and inclusive paradigm.
Q18. In the question given below, rearrange the A - PQRS
parts of the sentence in the correct order, and B - PSQR
choose the correct option. C - PRQP
as a result of famine and forced labour (A)/ D - SQRP
people died in Indonesia (B)/ a UN report Solution -A
stated that four million (C)/ during the (a) is the correct answer. The correct sequence
Japanese occupation (D) is PQRS. P begins the sentence by introducing
A - DCAB the subject- DISABILITY. Q follows P as it talks
B - DBAC about the reasons for these limitations
C - CABD (mentioned in P) related to disability and how
D - CBAD they are caused. R follows Q by stating how the
Solution -D understanding of disability has changed over
CBAD is the final order. C begins the sentence the years. S concludes by further showing the
by establishing the subject - a UN report. B work of social activists and activists to
follows by telling us the statement made by this accommodate the change in understanding of
report - four million deaths in Indonesia. A disability.
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